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  • Question 1 - A 60-year-old man with a 6-month history of fatigue and low back pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man with a 6-month history of fatigue and low back pain has an episode of severe loin pain. Physical examination is unremarkable except for pallor. An X-ray of the lower abdomen shows a ureteric calculus, and lytic lesions and osteoporosis in the lumbar vertebrae. Blood urea, serum creatinine, serum calcium and uric acid levels are raised.
      Select the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer: Chronic myeloid leukaemia

      Correct Answer: Myeloma

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Features of Myeloma, Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia, Hyperparathyroidism, Acute Pyelonephritis, and Chronic Renal Failure

      Myeloma is a type of plasma cell neoplasm that causes diffuse bone marrow infiltration and localized osteolytic deposits. Patients with myeloma often experience anemia, hypercalcemia, and elevated levels of urea, uric acid, and creatinine. Back pain is a common symptom, and long-term hypercalcemia can lead to the formation of calculi.

      Chronic myeloid leukemia is characterized by massive splenomegaly, but patients typically have normal levels of urea and creatinine. However, uric acid levels may be elevated.

      Hyperparathyroidism is associated with increased bone turnover and elevated serum calcium levels. Subperiosteal resorption, especially on hand X-rays, is a common finding. However, lytic lesions are not typically seen.

      Acute pyelonephritis is not suggested by the patient’s history or physical exam findings.

      Hypocalcemia is a hallmark of chronic renal failure, but urolithiasis is unlikely in this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 2 - A 58-year-old male presents with left-sided pain. He reports the pain as radiating...

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    • A 58-year-old male presents with left-sided pain. He reports the pain as radiating from his left flank down to his groin. The pain is severe, comes in waves and the patient looks visibly restless. He has not taken any analgesia.
      He has a past medical history of hypertension and stage 4 chronic kidney disease.
      Given the likely diagnosis, what is the most appropriate initial analgesia to prescribe in this case?

      Your Answer: IV paracetamol

      Explanation:

      Choosing the Appropriate Analgesia for a Patient with Renal/Ureteric Colic

      When treating a patient with renal or ureteric colic, it is important to consider their medical history and current condition before prescribing analgesia. In this case, the patient has severe kidney disease, which rules out the use of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) as they can cause further harm to the kidneys.

      The most appropriate initial analgesia for this patient is IV paracetamol. While opioids such as IV morphine can be considered, they should be reserved as a third-line option. Oral codeine may also be used, but only after NSAIDs and IV paracetamol have been ruled out.

      It is important to note that NSAIDs such as oral naproxen and per rectal diclofenac are typically the first-line analgesics for renal/ureteric colic. However, they are contraindicated in this patient due to their severe kidney disease.

      In summary, when choosing the appropriate analgesia for a patient with renal/ureteric colic, it is crucial to consider their medical history and current condition. In this case, IV paracetamol is the most appropriate initial option due to the patient’s severe kidney disease.

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      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 3 - A 28-year-old man presents with macroscopic haematuria and is found to have a...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old man presents with macroscopic haematuria and is found to have a serum creatinine level of 160 µmol/l (60-120 µmol/l).
      Select from the list the single feature that would be most suggestive of a diagnosis of nephritic syndrome rather than nephrotic syndrome.

      Your Answer: Oliguria

      Explanation:

      Understanding Nephrotic and Nephritic Syndrome: Symptoms and Causes

      Nephrotic syndrome is characterized by proteinuria, hypoalbuminaemia, oedema, and hyperlipidaemia, while nephritic syndrome is defined by acute kidney injury, hypertension, oliguria, and urinary sediment. Both syndromes can be caused by various renal diseases and are a constellation of several symptoms.

      In nephritic syndrome, increased cellularity within the glomeruli and a leucocytic infiltrate cause an inflammatory reaction that injures capillary walls, leading to red cells in urine and decreased glomerular filtration rate. Hypertension is likely due to fluid retention and increased renin release. Examples of conditions causing nephritic syndrome include diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis, IgA nephropathy, and lupus nephritis.

      Acute nephritic syndrome is the most serious and requires immediate referral to secondary care, while patients with nephrotic syndrome will also be referred but usually do not require acute admission.

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      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 4 - A 58-year-old woman presents with painless haematuria. She is a heavy smoker and...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old woman presents with painless haematuria. She is a heavy smoker and has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. She previously lived in Australia and has used substantial amounts of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs for arthritis and also phenacetin some years ago. Renal function testing is normal. She has a raised plasma viscosity and is anaemic with a haemoglobin of 100 g/l (115-155).
      Select the most likely diagnosis to fit with this clinical picture.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Transitional-cell carcinoma of the bladder

      Explanation:

      Bladder Cancer: Risk Factors, Presentation, and Survival Rates

      Bladder cancer is a relatively uncommon malignancy, accounting for around 3% of cancer deaths. It is more prevalent in males, with a male to female ratio of 4:1, and is rare in individuals under 40 years of age. The most common type of bladder cancer is transitional-cell carcinoma.

      Several risk factors have been identified, including smoking, exposure to certain chemicals found in industrial settings, and the use of certain medications such as phenacetin and cyclophosphamide. Chronic inflammation caused by conditions such as schistosomiasis, indwelling catheters, or stones is associated with squamous-cell carcinoma of the bladder.

      The most common presentation of bladder cancer is painless hematuria (blood in the urine), although pain may occur due to clot retention. Women are more likely to have muscle-invasive disease at presentation.

      The 5-year survival rate for bladder cancer varies depending on the stage of the disease at diagnosis. Patients with small, early superficial tumors have a survival rate of 80-90%, while those with metastases at presentation have a survival rate of only 5%.

      In conclusion, bladder cancer is a serious condition that can be caused by a variety of factors. Early detection and treatment are crucial for improving survival rates.

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      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 5 - A 72-year-old man has advanced chronic kidney disease.
    Select from the list of serum...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man has advanced chronic kidney disease.
      Select from the list of serum biochemical investigations the single one that is typical for a patient with this condition.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Low bicarbonate

      Explanation:

      Renal Failure and its Effects on Electrolyte Balance

      Renal failure can lead to metabolic acidosis due to decreased excretion of H+ ions and reduced synthesis of urinary buffers such as phosphate and ammonia. This results in a marked decrease in urinary phosphate levels and a rise in extracellular potassium levels due to intracellular displacement. Calcium homeostasis is also affected as the kidney’s role in activating vitamin D and increasing calcium reabsorption from the kidneys is inhibited by phosphate retention. Sodium levels may be normal or decreased due to water retention outweighing the decreased excretion. Overall, renal failure has significant effects on electrolyte balance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 6 - A 25-year-old man presents with an acutely painful left testicle. The overlying skin...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man presents with an acutely painful left testicle. The overlying skin is red and he seems to be tender posteriorly. He has a temperature of 38.3°C and feels like he has the flu. The testicle and scrotum are of normal size. During the examination, he reports that the testicle feels better when lifted.
      Select the most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute epididymo-orchitis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Acute Epididymo-orchitis: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Differential Diagnosis

      Acute epididymo-orchitis is a condition characterized by pain, swelling, and inflammation of the epididymis, with or without inflammation of the testes. This condition is commonly caused by infections that spread from the urethra or bladder. While orchitis, which is an infection limited to the testis, is less common, epididymitis usually presents with unilateral scrotal pain and swelling of relatively acute onset.

      Aside from the symptoms of urethritis or a urinary infection, tenderness and swelling of the epididymis may start at the tail at the lower pole of the testis and spread towards the head at the upper pole of the testis, with or without involvement of the testis. There may also be a secondary hydrocele, erythema, and/or edema of the scrotum on the affected side, as well as pyrexia.

      To diagnose epididymo-orchitis, Prehn’s sign is often used, which is indicative of epididymitis. Scrotal elevation relieves pain in epididymitis but not torsion. However, if there is any doubt, urgent referral is indicated, as torsion is the most important differential diagnosis. Torsion is more likely if the onset of pain is more acute and the pain is severe.

      It is important to note that a painful swollen testicle in an adolescent boy or a young man should be regarded as torsion until proven otherwise. In this case, the testis is said to be normal in size. Testicular cancer, on the other hand, is usually painless, and there is usually swelling of the testis. Hydrocele causes scrotal swelling.

      In summary, understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and differential diagnosis of acute epididymo-orchitis is crucial in providing appropriate and timely medical care.

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      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 7 - A 65-year-old man presents with haematuria. Investigations confirm the presence of a bladder...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents with haematuria. Investigations confirm the presence of a bladder carcinoma.
      In his occupational history, select the single substance exposure which would be a significant risk factor for his current diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aromatic amines

      Explanation:

      Occupational and Environmental Carcinogens: A Brief Overview

      Exposure to certain chemicals and substances in the workplace and environment can increase the risk of developing cancer. Bladder carcinoma, for example, is linked to exposure to aromatic amines found in various industries such as dyes, paints, and textiles. Smoking is also a major contributor to bladder cancer. Asbestos, commonly found in construction materials, increases the risk of lung cancer and mesothelioma. Vinyl chloride, used in plastic production and tobacco smoke, is associated with liver cancer, brain cancer, lung cancer, lymphoma, and leukemia. Arsenic exposure predisposes individuals to skin cancer, while nickel exposure increases the risk of squamous-cell carcinomas in the lung and nasal cavity. It is important for individuals to be aware of potential carcinogens in their workplace and environment to take necessary precautions and reduce their risk of developing cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 8 - A 70-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and peripheral...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and peripheral artery disease is prescribed ramipril for newly diagnosed stage 2 hypertension. After 10 days, his repeat U&Es show a decline in renal function. What is the probable cause of this deterioration?

      Before starting ramipril, his U&Es were within normal limits, with a sodium level of 141 mmol/L (135 - 145), potassium level of 4.6 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0), bicarbonate level of 24 mmol/L (22 - 29), urea level of 3.2 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0), and creatinine level of 78 µmol/L (55 - 120). However, ten days later, his U&Es showed an increase in urea level to 8.8 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0) and creatinine level to 128 µmol/L (55 - 120), while his sodium and potassium levels remained stable and his bicarbonate level increased to 26 mmol/L (22 - 29).

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bilateral renal artery stenosis

      Explanation:

      If a patient with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis starts taking an ACE inhibitor, they may experience significant renal impairment. Therefore, it is important to consider the possibility of bilateral renal artery stenosis in patients with risk factors for atherosclerotic vascular disease, especially if they develop hypertension later in life and experience a sudden drop in renal function after starting an ACE inhibitor. This acute decline in renal function is not consistent with chronic kidney conditions like diabetic or hypertensive nephropathy. Glomerulonephritis or pre-renal acute kidney injury from dehydration are unlikely based on the information provided.

      Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. ACE inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and prevent ischaemic heart disease. These drugs work by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II and are metabolized in the liver.

      While ACE inhibitors are generally well-tolerated, they can cause side effects such as cough, angioedema, hyperkalaemia, and first-dose hypotension. Patients with certain conditions, such as renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema, should use ACE inhibitors with caution or avoid them altogether. Pregnant and breastfeeding women should also avoid these drugs.

      Patients taking high-dose diuretics may be at increased risk of hypotension when using ACE inhibitors. Therefore, it is important to monitor urea and electrolyte levels before and after starting treatment, as well as any changes in creatinine and potassium levels. Acceptable changes include a 30% increase in serum creatinine from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment when using ACE inhibitors.

      The current NICE guidelines recommend using a flow chart to manage hypertension, with ACE inhibitors as the first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old. However, individual patient factors and comorbidities should be taken into account when deciding on the best treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 9 - Linda is an 80-year-old woman who has been experiencing urinary incontinence for the...

    Incorrect

    • Linda is an 80-year-old woman who has been experiencing urinary incontinence for the past 2 years with no relief. Her symptoms occur when she laughs or coughs, but she has not had any episodes of nocturia. She has tried pelvic floor exercises and reducing caffeine intake, but these have not improved her symptoms. Her urinalysis shows no signs of infection, and a pelvic examination doesn't reveal any uterine prolapse. Linda declines surgical intervention. What is the next most appropriate intervention for her incontinence?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Duloxetine

      Explanation:

      If a patient with stress incontinence doesn’t respond to pelvic floor muscle exercises and declines surgical intervention, duloxetine may be considered as a treatment option. However, it is important to first rule out other potential causes of urinary incontinence, such as infection. Non-pharmacological management, such as pelvic floor exercises and reducing caffeine intake, should be attempted before medical management. Duloxetine, a serotonin/norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor, is commonly used for stress incontinence but may cause side effects such as nausea, dizziness, and insomnia. For urge incontinence, antimuscarinic agents like oxybutynin, tolterodine, and solifenacin are typically used as first-line treatment. If these are ineffective, a β3 agonist called mirabegron can be used as a second-line therapy.

      Urinary incontinence is a common condition that affects approximately 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. There are several risk factors that can contribute to the development of urinary incontinence, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. The condition can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.

      Initial investigation of urinary incontinence involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, performing a vaginal examination to exclude pelvic organ prolapse, and conducting urine dipstick and culture tests. Urodynamic studies may also be necessary. Management of urinary incontinence depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures may be necessary. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be offered to women who decline surgical procedures.

      In summary, urinary incontinence is a common condition that can be caused by various risk factors. It can be classified into different types, and management depends on the predominant type of incontinence. Initial investigation involves completing bladder diaries, performing a vaginal examination, and conducting urine tests. Treatment options include bladder retraining, bladder stabilizing drugs, pelvic floor muscle training, surgical procedures, and duloxetine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 10 - A 55-year-old man is found to have an eGFR of 65 ml/min/1.73 m2...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man is found to have an eGFR of 65 ml/min/1.73 m2 on routine testing. This is the first time this test has been done.
      Select from the list the single correct statement about his management.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: His eGFR should be repeated in 2 weeks

      Explanation:

      This man is likely to have stage 3 chronic kidney disease (CKD). If an initial abnormal eGFR result is detected, it is important to conduct clinical assessment and repeat the test within 2 weeks to evaluate the rate of change in GFR. If CKD is confirmed, at least three eGFR assessments should be made over a period of not less than 90 days to monitor the rate of change in GFR. The frequency of eGFR monitoring will depend on the severity of kidney impairment. Significant progression of CKD is defined as a decline in eGFR of > 5 ml/min/1.73 m² within 1 year or >10 ml/min/1.73 m² within 5 years.

      Proteinuria should be assessed by measuring the protein:creatinine or albumin:creatinine ratio, ideally on an early-morning urine specimen. Proteinuria (ACR ≥30 mg/mmol) together with haematuria may indicate glomerulonephritis and is an indication for referral. However, dipstick testing for haematuria is a screening tool that requires microscopy to make a definitive diagnosis. Haematuria is defined as >3 RBC/high power field of centrifuged sediment under the microscope. If there is only a trace, a sample needs to be sent to confirm haematuria. Patients with CKD should have their proteinuria level assessed at least annually.

      To manage CKD, systolic blood pressure should be lowered to <140 mm Hg (target range 120-139 mmHg) and diastolic blood pressure to <90 mm Hg. Atorvastatin 20 mg should be offered for the primary or secondary prevention of CVD to people with CKD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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Kidney And Urology (2/3) 67%
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