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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old male comes to the neurology department with complaints of weakness. He initially experienced weakness in his legs a few days ago, which has now progressed to involve his arms. Additionally, he is experiencing shooting pains in his back and limbs. About four weeks ago, he had a brief episode of vomiting and diarrhea. Upon examination, reduced tendon reflexes and weakness are confirmed.
What test results would you anticipate for this patient?Your Answer: Positive anti-acetylcholine receptor antibodies
Correct Answer: Abnormal nerve conduction studies
Explanation:Guillain-Barre syndrome can be diagnosed with the help of nerve conduction studies. The presence of ascending weakness after an infection is a common symptom of this syndrome. Most patients with Guillain-Barre syndrome show abnormal nerve conduction study results. If there are cord signal changes, it may indicate spinal cord compression or a spinal lesion. Inflammatory infiltrates on muscle biopsy are typically observed in patients with myositis. Myasthenia gravis is characterized by the presence of anti-acetylcholine receptor antibodies. In Guillain-Barre syndrome, the CSF protein level is usually elevated, not decreased.
Understanding Guillain-Barre Syndrome: Symptoms and Features
Guillain-Barre syndrome is a condition that affects the peripheral nervous system and is caused by an immune-mediated demyelination. It is often triggered by an infection, with Campylobacter jejuni being a common culprit. The initial symptoms of the illness include back and leg pain, which is experienced by around 65% of patients. The characteristic feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is a progressive, symmetrical weakness of all the limbs, with the weakness typically starting in the legs and ascending upwards. Reflexes are reduced or absent, and sensory symptoms tend to be mild, with very few sensory signs.
Other features of Guillain-Barre syndrome may include a history of gastroenteritis, respiratory muscle weakness, cranial nerve involvement, diplopia, bilateral facial nerve palsy, oropharyngeal weakness, and autonomic involvement. Autonomic involvement may manifest as urinary retention or diarrhea. Less common findings may include papilloedema, which is thought to be secondary to reduced CSF resorption.
To diagnose Guillain-Barre syndrome, a lumbar puncture may be performed, which can reveal a rise in protein with a normal white blood cell count (albuminocytologic dissociation) in 66% of cases. Nerve conduction studies may also be conducted, which can show decreased motor nerve conduction velocity due to demyelination, prolonged distal motor latency, and increased F wave latency. Understanding the symptoms and features of Guillain-Barre syndrome is crucial for prompt diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old male patient complains of painful ulcers on his penis shaft and dysuria for the past three days. He has never experienced such symptoms before. The clinical diagnosis suggests primary genital herpes. What is the best course of action for managing this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral aciclovir
Explanation:Even if the presentation is delayed for up to 5 days, primary genital herpes infections require oral antiviral therapy.
Understanding Herpes Simplex Virus
Herpes simplex virus (HSV) is a common viral infection that affects humans. There are two strains of the virus, HSV-1 and HSV-2, which were previously thought to cause oral and genital herpes, respectively. However, there is now considerable overlap between the two strains. The primary infection may present with severe gingivostomatitis, while cold sores and painful genital ulceration are common features.
Management of HSV includes oral aciclovir for gingivostomatitis and genital herpes, and topical aciclovir for cold sores, although the evidence base for the latter is modest. Patients with frequent exacerbations may benefit from longer-term aciclovir. In pregnant women, a primary attack of herpes during pregnancy at greater than 28 weeks gestation may require elective caesarean section at term. Women with recurrent herpes who are pregnant should be treated with suppressive therapy and advised that the risk of transmission to their baby is low.
The cytopathic effect of HSV can be seen in Pap smears, which show multinucleated giant cells representing infection by the virus. The 3 M’s – multinucleation, margination of the chromatin, and molding of the nuclei – are characteristic features of HSV infection. Understanding the features and management of HSV is important for effective treatment and prevention of transmission.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old man with a history of epilepsy presents with a complaint of numbness in his hands and feet after a recent change in medication. Upon examination, he exhibits reduced sensation in a glove-and-stocking distribution and a decreased ankle reflex. Additionally, he has lymphadenopathy in the cervical and inguinal region and bleeding gums. Which medication is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Phenytoin
Explanation:Phenytoin: Mechanism of Action and Adverse Effects
Phenytoin is a medication used to manage seizures. Its mechanism of action involves binding to sodium channels, which increases their refractory period. However, the drug is associated with a large number of adverse effects, which can be categorized as acute, chronic, idiosyncratic, and teratogenic. Acute effects include dizziness, diplopia, nystagmus, slurred speech, ataxia, confusion, and seizures. Chronic effects include gingival hyperplasia, hirsutism, coarsening of facial features, drowsiness, megaloblastic anemia, peripheral neuropathy, enhanced vitamin D metabolism causing osteomalacia, lymphadenopathy, and dyskinesia. Idiosyncratic effects include fever, rashes, hepatitis, Dupuytren’s contracture, aplastic anemia, and drug-induced lupus. Teratogenic effects are associated with cleft palate and congenital heart disease. Although routine monitoring of phenytoin levels is not necessary, trough levels should be checked before dosing in cases of dose adjustment, suspected toxicity, or non-adherence to the prescribed medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman is 30 weeks pregnant and presents with a blood pressure reading of 162/110 mmHg, protein +++ on urine dipstick, and significant ankle edema. Despite these symptoms, she reports feeling generally well. What is the initial treatment approach for her hypertension?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Labetalol
Explanation:The patient is diagnosed with pre-eclampsia. According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence, initial treatment for severe hypertension in pregnancy (160/110mmHg or higher) should be labetalol. Delivery should not be considered before 34 weeks, unless the hypertension remains unresponsive to treatment or there are maternal or fetal indications as specified by the consultant plan. After completing a course of corticosteroids, delivery should be offered to women with pre-eclampsia at 34 weeks. In critical care situations, intravenous magnesium sulphate may be used for women who have previously experienced eclamptic fits due to severe hypertension or pre-eclampsia, but not solely to lower blood pressure. Frusemide should not be used to treat hypertension in pregnancy as it can reduce placental perfusion and cross the placental barrier.
Hypertension during pregnancy is a common occurrence that requires careful management. In normal pregnancies, blood pressure tends to decrease in the first trimester and then gradually increase to pre-pregnancy levels by term. However, in cases of hypertension during pregnancy, the systolic blood pressure is usually above 140 mmHg or the diastolic blood pressure is above 90 mmHg. Additionally, an increase of more than 30 mmHg systolic or 15 mmHg diastolic from the initial readings may also indicate hypertension.
There are three categories of hypertension during pregnancy: pre-existing hypertension, pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), and pre-eclampsia. Pre-existing hypertension refers to a history of hypertension before pregnancy or elevated blood pressure before 20 weeks gestation. PIH occurs in the second half of pregnancy and resolves after birth. Pre-eclampsia is characterized by hypertension and proteinuria, and may also involve edema.
The management of hypertension during pregnancy involves the use of antihypertensive medications such as labetalol, nifedipine, and hydralazine. In cases of pre-existing hypertension, ACE inhibitors and angiotensin II receptor blockers should be stopped immediately and alternative medications should be prescribed. Women who are at high risk of developing pre-eclampsia should take aspirin from 12 weeks until the birth of the baby. It is important to carefully monitor blood pressure and proteinuria levels during pregnancy to ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 5
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man with a history of hypertension and ischaemic heart disease comes in for a check-up. He had a heart attack two decades ago but has been symptom-free since. His current medications include bisoprolol, ramipril, atorvastatin, and clopidogrel. He has been experiencing dizziness lately, and an ECG reveals that he has atrial fibrillation. What is the appropriate antithrombotic medication for him now?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Switch to an oral anticoagulant
Explanation:Patients who have AF and stable CVD are typically prescribed anticoagulants while antiplatelets are discontinued. This is because such patients are at risk of stroke, as indicated by their CHADS-VASC score, which takes into account factors such as age, hypertension, and cardiovascular disease. Therefore, the patient in question needs to be treated accordingly. In this case, the patient should discontinue their antiplatelet medication and switch to oral anticoagulant monotherapy.
Managing Combination Antiplatelet and Anticoagulant Therapy
With the rise of comorbidity, it is becoming increasingly common for patients to require both antiplatelet and anticoagulant therapy. However, this combination increases the risk of bleeding and may not be necessary in all cases. While there are no guidelines to cover every scenario, a recent review in the BMJ offers expert opinion on how to manage this situation.
For patients with stable cardiovascular disease who require an anticoagulant, it is recommended that they receive antiplatelet therapy as well. However, if the patient has an indication for an anticoagulant, such as atrial fibrillation, it is best to prescribe anticoagulant monotherapy without the addition of antiplatelets.
In patients who have experienced an acute coronary syndrome or undergone percutaneous coronary intervention, there is a stronger indication for antiplatelet therapy. Typically, patients are given triple therapy (two antiplatelets and one anticoagulant) for four to six months after the event, followed by dual therapy (one antiplatelet and one anticoagulant) for the remaining 12 months. However, the stroke risk in atrial fibrillation varies according to risk factors, so there may be variation in treatment from patient to patient.
For patients who develop venous thromboembolism while on antiplatelets, they will likely be prescribed anticoagulants for three to six months. An ORBIT score should be calculated to determine the risk of bleeding. Patients with a low risk of bleeding may continue taking antiplatelets, while those with an intermediate or high risk of bleeding should consider stopping them.
Overall, managing combination antiplatelet and anticoagulant therapy requires careful consideration of the patient’s individual circumstances and risk factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman has been diagnosed with acute cholecystitis and is set to undergo a cholecystectomy in 4 days. She is currently managing her type 1 diabetes with a daily dose of 20 units of long acting insulin in the morning. What is the appropriate once-daily dose of insulin for her to take the day before her surgery?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 16 Units
Explanation:Preparation for surgery varies depending on whether the patient is undergoing an elective or emergency procedure. For elective cases, it is important to address any medical issues beforehand through a pre-admission clinic. Blood tests, urine analysis, and other diagnostic tests may be necessary depending on the proposed procedure and patient fitness. Risk factors for deep vein thrombosis should also be assessed, and a plan for thromboprophylaxis formulated. Patients are advised to fast from non-clear liquids and food for at least 6 hours before surgery, and those with diabetes require special management to avoid potential complications. Emergency cases require stabilization and resuscitation as needed, and antibiotics may be necessary. Special preparation may also be required for certain procedures, such as vocal cord checks for thyroid surgery or bowel preparation for colorectal cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Which one of the following features is not present in pre-proliferative retinopathy in elderly diabetic patients?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Neovascularisation
Explanation:Proliferative retinopathy is characterized by the presence of retinal neovascularization.
Understanding Diabetic Retinopathy
Diabetic retinopathy is a leading cause of blindness among adults aged 35-65 years old. The condition is caused by hyperglycemia, which leads to abnormal metabolism in the retinal vessel walls and damage to endothelial cells and pericytes. This damage causes increased vascular permeability, resulting in exudates seen on fundoscopy. Pericyte dysfunction predisposes to the formation of microaneurysms, while neovascularization is caused by the production of growth factors in response to retinal ischemia.
Patients with diabetic retinopathy are classified into those with non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy (NPDR), proliferative retinopathy (PDR), and maculopathy. NPDR is further classified into mild, moderate, and severe, depending on the presence of microaneurysms, blot hemorrhages, hard exudates, cotton wool spots, venous beading/looping, and intraretinal microvascular abnormalities. PDR is characterized by retinal neovascularization, which may lead to vitreous hemorrhage, and fibrous tissue forming anterior to the retinal disc. Maculopathy is based on location rather than severity and is more common in Type II DM.
Management of diabetic retinopathy involves optimizing glycaemic control, blood pressure, and hyperlipidemia, as well as regular review by ophthalmology. Treatment options include intravitreal vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) inhibitors for maculopathy, regular observation for non-proliferative retinopathy, and panretinal laser photocoagulation and intravitreal VEGF inhibitors for proliferative retinopathy. Vitreoretinal surgery may be necessary in cases of severe or vitreous hemorrhage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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You are scheduled to evaluate a 56-year-old patient in clinic who was initiated on cholesterol treatment with ezetimibe during his last clinic visit.
Which of the following statements is accurate regarding ezetimibe?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Its principal action is to reduce intestinal cholesterol absorption
Explanation:Understanding the Mechanism of Action of Ezetimibe: Effects on Cholesterol Absorption, Cytochrome P450 Enzyme System, and Drug Interactions
Ezetimibe is a medication commonly used to lower cholesterol levels in patients with primary cholesterolaemia. Its principal action is to reduce intestinal cholesterol absorption by selectively inhibiting the uptake of cholesterol through the Niemann-Pick C1-like 1 (NPC1L1) protein mediator on small intestine epithelial cells. This mechanism of action also reduces intracellular hepatic cholesterol levels, leading to an upregulation of hepatic low-density lipoprotein receptors (LDLRs) and ultimately lowering plasma cholesterol levels.
Unlike ion-exchange resins, ezetimibe does not decrease the absorption of anionic drugs or fat-soluble vitamins. Additionally, ezetimibe lacks inhibitor or inducer effects on cytochrome P450 isoenzymes, which explains its limited number of drug interactions. However, it is important to note that if used in combination with a statin, there is an increased risk of rhabdomyolysis, which is not seen in ezetimibe monotherapy.
Overall, while ezetimibe has a modest effect on lowering low-density lipoprotein (LDL)-cholesterol, it is most commonly used as an adjunct to dietary measures and statin treatment in primary cholesterolaemia. Understanding its mechanism of action and potential effects on drug interactions and vitamin absorption is crucial for safe and effective use in clinical practice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman with a history of severe disabling arthritis presents to the Emergency Department with a 3-week history of dyspnoea. She reports a dry cough of similar duration. She has never smoked and has never been employed. On cardiovascular examination, no abnormalities are detected. Respiratory examination reveals reduced air entry at the left base, which is stony dull to percussion. A chest X-ray shows blunting of the left costophrenic angle.
What is the most likely diagnosis associated with her current respiratory problem?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis (RA)
Explanation:Respiratory Manifestations of Rheumatoid Arthritis
Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is an inflammatory arthritis that can affect various parts of the body, including the respiratory tract. One common manifestation of RA in the respiratory system is pleural involvement, which can present as pleural effusion, pleural nodules, or pleurisy. Other respiratory complications associated with RA include pulmonary fibrosis and bronchiolitis obliterans.
It is important to note that other types of arthritis, such as ankylosing spondylitis, Behçet’s disease, gout, and psoriatic arthritis, do not typically present with respiratory complications like pleural effusion. Ankylosing spondylitis is associated with apical fibrosis, while Behçet’s disease is known for neurological complications. Gout is caused by purine metabolism abnormality and affects the joints and renal tract, while psoriatic arthritis is strongly associated with psoriasis and can lead to ocular and cardiovascular complications.
Overall, if a patient with RA presents with respiratory symptoms, it is important to consider the possibility of pleural involvement and other respiratory complications associated with the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 31-year-old pilot comes in for his yearly physical examination. He has no significant medical history, does not take any regular medication, and reports no concerning symptoms. He maintains a healthy lifestyle and enjoys participating in ultramarathons as a runner.
During the physical examination, an ECG is conducted, which was normal during his last check-up the previous year. What would be the most worrisome ECG characteristic?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Left bundle branch block (LBBB)
Explanation:A new left bundle branch block on an ECG is always a sign of pathology and not a normal variant. It indicates a delay in the left half of the conducting system, which can be caused by conditions such as aortic stenosis, cardiomyopathy, or ischaemia. However, other findings on an ECG, such as J-waves, left axis deviation, second-degree heart block (Mobitz I), or a short QT interval, may be normal variants in a healthy individual and not a cause for concern unless accompanied by symptoms of arrhythmias.
Left Bundle Branch Block: Causes and Diagnosis
Left bundle branch block (LBBB) is a cardiac condition that can be diagnosed through an electrocardiogram (ECG). The ECG shows typical features of LBBB, including a ‘W’ in V1 and a ‘M’ in V6. It is important to note that new LBBB is always pathological and can be caused by various factors such as myocardial infarction, hypertension, aortic stenosis, and cardiomyopathy. However, diagnosing a myocardial infarction for patients with existing LBBB can be difficult. In such cases, the Sgarbossa criteria can be used to aid in diagnosis.
Other rare causes of LBBB include idiopathic fibrosis, digoxin toxicity, and hyperkalaemia. It is crucial to identify the underlying cause of LBBB to determine the appropriate treatment plan. Therefore, patients with LBBB should undergo further evaluation and testing to determine the cause of their condition. By identifying the cause of LBBB, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate treatment and management to improve the patient’s overall health and well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man experiences percutaneous coronary intervention for an ST-elevation myocardial infarction. After 12 hours, he develops symptoms of paleness, clamminess, and bradycardia, and the ECG reveals complete disassociation between the atria and ventricles. Which coronary artery is the most probable culprit?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Right coronary artery
Explanation:The left main coronary artery is not the cause of heart block. It usually results in anterior myocardial infarction.
Understanding Heart Blocks and their Features
Heart blocks are a type of cardiac conduction disorder that can lead to a range of symptoms and complications. There are three types of heart blocks, each with distinct features and characteristics. First-degree heart block is characterized by a prolonged PR interval, while second-degree heart block can be further divided into two subtypes: Mobitz I and Mobitz II. Mobitz I is characterized by a progressive prolongation of the PR interval until a dropped beat occurs, while Mobitz II is characterized by a constant PR interval but often not followed by a QRS complex.
The most severe form of heart block is third-degree or complete heart block, which is characterized by a complete dissociation between the P waves and QRS complexes. This can lead to a range of symptoms, including syncope, heart failure, regular bradycardia, and wide pulse pressure. Other features of complete heart block include cannon waves in the neck and variable intensity of S1.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman who is currently 39 weeks pregnant presents with complaints of itching in her genital area and thick white discharge. What treatment options would you suggest for her likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clotrimazole pessary
Explanation:The patient is suffering from thrush and requires antifungal medication. However, since the patient is pregnant, oral fluconazole cannot be prescribed due to its link with birth defects. Instead, metronidazole can be used to treat bacterial vaginosis and Trichomonas vaginalis.
Vaginal candidiasis, also known as thrush, is a common condition that many women can diagnose and treat themselves. Candida albicans is responsible for about 80% of cases, while other candida species cause the remaining 20%. Although most women have no predisposing factors, certain factors such as diabetes mellitus, antibiotics, steroids, pregnancy, and HIV can increase the likelihood of developing vaginal candidiasis. Symptoms include non-offensive discharge resembling cottage cheese, vulvitis, itching, vulval erythema, fissuring, and satellite lesions. A high vaginal swab is not routinely indicated if the clinical features are consistent with candidiasis. Treatment options include local or oral therapy, with oral fluconazole 150 mg as a single dose being the first-line treatment according to NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. If there are vulval symptoms, a topical imidazole may be added to an oral or intravaginal antifungal. Pregnant women should only use local treatments. Recurrent vaginal candidiasis is defined as four or more episodes per year by BASHH. Compliance with previous treatment should be checked, and a high vaginal swab for microscopy and culture should be performed to confirm the diagnosis. A blood glucose test may be necessary to exclude diabetes, and differential diagnoses such as lichen sclerosus should be ruled out. An induction-maintenance regime involving oral fluconazole may be considered. Induction involves taking oral fluconazole every three days for three doses, while maintenance involves taking oral fluconazole weekly for six months.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman presents with a 3-day history of cough, fever and left-sided pleuritic pain. On examination she has a temperature of 38.5 °C, a respiratory rate of 37/min, a blood pressure of 110/80 mm/Hg and a pulse rate of 110/min. Oxygen saturations are 95%. She has basal crepitations and dullness to percussion at the left lung base.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bronchopneumonia
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Cough and Fever: Bronchopneumonia vs. Other Conditions
Bronchopneumonia is a common condition that presents with a cough and fever, along with other symptoms such as sputum production, dyspnea, and pleuritic pain. Examination findings may include decreased breath sounds and focal chest signs. A chest radiograph can confirm the diagnosis. In primary care, a CRB-65 score is used to assess mortality risk and determine where to treat the patient: one point each for acute confusion, respiratory rate (RR) ≥30/min, systolic blood pressure (BP) <90 mmHg or diastolic BP <60 mmHg, age >65 years).
CRB-65 score Mortality risk (%) – Where to treat
0 <1 At home
1-2 1-10 Hospital advised, particularly score of 2
3-4 >10 Hospital advised, may require stay in intensive therapy unit (ITU).Other conditions that may present with similar symptoms include pneumothorax, pulmonary embolism, malignant mesothelioma, and tuberculosis. However, these conditions have distinct features that differentiate them from bronchopneumonia. For example, pneumothorax involves partial or full collapse of a lung, while pulmonary embolism results from obstruction of one or more of the pulmonary arteries. Malignant mesothelioma is a cancer that affects the pleura and peritoneum, and tuberculosis usually presents with a persistent productive cough, weight loss, night sweats, fevers, lymphadenopathy, and general malaise.
It is important to consider these differentials when evaluating a patient with cough and fever, and to use appropriate diagnostic tools to confirm the diagnosis and determine the best course of treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A preterm baby boy is found to have meconium ileus shortly after birth.
Which of the following conditions is most commonly associated with meconium ileus?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cystic fibrosis
Explanation:Common Genetic Conditions and Associated Manifestations
Cystic Fibrosis, Edward Syndrome, Down Syndrome, Myelomeningocele, and Patau Syndrome are all genetic conditions that can have various manifestations. Cystic Fibrosis affects multiple organ systems, including the lungs, liver, pancreas, and small bowel, leading to progressive organ failure. Edward Syndrome is a trisomy syndrome with a high incidence of major structural anomalies, including congenital heart disease and central nervous system abnormalities. Down Syndrome is the most common trisomy and is associated with characteristic facial features and an increased risk for congenital heart disease and gastrointestinal anomalies. Myelomeningocele is a spinal anomaly that can result in lower limb paralysis and bladder and bowel dysfunction. Patau Syndrome is the least common trisomy syndrome and is associated with congenital heart disease, central nervous system and spinal abnormalities, abnormal facies, and polydactyly. Meconium ileus is a common manifestation associated with Cystic Fibrosis in all of these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old woman begins taking Microgynon 30 on the 8th day of her menstrual cycle. When will it become a dependable form of birth control?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 7 days
Explanation:Contraceptives – Time to become effective (if not used on the first day of period):
Immediate: IUD
2 days: Progestin-only pill (POP)
7 days: Combined oral contraceptive (COC), injection, implant, intrauterine system (IUS)Counselling for Women Considering the Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill
Women who are considering taking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COC) should receive counselling on the potential harms and benefits of the pill. The COC is highly effective if taken correctly, with a success rate of over 99%. However, there is a small risk of blood clots, heart attacks, and strokes, as well as an increased risk of breast and cervical cancer.
In addition to discussing the potential risks and benefits, women should also receive advice on how to take the pill. If the COC is started within the first 5 days of the menstrual cycle, there is no need for additional contraception. However, if it is started at any other point in the cycle, alternative contraception should be used for the first 7 days. Women should take the pill at the same time every day and should be aware that intercourse during the pill-free period is only safe if the next pack is started on time.
There have been recent changes to the guidelines for taking the COC. While it was previously recommended to take the pill for 21 days and then stop for 7 days to mimic menstruation, it is now recommended to discuss tailored regimes with women. This is because there is no medical benefit to having a withdrawal bleed, and options include never having a pill-free interval or taking three 21-day packs back-to-back before having a 4 or 7 day break.
Women should also be informed of situations where the efficacy of the pill may be reduced, such as vomiting within 2 hours of taking the pill, medication that induces diarrhoea or vomiting, or taking liver enzyme-inducing drugs. It is also important to discuss sexually transmitted infections and precautions that should be taken with enzyme-inducing antibiotics such as rifampicin.
Overall, counselling for women considering the COC should cover a range of topics to ensure that they are fully informed and able to make an informed decision about their contraceptive options.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman presents to the hypertension clinic for review. She has a past medical history of depression and gout. The patient was initiated on lisinopril for hypertension two months ago, with gradual titration of the dose and monitoring of her urea and electrolytes. During today's visit, she reports a dry cough that has been progressively worsening over the past four weeks. The cough is described as really annoying and is causing sleep disturbance. The patient is a non-smoker, and a chest x-ray performed six weeks ago during an Emergency Department visit was normal. What is the most appropriate course of action regarding her antihypertensive medications?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Switch her to an angiotensin II receptor blocker
Explanation:A dry cough is a common side effect experienced by patients who begin taking an ACE inhibitor. However, in this case, the patient has been suffering from this symptom for four weeks and it is affecting her sleep. Therefore, it is advisable to switch her to an angiotensin II receptor blocker.
Angiotensin II receptor blockers are a type of medication that is commonly used when patients cannot tolerate ACE inhibitors due to the development of a cough. Examples of these blockers include candesartan, losartan, and irbesartan. However, caution should be exercised when using them in patients with renovascular disease. Side-effects may include hypotension and hyperkalaemia.
The mechanism of action for angiotensin II receptor blockers is to block the effects of angiotensin II at the AT1 receptor. These blockers have been shown to reduce the progression of renal disease in patients with diabetic nephropathy. Additionally, there is evidence to suggest that losartan can reduce the mortality rates associated with CVA and IHD in hypertensive patients.
Overall, angiotensin II receptor blockers are a viable alternative to ACE inhibitors for patients who cannot tolerate the latter. They have a proven track record of reducing the progression of renal disease and improving mortality rates in hypertensive patients. However, as with any medication, caution should be exercised when using them in patients with certain medical conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old man with a history of gout complains of a painful and swollen first metatarsophalangeal joint. He is currently on allopurinol 400 mg once daily for gout prophylaxis. What is the recommended course of action for his allopurinol therapy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Continue allopurinol in current dose
Explanation:Gout is caused by chronic hyperuricaemia and is managed acutely with NSAIDs or colchicine. Urate-lowering therapy (ULT) is recommended for patients with >= 2 attacks in 12 months, tophi, renal disease, uric acid renal stones, or prophylaxis if on cytotoxics or diuretics. Allopurinol is first-line ULT, with an initial dose of 100 mg od and titrated to aim for a serum uric acid of < 300 µmol/l. Lifestyle modifications include reducing alcohol intake, losing weight if obese, and avoiding high-purine foods. Consideration should be given to stopping precipitating drugs and losartan may be suitable for patients with coexistent hypertension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man with difficult hypertension comes to the GP clinic for follow-up. His average blood pressure over the past two weeks has been 168/100 mmHg and today in the clinic it is 176/102 mmHg. He is currently taking a combination of telmisartan 80 mg and hydrochlorothiazide 25mg tablets, as well as amlodipine 10mg daily. The latest laboratory results are as follows:
Na+ 136 mmol/L (135 - 145)
K+ 3.8 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Bicarbonate 25 mmol/L (22 - 29)
Urea 5 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Creatinine 135 µmol/L (55 - 120)
What would be the most appropriate next step?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Add spironolactone
Explanation:For a patient with poorly controlled moderate hypertension who is already taking an ACE inhibitor, calcium channel blocker, and thiazide diuretic, the recommended next step would be to add spironolactone if their potassium level is less than 4.5mmol/L. Atenolol may be considered as a fourth-line agent if the potassium level is over 4.5mmol/L, but spironolactone is preferred according to NICE guidelines. Hydralazine should not be used outside of specialist care, and indapamide is not the best option as the patient is already taking a thiazide diuretic. Prazosin is an alternative to spironolactone, but spironolactone is preferred given the lower potassium level.
NICE Guidelines for Managing Hypertension
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic in addition to an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.
The guidelines also provide a flow chart for the diagnosis and management of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, such as reducing salt intake, caffeine intake, and alcohol consumption, as well as exercising more and losing weight, should not be forgotten and is frequently tested in exams. Treatment options depend on the patient’s age, ethnicity, and other factors, and may involve a combination of drugs.
NICE recommends treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old if they have target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For patients with stage 2 hypertension, drug treatment should be offered regardless of age. The guidelines also provide step-by-step treatment options, including adding a third or fourth drug if necessary.
New drugs, such as direct renin inhibitors like Aliskiren, may have a role in patients who are intolerant of more established antihypertensive drugs. However, trials have only investigated the fall in blood pressure and no mortality data is available yet. Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist. The guidelines also provide blood pressure targets for different age groups.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department. He reports experiencing sudden blurred vision and difficulty speaking. He denies any history of head injury or trauma and does not have a headache. On examination, he exhibits exaggerated reflexes and upward plantars. Fundoscopy reveals no abnormalities. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Multiple sclerosis
Explanation:Neurological Conditions and Upper Motor Neurone Signs
Upper motor neurone signs, such as spasticity, hyperreflexia, clonus, and the Babinski reflex, are indicative of certain neurological conditions. Multiple sclerosis, a demyelinating disease, is one such condition that causes these signs. On the other hand, a stroke in a young person is relatively unlikely to cause upper motor neurone signs. Cerebral venous thrombosis could cause these signs, but it would be highly unlikely without a headache and normal fundoscopy. Guillain–Barré syndrome (GBS) is a relatively symmetrical, ascending lower motor neurone disease that does not typically present with blurred vision and speech disturbances. Poliomyelitis, a lower motor neurone condition, is characterised by hypotonia and hyporeflexia and would not cause the Babinski reflex.
Understanding Upper Motor Neurone Signs in Neurological Conditions
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man visits his GP after being urged by his son. He reports experiencing left-sided facial drooping four days ago, which he observed in the mirror. He did not seek medical attention at the time and was relieved to see that it disappeared on its own after approximately 40 minutes. He has not had any additional symptoms since then. Besides an immediate referral to specialist services, what should be done about drug treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aspirin 300mg
Explanation:If a patient is suspected of having a TIA and visits their GP within 7 days, they should receive immediate treatment with 300 mg aspirin and be referred to a specialist for review within 24 hours. NICE guidelines also suggest considering gastric protection with a PPI if necessary.
A transient ischaemic attack (TIA) is a brief period of neurological deficit caused by a vascular issue, lasting less than an hour. The original definition of a TIA was based on time, but it is now recognized that even short periods of ischaemia can result in pathological changes to the brain. Therefore, a new ’tissue-based’ definition is now used. The clinical features of a TIA are similar to those of a stroke, but the symptoms resolve within an hour. Possible features include unilateral weakness or sensory loss, aphasia or dysarthria, ataxia, vertigo, or loss of balance, visual problems, and sudden transient loss of vision in one eye (amaurosis fugax).
NICE recommends immediate antithrombotic therapy with aspirin 300 mg unless the patient has a bleeding disorder or is taking an anticoagulant. If the patient has had more than one TIA or has a suspected cardioembolic source or severe carotid stenosis, specialist review is necessary. Urgent assessment is required within 24 hours for patients who have had a suspected TIA in the last 7 days. Referral for specialist assessment is necessary as soon as possible within 7 days for patients who have had a suspected TIA more than a week previously. Neuroimaging and carotid imaging are recommended, and antithrombotic therapy is necessary. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if the carotid stenosis is greater than 70% according to ECST criteria or greater than 50% according to NASCET criteria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old male with a history of COPD and hypertension complains of pain while swallowing. The patient is currently taking a salbutamol and beclomethasone inhaler, bendroflumethiazide, and amlodipine. What could be the possible reason for this symptom?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oesophageal candidiasis
Explanation:Oesophageal candidiasis, a known complication of inhaled steroid therapy, often presents with pain while swallowing (odynophagia).
Understanding Dysphagia and its Causes
Dysphagia, or difficulty in swallowing, can be caused by various conditions affecting the esophagus, such as oesophageal cancer, oesophagitis, oesophageal candidiasis, achalasia, pharyngeal pouch, systemic sclerosis, and myasthenia gravis. Each condition has its own characteristic features, which can help in identifying the underlying cause of dysphagia. For instance, dysphagia associated with weight loss, anorexia, or vomiting during eating may indicate oesophageal cancer, while dysphagia of both liquids and solids from the start may suggest achalasia.
To determine the cause of dysphagia, patients usually undergo an upper GI endoscopy, which allows doctors to examine the esophagus and detect any abnormalities. Fluoroscopic swallowing studies may also be done to evaluate motility disorders. Additionally, a full blood count and ambulatory oesophageal pH and manometry studies may be required for certain conditions.
It’s important to note that new-onset dysphagia is a red flag symptom that requires urgent endoscopy, regardless of age or other symptoms. Therefore, understanding the different causes of dysphagia and their characteristic features can aid in prompt diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man comes to you with concerns about feeling unwell along with his roommate for the past few weeks. What is the most prevalent symptom of carbon monoxide poisoning?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Headache
Explanation:The most common symptom of carbon monoxide poisoning is a headache. Severe toxicity can be identified by cherry red skin, which is typically observed after death.
Understanding Carbon Monoxide Poisoning
Carbon monoxide poisoning occurs when carbon monoxide, a toxic gas, is inhaled and binds to haemoglobin and myoglobin in the body, resulting in tissue hypoxia. This leads to a left-shift of the oxygen dissociation curve, causing a decrease in oxygen saturation of haemoglobin. In the UK, there are approximately 50 deaths per year from accidental carbon monoxide poisoning.
Symptoms of carbon monoxide toxicity include headache, nausea and vomiting, vertigo, confusion, and subjective weakness. Severe toxicity can result in pink skin and mucosae, hyperpyrexia, arrhythmias, extrapyramidal features, coma, and even death.
To diagnose carbon monoxide poisoning, pulse oximetry may not be reliable due to similarities between oxyhaemoglobin and carboxyhaemoglobin. Therefore, a venous or arterial blood gas should be taken to measure carboxyhaemoglobin levels. Non-smokers typically have levels below 3%, while smokers have levels below 10%. Symptomatic patients have levels between 10-30%, and severe toxicity is indicated by levels above 30%. An ECG may also be useful to check for cardiac ischaemia.
In the emergency department, patients with suspected carbon monoxide poisoning should receive 100% high-flow oxygen via a non-rebreather mask. This decreases the half-life of carboxyhemoglobin and should be administered as soon as possible, with treatment continuing for a minimum of six hours. Target oxygen saturations are 100%, and treatment is generally continued until all symptoms have resolved. For more severe cases, hyperbaric oxygen therapy may be considered, as it has been shown to have better long-term outcomes than standard oxygen therapy. Indications for hyperbaric oxygen therapy include loss of consciousness, neurological signs other than headache, myocardial ischaemia or arrhythmia, and pregnancy.
Overall, understanding the pathophysiology, symptoms, and management of carbon monoxide poisoning is crucial in preventing and treating this potentially deadly condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Sophie is a premature baby (28 weeks) who was born 3 weeks ago. During the past week, she has been experiencing bloody stools, abdominal distension, and poor feeding. Upon physical examination, there is an increase in abdominal size with decreased bowel sounds. An abdominal X-ray reveals asymmetrical bowel loops that are dilated and have bowel wall oedema. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Necrotising enterocolitis
Explanation:Understanding Necrotising Enterocolitis
Necrotising enterocolitis is a serious condition that is responsible for a significant number of premature infant deaths. The condition is characterized by symptoms such as feeding intolerance, abdominal distension, and bloody stools. If left untreated, these symptoms can quickly progress to more severe symptoms such as abdominal discolouration, perforation, and peritonitis.
To diagnose necrotising enterocolitis, doctors often use abdominal x-rays. These x-rays can reveal a number of important indicators of the condition, including dilated bowel loops, bowel wall oedema, and intramural gas. Other signs that may be visible on an x-ray include portal venous gas, pneumoperitoneum resulting from perforation, and air both inside and outside of the bowel wall. In some cases, an x-ray may also reveal air outlining the falciform ligament, which is known as the football sign.
Overall, understanding the symptoms and diagnostic indicators of necrotising enterocolitis is crucial for early detection and treatment of this serious condition. By working closely with healthcare professionals and following recommended screening protocols, parents and caregivers can help ensure the best possible outcomes for premature infants at risk for this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old child is brought to the Paediatric department by his grandmother. He has developed a very high fever and is breathing with a high-pitched sound. His grandmother is very worried as she has tried to get him to drink some water and take paracetamol this morning, but he is drooling and refuses to take anything orally. The child is Spanish speaking, however, his grandmother translates that he feels too hot and his chest hurts.
What is the most suitable initial step in managing this child's condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Call anaesthetics
Explanation:Acute epiglottitis is characterized by the sudden onset of fever, drooling, and stridor in a child. It is important to immediately call anaesthetics as there is a high risk of airway obstruction if the child becomes upset. The Hib vaccination is widely available and subsidized in many countries, including Poland where it has been available since the 1990s.
Humidified oxygen is commonly used to manage bronchiolitis, but it should be avoided in patients with suspected epiglottitis as it may cause distress and worsen the airway obstruction. IV hydrocortisone is not a first-line treatment for epiglottitis and cannulating a patient before securing their airway or having anaesthetics present is not recommended.
Nebulized salbutamol is useful for treating viral wheezing or asthma exacerbations, which present with an expiratory wheeze and fever, but not drooling. However, it should not be administered to a child with suspected epiglottitis until their airway is secured by anaesthetics to prevent further complications.
Acute epiglottitis is a rare but serious infection caused by Haemophilus influenzae type B. It is important to recognize and treat it promptly as it can lead to airway obstruction. Although it was once considered a disease of childhood, it is now more common in adults in the UK due to the immunization program. The incidence of epiglottitis has decreased since the introduction of the Hib vaccine. Symptoms include a rapid onset, high temperature, stridor, drooling of saliva, and a tripod position where the patient leans forward and extends their neck to breathe easier. Diagnosis is made by direct visualization, but x-rays may be done to rule out a foreign body.
Immediate senior involvement is necessary, including those who can provide emergency airway support such as anaesthetics or ENT. Endotracheal intubation may be necessary to protect the airway. It is important not to examine the throat if epiglottitis is suspected due to the risk of acute airway obstruction. The diagnosis is made by direct visualization, but only senior staff who are able to intubate if necessary should perform this. Treatment includes oxygen and intravenous antibiotics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman has confirmed menopause. She is considering HRT (hormone replacement therapy).
Which of the following conditions has an increased risk of association with oestrogen-only HRT?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Endometrial cancer
Explanation:Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is a treatment that involves administering synthetic oestrogen and progestogen to women experiencing menopausal symptoms. HRT can be given as local (creams, pessaries, rings) or systemic therapy (oral drugs, transdermal patches and gels, implants) and may contain oestrogen alone, combined oestrogen and progestogen, selective oestrogen receptor modulator, or gonadomimetics. The average age for menopause is around 50-51 years, and symptoms include hot flushes, insomnia, weight gain, mood changes, and irregular menses. HRT should be initiated at the lowest possible dosage and titrated based on clinical response. However, HRT is not recommended for women who have undergone hysterectomy due to the risk of endometrial hyperplasia, a precursor to endometrial cancer. HRT may also increase the risk of breast cancer and heart attacks, and non-hormonal options should be considered for menopausal effects in women who have previously had breast cancer. There is no evidence to suggest that HRT is associated with an increased or decreased risk of developing cervical cancer, and observational studies of systemic HRT after breast cancer are generally reassuring. Oestrogen is believed to be a growth factor that enhances cholinergic neurotransmission and prevents oxidative cell damage, neuronal atrophy, and glucocorticoid-induced neuronal damage, which may help prevent dementia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old child is presented to your allergy clinic by anxious parents. The child has a previous medical record of a mild non-IgE mediated egg allergy. What course of action would you suggest?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gradual reintroduction of egg based products using the egg ladder
Explanation:The egg ladder can be used to reintroduce egg in children with non-IgE mediated allergy, starting with baked egg in biscuits. Chlorpheniramine and adrenaline pen are not appropriate choices.
Identifying and Managing Food Allergies in Children and Young People
Food allergies in children and young people can be categorized into IgE-mediated and non-IgE-mediated allergies. It is important to note that food intolerance is not caused by immune system dysfunction and is not covered by the 2011 NICE guidelines. Symptoms of IgE-mediated allergies include skin reactions such as pruritus, erythema, urticaria, and angioedema, gastrointestinal symptoms like nausea, colicky abdominal pain, vomiting, and diarrhea, and respiratory symptoms such as nasal itching, sneezing, rhinorrhea, congestion, cough, chest tightness, wheezing, and shortness of breath. Non-IgE-mediated allergies may present with symptoms like gastro-oesophageal reflux disease, loose or frequent stools, blood and/or mucus in stools, abdominal pain, infantile colic, food refusal or aversion, constipation, perianal redness, pallor and tiredness, and faltering growth.
If the history suggests an IgE-mediated allergy, skin prick tests or blood tests for specific IgE antibodies to the suspected foods and likely co-allergens should be offered. On the other hand, if the history suggests a non-IgE-mediated allergy, the suspected allergen should be eliminated for 2-6 weeks and then reintroduced. It is recommended to consult a dietitian with appropriate competencies about nutritional adequacies, timings, and follow-up. By identifying and managing food allergies in children and young people, we can prevent severe allergic reactions and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of fatigue and itchy skin. During the examination, the doctor notices yellowing of the eyes and an enlarged liver. Blood tests reveal the presence of anti-mitochondrial antibodies (AMAs).
What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose ONE answer from the options below.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Primary biliary cholangitis
Explanation:Primary biliary cholangitis (PBC) is a chronic liver disease that primarily affects middle-aged women. It is believed to be an autoimmune disorder that causes progressive cholestasis and can lead to end-stage liver disease. Symptoms include fatigue, pruritus, and right upper quadrant discomfort. Laboratory tests typically show elevated levels of alkaline phosphatase, g-glutamyl transpeptidase, and immunoglobulins, as well as the presence of antimitochondrial antibodies. Treatment involves the use of ursodeoxycholic acid to slow disease progression. Autoimmune hepatitis, diffuse systemic sclerosis, primary sclerosing cholangitis, and systemic lupus erythematosus are other potential differential diagnoses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Which of the following characteristics is more prevalent in Crohn's disease compared to ulcerative colitis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Abdominal mass palpable in the right iliac fossa
Explanation:Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis are the two main types of inflammatory bowel disease with many similarities in symptoms and management options. However, there are key differences such as non-bloody diarrhea and upper gastrointestinal symptoms being more common in Crohn’s disease, while bloody diarrhea and abdominal pain in the left lower quadrant are more common in ulcerative colitis. Complications and pathology also differ between the two diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A child is born by an emergency Caesarean section at 38 weeks, due to pathological cardiotocography. The child appears healthy at birth, with Apgar scores of 9 and 10 (1 and 5 minutes respectively). Shortly after delivery, the nurse observes that the child's respiratory rate is elevated (all other observations are normal). The mother's antenatal history is unremarkable and her observations were normal during labor. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Transient tachypnoea of the newborn (TTN)
Explanation:Understanding Transient Tachypnoea of the Newborn
Transient tachypnoea of the newborn (TTN) is a common respiratory condition that affects newborns. It is caused by the delayed resorption of fluid in the lungs, which can lead to breathing difficulties. TTN is more common in babies born via caesarean section, as the fluid in their lungs may not be squeezed out during the birth process. A chest x-ray may show hyperinflation of the lungs and fluid in the horizontal fissure.
The management of TTN involves observation and supportive care. In some cases, supplementary oxygen may be required to maintain oxygen saturation levels. However, TTN usually resolves within 1-2 days. It is important for healthcare professionals to monitor newborns with TTN closely and provide appropriate care to ensure a full recovery. By understanding TTN and its management, healthcare professionals can provide the best possible care for newborns with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old woman presents to the gastroenterology ward with a 4-day history of profuse, foul-smelling diarrhoea. Stool cultures are taken and reveal a positive Clostridium difficile toxin. She is treated with oral vancomycin for 10 days and discharged home. However, she returns to the hospital 4 days later with ongoing diarrhoea. On examination, she has a temperature of 38.2ºC, heart rate of 99 beats/min, and blood pressure of 120/68 mmHg. Her abdomen is tender but soft with no guarding. What is the next step in managing this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral fidaxomicin
Explanation:If the initial treatment with vancomycin fails to treat Clostridioides difficile, the next recommended option is oral fidaxomicin, unless the infection is life-threatening. In such cases, other treatment options should be considered. Faecal transplant is not typically used until after second and third-line treatments have been attempted. Intravenous cefuroxime and metronidazole is not recommended for treating Clostridioides difficile, as cephalosporins can increase the risk of infection. Intravenous vancomycin is also not recommended for treating Clostridioides difficile, as it is not as effective as oral vancomycin.
Clostridioides difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It is a Gram positive rod that produces an exotoxin which can cause damage to the intestines, leading to a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is suppressed by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause of C. difficile. Other risk factors include proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale, which ranges from mild to life-threatening.
To diagnose C. difficile, a stool sample is tested for the presence of C. difficile toxin (CDT). Treatment for a first episode of C. difficile infection typically involves oral vancomycin for 10 days, with fidaxomicin or a combination of oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole being used as second and third-line therapies. Recurrent infections occur in around 20% of patients, increasing to 50% after their second episode. In such cases, oral fidaxomicin is recommended within 12 weeks of symptom resolution, while oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin can be used after 12 weeks. For life-threatening C. difficile infections, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole are used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 31
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old female patient comes to the clinic after discovering a lump in her right breast. She is uncertain about how long it has been there and reports no pain or other symptoms. She has no significant medical history. During the physical examination, a smooth, rubbery, mobile mass of approximately 2 cm in diameter is palpated. The patient is immediately referred for imaging, which reveals a small, lobulated lesion measuring about 2.5cm in width, highly suggestive of a fibroadenoma. What is the next step in managing this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reassurance and monitoring
Explanation:A young patient has a small fibroadenoma <3 cm, which is highly suggestive on imaging. There is no increase in the risk of breast cancer, so a core-needle biopsy is not necessary. Watchful waiting is appropriate, and cryoablation may be used for larger fibroadenomas. Fine-needle aspiration is only necessary for larger lumps or in older patients. Understanding Breast Fibroadenoma Breast fibroadenoma is a type of breast mass that develops from a whole lobule. It is characterized by a mobile, firm, and smooth lump in the breast, which is often referred to as a breast mouse. Fibroadenoma accounts for about 12% of all breast masses and is more common in women under the age of 30. Fortunately, fibroadenomas are usually benign and do not increase the risk of developing breast cancer. In fact, over a two-year period, up to 30% of fibroadenomas may even get smaller on their own. However, if the lump is larger than 3 cm, surgical excision is typically recommended. In summary, breast fibroadenoma is a common type of breast mass that is usually benign and does not increase the risk of breast cancer. While it may cause concern for some women, it is important to remember that most fibroadenomas do not require treatment and may even resolve on their own.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 32
Incorrect
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You are assessing a 50-year-old man who has been diagnosed with Barrett's oesophagus following difficult to control symptoms. Biopsies did not reveal any dysplasia. What is the most strongly linked risk factor modification for the development of Barrett's oesophagus?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease
Explanation:Barrett’s oesophagus is most strongly associated with the presence of GORD as a risk factor.
Understanding Barrett’s Oesophagus
Barrett’s oesophagus is a condition where the lower oesophageal mucosa is replaced by columnar epithelium, increasing the risk of oesophageal adenocarcinoma by 50-100 fold. It is typically identified during an endoscopy for upper gastrointestinal symptoms such as dyspepsia. The length of the affected segment correlates strongly with the chances of identifying metaplasia, with the overall prevalence estimated to be around 1 in 20. Risk factors include gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD), male gender, smoking, and central obesity. Interestingly, alcohol does not seem to be an independent risk factor for Barrett’s. Management includes high-dose proton pump inhibitors and endoscopic surveillance with biopsies every 3-5 years for patients with metaplasia. If dysplasia of any grade is identified, endoscopic intervention such as radiofrequency ablation or endoscopic mucosal resection is offered.
Barrett’s oesophagus is a condition where the lower oesophageal mucosa is replaced by columnar epithelium, increasing the risk of oesophageal adenocarcinoma. It is typically identified during an endoscopy for upper gastrointestinal symptoms such as dyspepsia. The length of the affected segment correlates strongly with the chances of identifying metaplasia, with the overall prevalence estimated to be around 1 in 20. Risk factors include GORD, male gender, smoking, and central obesity. Interestingly, alcohol does not seem to be an independent risk factor for Barrett’s. Management includes high-dose proton pump inhibitors and endoscopic surveillance with biopsies every 3-5 years for patients with metaplasia. If dysplasia of any grade is identified, endoscopic intervention such as radiofrequency ablation or endoscopic mucosal resection is offered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 33
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding allergy testing is inaccurate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Skin prick testing should be read after 48 hours
Explanation:The results of skin prick testing can be interpreted after 15-20 minutes, while skin patch testing requires 48 hours after the patch is removed to be read.
Types of Allergy Tests
Allergy tests are used to determine if a person has an allergic reaction to a particular substance. There are several types of allergy tests available, each with its own advantages and limitations. The most commonly used test is the skin prick test, which is easy to perform and inexpensive. Drops of diluted allergen are placed on the skin, and a needle is used to pierce the skin. A wheal will typically develop if a patient has an allergy. This test is useful for food allergies and pollen.
Another type of allergy test is the radioallergosorbent test (RAST), which determines the amount of IgE that reacts specifically with suspected or known allergens. Results are given in grades from 0 (negative) to 6 (strongly positive). This test is useful for food allergies, inhaled allergens (e.g. pollen), and wasp/bee venom.
Skin patch testing is useful for contact dermatitis. Around 30-40 allergens are placed on the back, and irritants may also be tested for. The patches are removed 48 hours later, and the results are read by a dermatologist after a further 48 hours. Blood tests may be used when skin prick tests are not suitable, for example if there is extensive eczema or if the patient is taking antihistamines. Overall, allergy tests are an important tool in diagnosing and managing allergies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology/Allergy
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Question 34
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old male patient presents to the emergency department after falling on his left hand. He reports experiencing pain in his hand, specifically in the anatomical snuffbox. Despite an x-ray being taken 2 hours after the fall, no fractures were detected in any of his carpal bones, and he was discharged with pain relief. However, he returns 10 days later, complaining of persistent pain and extreme tenderness in the anatomical snuffbox of his left hand. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Scaphoid fracture
Explanation:Fractures in the anatomical snuffbox area can be difficult to detect on x-rays immediately after a fall on the outstretched hand. However, the fracture line may become visible several days later, and patients may experience persistent pain in the area. It is crucial to identify these fractures promptly to prevent non-union and avascular necrosis. It is important to note that a Colles fracture, which also occurs after a fall on the outstretched hand, does not cause pain in the anatomical snuffbox. Similarly, a Barton’s fracture, which is intraarticular in nature, can be seen clearly on initial x-rays and does not cause pain in the anatomical snuffbox.
Upper limb fractures can occur due to various reasons, such as falls or impacts. One such fracture is Colles’ fracture, which is caused by a fall onto extended outstretched hands. This fracture is characterized by a dinner fork type deformity and has three features, including a transverse fracture of the radius, one inch proximal to the radio-carpal joint, and dorsal displacement and angulation. Another type of fracture is Smith’s fracture, which is a reverse Colles’ fracture and is caused by falling backwards onto the palm of an outstretched hand or falling with wrists flexed. This fracture results in volar angulation of the distal radius fragment, also known as the Garden spade deformity.
Bennett’s fracture is an intra-articular fracture at the base of the thumb metacarpal, caused by an impact on a flexed metacarpal, such as in fist fights. On an X-ray, a triangular fragment can be seen at the base of the metacarpal. Monteggia’s fracture is a dislocation of the proximal radioulnar joint in association with an ulna fracture, caused by a fall on an outstretched hand with forced pronation. It requires prompt diagnosis to avoid disability. Galeazzi fracture is a radial shaft fracture with associated dislocation of the distal radioulnar joint, occurring after a fall on the hand with a rotational force superimposed on it. Barton’s fracture is a distal radius fracture (Colles’/Smith’s) with associated radiocarpal dislocation, caused by a fall onto an extended and pronated wrist.
Scaphoid fractures are the most common carpal fractures and occur due to a fall onto an outstretched hand, with the tubercle, waist, or proximal 1/3 being at risk. The surface of the scaphoid is covered by articular cartilage, with a small area available for blood vessels, increasing the risk of fracture. The main physical signs of scaphoid fractures are swelling and tenderness in the anatomical snuff box, pain on wrist movements, and longitudinal compression of the thumb. An ulnar deviation AP is needed for visualization of scaphoid, and immobilization of scaphoid fractures can be difficult. Finally, a radial head fracture is common in young adults and is usually caused by a fall on the outstretched hand. It is characterized by marked local tenderness over
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 35
Incorrect
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You are conducting a medication review on an 80-year-old man who is taking aspirin, verapamil, allopurinol, and co-codamol. Which medication should be avoided if prescribed concurrently with the current medications?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Atenolol
Explanation:The combination of beta-blockers and verapamil has the potential to cause severe bradycardia and asystole.
Beta-blockers are a class of drugs that are primarily used to manage cardiovascular disorders. They have a wide range of indications, including angina, post-myocardial infarction, heart failure, arrhythmias, hypertension, thyrotoxicosis, migraine prophylaxis, and anxiety. Beta-blockers were previously avoided in heart failure, but recent evidence suggests that certain beta-blockers can improve both symptoms and mortality. They have also replaced digoxin as the rate-control drug of choice in atrial fibrillation. However, their role in reducing stroke and myocardial infarction has diminished in recent years due to a lack of evidence. Examples of beta-blockers include atenolol and propranolol, which was one of the first beta-blockers to be developed and is lipid soluble, allowing it to cross the blood-brain barrier.
Like all drugs, beta-blockers have side-effects, including bronchospasm, cold peripheries, fatigue, sleep disturbances (including nightmares), and erectile dysfunction. They are contraindicated in uncontrolled heart failure, asthma, sick sinus syndrome, and concurrent use with verapamil, which may precipitate severe bradycardia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 36
Incorrect
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A 9-month-old boy is presented to the GP with a 4-week history of rash. He has no significant medical history and is meeting developmental milestones appropriately. He has received all of his scheduled immunizations, has no known allergies, and is feeding and urinating well. Upon examination, there is a symmetrical, poorly defined erythematous rash on his elbows and knees. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Eczema
Explanation:Atopic eczema commonly appears in children before the age of 2, with symptoms often affecting the face and extensor surfaces of the body. This patient’s visible dermatitis in the extensor aspects of her body suggests a diagnosis of atopic eczema based on clinical presentation. Impetigo, pemphigus vulgaris, and psoriasis are unlikely diagnoses given the patient’s symmetrical dry rash involving the extensor aspects of the limbs.
Eczema in Children: Symptoms and Management
Eczema is a common skin condition that affects around 15-20% of children and is becoming more prevalent. It usually appears before the age of 2 and clears up in around 50% of children by the age of 5 and in 75% of children by the age of 10. The symptoms of eczema include an itchy, red rash that can worsen with repeated scratching. In infants, the face and trunk are often affected, while in younger children, it typically occurs on the extensor surfaces. In older children, the rash is more commonly seen on the flexor surfaces and in the creases of the face and neck.
To manage eczema in children, it is important to avoid irritants and use simple emollients. Large quantities of emollients should be prescribed, roughly in a ratio of 10:1 with topical steroids. If a topical steroid is also being used, the emollient should be applied first, followed by waiting at least 30 minutes before applying the topical steroid. Creams are absorbed into the skin faster than ointments, and emollients can become contaminated with bacteria, so fingers should not be inserted into pots. Many brands have pump dispensers to prevent contamination.
In severe cases, wet wrapping may be used, which involves applying large amounts of emollient (and sometimes topical steroids) under wet bandages. Oral ciclosporin may also be used in severe cases. Overall, managing eczema in children involves a combination of avoiding irritants, using emollients, and potentially using topical steroids or other medications in severe cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 37
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. She has been experiencing fatigue and has not had a regular period for the past 5 months. She previously had a consistent 28-day cycle. A pregnancy test is negative, her pelvic exam is normal, and routine blood work is ordered:
- Complete blood count: Normal
- Blood urea nitrogen and electrolytes: Normal
- Thyroid function test: Normal
- Follicle-stimulating hormone: 40 iu/l ( < 35 iu/l)
- Luteinizing hormone: 30 mIU/l (< 20 mIU/l)
- Oestradiol: 75 pmol/l ( > 100 pmol/l)
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Premature ovarian failure
Explanation:Premature Ovarian Insufficiency: Causes and Management
Premature ovarian insufficiency is a condition where menopausal symptoms and elevated gonadotrophin levels occur before the age of 40. It affects approximately 1 in 100 women and can be caused by various factors such as idiopathic reasons, family history, bilateral oophorectomy, radiotherapy, chemotherapy, infection, autoimmune disorders, and resistant ovary syndrome. The symptoms of premature ovarian insufficiency are similar to those of normal menopause, including hot flushes, night sweats, infertility, secondary amenorrhoea, raised FSH and LH levels, and low oestradiol.
Management of premature ovarian insufficiency involves hormone replacement therapy (HRT) or a combined oral contraceptive pill until the age of the average menopause, which is 51 years. It is important to note that HRT does not provide contraception in case spontaneous ovarian activity resumes. Early diagnosis and management of premature ovarian insufficiency can help alleviate symptoms and improve quality of life for affected women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 38
Incorrect
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Nosocomial wound infections are often caused by various factors. However, which of the following is the most frequent cause of such infections?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inadequate hand disinfection
Explanation:Preventing Hospital-Acquired Wound Infections: Common Causes and Solutions
Hospital-acquired wound infections are a serious concern for patients and healthcare providers alike. While all wounds are contaminated by microbes, proper hygiene and disinfection can greatly reduce the risk of infection. However, there are several common causes of hospital-acquired wound infections that must be addressed to prevent their occurrence.
The most frequent cause of nosocomial wound infection is inadequate hand disinfection. Hands are a major source of transmission for hospital infections, and compliance with handwashing protocols can be suboptimal for a variety of reasons. These include lack of accessible equipment, insufficient knowledge of staff about risks and procedures, and too long a duration recommended for washing.
Inadequate instrument disinfection is another common cause of hospital-acquired wound infections. Different levels of disinfection are recommended for patient equipment depending on the type of care, with surgical instruments presenting a critical level of risk. Sterilisation or high-level disinfection is necessary to minimise the risk of infection.
While strict schedules for cleaning and disinfection of rooms are in place in hospitals, inadequate room disinfection is still a concern. However, this is not the main cause of surgical wound infection.
The use of wrong disinfectants during skin disinfection can also contribute to hospital-acquired wound infections. Specific hand disinfectants are used for skin disinfection, including alcoholic rubs and emollient gels.
Finally, too frequent skin disinfection can lead to the destruction of the normal skin flora, which can increase the risk of infection. Disinfecting agents must be chosen with care to avoid sensitisation or irritation of the skin.
In conclusion, preventing hospital-acquired wound infections requires a multifaceted approach that addresses the common causes of infection. Proper hand hygiene, instrument disinfection, and skin disinfection are all essential components of a comprehensive infection prevention program.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 39
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man presents with right-sided hemianopia and is currently undergoing investigations for a possible stroke. The stroke specialist has clinically diagnosed him with a POCI, indicating a posterior circulation infarct. Which specific area of the brain is affected by this type of stroke?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The vertebrobasilar arteries
Explanation:A POCI (posterior circulation infarct) typically affects the vertebrobasilar arteries. In contrast, a TACI involves the middle and anterior cerebral arteries, a PACI affects the smaller arteries of anterior circulation, and a LACI involves the perforating arteries around the internal capsule, thalamus, and basal ganglia.
Stroke can be classified based on the initial symptoms using the Oxford Stroke Classification, also known as the Bamford Classification. The criteria assessed include unilateral hemiparesis and/or hemisensory loss of the face, arm, and leg, homonymous hemianopia, and higher cognitive dysfunction such as dysphasia.
Total anterior circulation infarcts (TACI) involve the middle and anterior cerebral arteries and present with all three criteria mentioned above. Partial anterior circulation infarcts (PACI) involve smaller arteries of the anterior circulation and present with two of the criteria. Lacunar infarcts (LACI) involve perforating arteries around the internal capsule, thalamus, and basal ganglia and present with one of three symptoms: unilateral weakness (and/or sensory deficit) of face and arm, arm and leg, or all three; pure sensory stroke; or ataxic hemiparesis.
Posterior circulation infarcts (POCI) involve vertebrobasilar arteries and present with one of three symptoms: cerebellar or brainstem syndromes, loss of consciousness, or isolated homonymous hemianopia. Other recognized patterns of stroke include lateral medullary syndrome (posterior inferior cerebellar artery), also known as Wallenberg’s syndrome, which presents with ipsilateral ataxia, nystagmus, dysphagia, facial numbness, cranial nerve palsy (e.g., Horner’s), and contralateral limb sensory loss. Weber’s syndrome presents with ipsilateral III palsy and contralateral weakness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of a red left eye. She experiences a gritty sensation and feels the need to blink frequently to clear her vision. There is no pain or photophobia, and her pupil size is normal. She reports a significant amount of discharge from the affected eye and recently had a cold. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Conjunctivitis
Explanation:Conjunctivitis is a common condition that can be identified by symptoms such as redness in the eye, a gritty sensation, swollen conjunctivae, and discharge that crusts the eyelashes. However, if a patient presents with severe eye pain, photophobia, a small or abnormal shaped pupil, or blurred vision, it may indicate iritis and require urgent referral to an ophthalmologist. Similarly, acute glaucoma can cause severe eye pain, halos, blurred vision, nausea, and vomiting, while keratitis can cause a painful, red eye with tearing, discharge, and decreased vision, particularly in contact lens wearers.
Conjunctivitis is a common eye problem that is often seen in primary care. It is characterized by red, sore eyes with a sticky discharge. There are two types of infective conjunctivitis: bacterial and viral. Bacterial conjunctivitis is identified by a purulent discharge and eyes that may be stuck together in the morning. On the other hand, viral conjunctivitis is characterized by a serous discharge and recent upper respiratory tract infection, as well as preauricular lymph nodes.
In most cases, infective conjunctivitis is a self-limiting condition that resolves without treatment within one to two weeks. However, topical antibiotic therapy is often offered to patients, such as Chloramphenicol drops given every two to three hours initially or Chloramphenicol ointment given four times a day initially. Alternatively, topical fusidic acid can be used, especially for pregnant women, and treatment is twice daily.
For contact lens users, topical fluoresceins should be used to identify any corneal staining, and treatment should be the same as above. During an episode of conjunctivitis, contact lenses should not be worn, and patients should be advised not to share towels. School exclusion is not necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 41
Incorrect
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At the 4-month check, you observe bilateral hydroceles in a male infant. The swelling is limited to the scrotum and the testis can be felt in the scrotal sac. The infant is otherwise healthy and thriving. The mother expresses concern about the potential impact of the swelling on her son's fertility.
What is the best course of action for managing this situation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reassure mum that hydroceles are common in infants and often self resolve
Explanation:It is common for newborn males to have communicating hydroceles, which usually resolve on their own. This is due to the processus vaginalis remaining open. Parents should be reassured that the hydroceles typically disappear within a few months. However, if the hydrocele persists beyond one year, it is recommended to refer the child to a urologist for possible repair. Ultrasound is not necessary to confirm the diagnosis. It is important to note that hydroceles do not impact fertility, but undescended testes can affect fertility if not treated.
Common Scrotal Problems and Their Features
Epididymal cysts, hydroceles, and varicoceles are the most common scrotal problems seen in primary care. Epididymal cysts are usually found posterior to the testicle and are separate from the body of the testicle. They may be associated with conditions such as polycystic kidney disease, cystic fibrosis, and von Hippel-Lindau syndrome. Diagnosis is confirmed by ultrasound, and management is usually supportive, although surgical removal or sclerotherapy may be attempted for larger or symptomatic cysts.
Hydroceles, on the other hand, describe the accumulation of fluid within the tunica vaginalis. They may be communicating or non-communicating, and may develop secondary to conditions such as epididymo-orchitis, testicular torsion, or testicular tumors. Hydroceles are usually soft, non-tender swellings of the hemi-scrotum that transilluminate with a pen torch. Diagnosis may be clinical, but ultrasound is required if there is any doubt about the diagnosis or if the underlying testis cannot be palpated. Management depends on the severity of the presentation, with infantile hydroceles generally repaired if they do not resolve spontaneously by the age of 1-2 years.
Varicoceles, on the other hand, are abnormal enlargements of the testicular veins that are usually asymptomatic but may be associated with subfertility. They are much more common on the left side and are classically described as a bag of worms. Diagnosis is confirmed by ultrasound with Doppler studies, and management is usually conservative, although surgery may be required if the patient is troubled by pain. There is ongoing debate regarding the effectiveness of surgery to treat infertility.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 42
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman with a long history of steroid-treated sarcoidosis presents with extreme thirst and nocturia up to five times a night. Her serum calcium concentration is 2.3 mmol/l (reference range 2.2–2.7 mmol/l), random plasma glucose 4.6 mmol/l (reference range <11.1 mmol/l) and potassium 3.5 mmol/l (reference range 3.6–5.2 mmol/l). After an overnight fast, her serum sodium is 149 mmol/l (reference range 135–145 mmol/l).
What is the cause of her symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cranial diabetes insipidus
Explanation:Polyuria and polydipsia can be caused by various conditions, including cranial diabetes insipidus, chronic cystitis, hypokalaemia-induced polyuria, iatrogenic adrenal insufficiency, and primary polydipsia. Cranial diabetes insipidus is characterized by decreased secretion of antidiuretic hormone, resulting in the passage of large volumes of dilute urine. Chronic cystitis is an ongoing inflammation of the lower urinary tract, while hypokalaemia-induced polyuria occurs when there is a low concentration of potassium in the filtrate. Iatrogenic adrenal insufficiency is a possible cause of polydipsia/polyuria, but less consistent with this scenario. Primary polydipsia is suspected when large volumes of very dilute urine occur with low-normal plasma osmolality. Differentiating between these conditions can be challenging, but a combination of plasma ADH assay and water deprivation testing can lead to greater accuracy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 43
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by ambulance after being found unresponsive in his home. His medical records show that he had recently been prescribed doxycycline for an unknown reason. Upon assessment, he is breathing rapidly with a respiratory rate of 40 breaths/min and has bibasal crackles. His heart rate is 96 beats/min and his blood pressure is 82/44 mmHg. His blood glucose is 4.1mmol/L, his temperature 38.9ºC and his Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is 9 (E3M4V2). He is given a fluid bolus and an arterial blood gas (ABG) on 4L/min of oxygen is taken, revealing an abnormal pH. What is the most likely cause of the abnormal pH?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lactic acidosis
Explanation:Understanding Metabolic Acidosis and Anion Gap
Metabolic acidosis is a condition that occurs when the body produces too much acid or when the kidneys are not able to remove enough acid from the body. It is commonly classified according to the anion gap, which can be calculated by subtracting the sum of chloride and bicarbonate levels from the sum of sodium and potassium levels. The normal range for anion gap is 10-18 mmol/L. If a question supplies the chloride level, it may be a clue that the anion gap should be calculated.
There are two types of metabolic acidosis based on anion gap levels. Normal anion gap or hyperchloraemic metabolic acidosis is caused by gastrointestinal bicarbonate loss, prolonged diarrhea, ureterosigmoidostomy, fistula, renal tubular acidosis, drugs, ammonium chloride injection, and Addison’s disease. On the other hand, raised anion gap is caused by lactate, ketones, urate, acid poisoning, and other factors.
Metabolic acidosis secondary to high lactate levels may be subdivided into two types: lactic acidosis type A and lactic acidosis type B. Lactic acidosis type A is caused by sepsis, shock, hypoxia, and burns, while lactic acidosis type B is caused by metformin. Understanding the different types of metabolic acidosis and anion gap levels can help in diagnosing and treating the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 44
Incorrect
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A pregnant woman presents at 24 weeks pregnant. What would be the expected symphysis-fundal height?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 22 - 26 cm
Explanation:The symphysis-fundal height in centimeters after 20 weeks of gestation is equal to the number of weeks of gestation.
The symphysis-fundal height (SFH) is a measurement taken from the pubic bone to the top of the uterus in centimetres. It is used to determine the gestational age of a fetus and should match within 2 cm after 20 weeks. For example, if a woman is 24 weeks pregnant, a normal SFH would be between 22 and 26 cm. Proper measurement of SFH is important for monitoring fetal growth and development during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 45
Incorrect
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A 92-year-old man is brought to the hospital from a nursing home with advanced pneumonia. Despite medical intervention, his condition worsens and he passes away within 48 hours of admission. His past medical history includes a hip replacement surgery 4 years ago and advanced dementia for which he is currently under guardianship.
What are the appropriate steps to take following his death?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer the death to the coroner as she was detained under the mental health act at time of death
Explanation:If a person dies while under the mental health act, regardless of the cause of death, it is mandatory to report their death to the coroner. In this case, as the individual was detained under the mental health act at the time of their death, it is the responsibility of the doctors in the hospital where they passed away to issue the MCCD after discussing with the coroner. It would be inappropriate to ask the GP who performed their surgery over a year ago to issue the MCCD as they may not have seen the individual within 14 days prior to their death. Additionally, the doctors at the psychiatric hospital may have seen the individual within the 14 days prior, but it is still the responsibility of the hospital doctors who were caring for them at the time of their death to issue the MCCD.
Sectioning under the Mental Health Act is a legal process used for individuals who refuse voluntary admission. This process excludes patients who are under the influence of drugs or alcohol. There are several sections under the Mental Health Act that allow for different types of admission and treatment.
Section 2 allows for admission for assessment for up to 28 days, which is not renewable. An Approved Mental Health Professional (AMHP) or the nearest relative (NR) can make the application on the recommendation of two doctors, one of whom should be an approved consultant psychiatrist. Treatment can be given against the patient’s wishes.
Section 3 allows for admission for treatment for up to 6 months, which can be renewed. An AMHP and two doctors, both of whom must have seen the patient within the past 24 hours, can make the application. Treatment can also be given against the patient’s wishes.
Section 4 is used as an emergency 72-hour assessment order when a section 2 would involve an unacceptable delay. A GP and an AMHP or NR can make the application, which is often changed to a section 2 upon arrival at the hospital.
Section 5(2) allows a doctor to legally detain a voluntary patient in hospital for 72 hours, while section 5(4) allows a nurse to detain a voluntary patient for 6 hours.
Section 17a allows for Supervised Community Treatment (Community Treatment Order) and can be used to recall a patient to the hospital for treatment if they do not comply with the conditions of the order in the community, such as taking medication.
Section 135 allows for a court order to be obtained to allow the police to break into a property to remove a person to a Place of Safety. Section 136 allows for someone found in a public place who appears to have a mental disorder to be taken by the police to a Place of Safety. This section can only be used for up to 24 hours while a Mental Health Act assessment is arranged.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 46
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old who is currently 26 weeks pregnant comes to see you about a thin, white discharge. Swabs are taken and clue cells are seen on microscopy. Which treatment do you initiate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Metronidazole 400mg bd for 7 days
Explanation:Pregnant women with symptomatic bacterial vaginosis (BV) should be offered treatment using oral metronidazole. If BV is incidentally detected in a pregnant woman without symptoms, it is advisable to discuss with her obstetrician whether treatment is necessary. High-dose regimens are not recommended during pregnancy. In case the woman prefers a topical treatment or is unable to tolerate oral metronidazole, intravaginal metronidazole gel or clindamycin cream can be used as alternative choices. However, oral clindamycin is not widely recommended in primary care due to the increased risk of pseudomembranous colitis. This information is sourced from NICE CKS – Bacterial Vaginosis.
Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is a condition where there is an overgrowth of anaerobic organisms, particularly Gardnerella vaginalis, in the vagina. This leads to a decrease in the amount of lactobacilli, which produce lactic acid, resulting in an increase in vaginal pH. BV is not a sexually transmitted infection, but it is commonly seen in sexually active women. Symptoms include a fishy-smelling vaginal discharge, although some women may not experience any symptoms at all. Diagnosis is made using Amsel’s criteria, which includes the presence of thin, white discharge, clue cells on microscopy, a vaginal pH greater than 4.5, and a positive whiff test. Treatment involves oral metronidazole for 5-7 days, with a cure rate of 70-80%. However, relapse rates are high, with over 50% of women experiencing a recurrence within 3 months. Topical metronidazole or clindamycin may be used as alternatives.
Bacterial vaginosis during pregnancy can increase the risk of preterm labor, low birth weight, chorioamnionitis, and late miscarriage. It was previously recommended to avoid oral metronidazole in the first trimester and use topical clindamycin instead. However, recent guidelines suggest that oral metronidazole can be used throughout pregnancy. The British National Formulary (BNF) still advises against using high-dose metronidazole regimes. Clue cells, which are vaginal epithelial cells covered with bacteria, can be seen on microscopy in women with BV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 47
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man with ulcerative colitis is seen for his follow-up appointment. He had a moderate flare-up of his condition two months ago, which was treated with oral steroids and resolved. He has not had any other flare-ups in the past year and his most recent colonoscopy showed left-sided disease. He is currently asymptomatic, with normal observations and bowel movements of 2-3 times per day. What is the best medical treatment to maintain remission for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral mesalazine
Explanation:Ulcerative colitis can be managed through inducing and maintaining remission. The severity of the condition is classified as mild, moderate, or severe based on the number of stools and presence of systemic upset. Treatment for mild-to-moderate cases of proctitis involves using topical aminosalicylate, while proctosigmoiditis and left-sided ulcerative colitis may require a combination of oral and topical medications. Extensive disease may require a high-dose oral aminosalicylate and topical treatment. Severe colitis should be treated in a hospital with intravenous steroids or ciclosporin. Maintaining remission can involve using a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate or oral azathioprine/mercaptopurine. Methotrexate is not recommended, but probiotics may prevent relapse in mild to moderate cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 48
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man presents with persistent dyspepsia that is alleviated by omeprazole. He has been taking omeprazole 20 mg daily for the past 2 years. What is a drawback of using a proton-pump inhibitor (PPI) for an extended period of time?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increased risk of fractures
Explanation:According to the BNF, PPIs should be taken in the lowest effective dose for the shortest possible time, and their long-term use should be regularly evaluated. Prolonged use of PPIs can conceal the signs of stomach cancer and heighten the likelihood of osteoporosis and fractures by hindering the absorption of calcium and magnesium.
Understanding Proton Pump Inhibitors and Their Adverse Effects
Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) are medications that block the H+/K+ ATPase of the gastric parietal cell, leading to irreversible effects. Common examples of PPIs include omeprazole and lansoprazole. While these medications are effective in treating conditions such as gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) and peptic ulcers, they can also have adverse effects on the body.
One of the potential adverse effects of PPIs is hyponatremia, which is a condition characterized by low levels of sodium in the blood. PPIs can also lead to hypomagnesemia, which is a deficiency of magnesium in the blood. Additionally, long-term use of PPIs has been linked to an increased risk of osteoporosis and fractures. Another potential adverse effect is microscopic colitis, which is inflammation of the colon that can cause diarrhea and abdominal pain. Finally, PPIs have been associated with an increased risk of C. difficile infections, which can cause severe diarrhea and other gastrointestinal symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 49
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man is admitted to the orthogeriatric ward following a femoral fracture from a fall. He has a medical history of diabetes mellitus type 2, benign prostate hyperplasia, and severe hay fever. After a few days, the patient reports experiencing suprapubic discomfort and difficulty urinating. Which medication is the most probable cause of his symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Codeine
Explanation:Urinary retention is a common side effect of opioid analgesia, including the use of codeine. Other medications that can cause this issue include tricyclic antidepressants, anticholinergics, and NSAIDs. Doxazosin, an alpha-blocker, is often prescribed to improve symptoms of benign prostatic hyperplasia and reduce resistance to bladder outflow. Duloxetine, an SSRI used to treat diabetic neuropathy, does not typically cause urinary retention. Finasteride, a 5-alpha reductase inhibitor, is a second-line treatment for benign prostatic hyperplasia when alpha-blockers are not effective, as it reduces prostatic bulk.
Drugs that can cause urinary retention
Urinary retention is a condition where a person is unable to empty their bladder completely. This can be caused by various factors, including certain medications. Some drugs that may lead to urinary retention include tricyclic antidepressants like amitriptyline, anticholinergics such as antipsychotics and antihistamines, opioids, NSAIDs, and disopyramide. These drugs can affect the muscles that control the bladder, making it difficult to urinate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 50
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old female patient visits her general practitioner seeking information on emergency contraception. She engaged in unprotected sexual activity with a male partner a week ago. The patient has a consistent 28-day menstrual cycle and believes that today is the 17th day of her current cycle. What options are available for emergency contraception in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Copper intrauterine device
Explanation:The copper intrauterine device is the only suitable method for this patient as it can be used as emergency contraception if inserted within 5 days of unprotected sexual intercourse or within 5 days of the estimated ovulation date, whichever is later. As the patient has a regular 28-day cycle and is currently at day 17, she is within the 5-day window for fitting of the IUD. Levonorgestrel, a tablet used for emergency contraception, would not be suitable as it must be taken within 72 hours of unprotected sexual intercourse. The Mirena intrauterine system is a hormonal device used for regular contraception but cannot be used as emergency contraception. Norethisterone is a drug used for dysfunctional uterine bleeding and period delay but not for emergency contraception.
Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, while ulipristal primarily inhibits ovulation. Levonorgestrel should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse, within 72 hours, and is 84% effective when used within this time frame. The dose should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. Ulipristal should be taken within 120 hours of intercourse and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which can be inserted within 5 days of unprotected intercourse or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. It may inhibit fertilization or implantation and is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high risk of sexually transmitted infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 51
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man is admitted with a right lower lobe pneumonia. Along with consolidation, there seems to be a moderate-sized pleural effusion on the same side. A pleural fluid aspiration is performed under ultrasound guidance, and the fluid's appearance is clear, sent off for culture. While waiting for the culture results, what is the most crucial factor in deciding whether to place a chest tube?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: pH of the pleural fluid
Explanation:According to the British Thoracic Society (BTS), chest tube placement in pleural infection is mainly indicated for patients with purulent or cloudy pleural fluid, positive Gram stain and/or culture results from non-purulent pleural fluid, and pleural fluid pH below 7.2. Among these indications, pleural fluid pH is considered the most valuable test.
Investigating and Managing Pleural Effusion: BTS Guidelines
Pleural effusion is a condition where fluid accumulates in the pleural space, the area between the lungs and the chest wall. To investigate and manage this condition, the British Thoracic Society (BTS) has provided guidelines.
Imaging is an essential part of the investigation process, and the BTS recommends performing posterioranterior (PA) chest x-rays in all patients. Ultrasound is also recommended as it increases the likelihood of successful pleural aspiration and is sensitive for detecting pleural fluid septations. Contrast CT is increasingly performed to investigate the underlying cause, particularly for exudative effusions.
Pleural aspiration is another crucial step in the investigation process. The BTS recommends using ultrasound to reduce the complication rate. A 21G needle and 50ml syringe should be used, and fluid should be sent for pH, protein, lactate dehydrogenase (LDH), cytology, and microbiology. Light’s criteria can help distinguish between a transudate and an exudate. Other characteristic pleural fluid findings include low glucose in rheumatoid arthritis and tuberculosis, raised amylase in pancreatitis and oesophageal perforation, and heavy blood staining in mesothelioma, pulmonary embolism, and tuberculosis.
In cases of pleural infection, diagnostic pleural fluid sampling is required for all patients with a pleural effusion in association with sepsis or a pneumonic illness. If the fluid is purulent or turbid/cloudy, a chest tube should be placed to allow drainage. If the fluid is clear but the pH is less than 7.2 in patients with suspected pleural infection, a chest tube should be placed.
For managing recurrent pleural effusion, options include recurrent aspiration, pleurodesis, indwelling pleural catheter, and drug management to alleviate symptoms such as opioids to relieve dyspnoea. The BTS guidelines provide a comprehensive approach to investigating and managing pleural effusion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 52
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old overweight boy attends surgery with his father. He complains of left knee pain for several weeks, worse when having to participate in sports at school. Examination reveals a normal left knee with good range of motion; left hip flexion causes obligatory external rotation.
Which of the following is the likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Slipped upper femoral epiphysis (SUFE)
Explanation:Slipped upper femoral epiphysis (SUFE) is a common hip disorder in adolescence that occurs when the proximal femoral growth plate weakens, causing displacement of the femoral epiphysis. This can be caused by various factors, with obesity being the most common risk factor. Patients often present with knee or groin pain, and the affected leg may be externally rotated with limited internal rotation and abduction. Chondromalacia patellae, Osgood-Schlatter disease, osteochondritis dissecans, and patellar subluxation are other possible causes of knee pain, but hip examination would be expected to be normal in these conditions. It is important to examine the hip joint in children presenting with knee pain, as it could be due to hip pathology such as SUFE.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 53
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man with a 12-year history of gastro-oesophageal reflux disease presents with dysphagia. Upon endoscopy, an obstructive lesion is observed that is highly suspicious of oesophageal cancer. What is the expected result of the biopsy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Adenocarcinoma
Explanation:Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GORD) or Barrett’s esophagus are linked to the development of oesophageal adenocarcinoma.
Oesophageal Cancer: Types, Risk Factors, Features, Diagnosis, and Treatment
Oesophageal cancer used to be mostly squamous cell carcinoma, but adenocarcinoma is now becoming more common, especially in patients with a history of gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) or Barrett’s. Adenocarcinoma is usually located near the gastroesophageal junction, while squamous cell tumours are found in the upper two-thirds of the oesophagus.
Risk factors for adenocarcinoma include GORD, Barrett’s oesophagus, smoking, achalasia, and obesity. Squamous cell cancer is more common in the developing world and is associated with smoking, alcohol, achalasia, Plummer-Vinson syndrome, and diets rich in nitrosamines.
The most common presenting symptom for both types of oesophageal cancer is dysphagia, followed by anorexia and weight loss. Other possible features include odynophagia, hoarseness, melaena, vomiting, and cough.
Diagnosis is done through upper GI endoscopy with biopsy, endoscopic ultrasound for locoregional staging, CT scanning for initial staging, and FDG-PET CT for detecting occult metastases. Laparoscopy may also be performed to detect occult peritoneal disease.
Operable disease is best managed by surgical resection, with the most common procedure being an Ivor-Lewis type oesophagectomy. However, the biggest surgical challenge is anastomotic leak, which can result in mediastinitis. Adjuvant chemotherapy may also be used in many patients.
Overall, oesophageal cancer is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Understanding the types, risk factors, features, diagnosis, and treatment options can help patients and healthcare providers make informed decisions about managing this disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 54
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old girl comes to see her doctor because she has not yet begun menstruating. During the physical examination, you observe that she has a short stature and a webbed neck. What would you anticipate hearing when listening to her heart?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ejection systolic murmur
Explanation:The ejection systolic murmur present in this patient is likely due to her Turner’s syndrome, which is associated with a bicuspid aortic valve. A continuous machinery murmur, late systolic murmur, and mid-late diastolic murmur are less likely causes, as they are associated with different conditions that are not commonly seen in patients with Turner’s syndrome.
Understanding Turner’s Syndrome
Turner’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects approximately 1 in 2,500 females. It is caused by the absence of one sex chromosome (X) or a deletion of the short arm of one of the X chromosomes. This condition is denoted as 45,XO or 45,X.
The features of Turner’s syndrome include short stature, a shield chest with widely spaced nipples, a webbed neck, a bicuspid aortic valve (15%), coarctation of the aorta (5-10%), primary amenorrhea, cystic hygroma (often diagnosed prenatally), a high-arched palate, a short fourth metacarpal, multiple pigmented naevi, lymphoedema in neonates (especially feet), and elevated gonadotrophin levels. Hypothyroidism is much more common in Turner’s syndrome, and there is also an increased incidence of autoimmune disease (especially autoimmune thyroiditis) and Crohn’s disease.
In summary, Turner’s syndrome is a chromosomal disorder that affects females and can cause a range of physical features and health issues. Early diagnosis and management can help individuals with Turner’s syndrome lead healthy and fulfilling lives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 55
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man with a history of ischaemic heart disease complains of myalgia. He has been taking aspirin, simvastatin, and atenolol for a long time. A creatine kinase test is performed due to his statin use, and the results show:
Creatine kinase 1,420 u/l (< 190 u/l)
The patient's symptoms appeared after starting a new medication. Which of the following is the most probable cause of the elevated creatine kinase levels?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clarithromycin
Explanation:The interaction between statins and erythromycin/clarithromycin is significant and frequent, and in this case, the patient has experienced statin-induced myopathy due to clarithromycin.
Statins are drugs that inhibit the action of an enzyme called HMG-CoA reductase, which is responsible for producing cholesterol in the liver. However, they can cause some adverse effects such as myopathy, which includes muscle pain, weakness, and damage, and liver impairment. Myopathy is more common in lipophilic statins than in hydrophilic ones. Statins may also increase the risk of intracerebral hemorrhage in patients who have had a stroke before. Therefore, they should be avoided in these patients. Statins should not be taken during pregnancy and should be stopped if the patient is taking macrolides.
Statins are recommended for people with established cardiovascular disease, those with a 10-year cardiovascular risk of 10% or more, and patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Patients with type 1 diabetes mellitus who were diagnosed more than 10 years ago, are over 40 years old, or have established nephropathy should also take statins. It is recommended to take statins at night as this is when cholesterol synthesis takes place. Atorvastatin 20mg is recommended for primary prevention, and the dose should be increased if non-HDL has not reduced for 40% or more. Atorvastatin 80 mg is recommended for secondary prevention. The graphic shows the different types of statins available.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 56
Incorrect
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You are on GP rotation and you assess a 22-year-old student who reports feeling consistently low for the past 6 months. You administer a PHQ-9 questionnaire which indicates persistent mild depression. What is the first line treatment for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Psychological intervention
Explanation:The primary treatment for mild depression is psychological intervention, typically obtained through an IAPT referral. Although a patient may also be prescribed a Serotonin Specific Reuptake Inhibitor (SSRI) while waiting for their referral, it is important to note that the NICE guidelines prioritize the consideration of an IAPT referral as the first line of treatment. Therefore, an IAPT referral is the most appropriate answer in this scenario.
In 2022, NICE updated its guidelines on managing depression and now classifies it as either less severe or more severe based on a patient’s PHQ-9 score. For less severe depression, NICE recommends discussing treatment options with patients and considering the least intrusive and resource-intensive treatment first. Antidepressant medication should not be routinely offered as first-line treatment unless it is the patient’s preference. Treatment options for less severe depression include guided self-help, group cognitive behavioral therapy, group behavioral activation, individual CBT or BA, group exercise, group mindfulness and meditation, interpersonal psychotherapy, SSRIs, counseling, and short-term psychodynamic psychotherapy. For more severe depression, NICE recommends a shared decision-making approach and suggests a combination of individual CBT and an antidepressant as the preferred treatment option. Other treatment options for more severe depression include individual CBT or BA, antidepressant medication, individual problem-solving, counseling, short-term psychodynamic psychotherapy, interpersonal psychotherapy, guided self-help, and group exercise.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 57
Incorrect
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What is the most frequent non-intestinal symptom of Crohn's disease?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arthritis
Explanation:Both Crohn’s and UC have arthritis as their most common extra-intestinal feature.
Understanding Crohn’s Disease
Crohn’s disease is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that affects various parts of the digestive tract, from the mouth to the anus. Although the exact cause of Crohn’s disease is unknown, there is a strong genetic susceptibility. The disease is characterized by inflammation in all layers of the digestive tract, which can lead to complications such as strictures, fistulas, and adhesions. Symptoms of Crohn’s disease typically appear in late adolescence or early adulthood and may include non-specific symptoms such as weight loss and lethargy, diarrhea, abdominal pain, and perianal disease. Extra-intestinal features, such as arthritis, erythema nodosum, and osteoporosis, are also common in patients with Crohn’s disease.
To diagnose Crohn’s disease, doctors may look for raised inflammatory markers, increased faecal calprotectin, anemia, and low levels of vitamin B12 and vitamin D. It is important to note that Crohn’s disease shares some extra-intestinal features with ulcerative colitis, another type of inflammatory bowel disease. Arthritis is the most common extra-intestinal feature in both Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis, while primary sclerosing cholangitis is much more common in ulcerative colitis. Understanding the symptoms and features of Crohn’s disease can help with early diagnosis and management of the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 58
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presents with gradually worsening exertional dyspnoea and a dry cough over the past year. He quit smoking 25 cigarettes/day about 25 years ago. Upon examination, his oxygen saturation is 96% on room air, respiratory rate is 16/min, and there are fine bibasal crackles. Finger clubbing is also present. The following investigations were conducted:
- B-type natriuretic peptide: 90 pg/ml (< 100pg/ml)
- ECG: sinus rhythm, 68/min
- Spirometry:
- FEV1: 1.6 L (51% of predicted)
- FVC: 1.7 L (40% of predicted)
- FEV1/FVC: 95%
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
Explanation:A common scenario for idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis involves a man between the ages of 50 and 70 who experiences worsening shortness of breath during physical activity. Other symptoms may include clubbing of the fingers and a restrictive pattern on spirometry testing. However, a normal B-type natriuretic peptide level suggests that heart failure is not the cause of these symptoms.
Understanding Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis
Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF) is a chronic lung condition that causes progressive fibrosis of the interstitium of the lungs. Unlike other causes of lung fibrosis, IPF has no underlying cause. It is typically seen in patients aged 50-70 years and is more common in men.
The symptoms of IPF include progressive exertional dyspnoea, dry cough, clubbing, and bibasal fine end-inspiratory crepitations on auscultation. Diagnosis is made through spirometry, impaired gas exchange tests, and imaging such as chest x-rays and high-resolution CT scans.
Management of IPF includes pulmonary rehabilitation, but very few medications have been shown to be effective. Some evidence suggests that pirfenidone, an antifibrotic agent, may be useful in selected patients. Many patients will eventually require supplementary oxygen and a lung transplant.
The prognosis for IPF is poor, with an average life expectancy of around 3-4 years. CT scans can show advanced pulmonary fibrosis, including honeycombing. While there is no cure for IPF, early diagnosis and management can help improve quality of life and potentially prolong survival.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 59
Incorrect
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Samantha is a 55-year-old Hispanic woman who visits her primary care physician for a routine check-up of her hypertension. Despite being treated with amlodipine 10 mg once daily, her blood pressure has been poorly controlled during her last two appointments. During her examination today, her blood pressure is 160/100 mmHg, pulse 70/minute, respiratory rate 15/min, and she has no fever. What would be the next appropriate step to attempt to control Samantha's hypertension?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Add candesartan
Explanation:To manage poorly controlled hypertension in patients already taking a calcium channel blocker, the recommended next step is to add an ACE inhibitor, an angiotensin receptor blocker (ARB), or a thiazide-like diuretic. In this particular case, since the patient is black, an ARB is the preferred choice. Beta-blockers like metoprolol are not commonly used for hypertension management. Increasing the dose of amlodipine may lead to more side effects, so it is generally better to add multiple drugs at lower doses instead of increasing the dose of one drug to its maximum.
NICE Guidelines for Managing Hypertension
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic in addition to an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.
The guidelines also provide a flow chart for the diagnosis and management of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, such as reducing salt intake, caffeine intake, and alcohol consumption, as well as exercising more and losing weight, should not be forgotten and is frequently tested in exams. Treatment options depend on the patient’s age, ethnicity, and other factors, and may involve a combination of drugs.
NICE recommends treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old if they have target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For patients with stage 2 hypertension, drug treatment should be offered regardless of age. The guidelines also provide step-by-step treatment options, including adding a third or fourth drug if necessary.
New drugs, such as direct renin inhibitors like Aliskiren, may have a role in patients who are intolerant of more established antihypertensive drugs. However, trials have only investigated the fall in blood pressure and no mortality data is available yet. Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist. The guidelines also provide blood pressure targets for different age groups.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 60
Incorrect
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As a foundation doctor in general practice, you examine a fifty-five-year-old patient during an outpatient clinic visit. The patient complains of weight loss and a painless, enlarging sore on the penis that has been present for more than two months. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma
Explanation:Penile cancer can manifest as an ulcer. The most prevalent form of penile cancer is squamous cell carcinoma, not adenocarcinoma. While stress ulcers cause abdominal pain and bleeding, they are not responsible for this presentation. Herpes outbreaks can be triggered by significant stress, but they typically cause painful lesions that heal within a week. Syphilis, caused by Treponema pallidum, can result in a painless ulcer called a chancre, but it does not cause weight loss, and the lesion usually resolves within six to eight weeks, even without treatment.
Understanding Penile Cancer: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Penile cancer is a rare type of cancer that is typically characterized by squamous cell carcinoma. It is a condition that affects the penis and can cause a variety of symptoms, including penile lump and ulceration. There are several risk factors associated with penile cancer, including human immunodeficiency virus infection, human papillomavirus virus infection, genital warts, poor hygiene, phimosis, paraphimosis, balanitis, and age over 50.
When it comes to treating penile cancer, there are several options available, including radiotherapy, chemotherapy, and surgery. The prognosis for penile cancer can vary depending on the stage of the cancer and the treatment options chosen. However, the overall survival rate for penile cancer is approximately 50% at 5 years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 61
Incorrect
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A 82-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of sudden loss of vision in his left eye since this morning. He denies any associated eye pain or headaches and is otherwise feeling well. His medical history includes ischaemic heart disease. Upon examination, the patient has no vision in his left eye. The left pupil shows poor response to light, but the consensual light reaction is normal. Fundoscopy reveals a red spot over a pale and opaque retina. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Central retinal artery occlusion
Explanation:Central Retinal Artery Occlusion: A Rare Cause of Sudden Vision Loss
Central retinal artery occlusion is a rare condition that can cause sudden, painless loss of vision in one eye. It is typically caused by a blood clot or inflammation in the artery that supplies blood to the retina. This can be due to atherosclerosis or arteritis, such as temporal arteritis. Symptoms may include a relative afferent pupillary defect and a cherry red spot on a pale retina. Unfortunately, the prognosis for this condition is poor, and management can be difficult. Treatment may involve identifying and addressing any underlying conditions, such as intravenous steroids for temporal arteritis. In some cases, intraarterial thrombolysis may be attempted, but the results of this treatment are mixed. Overall, central retinal artery occlusion is a serious condition that requires prompt medical attention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 62
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old female is admitted to the Medical Admissions Unit with symptoms of neck stiffness, photophobia, and fever. No rash is present, and her GCS is 15. Upon lumbar puncture, her CSF shows increased opening pressure and turbidity, with a raised white cell count and low glucose. Ceftriaxone is initiated, but what additional treatment is necessary to enhance outcomes?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dexamethasone
Explanation:The patient’s presentation and CSF results strongly suggest bacterial meningitis, for which appropriate antibiotic therapy has been initiated. To improve neurological outcomes and reduce the risk of sequelae such as deafness, dexamethasone is the recommended additional treatment. However, it should be noted that dexamethasone is contraindicated in cases of septic shock or meningococcal septicaemia. Antivirals such as aciclovir are not indicated in bacterial meningitis, while fluconazole, an anti-fungal, is also not appropriate. Prednisolone has no role in the treatment of meningitis.
The investigation and management of suspected bacterial meningitis are intertwined due to the potential negative impact of delayed antibiotic treatment. Patients should be urgently transferred to the hospital, and an ABC approach should be taken initially. A lumbar puncture should be delayed in certain circumstances, and IV antibiotics should be given as a priority if there is any doubt. The bloods and CSF should be tested for various parameters, and prophylaxis should be offered to households and close contacts of patients affected with meningococcal meningitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 63
Incorrect
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An 85-year-old man complains of increasing back pain and overall weakness. An X-ray of his back reveals multiple vertebral collapses and lytic lesions.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Multiple myeloma
Explanation:Understanding Multiple Myeloma: A Malignant Disease of Plasma Cells
Multiple myeloma is a malignant disease of plasma cells that commonly affects adults aged over 60 years. It is characterized by the production of paraproteinaemia in the blood, which can affect multiple organs including the blood, bone, kidneys, and immune system. The most common symptoms of multiple myeloma include unexplained bone pain, hypercalcaemia, weight loss, hyperviscosity symptoms, spinal cord compression, and fever.
On the other hand, osteoporosis is a condition characterized by low bone mass and deterioration of the structure of the bone tissue, resulting in bone fragility and susceptibility to fracture. Multiple vertebral collapses and lytic lesions are more sinister in nature and are commonly associated with multiple myeloma.
Osteosarcoma, bone metastases, and chronic myeloblastic leukaemia (CML) are not related to multiple myeloma. Osteosarcoma is characterized by cortical destruction and the presence of a soft-tissue mass, while bone metastases usually lead to destruction of the cortex on plain radiographs. Symptoms of CML include fatigue, night sweats, weight loss, abdominal fullness, and left upper quadrant pain.
In summary, understanding the symptoms and characteristics of multiple myeloma is crucial in diagnosing and treating this malignant disease of plasma cells.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 64
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old man presents to his GP with right-sided facial weakness. He complains of weakness on the right side of his face, especially when smiling or chewing. He also reports occasional twitching of his right cheek, which started 3 days ago after a flu-like illness. However, he notes that it is already starting to improve.
During examination, the GP observes mild impairment of the facial muscles on the entire right side of the patient's face, including his forehead. Otoscopy is normal, and examination of the eye is unremarkable. The rest of the cranial nerve exam and upper limb neurological exam is normal.
What is the recommended management for this likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral prednisolone and artificial tears
Explanation:Patients with Bell’s palsy should receive oral prednisolone within 72 hours of onset, regardless of the severity of their symptoms or any improvement since onset. This is important to differentiate Bell’s palsy from other conditions such as cerebral events and Ramsay-Hunt syndrome. Eye protection with lid taping or lubricating eye drops should also be considered. Therefore, the correct answer is oral prednisolone and artificial tears. Oral aciclovir alone is not sufficient as it does not provide steroids or eye protection. Reassurance only and advice to return if symptoms persist after 2 weeks is not appropriate as treatment should be offered within the 72-hour window. Urgent referral to ENT is not necessary as the diagnosis can be made and managed in primary care, but non-urgent referral may be necessary in severe or prolonged cases or where the diagnosis is unclear.
Understanding Bell’s Palsy
Bell’s palsy is a sudden, one-sided facial nerve paralysis of unknown cause. It is more common in individuals aged 20-40 years and pregnant women. The condition is characterized by lower motor neuron facial nerve palsy, which affects the forehead. Unlike upper motor neuron lesions, the upper face is spared. Patients may also experience post-auricular pain, altered taste, dry eyes, and hyperacusis.
The management of Bell’s palsy has been a subject of debate. However, it is now widely accepted that all patients should receive oral prednisolone within 72 hours of onset. The addition of antiviral medications is still a matter of discussion, but it may be beneficial for severe facial palsy. Eye care is also crucial to prevent exposure keratopathy, and patients should be prescribed artificial tears and eye lubricants. If they are unable to close their eyes at bedtime, they should tape them closed using microporous tape.
If the paralysis shows no sign of improvement after three weeks, an urgent referral to ENT is necessary. Patients with long-standing weakness may require a referral to plastic surgery. The prognosis for Bell’s palsy is generally good, with most patients making a full recovery within 3-4 months. However, untreated patients may experience permanent moderate to severe weakness in around 15% of cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 65
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man has a 3-month history of weight loss, fatigue and difficulty breathing with a 20-pack-year smoking history. A chest X-ray reveals multiple rounded nodules of different sizes spread throughout both lungs.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pulmonary metastases
Explanation:Differential diagnosis of lung nodules on chest radiograph
Pulmonary metastases is a likely diagnosis for lung nodules on a chest radiograph, especially in patients with a history of cancer. Other possible causes of lung nodules include infections, such as lung abscesses or tuberculosis, occupational lung diseases, such as silicosis, and traumatic injuries, such as rib fractures. However, the clinical presentation and radiological features of these conditions differ from those of pulmonary metastases. Therefore, a thorough evaluation of the patient’s medical history, physical examination, laboratory tests, and imaging studies is necessary to establish the correct diagnosis and guide the appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 66
Incorrect
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Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to using combined oral contraceptive pills?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 36-year-old woman smoking 20 cigarettes/day
Explanation:The decision to prescribe the combined oral contraceptive pill is now based on the UK Medical Eligibility Criteria (UKMEC), which categorizes potential contraindications and cautions on a four-point scale. UKMEC 1 indicates no restrictions for use, while UKMEC 2 suggests that the benefits outweigh the risks. UKMEC 3 indicates that the disadvantages may outweigh the advantages, and UKMEC 4 represents an unacceptable health risk. Examples of UKMEC 3 conditions include controlled hypertension, a family history of thromboembolic disease in first-degree relatives under 45 years old, and current gallbladder disease. Examples of UKMEC 4 conditions include a history of thromboembolic disease or thrombogenic mutation, breast cancer, and uncontrolled hypertension. Diabetes mellitus diagnosed over 20 years ago is classified as UKMEC 3 or 4 depending on severity. In 2016, breast feeding between 6 weeks and 6 months postpartum was changed from UKMEC 3 to UKMEC 2.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 67
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman presents to her GP on the same day with a sudden onset of hearing loss in her right ear while having breakfast. She reports feeling well otherwise and denies any ear pain, discharge, or previous ENT issues. The patient has no significant medical history and is not taking any regular medications. Otoscopy reveals no abnormalities, and tuning fork tests confirm a sensorineural loss. What is the best course of action for managing this patient's condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer urgently to ENT
Explanation:If someone experiences sudden onset sensorineural hearing loss, it is important to refer them to an ENT specialist within 24 hours for investigation and potential treatment with steroids.
Understanding Hearing Loss with Weber and Rinnes Tests
Hearing loss can be classified as either conductive or sensorineural, and a formal assessment with pure tone audiometry is often necessary to determine which type is present. However, in a clinical setting, Weber and Rinnes tests can also be helpful in categorizing different types of hearing loss.
The Weber test involves using a tuning fork to determine if a patient has symmetrical or asymmetrical hearing loss. In a normal patient, the sound is heard equally loud in both ears. However, in a patient with asymmetrical hearing loss, the sound is heard louder in one ear than the other. This finding should be confirmed by repeating the procedure and having the patient occlude one ear with a finger.
The Rinne test involves comparing air conduction to bone conduction in both ears. In a patient with normal hearing, air conduction is greater than bone conduction in both ears. However, in a patient with sensorineural hearing loss, air conduction is greater than bone conduction in the unaffected ear. In a patient with conductive hearing loss, bone conduction is greater than air conduction in the affected ear.
Understanding the results of these tests can help healthcare professionals diagnose and treat hearing loss. By identifying the type and severity of hearing loss, appropriate interventions such as hearing aids or cochlear implants can be recommended.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 68
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman presents with a 2-week history of fatigue, pain and stiffness in her hips and shoulders, low mood, and loss of appetite. The pain and stiffness is worst first thing in the morning. Blood tests are shown below:
Hb 126 g/L
Male: (135-180)
Female: (115 - 160)
Platelets 288 * 109/L
(150 - 400)
WBC 9.8 * 109/L
(4.0 - 11.0)
ESR 78 mm/hr
Men: < (age / 2)
Women: < ((age + 10) / 2)
CRP 56 mg/L
(< 5)
The patient is suspected to have polymyalgia rheumatica and is started on prednisolone. However, after 3 weeks, her symptoms have not improved. What is the most appropriate next step?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Consider an alternative diagnosis
Explanation:If a patient with polymyalgia rheumatica does not respond well to steroids, it is important to consider other possible diagnoses. Typically, patients with this condition experience a dramatic improvement in symptoms within two weeks of starting steroid treatment. Therefore, if there is no response, it is unlikely that polymyalgia rheumatica is the correct diagnosis. Other conditions that may be considered include rheumatoid arthritis, hypothyroidism, fibromyalgia, and polymyositis. Continuing with the same dose of prednisolone or increasing the dose is not recommended, as there should have been some response to the initial dose if polymyalgia rheumatica was present. Similarly, replacing oral prednisolone with IV methylprednisolone is not appropriate if there has been no response to the oral medication. Methotrexate is a second-line treatment option for polymyalgia rheumatica, but it is not the most appropriate next step if the diagnosis is uncertain.
Polymyalgia Rheumatica: A Condition of Muscle Stiffness in Older People
Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) is a common condition that affects older people. It is characterized by muscle stiffness and elevated inflammatory markers. Although it is closely related to temporal arteritis, the underlying cause is not fully understood, and it does not appear to be a vasculitic process. PMR typically affects patients over the age of 60 and has a rapid onset, usually within a month. Patients experience aching and morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, along with mild polyarthralgia, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats.
To diagnose PMR, doctors look for raised inflammatory markers, such as an ESR of over 40 mm/hr. Creatine kinase and EMG are normal. Treatment for PMR involves prednisolone, usually at a dose of 15mg/od. Patients typically respond dramatically to steroids, and failure to do so should prompt consideration of an alternative diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 69
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man with a long-standing history of schizophrenia is being seen by his psychiatrist. He was admitted to the psychiatry unit six months ago due to delusions that he was being tracked by spies. At the time of admission, he was taking quetiapine, but it was changed to aripiprazole 400 mg monthly depot. Recently, he has been expressing to his wife that he believes his food is poisoned. His wife thinks that his new medication is not effective. What is the most suitable course of action for managing this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clozapine
Explanation:Clozapine is the appropriate choice for patients with schizophrenia who have not responded adequately to at least two antipsychotics. In this case, the patient has already tried quetiapine and aripiprazole without success, making clozapine a suitable option. However, it requires careful monitoring and titration. Continuing aripiprazole is not recommended as the patient has been on the highest dose for six months and is still experiencing delusional ideas. Haloperidol is a typical antipsychotic that can be used for schizophrenia, but atypical antipsychotics are preferred due to fewer side effects. Lorazepam is not a long-term antipsychotic and is only useful for managing severe agitation in patients with schizophrenia.
Atypical antipsychotics are now recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia, as per the 2005 NICE guidelines. These medications have the advantage of significantly reducing extrapyramidal side-effects. However, they can also cause adverse effects such as weight gain, hyperprolactinaemia, and in the case of clozapine, agranulocytosis. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued warnings about the increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients. Examples of atypical antipsychotics include clozapine, olanzapine, risperidone, quetiapine, amisulpride, and aripiprazole.
Clozapine, one of the first atypical antipsychotics, carries a significant risk of agranulocytosis and requires full blood count monitoring during treatment. Therefore, it should only be used in patients who are resistant to other antipsychotic medication. The BNF recommends introducing clozapine if schizophrenia is not controlled despite the sequential use of two or more antipsychotic drugs, one of which should be a second-generation antipsychotic drug, each for at least 6-8 weeks. Adverse effects of clozapine include agranulocytosis, neutropaenia, reduced seizure threshold, constipation, myocarditis, and hypersalivation. Dose adjustment of clozapine may be necessary if smoking is started or stopped during treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 70
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old woman presents after collapsing at home. She has diplopia on right gaze, right-sided facial weakness and left flaccid hemiparesis.
Which of the following is the most likely site for her lesion?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Right pons
Explanation:Lesions in different areas of the brainstem can cause specific neurological symptoms. A lesion in the right pons can result in left-sided weakness, right-sided facial paralysis, and double vision when looking towards the lesion. This is known as Millard-Gubler syndrome and is caused by a blockage in the penetrating branches of the basilar artery. A lesion in the right midbrain can affect cranial nerves III and IV, while a lesion in the left midbrain can cause contralateral hemiparesis, contralateral hypoglossal nerve palsy, and ipsilateral oculomotor nerve palsy. A lesion in the left pons can cause contralateral hemiparesis, ipsilateral lateral gaze palsy, and ipsilateral paralysis of the upper and lower face. Lesions in the cerebral hemisphere produce purely contralateral and upper motor neuron signs. The insertion site, cranial nerves, and skull base associated with each area of the brainstem are also important to consider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 71
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman comes in for her 8th week of pregnancy and reports an uncomplicated pregnancy thus far. She is currently in good health and not experiencing any symptoms. However, she expresses concern about not being vaccinated against rubella as a child due to her parents' anti-vaccine beliefs. She is aware of the potential harm rubella can cause to her developing fetus and blood tests confirm that she is not immune to the virus.
What advice should be given to her?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: She can have the MMR vaccine postnatally
Explanation:In the case of a pregnant woman who is not immune to rubella, it is recommended to offer the MMR vaccination after giving birth. Rubella can cause severe harm to the developing foetus, especially during the first 8-10 weeks of pregnancy. Although congenital rubella syndrome is now rare due to widespread MMR vaccination, there has been a resurgence of measles, mumps, and rubella outbreaks in developed countries due to the anti-vaccination movement. The woman should avoid contact with individuals who may have rubella and cannot receive the vaccine while pregnant. Referral to an obstetrician is not necessary at this time since the woman is asymptomatic and in good health. The MMR vaccine should not be administered at 20 weeks of pregnancy, and if the woman is not immune, it should be offered postnatally. If there is a suspicion of rubella based on the woman’s clinical presentation, the local Health Protection Team should be notified, but this is not necessary in this case since there is no suspicion.
Rubella and Pregnancy: Risks, Features, Diagnosis, and Management
Rubella, also known as German measles, is a viral infection caused by the togavirus. Thanks to the introduction of the MMR vaccine, it is now rare. However, if contracted during pregnancy, there is a risk of congenital rubella syndrome, which can cause serious harm to the fetus. It is important to note that the incubation period is 14-21 days, and individuals are infectious from 7 days before symptoms appear to 4 days after the onset of the rash.
The risk of damage to the fetus is highest in the first 8-10 weeks of pregnancy, with a risk as high as 90%. However, damage is rare after 16 weeks. Features of congenital rubella syndrome include sensorineural deafness, congenital cataracts, congenital heart disease (e.g. patent ductus arteriosus), growth retardation, hepatosplenomegaly, purpuric skin lesions, ‘salt and pepper’ chorioretinitis, microphthalmia, and cerebral palsy.
If a suspected case of rubella in pregnancy arises, it should be discussed immediately with the local Health Protection Unit (HPU) as type/timing of investigations may vary. IgM antibodies are raised in women recently exposed to the virus. It should be noted that it is very difficult to distinguish rubella from parvovirus B19 clinically. Therefore, it is important to also check parvovirus B19 serology as there is a 30% risk of transplacental infection, with a 5-10% risk of fetal loss.
If a woman is tested at any point and no immunity is demonstrated, they should be advised to keep away from people who might have rubella. Non-immune mothers should be offered the MMR vaccination in the post-natal period. However, MMR vaccines should not be administered to women known to be pregnant or attempting to become pregnant.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 72
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old man visits his GP with complaints of increased thirst throughout the day and difficulty performing everyday tasks. He was recently treated for a UTI with ciprofloxacin. His father has a history of diabetes, but is unsure of the type. He drinks about 8 units of alcohol per week. Fasting plasma glucose is 17.1 mmol/L (3.9-5.6), ketone bodies are 0.4 mmol/L (< 0.6 mmol/L), and C-peptide level is 2.87 ng/mL (0.51-2.72). What is the most likely diagnosis based on the patient's presentation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Type 2 diabetes
Explanation:Distinguishing between type 1 and type 2 diabetes can be achieved through the measurement of C-peptide levels and diabetes-specific autoantibodies.
Diagnosis of Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus
Type 1 diabetes mellitus (T1DM) is typically diagnosed through symptoms and signs that are similar to those seen in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), although the diagnosis may take longer. Symptoms of DKA include abdominal pain, polyuria, polydipsia, dehydration, Kussmaul respiration, and an acetone-smelling breath. To confirm a diagnosis, urine should be dipped for glucose and ketones, and fasting glucose and random glucose levels should be measured. C-peptide levels are typically low in patients with T1DM, and diabetes-specific autoantibodies can be useful in distinguishing between type 1 and type 2 diabetes. Antibodies to glutamic acid decarboxylase (anti-GAD), islet cell antibodies (ICA), insulin autoantibodies (IAA), and insulinoma-associated-2 autoantibodies (IA-2A) are commonly used.
The diagnostic criteria for T1DM include a fasting glucose level greater than or equal to 7.0 mmol/l or a random glucose level greater than or equal to 11.1 mmol/l if the patient is symptomatic. If the patient is asymptomatic, the criteria must be demonstrated on two separate occasions. To distinguish between type 1 and type 2 diabetes, age of onset, speed of onset, weight of the patient, and symptoms should be considered. NICE recommends further investigation for adults suspected of having T1DM if the clinical presentation includes atypical features. Conversely, for patients suspected of having type 2 diabetes, if they respond well to oral hypoglycaemic agents and are over the age of 40 years, further testing for T1DM may not be necessary.
Example scenarios include a 15-year-old with weight loss and lethargy, a 38-year-old obese man with polyuria, a 52-year-old woman with polyuria and polydipsia, and a 59-year-old obese man with polyuria. The appropriate diagnostic tests should be conducted based on the patient’s symptoms and risk factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 73
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man presents with a swollen second toe and ankle pain associated with a history of generalised fatigue. He has no other symptoms and no previous medical history. His brother suffers from psoriasis. He had the following blood test results:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin (Hb) 132 g/l 135–175 g/l
White blood cells 7.5 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 320 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Rheumatoid factor Negative Negative
Antinuclear antibody Negative Negative
Estimated sedimentation rate (ESR) 78 mm/h 0–10 mm/h
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Psoriatic arthritis
Explanation:Understanding Psoriatic Arthritis and Differential Diagnosis
Psoriatic arthritis is a type of inflammatory arthritis that is associated with psoriasis. It is classified as one of the seronegative spondyloarthropathies and can present in various ways, including symmetric polyarthritis, asymmetrical oligo-arthritis, sacroiliitis, distal interphalangeal joint disease, and arthritis mutilans. It affects both men and women equally, and around 10-20% of patients with psoriasis develop psoriatic arthritis.
When considering a differential diagnosis, osteoarthritis is unlikely in this age group, and the presence of a raised estimated sedimentation rate and fatigue in the absence of trauma suggests an inflammatory process. Gout often affects the first metatarsophalangeal joint of the first toe, while rheumatoid arthritis can also affect women of this age group, but psoriatic arthritis is more likely if the patient has dactylitis and a first-degree relative with psoriasis. Systemic lupus erythematosus can also affect women of this age group, but again, psoriatic arthritis is more likely if dactylitis and a first-degree relative with psoriasis are present.
In conclusion, understanding the presentation and differential diagnosis of psoriatic arthritis is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 74
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man with a known history of mixed type dementia (Alzheimer's and vascular) is evaluated in memory clinic due to a recent decline in his memory and cognition. His mini-mental state score is 12 and he is started on memantine. What is the mechanism of action of memantine?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: NMDA antagonist
Explanation:Memantine is an NMDA receptor antagonist and is not a cholinesterase inhibitor like donepezil and rivastigmine. While memantine does act at the serotonin and dopamine receptors, it acts as an antagonist and agonist respectively, rather than the options given.
Managing Alzheimer’s Disease: Non-Pharmacological and Pharmacological Approaches
Alzheimer’s disease is a type of dementia that progressively affects the brain and is the most common form of dementia in the UK. To manage this condition, there are both non-pharmacological and pharmacological approaches available.
Non-pharmacological management involves offering a range of activities that promote wellbeing and are tailored to the patient’s preferences. Group cognitive stimulation therapy is recommended for patients with mild to moderate dementia, while group reminiscence therapy and cognitive rehabilitation are also options to consider.
Pharmacological management involves the use of medications. The three acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (donepezil, galantamine, and rivastigmine) are options for managing mild to moderate Alzheimer’s disease. Memantine, an NMDA receptor antagonist, is considered a second-line treatment and is recommended for patients with moderate Alzheimer’s who are intolerant of or have a contraindication to acetylcholinesterase inhibitors. It can also be used as an add-on drug to acetylcholinesterase inhibitors for patients with moderate or severe Alzheimer’s or as monotherapy in severe Alzheimer’s.
When managing non-cognitive symptoms, NICE does not recommend antidepressants for mild to moderate depression in patients with dementia. Antipsychotics should only be used for patients at risk of harming themselves or others or when the agitation, hallucinations, or delusions are causing them severe distress.
It is important to note that donepezil is relatively contraindicated in patients with bradycardia, and adverse effects may include insomnia. By utilizing both non-pharmacological and pharmacological approaches, patients with Alzheimer’s disease can receive comprehensive care and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 75
Incorrect
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A 46-year-old woman presents with recurring thrush and fatigue. She is concerned that it may be caused by a sexually transmitted infection, but her recent sexual health screening came back negative for syphilis, HIV, Chlamydia, and Gonorrhoea. Her urine test shows ketones and glucose. A random glucose test reveals a reading of 13. What is the most suitable medication for the ongoing treatment of this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Metformin
Explanation:The patient is displaying symptoms of type 2 diabetes, with a random blood glucose level exceeding 11.1 and experiencing related symptoms. As per protocol, the first line of treatment for type 2 diabetes is metformin, which should be prescribed to the patient. It is important to note that insulin is the primary treatment for type 1 diabetes, while gliclazide, pioglitazone, and glibenclamide are secondary medications used in the management of type 2 diabetes, but are not typically prescribed as first line treatments.
Type 2 diabetes mellitus can be diagnosed through a plasma glucose or HbA1c sample. The diagnostic criteria vary depending on whether the patient is experiencing symptoms or not. If the patient is symptomatic, a fasting glucose level of 7.0 mmol/l or higher or a random glucose level of 11.1 mmol/l or higher (or after a 75g oral glucose tolerance test) indicates diabetes. If the patient is asymptomatic, the same criteria apply but must be demonstrated on two separate occasions.
In 2011, the World Health Organization released supplementary guidance on the use of HbA1c for diagnosing diabetes. A HbA1c level of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) or higher is diagnostic of diabetes mellitus. However, a HbA1c value of less than 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) does not exclude diabetes and may not be as sensitive as fasting samples for detecting diabetes. For patients without symptoms, the test must be repeated to confirm the diagnosis. It is important to note that increased red cell turnover can cause misleading HbA1c results.
There are certain conditions where HbA1c cannot be used for diagnosis, such as haemoglobinopathies, haemolytic anaemia, untreated iron deficiency anaemia, suspected gestational diabetes, children, HIV, chronic kidney disease, and people taking medication that may cause hyperglycaemia (such as corticosteroids).
Impaired fasting glucose (IFG) is defined as a fasting glucose level of 6.1 mmol/l or higher but less than 7.0 mmol/l. Impaired glucose tolerance (IGT) is defined as a fasting plasma glucose level less than 7.0 mmol/l and an OGTT 2-hour value of 7.8 mmol/l or higher but less than 11.1 mmol/l. People with IFG should be offered an oral glucose tolerance test to rule out a diagnosis of diabetes. A result below 11.1 mmol/l but above 7.8 mmol/l indicates that the person does not have diabetes but does have IGT.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 76
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman visits her GP because she is worried about her ability to conceive. She has experienced three miscarriages in the past five years and has also had an unprovoked deep vein thrombosis. The GP orders various blood tests and suspects that one of them may show a positive result for a potential cause of her issues.
Which of the following antibody tests is the most likely to be positive? Choose only ONE option.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anti-phospholipid antibodies
Explanation:Autoimmune Antibodies and Their Associated Conditions
Autoimmune disorders are conditions in which the immune system mistakenly attacks the body’s own tissues. One way to diagnose autoimmune disorders is by testing for specific antibodies that are associated with certain conditions. Here are some common autoimmune antibodies and the conditions they are associated with:
1. Anti-phospholipid antibodies: These antibodies are linked to anti-phospholipid syndrome (APS), also known as Hughes’ syndrome. APS can cause blood clots and pregnancy-related complications.
2. Anti-endomysial antibodies: These antibodies are associated with coeliac disease, an autoimmune disorder that affects the small intestine.
3. Anti-histone antibodies: These antibodies are linked to drug-induced systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), another autoimmune disorder.
4. Anti-mitochondrial antibodies: These antibodies are associated with primary biliary cholangitis, autoimmune hepatitis, and idiopathic cirrhosis, all of which affect the liver.
5. Anti-nuclear antibodies: These antibodies are associated with several autoimmune disorders, including SLE, autoimmune hepatitis, Sjögren’s syndrome, systemic sclerosis, and rheumatoid arthritis.
Testing for these antibodies can help diagnose autoimmune disorders and guide treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 77
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old female patient presents to her doctor seeking guidance on pregnancy and the postpartum period. She is currently 12 weeks pregnant and has not experienced any complications thus far. The patient has a history of HIV and is currently taking antiretroviral medication. She has expressed a desire to breastfeed her baby once it is born.
What recommendations should be given to this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: She should not breastfeed
Explanation:In the UK, it is recommended that all women who are HIV-positive should not breastfeed their babies. This advice remains the same even if the mother’s viral load is undetectable. The decision should not be left to the HIV consultant as the national guidelines are clear on this matter. Although breastfeeding may reduce the risk of transmission if the maternal viral load is less than 50 copies/ml, there is still a risk involved. Therefore, the advice remains not to breastfeed. Continuing with antiretroviral therapy is expected regardless of the decision not to breastfeed as it significantly reduces the risk of vertical transmission during pregnancy. Babies born to HIV-positive mothers are given antiretroviral therapy, either zidovudine alone if the maternal viral load is less than 50 copies/ml or triple-therapy if it is higher. However, this does not change the advice to avoid breastfeeding.
HIV and Pregnancy: Guidelines for Minimizing Vertical Transmission
With the increasing prevalence of HIV infection among heterosexual individuals, there has been a rise in the number of HIV-positive women giving birth in the UK. In fact, in London alone, the incidence may be as high as 0.4% of pregnant women. The primary goal of treating HIV-positive women during pregnancy is to minimize harm to both the mother and fetus, and to reduce the chance of vertical transmission.
To achieve this goal, various factors must be considered. Firstly, all pregnant women should be offered HIV screening, according to NICE guidelines. Additionally, antiretroviral therapy should be offered to all pregnant women, regardless of whether they were taking it previously. This therapy has been shown to significantly reduce vertical transmission rates, which can range from 25-30% to just 2%.
The mode of delivery is also an important consideration. Vaginal delivery is recommended if the viral load is less than 50 copies/ml at 36 weeks. If the viral load is higher, a caesarean section is recommended, and a zidovudine infusion should be started four hours before the procedure. Neonatal antiretroviral therapy is also typically administered to the newborn, with zidovudine being the preferred medication if the maternal viral load is less than 50 copies/ml. If the viral load is higher, triple ART should be used, and therapy should be continued for 4-6 weeks.
Finally, infant feeding is an important consideration. In the UK, all women should be advised not to breastfeed, as this can increase the risk of vertical transmission. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can help to minimize the risk of vertical transmission and ensure the best possible outcomes for both mother and child.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 78
Incorrect
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A 76-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of severe abdominal pain. He reports not having had a bowel movement or passed gas in the past 48 hours. Upon further questioning, he reveals that he has experienced constipation and weight loss in recent weeks. After a CT scan, a mass is discovered in the hepatic flexure, leading the medical team to suspect a large bowel obstruction caused by cancer. What is the most suitable surgical treatment plan for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Right hemicolectomy
Explanation:The appropriate surgical procedure for a patient with caecal, ascending or proximal transverse colon cancer is a right hemicolectomy. This involves removing the cecum, ascending colon, and proximal third of the transverse colon. If the cancer is located at the hepatic flexure, an extended right hemicolectomy may be necessary. Hartmann’s procedure is reserved for emergencies such as bowel obstruction or perforation and involves complete resection of the rectum and sigmoid colon with the formation of an end colostomy. A high anterior resection is used for upper rectal tumors, while a left hemicolectomy is used for distal two-thirds of the transverse colon and descending colon tumors. A low anterior resection is used for low rectal tumors, but none of these procedures are appropriate for a patient with a mass in the hepatic flexure.
Colorectal cancer is typically diagnosed through CT scans and colonoscopies or CT colonography. Patients with tumors below the peritoneal reflection should also undergo MRI to evaluate their mesorectum. Once staging is complete, a treatment plan is formulated by a dedicated colorectal MDT meeting.
For colon cancer, surgery is the primary treatment option, with resectional surgery being the only cure. The procedure is tailored to the patient and tumor location, with lymphatic chains being resected based on arterial supply. Anastomosis is the preferred method of restoring continuity, but in some cases, an end stoma may be necessary. Chemotherapy is often offered to patients with risk factors for disease recurrence.
Rectal cancer management differs from colon cancer due to the rectum’s anatomical location. Tumors can be surgically resected with either an anterior resection or an abdomino-perineal excision of rectum (APER). A meticulous dissection of the mesorectal fat and lymph nodes is integral to the procedure. Neoadjuvant radiotherapy is often offered to patients prior to resectional surgery, and those with obstructing rectal cancer should have a defunctioning loop colostomy.
Segmental resections based on blood supply and lymphatic drainage are the primary operations for cancer. The type of resection and anastomosis depend on the site of cancer. In emergency situations where the bowel has perforated, an end colostomy is often safer. Left-sided resections are more risky, but ileo-colic anastomoses are relatively safe even in the emergency setting and do not need to be defunctioned.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 79
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old man is being evaluated at the smoking cessation clinic. Is there any medical condition that would make it inappropriate to prescribe bupropion for him?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Epilepsy
Explanation:Reduced seizure threshold is a contraindication for the use of bupropion in patients with epilepsy.
NICE guidance recommends offering nicotine replacement therapy (NRT), varenicline, or bupropion to patients for smoking cessation, with no preference for one medication over another. NRT should be offered in combination for those with high nicotine dependence or inadequate response to single forms. Varenicline should be started a week before the target stop date and monitored for adverse effects, including nausea and suicidal behavior. Bupropion should also be started before the target stop date and is contraindicated in epilepsy, pregnancy, and breastfeeding. Pregnant women should be tested for smoking and referred to NHS Stop Smoking Services, with first-line interventions being cognitive behavior therapy, motivational interviewing, or structured self-help and support. NRT may be used if other measures fail, but varenicline and bupropion are contraindicated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 80
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old man with a history of Wilson’s disease and mild osteoarthritis presents with features of nephrotic syndrome.
Which medication is the most likely cause for his condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: d-Penicillamine
Explanation:Pharmacologic Treatments and Complications: A Review
Secondary membranous nephropathy can be caused by autoimmune diseases, infectious diseases, malignancy, and exposure to certain drugs such as captopril, gold, lithium, or penicillamine. Treatment with chelating agents like D-penicillamine is the mainstay of treatment for Wilson’s disease, but it can cause proteinuria in up to 30% of patients. Hydroxychloroquine is used for active rheumatoid arthritis but can cause ocular toxicity. Methotrexate is used for severe Crohn’s disease and rheumatoid arthritis but can cause bone marrow suppression. Topical NSAIDs are unlikely to cause systemic side-effects, while sulfasalazine can cause rare but serious side-effects in patients with G6PD deficiency. It is important to monitor patients closely for complications when using these pharmacologic treatments.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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