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  • Question 1 - You are seeing a teenager for her 6-month follow up appointment following a...

    Correct

    • You are seeing a teenager for her 6-month follow up appointment following a normal vaginal delivery. She wishes to stop breastfeeding as her baby requires specialised formula feeds.

      Which medication can be prescribed to suppress lactation in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Cabergoline

      Explanation:

      When it is necessary to stop breastfeeding, Cabergoline is the preferred medication for suppressing lactation. This is because Cabergoline is a dopamine receptor agonist that can inhibit the production of prolactin, which in turn suppresses lactation. It should be noted that Norethisterone has no effect on lactation, Misoprostol is used to soften the cervix during labor induction, and Ursodeoxycholic acid is a bile acid chelating agent used to treat cholestasis in pregnancy.

      Techniques for Suppressing Lactation during Breastfeeding

      Breastfeeding is a natural process that provides essential nutrients to newborns. However, there may be situations where a mother needs to suppress lactation. This can be achieved by stopping the lactation reflex, which involves stopping suckling or expressing milk. Additionally, supportive measures such as wearing a well-supported bra and taking analgesia can help alleviate discomfort. In some cases, medication may be required, and cabergoline is the preferred choice. By following these techniques, lactation can be suppressed effectively and safely.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      58.7
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  • Question 2 - A 3-month-old boy is presented to surgery with vomiting and poor feeding. The...

    Correct

    • A 3-month-old boy is presented to surgery with vomiting and poor feeding. The mother reports a strong odor in his urine, indicating a possible urinary tract infection. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Refer immediately to hospital

      Explanation:

      Urinary tract infections (UTI) are more common in boys until 3 months of age, after which the incidence is substantially higher in girls. Presentation in childhood depends on age, with infants showing poor feeding, vomiting, and irritability, younger children showing abdominal pain, fever, and dysuria, and older children showing dysuria, frequency, and haematuria. NICE guidelines recommend checking urine samples in children with symptoms or signs suggestive of a UTI, unexplained fever of 38°C or higher, or an alternative site of infection but who remain unwell. Urine collection should be done through clean catch or urine collection pads, and invasive methods should only be used if non-invasive methods are not possible. Management includes referral to a paediatrician for infants less than 3 months old, admission to hospital for children aged more than 3 months old with an upper UTI, and oral antibiotics for 3-10 days for children aged more than 3 months old with a lower UTI. Antibiotic prophylaxis is not given after the first UTI but should be considered with recurrent UTIs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      66.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Sophie is a 15-year-old who has visited her GP seeking advice on contraception....

    Correct

    • Sophie is a 15-year-old who has visited her GP seeking advice on contraception. She discloses that she has been sexually active with a 15-year-old male partner for the past 3 months. Sophie has done her research on various contraceptive methods and expresses her interest in trying the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP). She has a history of depression due to childhood abuse and is currently receiving treatment from the Child and Adolescent Mental Health Services. However, she reports feeling much better since starting her relationship with her partner. Sophie's parents are unaware of the situation, and she is unwilling to inform them. What is the appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Prescribe the COCP, providing there are no contraindications

      Explanation:

      The Fraser guidelines state that if a child meets the criteria, they can be prescribed the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) without parental knowledge or consent. It is important to maintain confidentiality and not breach it by discussing with the child’s parents. The child’s age or lack of consent for sexual intercourse should not affect their entitlement to contraception. While a full STI screen and pregnancy test are important aspects of holistic care, they are not necessary to prescribe the COCP. The GMC’s guidance on contraception, abortion, and STIs for those aged 0-18 also allows for providing such advice and treatment to young people under 16 without parental knowledge or consent if certain criteria are met.

      Guidelines for Obtaining Consent in Children

      The General Medical Council has provided guidelines for obtaining consent in children. According to these guidelines, young people who are 16 years or older can be treated as adults and are presumed to have the capacity to make decisions. However, for children under the age of 16, their ability to understand what is involved determines whether they have the capacity to decide. If a competent child refuses treatment, a person with parental responsibility or the court may authorize investigation or treatment that is in the child’s best interests.

      When it comes to providing contraceptives to patients under 16 years of age, the Fraser Guidelines must be followed. These guidelines state that the young person must understand the professional’s advice, cannot be persuaded to inform their parents, is likely to begin or continue having sexual intercourse with or without contraceptive treatment, and will suffer physical or mental health consequences without contraceptive treatment. Additionally, the young person’s best interests require them to receive contraceptive advice or treatment with or without parental consent.

      Some doctors use the term Fraser competency when referring to contraception and Gillick competency when referring to general issues of consent in children. However, rumors that Victoria Gillick removed her permission to use her name or applied copyright have been debunked. It is important to note that in Scotland, those with parental responsibility cannot authorize procedures that a competent child has refused.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      38.1
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  • Question 4 - Which of the following does not result in feeding challenges during the neonatal...

    Correct

    • Which of the following does not result in feeding challenges during the neonatal phase?

      Your Answer: Physiological jaundice

      Explanation:

      Feeding Difficulty and Physiological Jaundice

      Feeding difficulty is a common problem among infants, but it is not associated with physiological jaundice. Physiological jaundice is a benign condition that is short-lived and does not generally cause any symptoms. This means that it is not related to feeding difficulties that infants may experience.

      It is important for parents to be aware of the signs of feeding difficulty in their infants, such as difficulty latching, poor weight gain, and excessive crying during feeding. These symptoms may indicate an underlying medical condition that requires prompt attention. On the other hand, physiological jaundice is a normal occurrence in many newborns and typically resolves on its own without any treatment.

      In summary, while feeding difficulty is a common problem among infants, it is not associated with physiological jaundice. Parents should be aware of the signs of feeding difficulty and seek medical attention if necessary, but they can rest assured that physiological jaundice is a benign condition that does not generally cause any symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      44.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Each of the following is a potential side effect of amiodarone therapy, except...

    Incorrect

    • Each of the following is a potential side effect of amiodarone therapy, except for which one of the following in elderly patients:

      Your Answer: Hyperthyroidism

      Correct Answer: Hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      Amiodarone is a medication that can have several adverse effects on the body. One of the most common side effects is thyroid dysfunction, which can manifest as either hypothyroidism or hyperthyroidism. Additionally, the use of amiodarone can lead to the formation of corneal deposits, pulmonary fibrosis or pneumonitis, liver fibrosis or hepatitis, peripheral neuropathy, myopathy, photosensitivity, and a ‘slate-grey’ appearance. Other potential adverse effects include thrombophlebitis and injection site reactions, bradycardia, and lengthening of the QT interval.

      It is important to note that amiodarone can also interact with other medications, leading to potentially dangerous outcomes. For example, the medication can decrease the metabolism of warfarin, which can result in an increased INR. Additionally, amiodarone can increase digoxin levels, which can lead to toxicity. Therefore, it is crucial for healthcare providers to carefully monitor patients who are taking amiodarone and to be aware of potential drug interactions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      68.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 40-year-old woman visits her primary care physician with complaints of occasional double...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman visits her primary care physician with complaints of occasional double vision that occurs during the day. She reports that her vision returns to normal after taking a break. The symptoms have been worsening over the past six months, and she has already consulted an optometrist who could not identify a cause. There have been no indications of muscle or peripheral nerve issues. What medication is typically attempted as a first-line treatment for the suspected diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Mycophenolate

      Correct Answer: Pyridostigmine

      Explanation:

      Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder that results in insufficient functioning acetylcholine receptors. It is more common in women and is characterized by muscle fatigability, extraocular muscle weakness, proximal muscle weakness, ptosis, and dysphagia. Thymomas are present in 15% of cases, and autoimmune disorders are also associated with the disease. Diagnosis is made through single fibre electromyography and CT thorax to exclude thymoma. Management includes long-acting acetylcholinesterase inhibitors, immunosuppression, and thymectomy. Plasmapheresis and intravenous immunoglobulins are used to manage myasthenic crisis. Antibodies to acetylcholine receptors are seen in 85-90% of cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      148.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - As a junior doctor in the neonatal unit, you receive a call from...

    Correct

    • As a junior doctor in the neonatal unit, you receive a call from a nurse regarding a delivery where the baby's head has been delivered, but the shoulders are not descending with normal downward traction. What is your initial step in managing this situation?

      Your Answer: Ask the mother to hyperflex their legs and apply suprapubic pressure

      Explanation:

      In cases where the previous method is unsuccessful, an episiotomy may be necessary to facilitate internal maneuvers. Various alternatives may be considered, such as…

      Shoulder dystocia is a complication that can occur during vaginal delivery when the body of the fetus cannot be delivered after the head has already been delivered. This is usually due to the anterior shoulder of the fetus becoming stuck on the mother’s pubic bone. Shoulder dystocia can cause harm to both the mother and the fetus. Risk factors for shoulder dystocia include fetal macrosomia, high maternal body mass index, diabetes mellitus, and prolonged labor.

      If shoulder dystocia is identified, it is important to call for senior help immediately. The McRoberts’ maneuver is often performed, which involves flexing and abducting the mother’s hips to increase the angle of the pelvis and facilitate delivery. An episiotomy may be performed to provide better access for internal maneuvers, but it will not relieve the bony obstruction. Symphysiotomy and the Zavanelli maneuver are not recommended as they can cause significant maternal morbidity. Oxytocin administration is not indicated for shoulder dystocia.

      Complications of shoulder dystocia can include postpartum hemorrhage and perineal tears for the mother, and brachial plexus injury and neonatal death for the fetus. It is important to manage shoulder dystocia promptly and appropriately to minimize the risk of these complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      147
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 55-year-old man is recovering from a coronary artery bypass surgery and is...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man is recovering from a coronary artery bypass surgery and is about to come off the cardiac bypass circuit. What medication should be given to restore the patient's clotting function before closing the chest and removing the cannula?

      Your Answer: Intravenous vitamin K

      Correct Answer: Protamine sulphate

      Explanation:

      Protamine sulphate can reverse an overdose of heparin.

      To prevent blood clots during cardiac bypass procedures, high amounts of heparin are given intravenously. However, if too much heparin is given, it can be reversed with protamine sulphate. Although fresh frozen plasma (FFP) may also work, it poses a risk of fluid overload.

      Understanding Heparin and its Adverse Effects

      Heparin is a type of anticoagulant that comes in two forms: unfractionated or standard heparin, and low molecular weight heparin (LMWH). Both types work by activating antithrombin III, but unfractionated heparin inhibits thrombin, factors Xa, IXa, XIa, and XIIa, while LMWH only increases the action of antithrombin III on factor Xa. However, heparin can cause adverse effects such as bleeding, thrombocytopenia, osteoporosis, and hyperkalemia.

      Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) is a condition where antibodies form against complexes of platelet factor 4 (PF4) and heparin, leading to platelet activation and a prothrombotic state. HIT usually develops after 5-10 days of treatment and is characterized by a greater than 50% reduction in platelets, thrombosis, and skin allergy. To address the need for ongoing anticoagulation, direct thrombin inhibitors like argatroban and danaparoid can be used.

      Standard heparin is administered intravenously and has a short duration of action, while LMWH is administered subcutaneously and has a longer duration of action. Standard heparin is useful in situations where there is a high risk of bleeding as anticoagulation can be terminated rapidly, while LMWH is now standard in the management of venous thromboembolism treatment and prophylaxis and acute coronary syndromes. Monitoring for standard heparin is done through activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT), while LMWH does not require routine monitoring. Heparin overdose may be reversed by protamine sulfate, although this only partially reverses the effect of LMWH.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      123.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 54-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of a severe headache...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of a severe headache that is concentrated on the right side, retro-orbitally. He reports a decrease in visual acuity in his right eye and says that it has been excessively tearing. Upon examination of the right eye, the conjunctiva appears red and the cornea looks hazy. The left pupil reacts normally to light, but the right pupil is non-reactive.
      What is the probable diagnosis, and what is the initial management plan?

      Your Answer: 15 L/min oxygen through non-rebreathe mask

      Correct Answer: Direct parasympathomimetic and beta-blocker eye drops

      Explanation:

      The initial emergency medical management for acute angle-closure glaucoma often involves a combination of eye drops. The symptoms presented in this scenario, including a painful, non-reactive, and red left eye, along with corneal edema and loss of pupillary reaction to light, suggest that acute angle-closure glaucoma is the most likely diagnosis. This condition occurs when the iridocorneal angle, which is responsible for draining aqueous humor, becomes narrowed, leading to an increase in intraocular pressure. This pressure can cause optic neuropathy and vision loss.

      To manage acute angle-closure glaucoma, a combination of eye drops is used. Pilocarpine, a direct parasympathomimetic eyedrop, causes pupillary constriction, widening the iridocorneal angle and allowing for drainage of aqueous humor. Timolol, a beta-blocker eye drop, reduces the production of aqueous humor. Together, these two actions work to reduce intraocular pressure. It is not recommended to use beta-blocker eye drops alone, and an additional drug with a different mechanism of action is beneficial in managing acute glaucoma.

      Using beta-agonist medications would increase the production of aqueous humor, exacerbating acute glaucoma. A sympathomimetic agent would cause pupillary dilation, further narrowing the iridocorneal angle and worsening the condition. High flow oxygen is used to manage cluster headaches, but the lack of pupillary reactivity, corneal edema, and visual loss in this scenario suggest that acute angle-closure glaucoma is the primary diagnosis.

      Glaucoma is a group of disorders that cause optic neuropathy due to increased intraocular pressure (IOP). However, not all patients with raised IOP have glaucoma, and vice versa. Acute angle-closure glaucoma (AACG) is a type of glaucoma where there is a rise in IOP due to impaired aqueous outflow. Factors that increase the risk of AACG include hypermetropia, pupillary dilation, and lens growth associated with age. Symptoms of AACG include severe pain, decreased visual acuity, halos around lights, and a hard, red-eye. Management of AACG is an emergency and requires urgent referral to an ophthalmologist. Emergency medical treatment is necessary to lower the IOP, followed by definitive surgical treatment once the acute attack has subsided.

      There are no specific guidelines for the initial medical treatment of AACG, but a combination of eye drops may be used, including a direct parasympathomimetic, a beta-blocker, and an alpha-2 agonist. Intravenous acetazolamide may also be administered to reduce aqueous secretions. Definitive management of AACG involves laser peripheral iridotomy, which creates a small hole in the peripheral iris to allow aqueous humour to flow to the angle. It is important to seek medical attention immediately if symptoms of AACG are present to prevent permanent vision loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      8828.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 60-year-old woman has undergone routine blood tests during her annual check-up with...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman has undergone routine blood tests during her annual check-up with her primary care physician. She has been feeling quite tired lately and has noticed some tremors in her hands, but has attributed these changes to getting older. Her medical history includes chronic indigestion, osteoarthritis in her knees, and high blood pressure. She takes omeprazole, cimetidine, ibuprofen, paracetamol, codeine phosphate, and amlodipine on a regular basis. The following are the results of her blood tests:

      Hb 150 g/L Male: (135-180) Female: (115 - 160)
      Platelets 180 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      WBC 7.0 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
      Na+ 140 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 3.4 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Urea 6.6 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 110 µmol/L (55 - 120)
      CRP 1 mg/L (< 5)
      Bilirubin 15 µmol/L (3 - 17)
      ALP 60 u/L (30 - 100)
      ALT 21 u/L (3 - 40)
      γGT 25 u/L (8 - 60)
      Albumin 44 g/L (35 - 50)
      Calcium 2.0 mmol/L (2.1-2.6)
      Phosphate 0.9 mmol/L (0.8-1.4)
      Magnesium 0.5 mmol/L (0.7-1.0)
      Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) 5.1 mU/L (0.5-5.5)
      Free thyroxine (T4) 15 pmol/L (9.0 - 18)
      Amylase 100 U/L (70 - 300)
      Uric acid 0.30 mmol/L (0.18 - 0.48)
      Creatine kinase 120 U/L (35 - 250)

      Which medication is most likely responsible for these blood test results?

      Your Answer: Amlodipine

      Correct Answer: Omeprazole

      Explanation:

      Hypomagnesaemia is frequently caused by proton pump inhibitors.

      Understanding Hypomagnesaemia: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Hypomagnesaemia is a condition characterized by low levels of magnesium in the blood. There are several causes of this condition, including the use of certain drugs such as diuretics and proton pump inhibitors, total parenteral nutrition, and chronic or acute diarrhoea. Alcohol consumption, hypokalaemia, hypercalcaemia, and metabolic disorders like Gitelman’s and Bartter’s can also lead to hypomagnesaemia. The symptoms of this condition may be similar to those of hypocalcaemia, including paraesthesia, tetany, seizures, and arrhythmias.

      When the magnesium level drops below 0.4 mmol/L or when there are symptoms of tetany, arrhythmias, or seizures, intravenous magnesium replacement is commonly given. An example regime would be 40 mmol of magnesium sulphate over 24 hours. For magnesium levels above 0.4 mmol/L, oral magnesium salts are prescribed in divided doses of 10-20 mmol per day. However, diarrhoea can occur with oral magnesium salts. It is important to note that hypomagnesaemia can exacerbate digoxin toxicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      109
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gynaecology (1/1) 100%
Paediatrics (3/3) 100%
Pharmacology (0/3) 0%
Medicine (0/1) 0%
Obstetrics (1/1) 100%
Ophthalmology (0/1) 0%
Passmed