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Question 1
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman presents to the surgical assessment unit with a complaint of severe, slow onset pain in her left iliac fossa. Upon examination, left iliac fossa pain is confirmed, and she denies being sexually active. However, there is some clinical evidence of peritonitis. What investigation should be requested next?
Your Answer: Pregnancy test
Explanation:A pregnancy test is compulsory in all instances of acute abdomen in females who are of childbearing age.
Exam Features of Abdominal Pain Conditions
Abdominal pain can be caused by various conditions, and it is important to be familiar with their characteristic exam features. Peptic ulcer disease, for instance, may present with epigastric pain that is relieved by eating in duodenal ulcers and worsened by eating in gastric ulcers. Appendicitis, on the other hand, may initially cause pain in the central abdomen before localizing to the right iliac fossa, accompanied by anorexia, tenderness in the right iliac fossa, and a positive Rovsing’s sign. Acute pancreatitis, which is often due to alcohol or gallstones, may manifest as severe epigastric pain and vomiting, with tenderness, ileus, and low-grade fever on examination.
Other conditions that may cause abdominal pain include biliary colic, diverticulitis, and intestinal obstruction. Biliary colic may cause pain in the right upper quadrant that radiates to the back and interscapular region, while diverticulitis may present with colicky pain in the left lower quadrant, fever, and raised inflammatory markers. Intestinal obstruction, which may be caused by malignancy or previous operations, may lead to vomiting, absence of bowel movements, and tinkling bowel sounds.
It is also important to remember that some conditions may have unusual or medical causes of abdominal pain, such as acute coronary syndrome, diabetic ketoacidosis, pneumonia, acute intermittent porphyria, and lead poisoning. Therefore, being familiar with the characteristic exam features of various conditions can aid in the diagnosis and management of abdominal pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A patient presents with diarrhoea and vomiting; she is jaundiced. Hepatitis A infection is diagnosed.
Which one of the following modes of transmission is most likely?Your Answer: Sexually
Correct Answer: Contaminated food
Explanation:Modes of Transmission for Hepatitis A Virus
Hepatitis A virus is a self-limiting RNA virus that causes hepatitis. It is primarily acquired orally through contaminated food or water, or through contact with the feces of an infected individual. The incubation period is between two and six weeks, and symptoms may include flu-like and gastrointestinal symptoms during the prodromal phase, and jaundice, pruritus, fatigue, and hepatomegaly during the icteric phase. Unlike hepatitis B, C, D, and E, hepatitis A does not cause chronic infection and usually confers lifelong immunity.
Mosquitoes and ticks do not transmit hepatitis A, but different mosquito species act as vectors for diseases such as malaria, dengue, chikungunya, and yellow fever, while hard and soft ticks transmit rickettsial infections like Rocky Mountain spotted fever. Hepatitis B, C, and D can be transmitted sexually, and hepatitis B, C, D, and E can be transmitted through blood transfusion. In rare cases, hepatitis A may also be transmitted sexually.
Understanding the Modes of Transmission for Hepatitis A Virus
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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An older man comes in with a severe headache, nausea, vomiting and a painful, red right eye. He has reduced visual acuity in the right eye and normal visual acuity in the left eye. During the examination, he had a stony hard eye with marked pericorneal reddening and a hazy corneal reflex. Tonometry revealed a raised intraocular pressure. The patient reports that he has recently been prescribed a new medication by his general practitioner.
What medication could be responsible for this sudden onset of symptoms?Your Answer: Topical pilocarpine
Correct Answer: Ipratropium nebuliser
Explanation:Understanding Acute Closed Angle Glaucoma and its Treatment Options
Acute closed angle glaucoma is a serious eye condition that can cause sudden vision loss, severe eye pain, and nausea. It occurs when the angle between the iris and cornea is reduced, leading to a blockage of the aqueous humour flow and increased intraocular pressure. Risk factors include female sex, Asian ethnicity, and hypermetropia.
Certain drugs, such as nebulised ipratropium and tricyclic antidepressants, can induce angle closure due to their antimuscarinic effects. Other antimuscarinic drug side-effects include dry eyes, xerostomia, bronchodilation, decreased gut motility, urinary outflow obstruction, and hallucinations.
Acetazolamide is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor that is given intravenously to treat acute closed angle glaucoma. It helps to reduce intraocular pressure and prevent damage to the optic nerve. Bisoprolol is a β-blocker that does not precipitate an episode of acute closed angle glaucoma, while montelukast is used in the long-term management of asthma and does not increase the risk of acute closed angle glaucoma.
Topical pilocarpine is a miotic that is used to treat acute angle closure glaucoma by constricting the pupil and promoting aqueous humour flow. It is important to understand the causes and treatment options for acute closed angle glaucoma to prevent vision loss and other serious complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 60-year-old man visits his GP with metastatic lung cancer. He reports taking 1 g of paracetamol four times daily and codeine 60 mg four times daily, but is still experiencing pain. What is the best course of action for managing his pain?
Your Answer: Stop codeine and start morphine sulphate modified release 15 mg twice daily with view to titrate dose
Explanation:Choosing the Right Opioid for Inadequate Pain Control
Explanation:
When a patient has inadequate pain control on a weak opiate and non-opiate combination, it’s important to consider switching to a strong opiate. However, choosing the right opioid requires careful consideration of the patient’s needs and potential risks.
One option is to stop codeine and start morphine sulphate modified release at a low dose, with the intention of titrating the dose slowly to reduce the risk of overdose. Short-acting morphine can be used for breakthrough pain, and the dose of the modified release morphine can be adjusted as needed.
On the other hand, switching to co-codamol or dihydrocodeine may not provide sufficient pain relief for this patient. Co-codamol at the same dose as the current codeine regimen would not improve pain control, while dihydrocodeine may require higher doses than morphine.
Finally, tramadol is a weak opioid and may not be effective for this patient’s level of pain. Instead, starting with a low dose of morphine and titrating slowly may be the best option for achieving adequate pain control while minimizing the risk of adverse effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Palliative Care
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Question 5
Correct
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A 6-year-old boy arrives at the Emergency Department with a high fever, difficulty breathing, severe sore throat, and drooling of saliva. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer: Call the ear, nose and throat (ENT) surgeon/senior anaesthetist to secure her airway
Explanation:Managing Acute Epiglottitis: Prioritizing Airway Security
Acute epiglottitis is a medical emergency that requires immediate attention to secure the patient’s airway. While medical therapies and investigations are important, the priority should be given to securing the airway via endo-/nasotracheal intubation or tracheostomy guided by a senior anaesthetist and ENT surgeon. Oral instrumentation is contraindicated until the airway has been secured. Lateral neck X-ray may be useful in diagnosing less acute presentations, but in this case, the child requires intravenous broad-spectrum antibiotics and admission to an Intensive Therapy Unit/High-dependency Unit bed in the hospital. Intubating a child with acute epiglottitis can be challenging and should only be undertaken by an experienced anaesthetist.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 6
Correct
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A 50-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a 3-week history of tiredness, epigastric discomfort and an episode of passing black stools. His past medical history includes a 4-year history of rheumatoid arthritis for which he takes regular methotrexate, folic acid and naproxen. He recently received a course of oral corticosteroids for a flare of his rheumatoid arthritis. He denies alcohol consumption and is a non-smoker. On systemic enquiry he reports a good appetite and denies any weight loss. The examination reveals conjunctival pallor and a soft abdomen with tenderness in the epigastrium. His temperature is 36.7°C, blood pressure is 112/68 mmHg, pulse is 81 beats per minute and oxygen saturations are 96% on room air. A full blood count is taken which reveals the following:
Investigation Result Normal Value
Haemoglobin 76 g/l 135–175 g/l
Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 68 fl 76–98 fl
White cell count (WCC) 5.2 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 380 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Peptic ulcer
Explanation:Gastrointestinal Conditions: Peptic Ulcer, Atrophic Gastritis, Barrett’s Oesophagus, Gastric Cancer, and Oesophageal Varices
Peptic Ulcer:
Peptic ulceration is commonly caused by NSAID use or Helicobacter pylori infection. Symptoms include dyspepsia, upper gastrointestinal bleeding, and iron deficiency anaemia. Treatment involves admission to a gastrointestinal ward for resuscitation, proton pump inhibitor initiation, and urgent endoscopy. If caused by H. pylori, triple therapy is initiated.Atrophic Gastritis:
Atrophic gastritis is a chronic inflammatory change of the gastric mucosa, resulting in malabsorption and anaemia. However, it is unlikely to account for melaena or epigastric discomfort.Barrett’s Oesophagus:
Barrett’s oesophagus is a histological diagnosis resulting from chronic acid reflux. It is unlikely to cause the patient’s symptoms as there is no history of reflux.Gastric Cancer:
Gastric cancer is less likely due to the lack of risk factors and additional ‘red flag’ symptoms such as weight loss and appetite change. Biopsies of peptic ulcers are taken at endoscopy to check for an underlying malignant process.Oesophageal Varices:
Oesophageal varices are caused by chronic liver disease and can result in severe bleeding and haematemesis. However, this diagnosis is unlikely as there is little history to suggest chronic liver disease. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner for recent onset of acute back pain. For the last three months, she has been having a burning sensation and tingling of the hands and feet. Her past medical history includes hypertension, diabetes, coronary artery disease and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). She is on medication for her hypertension and diabetes which are well controlled. X-ray of thoracic vertebrae demonstrates punched-out lytic lesions.
Her laboratory investigation report shows the following abnormalities:
Investigations Results Normal values
Calcium 3.2 mmol/l 2.2–2.6 mmol/l
Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 15 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
Creatinine 130 μmol/l 50–120 μmol/l
Haemoglobin 98 g/dl 115–155 g/l
What is the most appropriate next investigation in this patient?Your Answer: Thyroid function tests
Correct Answer: Urine analysis
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Peripheral Neuropathy in a Patient with Multiple Myeloma
Multiple myeloma is a neoplastic clonal expansion of plasma cells that produce monoclonal immunoglobulins. It can cause extensive skeletal damage by osteopenia and inducing osteolytic bone lesions. Peripheral neuropathy symptoms (both sensory and motor involvement can be seen) are present in this patient at the same time of the onset of bone pain. Here are some diagnostic tests that can help identify the cause of peripheral neuropathy in a patient with multiple myeloma:
24-hour urine electrophoresis test: This test could confirm the diagnosis of multiple myeloma through the identification of Bence-Jones protein, a characteristic finding in multiple myeloma.
Autoimmune antibodies: Autoimmune conditions like Sjögren syndrome, lupus and rheumatoid arthritis can give rise to symptoms of peripheral neuropathy. However, the patient’s history and clinical findings do not correlate with these conditions.
Glycosylated haemoglobin: Peripheral neuropathy is a complication of uncontrolled diabetes mellitus. However, given that it is well controlled in this patient, it is highly unlikely to be a cause of her symptoms.
Serum vitamin B12 estimation: Vitamin B12 deficiency causes peripheral neuropathy. However, it does not cause osteolytic lesions in the vertebrae, as in this patient’s case.
Thyroid function tests: Hypothyroidism, which is long-standing and often untreated, can lead to complications of peripheral neuropathy. However, hypercalcaemia found in this patient would go against this diagnosis and performing thyroid function tests would not be a correct option.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosurgery
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A new drug, Dangerex, is being studied as an antidepressant with a lower risk of overdose and suicide. The drug's volume of distribution is determined to be 300 L. What does this suggest about the drug's composition?
Your Answer: The drug is highly water soluble
Correct Answer: The drug is highly lipid soluble
Explanation:Drug Distribution in the Body
Drug distribution in the body is the process by which a drug is spread throughout the different compartments of the body. The extent of distribution varies depending on the chemical structure, size, and ability of the drug to transport itself across membranes. The pattern of distribution affects the drug’s ability to interact with its target and deliver the desired effect. The volume of distribution (Vd) is a measure of how the drug spreads across the body’s compartments.
For a typical 70 kg adult, a Vd of 14 L indicates that the drug is distributed only among the extracellular fluid space. On the other hand, a Vd greater than 42 L, which is the total body water for a 70 kg adult, suggests that the drug is likely to be lipophilic and its distribution is not limited to the body’s fluid. Some drugs with high Vds are preferentially distributed in the body’s fat reserves.
The Vd is calculated by dividing the amount of drug in the body by the plasma concentration. the Vd is crucial in determining the dosage and frequency of drug administration. Lipophilic drugs have a higher chance of passing the blood-brain barrier and penetrating the brain. Therefore, drugs that are lipophobic and hydrophilic may not reach adequate levels within the brain tissue to achieve the desired effect. Overall, drug distribution in the body is essential in optimizing drug therapy and achieving the desired therapeutic effect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 78-year-old man comes to his doctor's office with his daughter. His daughter reports that he has been increasingly forgetful, frequently forgetting appointments and sometimes leaving the stove on. He has also experienced a few instances of urinary incontinence. The patient's neurological examination is unremarkable except for a slow gait, reduced step height, and decreased foot clearance. Based on these findings, what is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Normal pressure hydrocephalus
Explanation:Distinguishing Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus from Other Conditions: A Guide for Medical Professionals
Normal pressure hydrocephalus (NPH) is a condition characterized by ventricular dilation without raised cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) levels. Its classic triad of symptoms includes urinary incontinence, gait disturbance, and dementia. While 50% of cases are idiopathic, it is crucial to diagnose NPH as it is a potentially reversible cause of dementia. MRI or CT scans can reveal ventricular enlargement, and treatment typically involves surgical insertion of a CSF shunt.
When evaluating patients with symptoms similar to NPH, it is important to consider other conditions. Parkinson’s disease, for example, may cause gait disturbance, urinary incontinence, and dementia, but the presence of bradykinesia, tremor, and rigidity would make a Parkinson’s diagnosis unlikely. Multiple sclerosis (MS) may also cause urinary incontinence and gait disturbance, but memory problems are less likely, and additional sensory or motor problems are expected. Guillain-Barré syndrome involves ascending muscle weakness, which is not present in NPH. Cauda equina affects spinal nerves and may cause urinary incontinence and gait disturbance, but memory problems are not a symptom.
In summary, while NPH shares some symptoms with other conditions, its unique combination of ventricular dilation, absence of raised CSF levels, and classic triad of symptoms make it a distinct diagnosis that requires prompt attention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 9-year-old girl presents to the emergency department with increasing redness and swelling around her left eye over the past 48 hours. During the examination, she reports pain and double vision when her eye movements are assessed. There is also tenderness and erythema over the left eyelid. Her temperature is 38°C. Based on the probable diagnosis, what is the most suitable course of treatment?
Your Answer: Topical ciprofloxacin
Correct Answer: Intravenous cefotaxime
Explanation:Orbital cellulitis can be distinguished from preseptal cellulitis by the presence of symptoms such as reduced visual acuity, proptosis, and pain when moving the eyes. If a person experiences painful eye movements and visual disturbances along with a red, swollen, and tender eye, it is a cause for concern and may indicate orbital cellulitis. In such cases, it is crucial to administer urgent empirical intravenous antibiotics that cover gram-positive and anaerobic organisms, such as Intravenous cefotaxime or clindamycin. On the other hand, preseptal cellulitis can be managed with oral co-amoxiclav and close monitoring. Unlike orbital cellulitis, preseptal cellulitis does not cause painful eye movements or visual disturbances and is less likely to cause fever.
In rare cases, subperiosteal or orbital abscess may complicate orbital cellulitis, leading to symptoms such as proptosis, headache (facial, throbbing), and reduced visual acuity. In such cases, surgical drainage may be necessary, but intravenous empirical antibiotics would still be an essential part of the treatment. It is worth noting that these conditions are more likely to occur as a complication of sinusitis rather than orbital cellulitis.
Bacterial keratitis, which is more common in contact lens users, can be treated with topical ciprofloxacin. This condition presents with symptoms such as eye pain, watering, and photophobia but does not cause eyelid swelling, diplopia, or fever.
Understanding Orbital Cellulitis: Causes, Symptoms, and Management
Orbital cellulitis is a serious infection that affects the fat and muscles behind the orbital septum within the orbit, but not the globe. It is commonly caused by upper respiratory tract infections that spread from the sinuses and can lead to a high mortality rate. On the other hand, periorbital cellulitis is a less severe infection that occurs in the superficial tissues anterior to the orbital septum. However, it can progress to orbital cellulitis if left untreated.
Risk factors for orbital cellulitis include childhood, previous sinus infections, lack of Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib) vaccination, recent eyelid infections or insect bites, and ear or facial infections. Symptoms of orbital cellulitis include redness and swelling around the eye, severe ocular pain, visual disturbance, proptosis, ophthalmoplegia, eyelid edema, and ptosis. In rare cases, meningeal involvement can cause drowsiness, nausea, and vomiting.
To differentiate between orbital and preseptal cellulitis, doctors look for reduced visual acuity, proptosis, and ophthalmoplegia, which are not consistent with preseptal cellulitis. Full blood count and clinical examination involving complete ophthalmological assessment are necessary to determine the severity of the infection. CT with contrast can also help identify inflammation of the orbital tissues deep to the septum and sinusitis. Blood culture and microbiological swab are also necessary to determine the organism causing the infection.
Management of orbital cellulitis requires hospital admission for IV antibiotics. It is a medical emergency that requires urgent senior review. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent complications and reduce the risk of mortality.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 11
Correct
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A 20-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner (GP) with a 2-year history of restricting food intake and self-induced vomiting. She attends her GP for the first time with her sibling reporting a recent worsening of her symptoms. The GP suspects anorexia nervosa.
Which is the most appropriate investigation to determine whether the patient requires urgent hospital admission?Your Answer: Electrocardiogram (ECG)
Explanation:Medical Investigations for Anorexia Nervosa: What to Expect
Anorexia nervosa is a serious eating disorder that can have significant impacts on a person’s physical health, including their cardiovascular system. When assessing a patient with anorexia nervosa, there are several medical investigations that may be considered. Here is what you can expect:
Electrocardiogram (ECG): This is a baseline test that assesses heart rate and the QT interval. Electrolyte imbalances caused by eating disorders can affect cardiac stability, so it’s important to check for any cardiovascular instability.
24-hour Holter monitor: This test may be considered if there is a problem with the baseline ECG or a history of cardiac symptoms such as palpitations.
Chest X-ray: This is not routinely required unless there are other respiratory symptoms present.
Serum prolactin: This test is not routinely required unless there is a history of galactorrhoea or amenorrhoea.
Transthoracic echocardiography: This test is not routinely required unless there are clinical indications for imaging of the heart.
Overall, medical investigations for anorexia nervosa are tailored to the individual patient’s needs and medical history. It’s important to work closely with a healthcare provider to determine which tests are necessary for each patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 12
Correct
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An 80-year-old woman has been suffering from Paget's disease of bone for over a decade. Lately, she has been experiencing increased pain in her lower back and hip region even when at rest. Upon conducting an X-ray, a destructive mass is observed in her bony pelvis. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Osteosarcoma
Explanation:Paget’s Disease of Bone
Paget’s disease of bone is a condition that typically affects individuals in their later years. It is characterized by a disruption in the normal process of bone repair, resulting in the formation of weak bones that are prone to fractures. Specifically, the repair process ends at the stage of vascular osteoid bone, which is not as strong as fully mineralized bone.
Unfortunately, Paget’s disease of bone can also lead to complications such as osteogenic sarcoma, which occurs in approximately 5% of cases. As such, it is important for individuals with this condition to receive appropriate medical care and monitoring to prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 13
Correct
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A 29-year-old male patient comes to you with a complaint of an erythematosus rash in his groin area. He reports that the rash was initially raised and red, but it has now healed and left behind hyperpigmentation. Interestingly, he mentions that he has experienced this same rash in the same location before. Upon further questioning, he reveals that he had taken ibuprofen for a strained ankle prior to the onset of the rash. What is the probable cause of this presentation?
Your Answer: Fixed drug eruption
Explanation:Fixed Drug Eruptions: Recurring Lesions Caused by Medications
Fixed drug eruptions are a type of skin reaction that occurs when a person takes a medication to which they are allergic. These eruptions are characterized by circular, violaceous, and oedematous plaques that appear in the same area where the offending drug was given. The lesions usually occur within 30 minutes to eight hours after drug administration and can be found in various parts of the body, with the hands, feet, and genitalia being the most common locations.
One of the distinguishing features of fixed drug eruptions is that the lesions tend to recur in the same area whenever the person takes the offending drug again. The lesions may resolve on their own, but they often leave behind macular hyperpigmentation, which is a darkening of the skin in the affected area. In some cases, perioral and periorbital lesions may also occur.
Overall, fixed drug eruptions can be a frustrating and uncomfortable experience for those who suffer from them. It is important to identify the offending drug and avoid it in the future to prevent further outbreaks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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Which of these options does NOT contribute to abdominal swelling?
Your Answer: Hypomagnesaemia
Correct Answer: Hyperkalaemia
Explanation:Hyperkalaemia and Hirschsprung’s Disease
Severe hyperkalaemia can be dangerous and may lead to sudden death from asystolic cardiac arrest. However, it may not always present with symptoms, except for muscle weakness. In some cases, hyperkalaemia may be associated with metabolic acidosis, which can cause Kussmaul respiration. On the other hand, Hirschsprung’s disease is a condition that results from the absence of colonic enteric ganglion cells. This absence causes paralysis of a distal segment of the colon and rectum, leading to proximal colon dilation. In contrast, other conditions cause distension through a paralytic ileus or large bowel pseudo-obstruction. these conditions is crucial in managing and treating them effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 15
Correct
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A 14-year-old girl presents to her GP requesting contraception.
In which of the following scenarios could contraception be legally withheld?Your Answer: She does not have an understanding of the implications of contraception
Explanation:Legal Considerations for Prescribing Contraception to a 15-Year-Old Girl
When considering prescribing contraception to a 15-year-old girl, there are legal criteria that must be met. The Fraser criteria state that the patient must have the ability to understand the implications of contraception for herself and her family. If this is the case, and there is no medical contraindication, the girl can request whichever form of contraception she prefers.
The Fraser criteria also state that the girl must have made a decision to start or continue to have sexual intercourse, despite attempts at persuasion, and that prescribing contraception is in her best interests. In Scotland, the legal underpinnings are statutory, and the girl must be capable of understanding the nature and possible consequences of the procedure or treatment.
It is important to note that the type of contraception used will not have legal implications on whether contraception should be provided. However, if the girl is frightened to say no to her boyfriend, this may be a child safeguarding issue that requires careful handling. In this case, contraception can still be legally prescribed.
If the girl refuses to discuss matters with her parents, this is not a legal reason to withhold contraception. As long as the sustained and consistent refusal to discuss with parents criteria are met, contraception can be supplied. Similarly, if the girl’s parents are abroad, this does not affect the decision to provide contraception as long as all other criteria are met.
In conclusion, when considering prescribing contraception to a 15-year-old girl, it is important to ensure that the legal criteria are met and that the decision is in the girl’s best interests.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ethics And Legal
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old female patient presents to her GP seeking emergency contraception. She started taking the progesterone-only pill on day 10 of her menstrual cycle and had unprotected sex with a new partner 3 days later. She is concerned about the lack of barrier contraception used during the encounter. What is the best course of action for this patient?
Your Answer: Intrauterine system
Correct Answer: Reassurance and discharge
Explanation:The progesterone-only pill requires 48 hours to become effective, except when started on or before day 5 of the menstrual cycle. During this time, additional barrier methods of contraception should be used. Since the patient is currently on day 10 of her menstrual cycle, it will take 48 hours for the POP to become effective. Therefore, having unprotected sex on day 14 of her menstrual cycle would be considered safe, and emergency contraception is not necessary.
The intrauterine device can be used as emergency contraception within 5 days of unprotected sex, but it is not necessary in this case since the POP has become effective. The intrauterine system is not a form of emergency contraception and is not recommended for this patient. Levonorgestrel is a type of emergency contraception that must be taken within 72 hours of unprotected sex.
Counselling for Women Considering the progesterone-Only Pill
Women who are considering taking the progesterone-only pill (POP) should receive counselling on various aspects of the medication. One of the most common potential adverse effects is irregular vaginal bleeding. When starting the POP, immediate protection is provided if it is commenced up to and including day 5 of the cycle. If it is started later, additional contraceptive methods such as condoms should be used for the first 2 days. If switching from a combined oral contraceptive (COC), immediate protection is provided if the POP is continued directly from the end of a pill packet.
It is important to take the POP at the same time every day, without a pill-free break, unlike the COC. If a pill is missed by less than 3 hours, it should be taken as normal. If it is missed by more than 3 hours, the missed pill should be taken as soon as possible, and extra precautions such as condoms should be used until pill taking has been re-established for 48 hours. Diarrhoea and vomiting do not affect the POP, but assuming pills have been missed and following the above guidelines is recommended. Antibiotics have no effect on the POP, unless they alter the P450 enzyme system, such as rifampicin. Liver enzyme inducers may reduce the effectiveness of the POP.
In addition to these specific guidelines, women should also have a discussion on sexually transmitted infections (STIs) when considering the POP. It is important for women to receive comprehensive counselling on the POP to ensure they are aware of its potential effects and how to use it effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 17
Correct
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A patient with rectal cancer in their 60s is seen by the colorectal nurse specialist and is told about a special blood test to monitor their disease.
Which of the following is this most likely to relate to?Your Answer: Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)
Explanation:Tumour Markers: Types and Uses
Tumour markers are substances produced by cancer cells or normal cells in response to cancer. They can be used to diagnose cancer, monitor treatment response, and detect recurrence. Here are some common tumour markers and their uses:
Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA): This glycoprotein is found in normal mucosal cells but increases in adenocarcinoma, particularly colorectal cancer. It is used to monitor disease, rather than as a diagnostic tool.
CA-19-9: This intracellular adhesion molecule is highly specific for pancreatic and biliary tract cancers but may also be elevated in other cancers. It has a role in predicting metastatic disease.
Alpha fetoprotein (AFP): This tumour marker is used for hepatocellular carcinoma and non-seminomatous germ cell tumours. It can be used to screen for hepatocellular carcinomas, especially in high-risk patients.
C-reactive protein (CRP): This marker indicates acute inflammation and is not specific to cancer.
CA-125: This glycoprotein is a marker for ovarian cancer but can also be elevated in other intra-abdominal cancers and non-malignant conditions. It is mainly used for monitoring after treatment and if ovarian cancer is suspected.
In conclusion, tumour markers have various uses in cancer diagnosis and management. However, they should always be interpreted in conjunction with other clinical and imaging findings.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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You are shadowing a registrar on the pediatric ward, who is asked to help their consultant confirm a suspected case of brain stem death.
Which of the following would the doctors be assessing for?Your Answer: Babinski reflex
Correct Answer: Corneal reflex
Explanation:To confirm brain death, there are six tests that need to be conducted. These tests include the pupillary reflex, corneal reflex, oculovestibular reflex, cough reflex, absent response to supraorbital pressure, and no spontaneous respiratory effort. Out of these tests, the corneal reflex is the only one that is specifically tested for in suspected brain stem death. The Babinski reflex is used to test for upper motor neuron damage, while the Moro reflex is a primitive reflex that is only tested for in neonates. Lastly, the ankle jerk reflex is a deep tendon reflex that tests cutaneous innervation, motor supply, and cortical input at the S1 level.
Criteria and Testing for Brain Stem Death
Brain death occurs when the brain and brain stem cease to function, resulting in irreversible loss of consciousness and vital functions. To determine brain stem death, certain criteria must be met and specific tests must be performed. The patient must be in a deep coma of known cause, with reversible causes excluded and no sedation. Electrolyte levels must be normal.
The testing for brain stem death involves several assessments. The pupils must be fixed and unresponsive to changes in light intensity. The corneal reflex must be absent, and there should be no response to supraorbital pressure. The oculovestibular reflexes must be absent, which is tested by injecting ice-cold water into each ear. There should be no cough reflex to bronchial stimulation or gagging response to pharyngeal stimulation. Finally, there should be no observed respiratory effort in response to disconnection from the ventilator for at least five minutes, with adequate oxygenation ensured.
It is important that the testing is performed by two experienced doctors on two separate occasions, with at least one being a consultant. Neither doctor can be a member of the transplant team if organ donation is being considered. These criteria and tests are crucial in determining brain stem death and ensuring that the patient is beyond recovery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 19
Correct
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A 29-year-old electrician was referred to the hospital by his GP. He had presented a week ago with malaise, headache, and myalgia, which was followed by a dry cough and fever. Despite a course of amoxicillin/clavulanic acid, his symptoms persisted. At the time of referral, he complained of cough, mild dyspnea, global headache, myalgia, and arthralgia. On examination, he appeared unwell, had a fever of 39°C, and a maculopapular rash on his upper body. Fine crackles were audible in the left mid-zone of his chest, and mild neck stiffness was noted. Investigations revealed abnormal levels of Hb, WBC, reticulocytes, Na, creatinine, bilirubin, alk phos, and AST, and patchy consolidation in both mid-zones on chest x-ray. What is the most likely cause of his symptoms?
Your Answer: Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Explanation:Mycoplasma pneumonia commonly affects individuals aged 15-30 years and presents with systemic upset, dry cough, fever, myalgia, and arthralgia. It can also cause extrapulmonary manifestations such as haemolytic anaemia, renal failure, hepatitis, myocarditis, meningism, transverse myelitis, cerebellar ataxia, and erythema multiforme. Haemolysis is associated with the presence of cold agglutinins. Diagnosis is based on the demonstration of anti-mycoplasma antibodies in paired sera.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 20
Correct
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A 40-year-old woman presents with a 4-day history of left shoulder pain. The pain is confined to the shoulder and has not spread to other areas. She reports injuring her shoulder while attempting shoulder exercises at the gym recently. The patient has a medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypercholesterolemia. Upon examination, the shoulder appears normal in temperature and color, without signs of swelling. Active and passive external rotation are significantly limited by pain. Flexion, extension, abduction, and adduction are also limited by pain, but to a lesser extent. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Adhesive capsulitis
Explanation:Adhesive capsulitis is the correct answer as it is commonly seen in middle-aged females, diabetic patients, and following trauma. The classic impairment in adhesive capsulitis is external rotation, both on active and passive movement. On the other hand, calcific tendonosis would present with bursitis, causing pain, restriction in movement, and a hot and swollen shoulder. Cervical nerve root entrapment would cause pain in the neck and/or shoulder, with possible radiation to the arm and impaired neck range of movement. Supraspinatus tendonosis and torn rotator cuff would primarily affect abduction, not external rotation.
Understanding Adhesive Capsulitis (Frozen Shoulder)
Adhesive capsulitis, commonly known as frozen shoulder, is a prevalent cause of shoulder pain that primarily affects middle-aged women. The exact cause of this condition is not yet fully understood. However, studies have shown that up to 20% of diabetics may experience an episode of frozen shoulder. Symptoms typically develop over several days, with external rotation being more affected than internal rotation or abduction. Both active and passive movement are affected, and patients usually experience a painful freezing phase, an adhesive phase, and a recovery phase. In some cases, the condition may affect both shoulders, which occurs in up to 20% of patients. The episode typically lasts between 6 months and 2 years.
Diagnosis of adhesive capsulitis is usually clinical, although imaging may be necessary for atypical or persistent symptoms. Unfortunately, no single intervention has been proven to improve the outcome in the long-term. However, there are several treatment options available, including nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), physiotherapy, oral corticosteroids, and intra-articular corticosteroids.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 21
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A 35-year-old woman presents at 12 weeks’ gestation to see the clinician. Her risk of developing Down syndrome was calculated as 1 in 8, and she was offered a diagnostic test. Amniocentesis confirms Down syndrome. Following long discussions with her and her partner, she decides on termination of the pregnancy.
Which of the following is the most appropriate management option for this patient?Your Answer: Oral mifepristone followed by vaginal misoprostol as an inpatient
Explanation:Medical and Surgical Management of Termination of Pregnancy
Medical and surgical management are two options for termination of pregnancy. Medical management involves the use of oral mifepristone followed by vaginal misoprostol. This method is recommended for termination of pregnancy before 13 weeks’ gestation and can be performed in an inpatient setting. The patient is administered the medication in hospital and will stay in the clinic or hospital to pass the pregnancy. Appropriate analgesia and antiemetics are given to take home, as required. The patient should be advised that there is a possibility medical management will fail and surgical management will need to take place.
Mifepristone is a competitive antagonist of progesterone for the progesterone receptor. It promotes degradation of the decidualised endometrium, cervical ripening and dilation, as well as increases the sensitivity of the myometrium to the effect of prostaglandins. Misoprostol, a synthetic prostaglandin E1, in turn, binds avidly to myometrial cells, promoting contraction of the uterus, and therefore expulsion of the products of conception. If this fails to empty the uterus, then a surgical procedure to manually evacuate the uterus is the next appropriate step in the patient’s management.
Surgical termination of pregnancy is first line for women presenting after 14 weeks’ gestation, women who have a preference over medical management and patients where medical termination has failed.
In cases where the patient has decided to proceed with termination of pregnancy, delaying the procedure is unethical and does not benefit the patient in any way. The patient should be fully informed of the risks associated with the procedure and given the necessary support.
Vaginal misoprostol can also be used in conjunction with mifepristone for medical termination of pregnancy or as monotherapy in medical management of miscarriage or induction of labour.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 22
Incorrect
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You are interested in determining whether seatbelt use has an impact on the severity of injuries incurred following a motor vehicle accident among elderly individuals. You approach a doctor in the Geriatric Department, and he suggests you design a study.
Which of the following study designs would be most appropriate?Your Answer: Case series
Correct Answer: Case-control study
Explanation:Choosing the Right Study Design for Assessing Seatbelt Use and Motor Vehicle Accidents
When it comes to studying the relationship between seatbelt use and the severity of injuries in motor vehicle accidents, choosing the right study design is crucial. While each design has its strengths and weaknesses, some are more appropriate than others for this particular research question.
Case-control studies are the most suitable for assessing factors associated with rare events, such as motor vehicle accidents. They can quickly and cost-effectively determine if seatbelt use affects injury severity.
Cross-sectional studies, on the other hand, are descriptive and cannot accurately determine associations. Cohort studies may be able to answer the question, but they require a significant amount of time and expense due to their prospective nature. Randomised controlled trials are not appropriate for this research question as it would be unethical to expose participants to something dangerous like a motor vehicle collision.
Finally, case series can provide a starting point for other study designs but are most useful for identifying possible relationships that must be explored in a more rigorous manner. In conclusion, a case-control study is the most appropriate study design for assessing the relationship between seatbelt use and the severity of injuries in motor vehicle accidents.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistics
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old male with type 2 diabetes is struggling to manage his high blood pressure despite being on medication. His current treatment includes atenolol, amlodipine, and ramipril, but his blood pressure consistently reads above 170/100 mmHg. During examination, grade II hypertensive retinopathy is observed. His test results show sodium levels at 144 mmol/L (137-144), potassium at 3.1 mmol/L (3.5-4.9), urea at 5.5 mmol/L (2.5-7.5), creatinine at 100 mol/L (60-110), glucose at 7.9 mmol/L (3.0-6.0), and HbA1c at 53 mmol/mol (20-46) or 7% (3.8-6.4). An ECG reveals left ventricular hypertrophy. What possible diagnosis should be considered as the cause of his resistant hypertension?
Your Answer: Renal artery stenosis
Correct Answer: Conn’s syndrome (primary hyperaldosteronism)
Explanation:Primary Hyperaldosteronism and Resistant Hypertension
This patient is experiencing resistant hypertension despite being on an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor (ACEi), which should typically increase their potassium concentration. Additionally, their potassium levels are low, which is a strong indication of primary hyperaldosteronism.
Primary hyperaldosteronism can be caused by either an adrenal adenoma (known as Conn syndrome) or bilateral adrenal hyperplasia. To diagnose this condition, doctors typically look for an elevated aldosterone:renin ratio, which is usually above 1000. This condition can be difficult to manage, but identifying it early can help prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presents with a lump on his right groin that he is unsure of when it first appeared. He reports no changes in bowel habits or abdominal discomfort. The patient has a medical history of hypercholesterolemia and type 2 diabetes and is currently taking atorvastatin and metformin.
During examination, a mass is visible above and towards the middle of the pubic tubercle. The lump disappears when the patient is lying down and does not transilluminate. There is no abdominal tenderness or bruising. The patient's heart rate is 85 bpm, and his blood pressure is 143/85 mmHg.
What is the most effective next step in the management of this patient, given the likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Continue monitoring for strangulation only
Correct Answer: Refer routinely for open repair with mesh
Explanation:For patients with unilateral inguinal hernias, open repair with mesh is the recommended approach. This is particularly true for asymptomatic patients, as surgery can prevent future complications such as strangulation. In this case, the patient has a groin lump that disappears when lying down, which is consistent with a unilateral inguinal hernia. While there are no signs of strangulation, it is still important to refer the patient for surgery to prevent potential complications. Laparoscopic repair may have a higher recurrence rate, so open repair with mesh is preferred. Monitoring for strangulation should continue, but surgery is still recommended for medically fit patients. Offering a hernia truss is not appropriate in this case, as it is typically reserved for patients who are not fit for surgery.
Understanding Inguinal Hernias
Inguinal hernias are the most common type of abdominal wall hernias, with 75% of cases falling under this category. They are more prevalent in men, with a 25% lifetime risk of developing one. The main feature of an inguinal hernia is a lump in the groin area, which is located superior and medial to the pubic tubercle. This lump disappears when pressure is applied or when the patient lies down. Discomfort and aching are common symptoms, which can worsen with activity, but severe pain is rare. Strangulation, a serious complication, is uncommon.
The clinical management of inguinal hernias involves treating medically fit patients, even if they are asymptomatic. A hernia truss may be an option for patients who are not fit for surgery, but it has little role in other patients. Mesh repair is the preferred method of treatment, as it is associated with the lowest recurrence rate. Unilateral hernias are generally repaired with an open approach, while bilateral and recurrent hernias are repaired laparoscopically. Patients can return to non-manual work after 2-3 weeks following an open repair and after 1-2 weeks following laparoscopic repair, according to the Department for Work and Pensions.
Complications of inguinal hernias include early bruising and wound infection, as well as late chronic pain and recurrence. While traditional textbooks describe the anatomical differences between indirect and direct hernias, this is not relevant to clinical management. Overall, understanding the features, management, and complications of inguinal hernias is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 25
Correct
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A 33-year-old woman who is at 36 weeks gestation comes to the maternity unit for a routine check-up. Her pregnancy has been without any complications so far, and her blood pressure, urine dipstick, and fundal height are all normal. During a previous examination, a vertical scar from her previous pregnancy is visible on her abdomen, as the child was delivered via a caesarean section. She wants to discuss her delivery options and is interested in having a home birth. What is the most suitable delivery method for this patient?
Your Answer: Planned caesarean section at 37 weeks gestation
Explanation:A planned caesarean section at 37 weeks gestation is the appropriate course of action for a patient who has a classical caesarean scar. This type of scar, which is characterized by a vertical incision on the abdomen, is a contraindication for vaginal birth after caesarean due to the increased risk of uterine rupture. A vaginal delivery should not be considered in this scenario as it could be potentially fatal for both the mother and the baby. It is important to ensure that the caesarean section is performed in a hospital setting. A caesarean section at 36 weeks is not recommended, and guidelines suggest that the procedure should be performed at 37 weeks or later.
Caesarean Section: Types, Indications, and Risks
Caesarean section, also known as C-section, is a surgical procedure that involves delivering a baby through an incision in the mother’s abdomen and uterus. In recent years, the rate of C-section has increased significantly due to an increased fear of litigation. There are two main types of C-section: lower segment C-section, which comprises 99% of cases, and classic C-section, which involves a longitudinal incision in the upper segment of the uterus.
C-section may be indicated for various reasons, including absolute cephalopelvic disproportion, placenta praevia grades 3/4, pre-eclampsia, post-maturity, IUGR, fetal distress in labor/prolapsed cord, failure of labor to progress, malpresentations, placental abruption, vaginal infection, and cervical cancer. The urgency of C-section may be categorized into four categories, with Category 1 being the most urgent and Category 4 being elective.
It is important for clinicians to inform women of the serious and frequent risks associated with C-section, including emergency hysterectomy, need for further surgery, admission to intensive care unit, thromboembolic disease, bladder injury, ureteric injury, and death. C-section may also increase the risk of uterine rupture, antepartum stillbirth, placenta praevia, and placenta accreta in subsequent pregnancies. Other complications may include persistent wound and abdominal discomfort, increased risk of repeat C-section, readmission to hospital, haemorrhage, infection, and fetal lacerations.
Vaginal birth after C-section (VBAC) may be an appropriate method of delivery for pregnant women with a single previous C-section delivery, except for those with previous uterine rupture or classical C-section scar. The success rate of VBAC is around 70-75%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 26
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman presents with a history of oligomenorrhoea and menstrual irregularity (menses every 35–45 days). She has a body mass index (BMI) of 32 kg/m2 and has had persistent acne since being a teenager.
During examination, brown, hyperpigmented areas are observed in the creases of the axillae and around the neck.
Hormone levels have been tested, as shown below:
Investigation Result Normal value
Total testosterone 7 nmol/l 0.5–3.5 nmol/l
Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) 15 IU/l 1–25 IU/l
Luteinising hormone (LH) 78 U/l 1–70 U/l
Which of the following ultrasound findings will confirm the diagnosis?Your Answer: 12 follicles in the right ovary and seven follicles in the left, ranging in size from 2 to 9 mm
Explanation:Understanding Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS)
Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) is a common endocrine disorder that affects women of reproductive age. It is characterized by menstrual irregularities, signs of hyperandrogenism, and ultrasonographic evidence of polycystic ovaries. The Rotterdam criteria provide diagnostic criteria for PCOS, which include oligomenorrhoea or amenorrhoea, clinical or biochemical signs of hyperandrogenism, and ultrasonographic evidence of polycystic ovaries.
Follicle counts and ovarian volume are important ultrasonographic features used to diagnose PCOS. At least 12 follicles in one ovary, measuring 2-9 mm in diameter, and an ovarian volume of >10 ml are diagnostic of PCOS. However, the absence of these features does not exclude the diagnosis if two of the three criteria are met.
Total testosterone levels are usually raised in PCOS, while FSH is usually within the normal range or low, and LH is raised. The ratio of LH:FSH is usually >3:1 in PCOS.
A single complex cyst in one ovary is an abnormal finding and requires referral to a gynaecology team for further assessment.
Understanding the Diagnostic Criteria and Ultrasonographic Features of PCOS
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 27
Correct
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A 60-year-old man received a two unit blood transfusion 1 hour ago. He reports feeling a strange sensation in his chest, like his heart is skipping a beat. You conduct an ECG which reveals tall tented T waves in multiple leads.
An arterial blood gas (ABG) test shows:
Na+: 136 mmol/l (normal 135–145 mmol/l)
K+: 7.1 mmol/l (normal 3.5–5.0 mmol/l)
Cl–: 96 mmol/l (normal 95–105 mmol/l).
What immediate treatment should be administered based on these findings?Your Answer: Calcium gluconate
Explanation:Treatment Options for Hyperkalaemia: Calcium Gluconate, Normal Saline Bolus, Calcium Resonium, Insulin and Dextrose, Dexamethasone
Understanding Treatment Options for Hyperkalaemia
Hyperkalaemia is a condition where the potassium levels in the blood are higher than normal. This can lead to ECG changes, palpitations, and a high risk of arrhythmias. There are several treatment options available for hyperkalaemia, each with its own mechanism of action and benefits.
One of the most effective treatments for hyperkalaemia is calcium gluconate. This medication works by reducing the excitability of cardiomyocytes, which stabilizes the myocardium and protects the heart from arrhythmias. However, calcium gluconate does not reduce the potassium level in the blood, so additional treatments are necessary.
A normal saline bolus is not an effective treatment for hyperkalaemia. Similarly, calcium resonium, which removes potassium from the body via the gastrointestinal tract, is slow-acting and will not protect the patient from arrhythmias acutely.
Insulin and dextrose are commonly used to treat hyperkalaemia. Insulin shifts potassium intracellularly, which decreases serum potassium levels. Dextrose is needed to prevent hypoglycaemia. This treatment reduces potassium levels by 0.6-1.0 mmol/L every 15 minutes and is effective in treating hyperkalaemia. However, it does not acutely protect the heart from arrhythmias and should be given following the administration of calcium gluconate.
Dexamethasone is not a treatment for hyperkalaemia and should not be used for this purpose.
In conclusion, calcium gluconate is an effective treatment for hyperkalaemia and should be administered first to protect the heart from arrhythmias. Additional treatments such as insulin and dextrose can be used to reduce potassium levels, but they should be given after calcium gluconate. Understanding the different treatment options for hyperkalaemia is essential for providing appropriate care to patients with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 28
Correct
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A 65-year-old known alcoholic is brought by ambulance after being found unconscious on the road on a Sunday afternoon. He has a superficial laceration in the right frontal region. He is admitted for observation over the weekend. The admission chest X-ray is normal. Before discharge on Tuesday morning, he is noted to be febrile and dyspnoeic. Blood tests reveal a neutrophilia and elevated C-reactive protein (CRP). A chest X-ray demonstrates consolidation in the lower zone of the right lung.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Aspiration pneumonia
Explanation:Aspiration pneumonia is a type of pneumonia that typically affects the lower lobes of the lungs, particularly the right middle or lower lobes or left lower lobe. It is often seen in individuals who have consumed alcohol and subsequently vomited, leading to the aspiration of the contents into the lower bronchi. If an alcoholic is found unconscious with a lower zone consolidation, aspiration pneumonia should be considered when prescribing antibiotics. Hospital-acquired pneumonia (HAP) is unlikely to occur within the first 48 hours of admission. Tuberculosis (TB) is a rare diagnosis in this case as it typically affects the upper lobes and the patient’s chest X-ray from two days earlier was normal. Staphylococcal pneumonia may be seen in alcoholics but is characterized by cavitating lesions and empyema. Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia is common in immunosuppressed individuals and presents with bilateral perihilar consolidations and possible lung cyst formation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman has given birth to her second and final child at 40 weeks gestation. She has been in the third stage of labor for 70 minutes and has lost 2900 ml of blood. Her previous baby was delivered via elective c-section. She has a history of pelvic inflammatory disease. An antenatal ultrasound was performed due to her risk factors, but the results were not seen by the delivery team until now. What is the most effective treatment for the underlying issue?
Your Answer: Traction on the umbilical cord
Correct Answer: Hysterectomy
Explanation:In cases where delayed placental delivery is observed in patients with placenta accreta, hysterectomy is the recommended treatment. This patient has a history of previous caesarean-section and pelvic inflammatory disease, indicating a likely placenta accreta, which was also diagnosed antenatally on ultrasound. The optimal management approach involves leaving the placenta in-situ and performing a hysterectomy to avoid potential haemorrhage from attempts to actively remove the placenta. While medical management with oxytocin and ergometrine may help manage post-partum haemorrhage, it is not a definitive treatment option. Cord traction is also unlikely to be effective as the placenta is abnormally implanted into the uterine wall. Waiting another 30 minutes is not advisable due to the risk of further bleeding.
Understanding Placenta Accreta
Placenta accreta is a condition where the placenta attaches to the myometrium instead of the decidua basalis, which can lead to postpartum hemorrhage. This condition is caused by a defective decidua basalis. There are three types of placenta accreta, which are categorized based on the degree of invasion. The first type is accreta, where the chorionic villi attach to the myometrium. The second type is increta, where the chorionic villi invade into the myometrium. The third type is percreta, where the chorionic villi invade through the perimetrium.
There are certain risk factors that increase the likelihood of developing placenta accreta, such as having a previous caesarean section or placenta previa. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these risk factors and monitor patients closely during pregnancy and delivery. Early detection and management of placenta accreta can help prevent complications and ensure the best possible outcome for both the mother and baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old woman presents to the rheumatology clinic with a history of her fingers turning white, blue, and red intermittently for the past four months. She also reports tightness of the skin on her fingers, hands, and face, without involvement of the skin on her upper arm or chest. Additionally, she experiences troubling reflux symptoms. On examination, there is fibrotic skin overlying the hands and face with telangiectasia. Which autoantibody is most likely to be positive in this patient, given the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Anti-dsDNA antibodies
Correct Answer: Anti-centromere antibodies
Explanation:The presence of skin tightening, Raynaud’s phenomenon, and telangiectasia in this patient suggests a diagnosis of systemic sclerosis. The limited subtype is most likely as there is no involvement of the upper arm and chest. Anti-centromere antibodies are commonly associated with this subtype. Anti-RNA polymerase III and anti-Scl-70 antibodies are more commonly associated with diffuse systemic sclerosis, which involves the chest and upper arms and more severe internal organ involvement. Anti-Ro antibodies are typically associated with Sjögren’s syndrome, which is unlikely in this patient. Anti-dsDNA antibodies are commonly associated with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), but systemic sclerosis is more likely given the absence of a butterfly rash and the presence of oesophageal dysmotility.
Understanding Systemic Sclerosis
Systemic sclerosis is a condition that affects the skin and other connective tissues, but its cause is unknown. It is more common in females, with three patterns of the disease. Limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis is characterised by Raynaud’s as the first sign, affecting the face and distal limbs, and associated with anti-centromere antibodies. CREST syndrome is a subtype of limited systemic sclerosis that includes Calcinosis, Raynaud’s phenomenon, oEsophageal dysmotility, Sclerodactyly, and Telangiectasia. Diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis affects the trunk and proximal limbs, associated with scl-70 antibodies, and has a poor prognosis. Respiratory involvement is the most common cause of death, with interstitial lung disease and pulmonary arterial hypertension being the primary complications. Renal disease and hypertension are also possible complications, and patients with renal disease should be started on an ACE inhibitor. Scleroderma without internal organ involvement is characterised by tightening and fibrosis of the skin, manifesting as plaques or linear. Antibodies such as ANA, RF, anti-scl-70, and anti-centromere are associated with different types of systemic sclerosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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