00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - A 55-year-old man with chronic kidney disease has recently received a renal transplant....

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man with chronic kidney disease has recently received a renal transplant. After three months he starts to feel unwell with flu-like symptoms, fever, and pain over the transplant area.
      What is the most likely type of reaction that has occurred in the patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute graft failure

      Explanation:

      Understanding Different Types of Graft Failure After Transplantation

      Acute graft failure is a type of graft failure that occurs within six months after transplantation. If a patient presents with symptoms such as fever, flu-like symptoms, and pain over the transplant after three months, it may indicate acute graft failure. This type of failure is usually caused by mismatched human leukocyte antigen and may be reversible with steroids and immunosuppressants.

      Wound infection is not a likely cause of symptoms after three months since any wounds from the transplant would have healed by then. Chronic graft failure, on the other hand, occurs after six months to a year following the transplant and is caused by a combination of B- and T-cell-mediated immunity, infection, and previous occurrences of acute graft rejections.

      Hyperacute rejection is a rare type of graft failure that occurs within minutes to hours after transplantation. It happens because of pre-existing antibodies towards the donor before transplantation. In cases of hyperacute rejection, removal of the organ and re-transplantation is necessary.

      It is important to understand the different types of graft failure after transplantation to properly diagnose and treat patients who may be experiencing symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 35-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a painful and red right...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a painful and red right eye with photophobia for the past 2 days. He usually wears contact lenses but has been using glasses since the onset of pain. The patient has a medical history of allergic rhinitis and takes cetirizine daily.

      During the examination, the doctor observes dilated conjunctival and episcleral vessels, mild eyelid swelling, and increased tearing in the right eye. The left eye appears normal, and the patient's corrected visual acuity is 6/6 in the left eye and 6/12 in the right eye.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer urgently to eye casualty

      Explanation:

      If a person wearing contact lenses experiences a painful red eye, it is important to refer them to an eye casualty department to rule out the possibility of microbial keratitis.

      Understanding Keratitis: Inflammation of the Cornea

      Keratitis is a condition that refers to the inflammation of the cornea. While conjunctivitis is a common eye infection that is not usually serious, microbial keratitis can be sight-threatening and requires urgent evaluation and treatment. The causes of keratitis can vary, with bacterial infections typically caused by Staphylococcus aureus and Pseudomonas aeruginosa commonly seen in contact lens wearers. Fungal and amoebic infections can also cause keratitis, with acanthamoebic keratitis accounting for around 5% of cases. Parasitic infections such as onchocercal keratitis can also cause inflammation of the cornea.

      Other factors that can cause keratitis include viral infections such as herpes simplex keratitis, environmental factors like photokeratitis (e.g. welder’s arc eye), and exposure keratitis. Clinical features of keratitis include a red eye with pain and erythema, photophobia, a foreign body sensation, and the presence of hypopyon. Referral is necessary for contact lens wearers who present with a painful red eye, as an accurate diagnosis can only be made with a slit-lamp examination.

      Management of keratitis involves stopping the use of contact lenses until symptoms have fully resolved, as well as the use of topical antibiotics such as quinolones. Cycloplegic agents like cyclopentolate can also be used for pain relief. Complications of keratitis can include corneal scarring, perforation, endophthalmitis, and visual loss. Understanding the causes and symptoms of keratitis is important for prompt diagnosis and treatment to prevent serious complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - What is a common clinical feature of hyperthyroidism? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a common clinical feature of hyperthyroidism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Heat intolerance

      Explanation:

      Thyroid Disorders

      Thyroid disorders are characterized by the dysfunction of the thyroid gland, which can lead to a variety of symptoms. Hypothyroidism, for example, is marked by weight gain, bradycardia, and dry skin. On the other hand, hyperthyroidism is the excess secretion of thyroid hormones, which can stimulate basal metabolic rate and heighten catecholamine sensitivity. The three most common causes of primary hyperthyroidism are Graves’ disease, toxic adenoma, and toxic multinodular goitre. Other causes include de Quervain’s (post-viral) thyroiditis and drugs such as amiodarone.

      One of the key symptoms of thyroid disorders is polydipsia, which refers to excessive thirst. Excess levothyroxine ingestion can also cause a biochemical picture similar to primary thyroid disease, with a suppression of thyroid-stimulating hormone and an elevated free thyroxine (T4) in plasma. It is important to understand the different types of thyroid disorders and their causes in order to properly diagnose and treat them. By doing so, individuals can manage their symptoms and improve their overall quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 35-year-old man complains of severe headaches behind his right eye that last...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man complains of severe headaches behind his right eye that last for 1-2 hours at a time. These headaches can occur daily for up to 6 weeks, but then he can go for months without experiencing one. He also experiences eye redness and runny nose alongside his headaches. Despite trying paracetamol and tramadol prescribed by another doctor, he has not found any relief. The pain is so intense that he cannot sleep and if he gets a headache during the day, he is unable to work or socialize. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cluster headache

      Explanation:

      Cluster headache is a type of headache that mainly affects young men. It is characterized by severe pain behind one eye that can last for up to two hours and occurs repeatedly for a certain period before disappearing for up to a year. Treatment options include inhaled oxygen or sumatriptan, as simple painkillers are usually ineffective.

      Tension-type headache, on the other hand, is a headache that feels like a tight band around the head and is not accompanied by sensitivity to light, nausea, or functional impairment. It can be treated with simple painkillers like paracetamol.

      Migraine is a recurring headache that may be preceded by an aura and is often accompanied by sensitivity to light, nausea, and functional impairment. Treatment options include simple painkillers and triptans for more severe attacks.

      Subarachnoid hemorrhage is a medical emergency that presents as a sudden, severe headache often described as the worst of someone’s life. It requires urgent evaluation with CT brain and possible lumbar puncture to assess the cerebrospinal fluid. A ruptured berry aneurysm is a common cause of subarachnoid hemorrhage.

      Meningitis, on the other hand, is associated with fever and systemic symptoms and does not present episodically over a chronic period.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 65-year-old man presents with increased satiety, dull abdominal pain and weight loss...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents with increased satiety, dull abdominal pain and weight loss over the past 6 months. He smokes 20 cigarettes per day and has suffered from indigestion symptoms for some years. On examination, his body mass index is 18 and he looks thin. He has epigastric tenderness and a suspicion of a mass on examination of the abdomen.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 101 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 9.2 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 201 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 139 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.5 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 110 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Faecal occult blood (FOB) Positive
      Upper gastrointestinal endoscopy Yellowish coloured, ulcerating
      submucosal mass within the
      stomach
      Histology Extensive lymphocytes within the biopsy
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gastric lymphoma

      Explanation:

      Histological Diagnoses of Gastric Conditions

      Gastric lymphoma is often caused by chronic infection with H. pylori, and eradicating the infection can be curative. If not, chemotherapy is the first-line treatment. Other risk factors include HIV infection and long-term immunosuppressive therapy. In contrast, H. pylori gastritis is diagnosed through histological examination, which reveals lymphocytes and may indicate gastric lymphoma. Gastric ulcers are characterized by inflammation, necrosis, fibrinoid tissue, or granulation tissue on histology. Gastric carcinoma is identified through adenocarcinoma of diffuse or intestinal type, with higher grades exhibiting poorly formed tubules, intracellular mucous, and signet ring cells. Finally, alcoholic gastritis is diagnosed through histology as neutrophils in the epithelium above the basement membrane.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 70-year-old woman with a lengthy history of vulval lichen sclerosus et atrophicus...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old woman with a lengthy history of vulval lichen sclerosus et atrophicus complains of escalating itching and bleeding upon contact of the vulva. Upon examination, a 2.2 cm unilateral ulcer with an aggressive appearance is discovered. Biopsy results indicate invasive squamous cell carcinoma. There is no clinical indication of lymph node metastasis, and the patient is in good health. What is the suggested course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Simple vulvectomy and bilateral inguinal lymphadenectomy

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Vulval Cancer: Simple Vulvectomy and Bilateral Inguinal Lymphadenectomy

      Vulval cancer is a rare form of cancer that accounts for less than 1% of cancer diagnoses. The labia majora are the most common site, followed by labia minora. Squamous cell carcinoma is the most common type of vulval cancer, with carcinoma-in-situ being a precursor lesion that does not invade through the basement membrane. Risk factors for developing vulval cancer include increasing age, exposure to HPV, vulval lichen sclerosus et atrophicus, smoking, and immunosuppression.

      Patients may present with symptoms such as itching, pain, easy-contact bleeding of the vulva, changes in vulval skin, or frank ulcers/masses. The first lymph node station for metastases is the inguinal group. Surgery is the primary treatment for vulval cancer, with a simple vulvectomy and bilateral inguinal lymphadenectomy being the usual surgery performed, even in the absence of clinically palpable groin lymph nodes.

      Radiotherapy is commonly used before and/or after surgery depending on the stage of the disease, but it is not curative and would not be offered in isolation to an otherwise healthy patient. Chemotherapy is not usually used as a primary treatment but is offered in disseminated malignancy. Wide local excision is only used for lesions less than 2 cm in diameter with a depth of less than 1 mm. Lesions larger than this require vulvectomy and lymph node clearance due to the risk of metastasis.

      In conclusion, a simple vulvectomy and bilateral inguinal lymphadenectomy are the mainstay of treatment for vulval cancer, with radiotherapy and chemotherapy being used in certain cases. Early detection and treatment are crucial for improving outcomes in patients with vulval cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 36-year-old woman at 38 weeks gestation is in the labour suite and...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old woman at 38 weeks gestation is in the labour suite and undergoing a cardiotocography (CTG) review. Her waters broke 10 hours ago and she has been in labour for 6 hours. This is her first pregnancy and it has been uncomplicated so far. Her Bishop score is 6.

      The CTG findings are as follows:
      - Foetal heart rate 120 bpm (110 - 160)
      - Variability 10 bpm (5 - 25)
      - Decelerations Late, with 50% of contractions absent
      - Contractions 3 per 10 minutes (3 - 4)

      These findings have been consistent for the past 30 minutes. What is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prepare for category 2 caesarean section

      Explanation:

      Non-reassuring CTG findings during labour can indicate maternal or foetal compromise and require prompt action. Examples of abnormal findings include bradycardia, tachycardia, reduced variability, or prolonged deceleration. If these findings persist, the best course of action is to prepare for a category 2 caesarean section, which is for non-life-threatening maternal or foetal compromise. Augmenting contractions with syntocinon infusion is not recommended, as there is no evidence of its benefit. Increasing the frequency of CTG checks is not the best action, as the definitive action needed is to plan delivery. Tocolysis and a category 3 caesarean section are also not recommended, as they do not resolve the issue quickly enough. Foetal blood sampling is not routinely performed for non-reassuring CTG findings, but may be indicated for abnormal CTG findings to determine the health of the foetus.

      Caesarean Section: Types, Indications, and Risks

      Caesarean section, also known as C-section, is a surgical procedure that involves delivering a baby through an incision in the mother’s abdomen and uterus. In recent years, the rate of C-section has increased significantly due to an increased fear of litigation. There are two main types of C-section: lower segment C-section, which comprises 99% of cases, and classic C-section, which involves a longitudinal incision in the upper segment of the uterus.

      C-section may be indicated for various reasons, including absolute cephalopelvic disproportion, placenta praevia grades 3/4, pre-eclampsia, post-maturity, IUGR, fetal distress in labor/prolapsed cord, failure of labor to progress, malpresentations, placental abruption, vaginal infection, and cervical cancer. The urgency of C-section may be categorized into four categories, with Category 1 being the most urgent and Category 4 being elective.

      It is important for clinicians to inform women of the serious and frequent risks associated with C-section, including emergency hysterectomy, need for further surgery, admission to intensive care unit, thromboembolic disease, bladder injury, ureteric injury, and death. C-section may also increase the risk of uterine rupture, antepartum stillbirth, placenta praevia, and placenta accreta in subsequent pregnancies. Other complications may include persistent wound and abdominal discomfort, increased risk of repeat C-section, readmission to hospital, haemorrhage, infection, and fetal lacerations.

      Vaginal birth after C-section (VBAC) may be an appropriate method of delivery for pregnant women with a single previous C-section delivery, except for those with previous uterine rupture or classical C-section scar. The success rate of VBAC is around 70-75%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 14-year-old teenage girl comes to the clinic with concerns about delayed puberty...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old teenage girl comes to the clinic with concerns about delayed puberty and not having started her menstrual cycle. She reports feeling generally well and has no significant medical history. During the examination, it is noted that she has a slender build and underdeveloped breasts. There is no pubic hair present. Upon palpation, marble-sized swellings are felt in both groins. What is the most probable cause of her presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Androgen insensitivity

      Explanation:

      The classic presentation of androgen insensitivity is primary amenorrhoea, with the key symptom being groin swellings. When combined with the absence of pubic hair, this points towards a diagnosis of androgen insensitivity, also known as testicular feminisation syndrome. This condition occurs in individuals who are genetically male (46XY) but appear phenotypically female due to increased oestradiol levels, which cause breast development. The groin swellings in this case are undescended testes. While non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma could also cause groin swellings, it is less likely as it would typically present with systemic symptoms and is not a common cause of delayed puberty.

      Disorders of sex hormones can have various effects on the body, as shown in the table below. Primary hypogonadism, also known as Klinefelter’s syndrome, is characterized by high levels of LH and low levels of testosterone. Patients with this disorder often have small, firm testes, lack secondary sexual characteristics, and are infertile. They may also experience gynaecomastia and have an increased risk of breast cancer. Diagnosis is made through chromosomal analysis.

      Hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism, or Kallmann syndrome, is another cause of delayed puberty. It is typically inherited as an X-linked recessive trait and is caused by the failure of GnRH-secreting neurons to migrate to the hypothalamus. Patients with Kallmann syndrome may have hypogonadism, cryptorchidism, and anosmia. Sex hormone levels are low, and LH and FSH levels are inappropriately low or normal. Cleft lip/palate and visual/hearing defects may also be present.

      Androgen insensitivity syndrome is an X-linked recessive condition that causes end-organ resistance to testosterone, resulting in genotypically male children (46XY) having a female phenotype. Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome is the new term for testicular feminisation syndrome. Patients with this disorder may experience primary amenorrhoea, undescended testes causing groin swellings, and breast development due to the conversion of testosterone to oestradiol. Diagnosis is made through a buccal smear or chromosomal analysis to reveal a 46XY genotype. Management includes counseling to raise the child as female, bilateral orchidectomy due to an increased risk of testicular cancer from undescended testes, and oestrogen therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 35-year-old primigravida, who is 12 weeks pregnant, comes to your Antenatal clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old primigravida, who is 12 weeks pregnant, comes to your Antenatal clinic for counselling about Down syndrome screening, as her sister has the genetic condition. After discussing the various tests with her, she decides to opt for the earliest possible diagnostic test that will tell her whether her baby has Down syndrome.
      What is the test that you are most likely to advise her to have?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chorionic villus sampling (CVS)

      Explanation:

      Prenatal Testing Options for Expecting Mothers

      Expecting mothers have several options for prenatal testing to ensure the health of their developing baby. Chorionic villus sampling (CVS) is a diagnostic procedure that can be done from 11 weeks to detect chromosomal abnormalities. The risk of miscarriage is low, at 0.7% within 14 days and 1.3% within 30 days. Amniocentesis is another diagnostic option that can be done from 15 weeks, with a slightly lower risk of miscarriage at 0.6%.

      Anomaly scans are typically done at 18-21 weeks to check for any physical abnormalities in the baby, such as spina bifida or anencephaly. The nuchal translucency test, combined with blood tests, is a screening test that can determine the individual’s risk for certain chromosomal abnormalities. The quadruple blood test is another screening option that measures various hormones and proteins to assess the risk of certain conditions.

      Overall, expecting mothers have several options for prenatal testing to ensure the health of their baby. It is important to discuss these options with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of action for each individual pregnancy.

      Understanding Prenatal Testing Options for Expecting Mothers

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 23-year-old woman urgently schedules an appointment due to a two-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old woman urgently schedules an appointment due to a two-day history of increasing soreness, redness, and discharge from her left eye. She describes a gritty sensation in the affected eye but denies any foreign body exposure. The patient is otherwise healthy and admits to wearing contact lenses for up to 16 hours daily but has stopped since the onset of symptoms and is using glasses instead. Upon examination, the left eye appears inflamed with excessive tearing, while the right eye is normal. There are no abnormalities in the periorbital tissues, and visual acuity is normal with glasses. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer for same day ophthalmology assessment

      Explanation:

      If a patient who wears contact lenses complains of a painful, red eye, it is important to refer them to an eye casualty department to rule out microbial keratitis. While conjunctivitis is the most common cause of a red eye, it can usually be treated with antibiotic eye drops in primary care. However, contact lens wearers are at a higher risk of developing microbial keratitis, which can lead to serious complications such as vision loss. Distinguishing between the two conditions requires a slit-lamp examination, which is why same-day referral to ophthalmology is necessary. Contact lenses should not be used, and medical treatment is required. It is important to note that steroid eye drops should not be prescribed for acute red eye from primary care, and artificial tears are not appropriate for this type of infection.

      Understanding Keratitis: Inflammation of the Cornea

      Keratitis is a condition that refers to the inflammation of the cornea. While conjunctivitis is a common eye infection that is not usually serious, microbial keratitis can be sight-threatening and requires urgent evaluation and treatment. The causes of keratitis can vary, with bacterial infections typically caused by Staphylococcus aureus and Pseudomonas aeruginosa commonly seen in contact lens wearers. Fungal and amoebic infections can also cause keratitis, with acanthamoebic keratitis accounting for around 5% of cases. Parasitic infections such as onchocercal keratitis can also cause inflammation of the cornea.

      Other factors that can cause keratitis include viral infections such as herpes simplex keratitis, environmental factors like photokeratitis (e.g. welder’s arc eye), and exposure keratitis. Clinical features of keratitis include a red eye with pain and erythema, photophobia, a foreign body sensation, and the presence of hypopyon. Referral is necessary for contact lens wearers who present with a painful red eye, as an accurate diagnosis can only be made with a slit-lamp examination.

      Management of keratitis involves stopping the use of contact lenses until symptoms have fully resolved, as well as the use of topical antibiotics such as quinolones. Cycloplegic agents like cyclopentolate can also be used for pain relief. Complications of keratitis can include corneal scarring, perforation, endophthalmitis, and visual loss. Understanding the causes and symptoms of keratitis is important for prompt diagnosis and treatment to prevent serious complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 30-year-old female patient visits her GP complaining of a severe throbbing headache...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old female patient visits her GP complaining of a severe throbbing headache that is most intense in the morning. Despite taking paracetamol, the symptoms have persisted for several weeks. She also experiences vomiting in the mornings and has noticed blurry vision. Upon examination, her pupils are equal and reactive, and there are no abnormalities in her systemic examination. What would you anticipate observing during fundoscopy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Blurring of optic disc margin

      Explanation:

      Papilloedema is characterized by a blurry appearance of the optic disc margin during fundoscopy.

      The patient in question is experiencing elevated intracranial pressure, the cause of which is uncertain. Their symptoms, including a morning headache, vision impairment, and vomiting, are indicative of papilloedema. As such, it is expected that their fundoscopy would reveal signs of this condition, such as a blurred optic disc margin.

      Other potential indicators of papilloedema include a loss of optic cup and venous pulsation. However, increased arterial reflex is more commonly associated with hypertensive retinopathy, while retinal pigmentation is a hallmark of retinitis pigmentosa.

      Understanding Papilloedema: Optic Disc Swelling Caused by Increased Intracranial Pressure

      Papilloedema is a condition characterized by swelling of the optic disc due to increased pressure within the skull. This condition is typically bilateral and can be identified through fundoscopy. During this examination, venous engorgement is usually the first sign observed, followed by loss of venous pulsation, blurring of the optic disc margin, elevation of the optic disc, loss of the optic cup, and the presence of Paton’s lines, which are concentric or radial retinal lines cascading from the optic disc.

      There are several potential causes of papilloedema, including space-occupying lesions such as tumors or vascular abnormalities, malignant hypertension, idiopathic intracranial hypertension, hydrocephalus, and hypercapnia. In rare cases, papilloedema may also be caused by hypoparathyroidism and hypocalcaemia, or vitamin A toxicity.

      Overall, understanding papilloedema is important for identifying potential underlying conditions and providing appropriate treatment to prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 30-year-old man was admitted to the emergency department following a car crash....

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man was admitted to the emergency department following a car crash. He was found to be in a profound coma and subsequently pronounced brain dead.

      What is the accurate diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Brain death testing should be undertaken by two separate doctors on separate occasions

      Explanation:

      To ensure accuracy, brain death testing must be conducted by two experienced doctors who are knowledgeable in performing brain stem death testing. These doctors should have at least 5 years of post-graduate experience and must not be members of the transplant team if organ donation is being considered. The patient being tested should have normal electrolytes and no reversible causes, as well as a deep coma of known aetiology and no sedation. The knee jerk reflex is not used in brain death testing, instead, the corneal reflex and oculovestibular reflexes are tested through the caloric test. It is important to note that brain death testing should be conducted by two separate doctors on separate occasions.

      Criteria and Testing for Brain Stem Death

      Brain death occurs when the brain and brain stem cease to function, resulting in irreversible loss of consciousness and vital functions. To determine brain stem death, certain criteria must be met and specific tests must be performed. The patient must be in a deep coma of known cause, with reversible causes excluded and no sedation. Electrolyte levels must be normal.

      The testing for brain stem death involves several assessments. The pupils must be fixed and unresponsive to changes in light intensity. The corneal reflex must be absent, and there should be no response to supraorbital pressure. The oculovestibular reflexes must be absent, which is tested by injecting ice-cold water into each ear. There should be no cough reflex to bronchial stimulation or gagging response to pharyngeal stimulation. Finally, there should be no observed respiratory effort in response to disconnection from the ventilator for at least five minutes, with adequate oxygenation ensured.

      It is important that the testing is performed by two experienced doctors on two separate occasions, with at least one being a consultant. Neither doctor can be a member of the transplant team if organ donation is being considered. These criteria and tests are crucial in determining brain stem death and ensuring that the patient is beyond recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 75-year-old man is scheduled for an elective knee replacement surgery the following...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man is scheduled for an elective knee replacement surgery the following day. He has type 2 diabetes and is the first patient on the surgery list. His doctor has advised him to continue taking his once-daily dose of metformin and his new anti-diabetic medication on the day of the operation. The patient's physician recently changed his diabetes medication due to hypoglycemic episodes with his previous medication. What is the most probable new antidiabetic medication he is taking?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sitagliptin

      Explanation:

      Patients undergoing surgery who are taking DPP-4 inhibitors (-gliptins) and GLP-1 analogues (-tides) can continue taking these medications as normal throughout the perioperative period. However, SGLT-2 blockers such as empagliflozin and dapagliflozin should be omitted on the day of surgery due to the increased risk of diabetic ketoacidosis during periods of dehydration and acute illness. Sulphonylureas like gliclazide should also be omitted until the patient is able to eat and drink again, as they can cause hypoglycaemia in patients who are in a fasted state. It is important to note that the patient in the case scenario may have been taking sulphonylureas in the past, but they are unlikely to be part of their current treatment regimen as they were discontinued by their GP due to side effects.

      Preparation for surgery varies depending on whether the patient is undergoing an elective or emergency procedure. For elective cases, it is important to address any medical issues beforehand through a pre-admission clinic. Blood tests, urine analysis, and other diagnostic tests may be necessary depending on the proposed procedure and patient fitness. Risk factors for deep vein thrombosis should also be assessed, and a plan for thromboprophylaxis formulated. Patients are advised to fast from non-clear liquids and food for at least 6 hours before surgery, and those with diabetes require special management to avoid potential complications. Emergency cases require stabilization and resuscitation as needed, and antibiotics may be necessary. Special preparation may also be required for certain procedures, such as vocal cord checks for thyroid surgery or bowel preparation for colorectal cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 25-year-old woman presents with a nine-week history of fever. She has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presents with a nine-week history of fever. She has been experiencing daily temperatures up to 40°C, malaise, and occasional aches in the hands and knees. She also noticed a transient pink rash on her abdomen. Her GP prescribed a one-week course of ampicillin, but it had little effect. On examination, she has a temperature of 38.9°C, a pulse of 110 per minute, and a faint systolic ejection murmur. Her spleen is palpable 3 cm below the left costal margin. Her haemoglobin level is 115 g/L, and her white cell count is 12.8 ×109/L. Her ASO titre is 250 units, and her rheumatoid factor and ANF are negative. Blood cultures have been requested but are not yet available. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Adult onset Still's disease

      Explanation:

      Adult Onset Still’s Disease

      Adult onset Still’s disease is a type of inflammatory disorder that affects young adults. Its exact cause and development are still unknown, but it is characterized by various symptoms such as fever, rash, joint pain, and organ enlargement. The disease can have systemic exacerbations and chronic arthritis, with periods of remission in between. To diagnose adult onset Still’s disease, a person must have at least five criteria, including two major criteria such as high fever lasting for a week or longer, joint pain lasting for two weeks or longer, rash, and abnormal white blood cell count. Minor criteria include sore throat, lymph node or spleen swelling, liver problems, and the absence of rheumatoid arthritis.

      It is important to note that mildly raised ASO titres may be present in inflammatory or infective conditions, but an ASO titre of at least 500-1000 is expected in active acute rheumatic fever. Additionally, an ejection systolic murmur may be caused by the hyperdynamic circulation in adult onset Still’s disease, unlike acute rheumatic fever or acute bacterial endocarditis, which cause acute valvular regurgitation and result in pan-systolic or early-diastolic murmurs. Lastly, bacterial endocarditis does not cause the pink rash associated with adult onset Still’s disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 28-year-old woman has been prescribed tranexamic acid to alleviate symptoms of heavy...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman has been prescribed tranexamic acid to alleviate symptoms of heavy menstrual bleeding. Can you explain the mechanism of action of tranexamic acid?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibits fibrin degradation

      Explanation:

      Anticoagulant Medications and Their Mechanisms

      Anticoagulant medications are used to prevent and treat thromboembolic disease. Tranexamic acid is a potent inhibitor of fibrinolysis, which is the process of breaking down blood clots. It works by blocking the conversion of plasminogen to plasmin, which is necessary for the breakdown of clots. Compared to aminocaproic acid, tranexamic acid is about 10 times more effective in inhibiting fibrinolysis.

      Factor X inhibitors and vitamin K inhibitors, such as warfarin, are also used to prevent thromboembolic events. These medications work by interfering with the clotting cascade, which is a series of chemical reactions that lead to the formation of blood clots. By inhibiting the production of clotting factors, these medications can prevent the formation of new clots and reduce the risk of further events.

      Aspirin and clopidogrel are medications that inhibit platelet aggregation. Platelets are small cells in the blood that play a key role in clot formation. By inhibiting platelet aggregation, these medications can reduce the risk of clot formation and prevent thromboembolic events. Aspirin works by blocking the production of thromboxane, a chemical that promotes platelet aggregation, while clopidogrel works by blocking the activation of platelets.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 25-year-old male patient arrives at the emergency department complaining of pain in...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male patient arrives at the emergency department complaining of pain in his left eye. He has a medical history of recurring sinusitis and ankylosing spondylitis. Upon examination, there is swelling and redness around the left eye, and there is discomfort when testing eye movements. The pupils appear normal. What is the recommended course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IV antibiotics

      Explanation:

      The appropriate treatment for patients with orbital cellulitis is admission to the hospital for IV antibiotics. This is due to the potential risk of cavernous sinus thrombosis and intracranial spread. The symptoms of ocular pain, pain on eye movements, redness, and swelling around the eye suggest this condition. IV acetazolamide, oral antibiotics, and oral steroids are not suitable treatments for orbital cellulitis as they are intended for different conditions.

      Understanding Orbital Cellulitis: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      Orbital cellulitis is a serious infection that affects the fat and muscles behind the orbital septum within the orbit, but not the globe. It is commonly caused by upper respiratory tract infections that spread from the sinuses and can lead to a high mortality rate. On the other hand, periorbital cellulitis is a less severe infection that occurs in the superficial tissues anterior to the orbital septum. However, it can progress to orbital cellulitis if left untreated.

      Risk factors for orbital cellulitis include childhood, previous sinus infections, lack of Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib) vaccination, recent eyelid infections or insect bites, and ear or facial infections. Symptoms of orbital cellulitis include redness and swelling around the eye, severe ocular pain, visual disturbance, proptosis, ophthalmoplegia, eyelid edema, and ptosis. In rare cases, meningeal involvement can cause drowsiness, nausea, and vomiting.

      To differentiate between orbital and preseptal cellulitis, doctors look for reduced visual acuity, proptosis, and ophthalmoplegia, which are not consistent with preseptal cellulitis. Full blood count and clinical examination involving complete ophthalmological assessment are necessary to determine the severity of the infection. CT with contrast can also help identify inflammation of the orbital tissues deep to the septum and sinusitis. Blood culture and microbiological swab are also necessary to determine the organism causing the infection.

      Management of orbital cellulitis requires hospital admission for IV antibiotics. It is a medical emergency that requires urgent senior review. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent complications and reduce the risk of mortality.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - John is a 44-year-old man who presented to you a month ago with...

    Incorrect

    • John is a 44-year-old man who presented to you a month ago with a 6-week history of upper abdominal pain, heartburn, and occasional reflux. His medical history is unremarkable, and you both agreed on a plan for a 1-month trial of omeprazole 20 mg daily.

      John returns for a follow-up appointment after completing the course of omeprazole. Unfortunately, his symptoms have only slightly improved and are still causing him distress.

      What would be the most suitable course of action to manage John's persistent symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Test for Helicobacter pylori infection in 2 weeks and treat if positive

      Explanation:

      If initial treatment for dyspepsia with either a PPI or ‘test and treat’ approach fails, the other approach should be tried next. NICE guidelines recommend prescribing a full-dose PPI for 1 month or testing for H. pylori infection and prescribing eradication therapy if positive. If symptoms persist, switch to the alternative strategy. Referral for routine upper GI endoscopy is not indicated at this stage.

      Management of Dyspepsia and Referral for Possible Cancer

      Dyspepsia is a common symptom that can be caused by various factors, including medication and lifestyle choices. However, it can also be a sign of underlying conditions such as stomach or oesophageal cancer. The 2015 NICE guidelines provide updated advice on when urgent referral for endoscopy is necessary. Patients with dysphagia or an upper abdominal mass consistent with stomach cancer should be referred urgently. Patients aged 55 years or older with weight loss and upper abdominal pain, reflux, or dyspepsia should also be referred urgently. Non-urgent referrals include patients with haematemesis or those with treatment-resistant dyspepsia, upper abdominal pain with low haemoglobin levels, or raised platelet count with other symptoms.

      For patients with undiagnosed dyspepsia, a step-wise approach is recommended. First, medications should be reviewed for possible causes. Lifestyle advice should also be given. If symptoms persist, a trial of full-dose proton pump inhibitor for one month or a ‘test and treat’ approach for H. pylori can be tried. If symptoms persist after either approach, the alternative should be attempted. Testing for H. pylori infection can be done using a carbon-13 urea breath test, stool antigen test, or laboratory-based serology. If symptoms resolve following test and treat, there is no need to check for H. pylori eradication. However, if repeat testing is required, a carbon-13 urea breath test should be used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 65-year-old male presents to his primary care physician with a 2-month history...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old male presents to his primary care physician with a 2-month history of fatigue and difficulty concentrating. He experiences shortness of breath when walking short distances, which was not previously an issue. Upon examination, he appears pale and there are no notable findings in his cardiorespiratory or neurological exams. Blood tests reveal the following results: Hb 100 g/L (Male: 135-180, Female: 115-160), Platelets 165* 109/L (150-400), WBC 4.2* 109/L (4.0-11.0), and a blood film with hypersegmented polymorphs. His Vitamin B12 level is 110 ng/L (>200) and his Folate level is 1.5 ng/mL (2-10). What is the most appropriate management option for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: B12 replacement - intramuscular replacement

      Explanation:

      The management of vitamin B12 deficiency typically involves intramuscular replacement of B12, with a loading regimen followed by injections every 2-3 months. Patients with this deficiency may experience symptoms such as fatigue, poor concentration, and pallor, and blood tests may confirm the presence of anemia, low B12, low folate, and hypersegmented polymorphs on a blood film. In some cases, patients may also experience thrombocytopenia due to the role of B12 as a co-factor in bone marrow cell synthesis. While patients with neurological symptoms or who are pregnant should be urgently referred, this patient does not meet those criteria. Referral to haematology may be necessary if the patient has a suspected blood disorder or malignancy, fails to respond to treatment, or has a persistently high mean cell volume. Referral to gastroenterology may be necessary if the patient has a malabsorption syndrome, gastric cancer, or pernicious anemia with gastrointestinal symptoms. Intramuscular replacement of B12 is preferred over oral replacement, as per NICE guidelines, and should always be administered prior to folate replacement to avoid spinal cord degeneration.

      Understanding Pernicious Anaemia

      Pernicious anaemia is a condition that results in vitamin B12 deficiency due to an autoimmune disorder affecting the gastric mucosa. The term pernicious means causing harm in a gradual or subtle way, and this is reflected in the often subtle symptoms and delayed diagnosis of the condition. While pernicious anaemia is the most common cause of vitamin B12 deficiency, other causes include atrophic gastritis, gastrectomy, and malnutrition.

      The pathophysiology of pernicious anaemia involves antibodies to intrinsic factor and/or gastric parietal cells. These antibodies can bind to intrinsic factor, blocking the vitamin B12 binding site, or reduce acid production and cause atrophic gastritis. This leads to reduced intrinsic factor production and reduced vitamin B12 absorption, which can result in megaloblastic anaemia and neuropathy.

      Risk factors for pernicious anaemia include being female, middle to old age, and having other autoimmune disorders such as thyroid disease, type 1 diabetes mellitus, Addison’s, rheumatoid arthritis, and vitiligo. It is also more common in individuals with blood group A.

      Symptoms of pernicious anaemia include anaemia features such as lethargy, pallor, and dyspnoea, as well as neurological features such as peripheral neuropathy and subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord. Neuropsychiatric features such as memory loss, poor concentration, confusion, depression, and irritability may also be present, along with mild jaundice and glossitis.

      Diagnosis of pernicious anaemia involves a full blood count, vitamin B12 and folate levels, and testing for antibodies such as anti intrinsic factor antibodies and anti gastric parietal cell antibodies. Treatment involves vitamin B12 replacement, usually given intramuscularly, and folic acid supplementation may also be required. Complications of pernicious anaemia include an increased risk of gastric cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 45-year-old individual complains of numbness and tingling along the ulnar border of...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old individual complains of numbness and tingling along the ulnar border of their wrist and forearm. During examination, you observe weak flexion of all digits, including the thumb. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: C8 radiculopathy

      Explanation:

      Unlike named nerve pathology, radiculopathy follows a dermatomal distribution. This means that the pattern of sensory loss cannot be explained by a single named nerve. For example, while the ulnar nerve supplies the ulnar border of the hand and the medial antebrachial cutaneous nerve supplies the medial forearm, these areas are actually covered by the C8 dermatome.

      It’s important to note that thumb flexion would not be affected in ulnar nerve lesions, and carpal tunnel syndrome would only affect flexion of the thumb without producing this specific pattern of sensory loss. On the other hand, a cerebrovascular accident would likely result in complete upper limb weakness or numbness.

      Understanding Cervical Spondylosis

      Cervical spondylosis is a prevalent condition that arises from osteoarthritis. It is characterized by neck pain, which can be mistaken for headaches or other conditions. This condition is caused by the degeneration of the cervical spine, which is the part of the spine that is located in the neck. As the spine degenerates, it can cause the vertebrae to rub against each other, leading to pain and discomfort.

      Cervical spondylosis can also cause complications such as radiculopathy and myelopathy. Radiculopathy occurs when the nerves that run from the spinal cord to the arms and legs become compressed or damaged. This can cause pain, numbness, and weakness in the affected area. Myelopathy, on the other hand, occurs when the spinal cord itself becomes compressed or damaged. This can cause a range of symptoms, including difficulty walking, loss of bladder or bowel control, and even paralysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 30-year-old man has arrived at the Emergency Department complaining of fever, jaundice...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man has arrived at the Emergency Department complaining of fever, jaundice and malaise over the last three days. His initial lab results indicate elevated liver enzymes and a decreased platelet count. He has not traveled recently. The possibility of autoimmune hepatitis is being evaluated. What antibodies are the most specific for this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anti-smooth muscle antibodies

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Autoimmune Liver Disease: Antibody Tests

      When a patient presents with abnormal liver function tests and a young age, autoimmune liver disease is a possible diagnosis. To confirm this, the most specific antibody test is for anti-smooth muscle antibodies, which are positive in about 80% of patients with autoimmune liver disease.

      On the other hand, anti-mitochondrial antibodies are the hallmark of primary biliary cholangitis, with over 95% of patients being subtype M2 positive. Hepatitis A IgM antibodies are elevated in patients with acute hepatitis A infection, but not in autoimmune liver disease.

      While raised anti-nuclear antibodies (ANAs) are seen in many autoimmune conditions, they are not very specific for autoimmune hepatitis. Positive ANAs are also seen in other diseases like systemic sclerosis, rheumatoid arthritis, and Sjögren syndrome. Similarly, anti-Smith antibodies are seen in about 20% of patients with systemic lupus erythematosus but are not specific for autoimmune liver disease.

      In conclusion, antibody tests play a crucial role in differentiating autoimmune liver disease from other liver conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 22-year-old woman presents with unintentional weight loss and blood stained diarrhoea. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old woman presents with unintentional weight loss and blood stained diarrhoea. The blood is fresh, and mucous is often present in the stool. On examination, she has oral ulcers, erythema nodosum and conjunctivitis. The mucosa looks abnormal and multiple biopsies are taken. Ulcerative colitis is suspected.
      Which of the following findings would support a diagnosis of ulcerative colitis over Crohn’s disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Crypt abscesses

      Explanation:

      When differentiating between ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease, it is important to note that crypt abscesses are typical for ulcerative colitis, while other options are more commonly found in Crohn’s disease. Ulcerative colitis is the most common form of inflammatory bowel disease, with inflammation starting in the rectum and spreading upwards in a contiguous fashion. Patients typically experience left-sided abdominal pain, cramping, bloody diarrhea with mucous, and unintentional weight loss. Extra-intestinal manifestations may include seronegative arthropathy and pyoderma gangrenosum. Barium enema and colonoscopy are used to diagnose ulcerative colitis, with the latter revealing diffuse and contiguous ulceration and inflammatory infiltrates affecting the mucosa and submucosa only. Complications of long-term ulcerative colitis include large bowel adenocarcinoma, toxic megacolon, and primary sclerosing cholangitis. In contrast, Crohn’s disease usually presents with right-sided abdominal pain, watery diarrhea, and weight loss. Barium enema and colonoscopy reveal multiple ulcers and bowel wall thickening, with the microscopic appearance showing a mixed acute and chronic transmural inflammatory infiltrate with non-caseating granulomas. Terminal ileum involvement is typical for Crohn’s disease, while stricturing and fistula formation are common complications due to its transmural inflammatory nature. Overall, while both ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease are systemic illnesses, they have distinct differences in their clinical presentation and diagnostic features.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 9-year-old patient comes in with a history of increasing polyuria and polydipsia...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old patient comes in with a history of increasing polyuria and polydipsia over the past eight months, along with diffuse bone pain. During the examination, the patient displays exophthalmos, seborrhoeic dermatitis, and indications of mastoiditis. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Langerhans cell histiocytosis

      Explanation:

      Langerhans Cell Histiocytosis: A Rare Disorder with Unknown Cause

      Langerhans cell histiocytosis is a rare disorder that is characterized by the abnormal proliferation of histiocytes, resulting in the development of granulomatous lesions in various organs. The cause of this condition is unknown, and it can range in severity. One of the symptoms of Langerhans cell histiocytosis is bone pain, which can be accompanied by features of skull involvement. In some cases, patients with this disorder may also have diabetes insipidus.

      Langerhans cell histiocytosis is a complex condition that can be difficult to diagnose. However, if left untreated, it can lead to serious complications. Therefore, it is important for patients with symptoms of this disorder to seek medical attention as soon as possible. Treatment options may include chemotherapy, radiation therapy, and surgery, depending on the severity of the condition and the organs affected. With proper treatment, many patients with Langerhans cell histiocytosis are able to manage their symptoms and lead normal, healthy lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 40-year-old woman presents with pain of the hand, wrist, ankle and knee...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman presents with pain of the hand, wrist, ankle and knee which is asymmetrical and has been going on for the past few months. She has developed a rash on her face and has developed a dry cough and pain on inspiration. She has a child but has had two previous miscarriages (Gravida 3, Para 1). She has no other concurrent medical problems or medications.
      Testing for which one of the following autoantibodies is most likely to reveal the diagnosis in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anti-dsDNA

      Explanation:

      Understanding Autoantibodies: Differentiating Connective Tissue Diseases

      Autoantibodies are antibodies produced by the immune system that mistakenly attack the body’s own tissues. These antibodies can be used as diagnostic markers for various connective tissue diseases. Here, we will discuss the different types of autoantibodies and their association with specific diseases.

      Anti-dsDNA is highly specific for systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), a multisystem connective tissue disease that can affect the heart, lungs, kidneys, and brain. Patients with SLE may present with a malar rash, polyarthritis, and pleuritis, as well as an increased rate of miscarriage.

      Anti-Jo is associated with myositis, such as polymyositis or dermatomyositis, which present with muscle pain and a rash but no pleuritic pain or an associated history of miscarriage.

      Anti-Ro is associated with Sjögren syndrome, which can have similar features to SLE, including myalgia or polyarthralgia in 50% of patients, as well as skin features of purpura and annular erythema. However, it will not cause pleuritic pain.

      Anti-centromere is associated with limited cutaneous scleroderma, a multisystem autoimmune disease resulting in abnormal growth of connective tissue. It can cause nonspecific musculoskeletal pain but not an associated history of pleuritic and miscarriage.

      Anti-Rh is an antibody to a receptor on blood cells and is not associated with connective tissue disease.

      In conclusion, the presence or absence of autoantibodies does not confirm or exclude a diagnosis of connective tissue disease. A diagnosis is based on a combination of clinical presentation and laboratory tests. Understanding the association between autoantibodies and specific diseases can aid in the diagnosis and management of these complex conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 25-year-old man is in a car accident and initially has a GCS...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man is in a car accident and initially has a GCS of 15. However, upon arrival at the hospital and being monitored in a side room, he is later found to have a GCS of 3 and a blown right pupil. What is the most likely cause of this sudden deterioration?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Transtentorial herniation

      Explanation:

      A blown right pupil is indicative of compression of the third cranial nerve, which is most commonly caused by an extradural bleed. However, as this option is not available, the process of transtentorial herniation would be the most appropriate answer. While intraventricular bleeds are more prevalent in premature neonates, deterioration due to hydrocephalus is a more gradual process.

      Types of Traumatic Brain Injury

      Traumatic brain injury can result in primary and secondary brain injury. Primary brain injury can be focal or diffuse. Diffuse axonal injury occurs due to mechanical shearing, which causes disruption and tearing of axons. intracranial haematomas can be extradural, subdural, or intracerebral, while contusions may occur adjacent to or contralateral to the side of impact. Secondary brain injury occurs when cerebral oedema, ischaemia, infection, tonsillar or tentorial herniation exacerbates the original injury. The normal cerebral auto regulatory processes are disrupted following trauma rendering the brain more susceptible to blood flow changes and hypoxia. The Cushings reflex often occurs late and is usually a pre-terminal event.

      Extradural haematoma is bleeding into the space between the dura mater and the skull. It often results from acceleration-deceleration trauma or a blow to the side of the head. The majority of epidural haematomas occur in the temporal region where skull fractures cause a rupture of the middle meningeal artery. Subdural haematoma is bleeding into the outermost meningeal layer. It most commonly occurs around the frontal and parietal lobes. Risk factors include old age, alcoholism, and anticoagulation. Subarachnoid haemorrhage classically causes a sudden occipital headache. It usually occurs spontaneously in the context of a ruptured cerebral aneurysm but may be seen in association with other injuries when a patient has sustained a traumatic brain injury. Intracerebral haematoma is a collection of blood within the substance of the brain. Causes/risk factors include hypertension, vascular lesion, cerebral amyloid angiopathy, trauma, brain tumour, or infarct. Patients will present similarly to an ischaemic stroke or with a decrease in consciousness. CT imaging will show a hyperdensity within the substance of the brain. Treatment is often conservative under the care of stroke physicians, but large clots in patients with impaired consciousness may warrant surgical evacuation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 55-year-old woman presents at the clinic for evaluation. She has not experienced...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman presents at the clinic for evaluation. She has not experienced menstrual periods for the past six months and has taken two pregnancy tests, both of which were negative. Upon clinical examination, no abnormalities were found. The patient desires a blood test to determine if she has entered menopause. What is the most sensitive hormone to test for this purpose?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: FSH

      Explanation:

      Hormone Levels and Menopausal Status

      Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) levels that are greater than 30 IU/l, repeated over a period of four to eight weeks, are typically indicative of menopause. It is important to ensure that FSH is tested when the patient is not on contraception, although this is not relevant in the current scenario. While oestrogen and progesterone levels decrease after menopause, their assay is less reliable in determining menopausal status compared to FSH levels. Beta-HCG levels are elevated during pregnancy and trophoblastic disease, while prolactin levels increase in response to certain drug therapies and the presence of a pituitary tumour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 22-year-old patient comes to your clinic after receiving a positive pregnancy test...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old patient comes to your clinic after receiving a positive pregnancy test result. She has made the decision to have an abortion after discussing it with her partner and family. However, as a healthcare provider, you personally do not support abortion and are currently treating patients who are struggling with infertility. How should you handle this challenging consultation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Discuss her options and explain that due to your personal beliefs, you will arrange for her to see another doctor in this instance who will make necessary arrangements

      Explanation:

      According to Good Medical Practice (2013), if you have a conscientious objection to a particular procedure, it is your responsibility to inform your patients and explain their right to see another doctor. You must provide them with sufficient information to exercise this right without expressing any disapproval of their lifestyle, choices, or beliefs. It is important to ensure that your personal views do not unfairly discriminate against patients or colleagues and do not affect the treatment you provide or arrange.

      Termination of Pregnancy in the UK

      The UK’s current abortion law is based on the 1967 Abortion Act, which was amended in 1990 to reduce the upper limit for termination from 28 weeks to 24 weeks gestation. To perform an abortion, two registered medical practitioners must sign a legal document, except in emergencies where only one is needed. The procedure must be carried out by a registered medical practitioner in an NHS hospital or licensed premise.

      The method used to terminate a pregnancy depends on the gestation period. For pregnancies less than nine weeks, mifepristone (an anti-progesterone) is administered, followed by prostaglandins 48 hours later to stimulate uterine contractions. For pregnancies less than 13 weeks, surgical dilation and suction of uterine contents is used. For pregnancies more than 15 weeks, surgical dilation and evacuation of uterine contents or late medical abortion (inducing ‘mini-labour’) is used.

      The 1967 Abortion Act outlines the circumstances under which a person shall not be guilty of an offence under the law relating to abortion. These include if two registered medical practitioners are of the opinion, formed in good faith, that the pregnancy has not exceeded its 24th week and that the continuance of the pregnancy would involve risk, greater than if the pregnancy were terminated, of injury to the physical or mental health of the pregnant woman or any existing children of her family. The limits do not apply in cases where it is necessary to save the life of the woman, there is evidence of extreme fetal abnormality, or there is a risk of serious physical or mental injury to the woman.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which of the following accurately describes one of the anatomical relationships of the...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following accurately describes one of the anatomical relationships of the oesophagus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Azygous vein lies to the right of the oesophagus

      Explanation:

      Anatomy of the Oesophagus

      The oesophagus is a muscular tube that carries food from the larynx to the stomach. It is approximately 25 cm long and is divided into two parts: the thoracic and abdominal portions. The thoracic portion runs vertically in the posterior part of the superior and posterior mediastinum, entering the superior mediastinum between the trachea and vertebra column. It then passes behind and to the right of the aortic arch and descends into the posterior mediastinum along the right side of the descending aorta. The thoracic aorta lies posterior to the root of the left lung, the pericardium, and the oesophagus. The oesophagus exits the posterior mediastinum through the oesophageal hiatus in the right crus of the diaphragm and enters the stomach at the cardiac orifice of the stomach.

      The short abdominal part of the oesophagus passes from the oesophageal hiatus in the right crus of the diaphragm to the stomach. The azygous vein forms collateral pathways between the superior vena cava and inferior vena cava, draining blood from the posterior walls of the thorax and abdomen. The recurrent laryngeal nerve loops around the subclavian on the right and around the arch of the aorta on the left, ascending anteriorly to the oesophagus in the trachea-oesphageal groove. The intercostal arteries arise posterior to the oesophagus from the thoracic descending aorta. the anatomy of the oesophagus is important for diagnosing and treating conditions that affect it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - An 80-year-old man who lives alone and prepares his own food is discovered...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man who lives alone and prepares his own food is discovered to have multiple ecchymotic haemorrhagic areas surrounding his hair follicles. The hairs are broken, and various haematomas are present in the muscles of his arms and legs. Other than the absence of teeth, the remainder of the physical examination is unremarkable. Laboratory testing reveals a normal prothrombin time, APTT, and a full blood count that is normal except for a haematocrit of 28%. Which deficiency is most likely to account for this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vitamin C

      Explanation:

      Scurvy: Symptoms and Causes

      Scurvy is a medical condition that occurs due to a lack of vitamin C in the diet. This deficiency leads to impaired collagen synthesis, which can cause a range of symptoms. The most common signs of scurvy include gum swelling, bleeding, and infection, as well as loose teeth and mucosal petechiae. In severe cases, patients may also experience scleral icterus, which is a yellowing of the eyes, and pale conjunctiva. Children with scurvy may suffer from fractures, dislocations, and tenderness of bones, while bleeding into muscles and joints is also possible.

      One of the most recognizable symptoms of scurvy is the appearance of the skin. Patients may develop perifollicular hyperkeratotic papules, which are small bumps around hair follicles. They may also experience perifollicular haemorrhages, which are small spots of bleeding around hair follicles. Other skin symptoms include purpura, which is a rash of purple spots, and ecchymoses, which are larger areas of bruising.

      In conclusion, scurvy is a serious medical condition that can cause a range of symptoms. It is caused by a lack of vitamin C in the diet, which leads to impaired collagen synthesis. If left untreated, scurvy can cause significant damage to the body, including bleeding, infection, and bone fractures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 26-year-old male comes to the rheumatology clinic complaining of lower back pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old male comes to the rheumatology clinic complaining of lower back pain that extends to his buttocks for the past 3 months. He experiences the most discomfort in the morning, but it gets better with physical activity. Sometimes, he wakes up in the early hours of the morning due to the pain. What is the most probable finding in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Syndesmophytes on plain x-ray

      Explanation:

      Syndesmophytes, which are ossifications of the outer fibers of the annulus fibrosus, are a common feature of ankylosing spondylitis. This patient is exhibiting symptoms of inflammatory joint pain, which is most likely caused by ankylosing spondylitis given his age, gender, and the nature of his pain. Plain x-rays can reveal the presence of ossifications within spinal ligaments or intervertebral discs’ annulus fibrosus. It is incorrect to assume that his symptoms would not improve with naproxen, as NSAIDs are commonly used to alleviate inflammatory joint pain. A bamboo spine on plain x-ray is a rare late sign that is not typically seen in clinical practice. While ankylosing spondylitis may be associated with apical lung fibrosis, this would present as a restrictive defect on spirometry, not an obstructive one.

      Investigating and Managing Ankylosing Spondylitis

      Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It is more commonly seen in males aged 20-30 years old. Inflammatory markers such as ESR and CRP are usually elevated, but normal levels do not necessarily rule out ankylosing spondylitis. HLA-B27 is not a reliable diagnostic tool as it can also be positive in normal individuals. The most effective way to diagnose ankylosing spondylitis is through a plain x-ray of the sacroiliac joints. However, if the x-ray is negative but suspicion for AS remains high, an MRI can be obtained to confirm the diagnosis.

      Management of ankylosing spondylitis involves regular exercise, such as swimming, and the use of NSAIDs as the first-line treatment. Physiotherapy can also be helpful. Disease-modifying drugs used for rheumatoid arthritis, such as sulphasalazine, are only useful if there is peripheral joint involvement. Anti-TNF therapy, such as etanercept and adalimumab, should be given to patients with persistently high disease activity despite conventional treatments, according to the 2010 EULAR guidelines. Ongoing research is being conducted to determine whether anti-TNF therapies should be used earlier in the course of the disease. Spirometry may show a restrictive defect due to a combination of pulmonary fibrosis, kyphosis, and ankylosis of the costovertebral joints.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 32-year-old female patient complains of a painful wrist that has been bothering...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old female patient complains of a painful wrist that has been bothering her for 6 weeks. During the examination, she experiences pain on the radial side of the wrist when the thumb is forcefully adducted and flexed. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: De Quervain's tenosynovitis

      Explanation:

      Inflammation of the tendons on the lateral side of the wrist and thumb leads to de Quervain’s tenosynovitis. To diagnose this condition, Finkelstein’s test can be performed by quickly deviating the hand medially. If there is a sharp pain along the distal radius, it is indicative of de Quervain’s tenosynovitis.

      De Quervain’s Tenosynovitis: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      De Quervain’s tenosynovitis is a condition that commonly affects women between the ages of 30 and 50. It occurs when the sheath containing the extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus tendons becomes inflamed. The condition is characterized by pain on the radial side of the wrist, tenderness over the radial styloid process, and pain when the thumb is abducted against resistance. A positive Finkelstein’s test, in which the thumb is pulled in ulnar deviation and longitudinal traction, can also indicate the presence of tenosynovitis.

      Treatment for De Quervain’s tenosynovitis typically involves analgesia, steroid injections, and immobilization with a thumb splint (spica). In some cases, surgical treatment may be necessary. With proper diagnosis and treatment, most patients are able to recover from this condition and resume their normal activities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Passmed