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Question 1
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You are asked to evaluate a 22-year-old patient who has arrived at the Emergency department with bloody diarrhoea. The patient has been experiencing diarrhoea for the past two weeks, along with increasing nausea, malaise, and mild swelling in the lower limbs. She also had difficulty passing urine. The patient had consumed steak from a local butcher at a friend's barbecue the day before the onset of diarrhoea.
During the examination, you notice that the patient is pale with petechiae over her legs and a puffy face. Her blood pressure is 160/95 mmHg, and she has a tachycardia and crackles on inspiration at both lung bases. You also observe an old appendicectomy scar in the right iliac fossa.
The following investigations were conducted:
- Haemoglobin: 85 g/L (115-165)
- White cell count: 13.2 ×109/L (4-11)
- Neutrophils: 9.5 ×109/L (1.5-7)
- Platelets: 35 ×109/L (150-400)
- PT: 12 s (11.5-15.5)
- APTT: 34 s (30-40)
- Fibrinogen: 4 g/L (1.8-5.4)
- Serum sodium: 139 mmol/L (137-144)
- Serum potassium: 6.1 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
- Serum urea: 40 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
- Serum creatinine: 411 µmol/L (60-110)
- Serum albumin: 27 g/L (37-49)
- Dipstick urine: Blood ++ Protein +
What is the most crucial investigation that needs to be conducted next to determine the diagnosis?Your Answer: Blood film analysis
Explanation:Haemolytic uraemic syndrome (HUS) is characterized by acute renal failure, microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia, and thrombocytopenia with normal clotting. It is caused by verocytotoxin producing Escherichia coli and can also be caused by coxsackie, echovirus, and Shigella. Symptoms include haematuria, oliguria, and purpura. Treatment is supportive and includes correction of anaemia, correction of uraemia by early dialysis, strict fluid balance, and treatment of hypertension. Differential diagnosis includes sepsis with DIC and TTP. Therapy of choice for TTP is plasma exchange with fresh frozen plasma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 2
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A 25-year-old man presents with severe tightness in his chest and difficulty breathing. Upon examination, he is found to be very wheezy, with a high respiratory rate, but is still able to speak in full sentences. He has a history of asthma, which is usually well-controlled and only requires occasional use of a salbutamol inhaler. The onset of his symptoms occurred during a thunderstorm, leading to a suspicion of thunderstorm asthma. What is believed to be the underlying cause of this condition?
Your Answer: Sudden spore and pollen release due to pressure changes
Explanation:Thunderstorm asthma is a rare event caused by sudden spore and pollen release due to pressure changes during a thunderstorm. It can trigger asthma exacerbation in people not previously known to have asthma. Wet conditions at the beginning of a thunderstorm can also cause pollen grains to rupture, leading to increased allergen levels. Cold air and anxiety may provoke asthma attacks, but they are not specifically associated with thunderstorms.
The management of asthma in adults has been updated by NICE in 2017, following the 2016 British Thoracic Society (BTS) guidelines. One of the significant changes is in ‘step 3’, where patients on a SABA + ICS whose asthma is not well controlled should be offered a leukotriene receptor antagonist, not a LABA. NICE does not follow the stepwise approach of the previous BTS guidelines, but to make the guidelines easier to follow, we have added our own steps. It should be noted that NICE does not recommend changing treatment in patients who have well-controlled asthma simply to adhere to the latest guidance.
The steps for managing asthma in adults are as follows: for newly-diagnosed asthma, a short-acting beta agonist (SABA) is recommended. If the patient is not controlled on the previous step or has symptoms >= 3/week or night-time waking, a SABA + low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) is recommended. For step 3, a SABA + low-dose ICS + leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA) is recommended. Step 4 involves a SABA + low-dose ICS + long-acting beta agonist (LABA), and LTRA should be continued depending on the patient’s response. Step 5 involves a SABA +/- LTRA, and switching ICS/LABA for a maintenance and reliever therapy (MART) that includes a low-dose ICS. Step 6 involves a SABA +/- LTRA + medium-dose ICS MART, or changing back to a fixed-dose of a moderate-dose ICS and a separate LABA. Step 7 involves a SABA +/- LTRA + one of the following options: increasing ICS to high-dose (only as part of a fixed-dose regimen, not as a MART), a trial of an additional drug (for example, a long-acting muscarinic receptor antagonist or theophylline), or seeking advice from a healthcare professional with expertise in asthma.
It is important to note that the definitions of what constitutes a low, moderate, or high-dose ICS have changed. For adults, <= 400 micrograms budesonide or equivalent is considered a low dose, 400 micrograms - 800 micrograms budesonide or equivalent is a moderate dose, and > 800 micrograms budes
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old female patient presents with a recent onset of skin lesions and joint pain. She had previously treated herself for vaginal thrush with a clotrimazole pessary, which has now resolved. The patient has a medical history of SLE and takes hydroxychloroquine. On examination, the patient has vesicles on her arms and legs, with some scabbing and necrosis. She also has tenderness, erythema, and reduced range of motion in her left elbow and right wrist, as well as a swollen, hot, and tender right knee joint with reduced range of motion. Blood tests reveal elevated white cell count, CRP, and ESR, as well as low C4 levels. X-ray of the right knee confirms effusion, and synovial tap shows high levels of leucocytes and polymorphs. What would be the most appropriate treatment plan for this patient?
Your Answer: IV flucloxacillin 1g qds
Correct Answer: IV ceftriaxone 1 g od
Explanation:The correct management for disseminated gonococcal infection (DGI) is IV ceftriaxone for seven days. DGI is not common and can present with migratory polyarthralgia and dermatitis. Diagnosis can be made through joint aspiration, blood cultures, or NAAT tests. Raised CRP, clinical sepsis, and normal C4 suggest an infectious cause. S. aureus and methotrexate are unlikely causative factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 4
Correct
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An 80-year-old man is referred to the diabetic clinic by his GP due to newly discovered hyperglycaemia. He reported a two-month history of polyuria, polydipsia, and diarrhoea, and his blood sugar was found to be 18.4 mmol/L. During this time, he lost 6kg and now weighs 61 kg. The patient has a medical history of hypertension and was diagnosed with deep vein thrombosis three months ago. He is currently taking amlodipine 10 mg and warfarin. What is the diagnosis?
Your Answer: Glucagonoma
Explanation:Glucagonoma is a rare tumor that affects the alpha cells in the pancreas. Its symptoms include the development or worsening of diabetes mellitus, venous thromboembolism, a painful and itchy rash called necrolytic migratory erythema that typically appears in areas of friction with clothing, as well as other signs of hyperglucagonemia such as weight loss, diarrhea, and anemia. While type one diabetes mellitus can also cause weight loss and osmotic symptoms due to high blood sugar levels, it is unlikely to occur in a patient of this age without a history of autoimmune disease.
Glucagonoma: A Rare Pancreatic Tumor
Glucagonoma is a rare type of pancreatic tumor that usually originates from the alpha cells of the pancreas. These tumors are typically small and malignant, and they can cause a range of symptoms, including diabetes mellitus, venous thrombo-embolism, and a distinctive red, blistering rash known as necrolytic migratory erythema. To diagnose glucagonoma, doctors typically look for a serum level of glucagon that is higher than 1000 pg/ml, and they may also use CT scanning to visualize the tumor. Treatment options for glucagonoma include surgical resection and octreotide, a medication that can help to control the symptoms of the disease. Overall, glucagonoma is a rare but serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment to manage its symptoms and prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 43-year-old nurse who works in a liver transplant unit presents with complaints of joint pains and occasional swelling of the wrists and knees for the past two months. The pain is relieved by ibuprofen, but her knee pain has worsened and her fingers are more stiff and sore. She also reports a rash on her legs that looks like 'blood blisters' and painful purple lesions on her ankles. Additionally, she has been experiencing low-grade fevers, muscle aches, recurrent headaches, and has noticed some weight loss. On examination, she appears ill with mild swelling and tenderness of both wrists and small bilateral knee effusions. Discrete palpable purpuric lesions are noted on her legs with a few tender haemorrhagic lesions over both ankles. Investigations reveal abnormal blood work, including elevated ESR, plasma bilirubin, and plasma aspartate transaminase levels, as well as the presence of blood, protein, and red and white blood cells in her urine with granular casts detected. What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer: Henoch-Schönlein purpura
Correct Answer: Polyarteritis nodosa with microscopic polyarteritis overlap
Explanation:Interpretation of Laboratory Tests in Vasculitis
A positive anti-nuclear antibody (ANA) result is almost always present in systemic lupus erythematosus, while a negative ANA makes anti-double stranded antibody unlikely. In suspected systemic vasculitis, anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (ANCA) should always be done. In polyarteritis nodosa (PAN) and microscopic polyangiitis, anti-cytoplasmic antibodies directed against myeloperoxidase (pANCA) will produce a perinuclear staining pattern, while in granulomatosis with polyangiitis, a cytoplasmic pattern is likely. A positive hepatitis B surface antigen is associated with PAN of medium and small arteries. Polyclonal gammaglobulinaemia on serum protein electrophoresis is expected in systemic inflammatory disease and does not aid diagnosis. The rest of the tests listed would give non-specific changes and not be helpful in establishing a diagnosis.
The patient in this case has necrotising vasculitis affecting the skin, kidneys, gut, and joints, along with systemic symptoms of fever, malaise, and weight loss. The most likely diagnosis is polyarteritis nodosa associated with hepatitis B, given the negative serology for systemic lupus erythematosus and negative blood cultures for endocarditis-related arthropathy. Henoch-Schönlein purpura is more common in children, and although rheumatoid factor is positive, there is no clear involvement of the proximal interphalangeal and metacarpophalangeal joints, which is typical in rheumatoid arthritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old woman presents to the cardiology clinic with echocardiogram results indicating cardiomyopathy. She was referred after experiencing shortness of breath and suspected heart failure. Her medical history includes hypertension, palpitations, and anxiety. Recently, she has been experiencing tremors, weight loss, sweating, and heat intolerance, and was diagnosed with hyperthyroidism and started on carbimazole. What is the anticipated prognosis for her cardiac condition?
Your Answer: Likely to have resolution of symptoms but not of cardiomyopathy
Correct Answer: Likely to have resolution of symptoms and of cardiomyopathy
Explanation:Cardiomyopathy can be a reversible complication of thyrotoxicosis. The condition can lead to cardiac issues through a mechanism related to heart rate. Symptoms such as tachycardia, palpitations, AF, and rate-related heart failure can arise. However, once the thyrotoxicosis is treated and resolved, these problems are likely to improve. The patient in question has been diagnosed with thyrotoxicosis and is currently undergoing treatment with carbimazole.
Thyrotoxicosis: Symptoms and Signs
Thyrotoxicosis is a condition that occurs when there is an excess of thyroid hormone in the body. This condition can cause a variety of symptoms and signs that affect different parts of the body. Some of the general symptoms of thyrotoxicosis include weight loss, restlessness, and heat intolerance. Patients may also experience palpitations, tachycardia, and high-output cardiac failure, which can lead to a reversible cardiomyopathy in rare cases.
In addition to these symptoms, patients with thyrotoxicosis may also experience skin changes such as increased sweating, pretibial myxoedema, and thyroid acropachy. Gastrointestinal symptoms such as diarrhea and gynecological symptoms like oligomenorrhea may also occur. Neurological symptoms such as anxiety and tremors may also be present.
It is important to note that not all patients with thyrotoxicosis will experience all of these symptoms. The severity and combination of symptoms can vary depending on the individual.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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Question 7
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A patient seen in the rapid access chest clinic has undergone a CT thorax. The report indicates a mass arising from the left main bronchus, causing almost complete obstruction of the left main bronchus and likely representing a primary lung tumor. Additionally, there are several left hilar lymph nodes, with the largest measuring 2 cm. The TNM staging is T3N1MX. What is the staging for this patient?
Your Answer: IIIA
Explanation:Importance of Stage Grouping by TMN Subset in Lung Cancer Management
Stage grouping by TMN subset is a crucial aspect of managing patients with lung cancer. Physicians often use this method to evaluate treatment options for their patients. The process involves categorizing the cancer based on its size and extent of spread, which helps in determining the best course of action.
The importance of stage grouping by TMN subset lies in its ability to provide a standardized approach to lung cancer management. It allows physicians to accurately assess the severity of the disease and tailor treatment plans accordingly. This method also helps in predicting the patient’s prognosis and potential outcomes.
The TNM system is based on three factors: T (tumor size and extent), N (lymph node involvement), and M (metastasis). Each factor is assigned a numerical value, and the combination of these values determines the stage of the cancer. This information is then used to guide treatment decisions, such as surgery, chemotherapy, or radiation therapy.
In conclusion, stage grouping by TMN subset is an essential tool in the management of lung cancer. It provides a standardized approach to evaluating the severity of the disease and helps in determining the best course of action for each patient. By utilizing this method, physicians can improve patient outcomes and provide more personalized care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 8
Correct
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A 42-year-old woman presents with a headache, generalised aches and pains, lethargy and fevers. She has a medical history of type one diabetes and end-stage renal failure, and underwent a simultaneous pancreas-kidney transplant ten months ago. Four months ago, she was admitted with neutropaenia which led to the early cessation of her valganciclovir and a reduction in her immunosuppression. On examination, she appears pale, lethargic and unwell. Her temperature is 39.4 degrees Celsius, her pulse is 115 beats per minute and regular, her blood pressure is 102/59 mmHg, her respiratory rate is 22 breaths per minute and her oxygen saturations are 95% on room air. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Cytomegalovirus infection
Explanation:This patient is displaying typical symptoms of cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection, which is a significant cause of morbidity and mortality in renal transplant patients. CMV infection usually occurs within one to four months after transplantation or after stopping CMV prophylaxis (valganciclovir), as in this case. Prior to transplantation, both the donor and recipient CMV status is checked, and prophylaxis is given to recipients unless both parties test negative. CMV infection presents with symptoms similar to mononucleosis, including fever, myalgia, and arthralgia, as well as leukopenia, atypical lymphocytosis, mild transaminase elevation, and graft dysfunction. It can also affect specific organs, such as the liver, pancreas, gastrointestinal tract, lungs, colon, and brain. The diagnosis is confirmed with CMV polymerase chain reaction (PCR), and treatment for invasive disease typically involves IV ganciclovir.
Other potential diagnoses, such as urinary tract infection, hepatitis C, and upper respiratory tract infection, are unlikely based on the patient’s history and symptoms. However, BK virus, a polyomavirus that can cause latent infection in renal tissue in healthy individuals, can reactivate after renal transplantation and cause fever and graft dysfunction.
The HLA system, also known as the major histocompatibility complex (MHC), is located on chromosome 6 and is responsible for human leucocyte antigens. Class 1 antigens include A, B, and C, while class 2 antigens include DP, DQ, and DR. When matching for a renal transplant, the importance of HLA antigens is ranked as DR > B > A.
Graft survival rates for renal transplants are high, with a 90% survival rate at one year and a 60% survival rate at ten years for cadaveric transplants. Living-donor transplants have even higher survival rates, with a 95% survival rate at one year and a 70% survival rate at ten years. However, postoperative problems can occur, such as acute tubular necrosis of the graft, vascular thrombosis, urine leakage, and urinary tract infections.
Hyperacute rejection can occur within minutes to hours after a transplant and is caused by pre-existing antibodies against ABO or HLA antigens. This type of rejection is an example of a type II hypersensitivity reaction and leads to widespread thrombosis of graft vessels, resulting in ischemia and necrosis of the transplanted organ. Unfortunately, there is no treatment available for hyperacute rejection, and the graft must be removed.
Acute graft failure, which occurs within six months of a transplant, is usually due to mismatched HLA and is caused by cell-mediated cytotoxic T cells. This type of failure is usually asymptomatic and is detected by a rising creatinine, pyuria, and proteinuria. Other causes of acute graft failure include cytomegalovirus infection, but it may be reversible with steroids and immunosuppressants.
Chronic graft failure, which occurs after six months of a transplant, is caused by both antibody and cell-mediated mechanisms that lead to fibrosis of the transplanted kidney, known as chronic allograft nephropathy. The recurrence of the original renal disease, such as MCGN, IgA, or FSGS, can also cause chronic graft failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 9
Correct
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A 65-year-old woman presented to the rapid access lung cancer clinic following an abnormal chest x-ray. She had been feeling unwell for the past six weeks with lethargy, intermittent fever, and myalgia. She also experienced breathlessness on exertion and difficulty climbing steep hills. She had a 40 pack/year smoking history and no pets at home. On examination, she had a temperature of 38.4°C, elevated blood pressure, and tenderness of her right carotid artery. A repeat chest x-ray showed alveolar shadowing in the right upper lobe. Her blood tests showed anemia, leukocytosis, elevated ESR, and positive ANA and cANCA. A Heaf test showed a Grade 2 reaction. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Granulomatosis with polyangiitis
Explanation:Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis: Symptoms, Signs, and Laboratory Findings
Granulomatosis with polyangiitis is a medical condition that causes vasculitis, which can lead to carotid artery tenderness. It is also known to cause migrating alveolar shadowing. The symptoms, clinical signs, and laboratory findings are classical of this condition. Patients with Granulomatosis with polyangiitis may experience raised ESR, renal dysfunction, and positive C-ANCA. P-ANCA can also be elevated in this condition. Overall, the combination of these symptoms, signs, and laboratory findings can help diagnose Granulomatosis with polyangiitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old female presents to the Emergency Department with blood in her urine. She produces a sample, demonstrates painless rose coloured macroscopic haematuria. She reports no past medical history except a single episode of a urinary tract infection about 4 years ago and a recent 'cough and sore throat' that had got better two weeks ago. Her family has no history of bladder or kidney problems except her mother having 'shockwave treatment to her kidney tubes a few years ago'. She is sexually active with a regular partner, her last menstrual period was 2 weeks ago.
On examination, her abdomen is soft and non-tender with no organomegaly. Urine dip demonstrates 4+ blood, 1+ protein. Her blood tests are as follows:
Hb 125 g/l
Platelets 259 * 109/l
WBC 12.1 * 109/l
Na+ 139 mmol/l
K+ 4.8 mmol/l
Urea 5.6 mmol/l
Creatinine 72 µmol/l
CRP 3 mg/l
Beta HCG negative
HIV negative
CMV IgG positive
CMV IgM negative
EBV IgG positive
Anti-streptolysin titre positive
Chest radiography is unremarkable. Ultrasound of her renal tract shows normal sized kidneys with no hydronephrosis.
What is the diagnosis?Your Answer: Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
Correct Answer: Diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis
Explanation:If you recently had a respiratory tract infection, you should be aware of the possibility of developing mesangioproliferative glomerulonephropathy or diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis. The former is caused by IgA deposition following an upper respiratory tract infection, while the latter is caused by reduced C3 and diffuse glomerular proliferation around 2 to 3 weeks after a streptococcal infection. Minimal change disease is characterized by significant proteinuria due to the loss of small protein molecules through the deficient basement membrane. It is unlikely that you have membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis, which is most commonly associated with hepatitis C, cryoglobulinemia, and lipodystrophy, as you have no risk factors for this condition.
Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis is a condition that typically occurs 7-14 days after an infection caused by group A beta-haemolytic Streptococcus, usually Streptococcus pyogenes. It is more common in young children and is caused by the deposition of immune complexes (IgG, IgM, and C3) in the glomeruli. Symptoms include headache, malaise, visible haematuria, proteinuria, oedema, hypertension, and oliguria. Blood tests may show a raised anti-streptolysin O titre and low C3, which confirms a recent streptococcal infection.
It is important to note that IgA nephropathy and post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis are often confused as they both can cause renal disease following an upper respiratory tract infection. Renal biopsy features of post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis include acute, diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis with endothelial proliferation and neutrophils. Electron microscopy may show subepithelial ‘humps’ caused by lumpy immune complex deposits, while immunofluorescence may show a granular or ‘starry sky’ appearance.
Despite its severity, post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis carries a good prognosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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