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Question 1
Correct
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A 72-year-old woman, feeling lethargic and disoriented, is brought to the hospital in the middle of the night by her caregiver. She accidentally took an overdose of her medication from her pill organizer about 5 hours ago. She has a medical history of Parkinson's disease, high blood pressure, and osteoporosis. Her medication list includes levodopa, lisinopril, and alendronate. Her pulse is 40 bpm, blood pressure is 90/50 mmHg, respiratory rate is 16/min, and oxygen saturation is 97%. There is no response to 2 mg of atropine.
Initial investigations:
Blood gases on air:
pH 7.38 7.35–7.45
pa(O2) 10.2 kPa 10.5–13.5 kPa
pa(CO2) 5.0 kPa 4.6–6.0 kPa
Sodium (Na+) 138 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.2 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Urea 6.2 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
Creatinine 70 µmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Bicarbonate (HCO3-) 24 mmol/l 24–30 mmol/l
Glucose 2.5 mmol/l 3.5–5.5 mmol/l
Electrocardiogram Sinus bradycardia 40 bpm
She is given intravenous glucose; what is the appropriate next step in management?Your Answer: Genetic susceptibility to toxicity from 5-fluorouracil due to a deficiency of the catabolising enzyme
Explanation:Chemotherapy is a common treatment for cancer, but it can also cause severe side effects. One such drug is 5-fluorouracil (5-FU), which is metabolically activated to 5-fluoro-2’deoxyuridine-5-monophosphate (F-dUMP) and inhibits DNA synthesis. The breakdown of 5-FU is carried out by dihydropyrimidine dehydrogenase (DPD), and a pharmacogenetic disorder can cause a deficiency of this enzyme, leading to severe toxicity and potentially fatal outcomes. Rapid administration of 5-FU can also cause reactions, but it is unlikely to be the cause of severe symptoms. Similarly, a low dose of folinic acid, which is given concurrently with 5-FU, is unlikely to cause such symptoms. Therefore, understanding the genetic susceptibility to toxicity from 5-FU due to a deficiency of the catabolising enzyme is crucial in managing the side effects of chemotherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Pharmacology And Therapeutics
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Question 2
Correct
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A 52-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a 1-week history of increasing abdominal distention. He has recently been referred to the liver team by his GP following some derangement of his liver function tests performed in a routine Wellman health check. He reports some sporadic right upper quadrant pain but denies any fever or jaundice. He drinks no alcohol and takes no regular medications. There is no family history of note.
What is the most probable reason for this patient's current clinical presentation based on his test results?Your Answer: Budd-Chiari syndrome
Explanation:The patient’s chronic liver disease is showing signs of decompensation, likely due to Budd-Chiari syndrome which is supported by CT findings of poor visualization of the hepatic veins and hypoattenuation of the peripheral zones. The patient’s ferritin level below 1000 ng/mL suggests that their alcohol intake may be truthful, ruling out haemochromatosis as a cause. The ascitic fluid analysis does not indicate spontaneous bacterial peritonitis. While hepatocellular carcinoma is a known complication of chronic liver disease, the patient’s ultrasound does not show any features consistent with this diagnosis.
Decompensated Liver Disease: Causes, Signs, and Management
Decompensated liver disease is a condition where the liver is unable to function properly, leading to various complications. There are several causes of decompensation, including infections such as pneumonia and viral hepatitis, drugs like paracetamol and anaesthetic agents, toxins such as alcohol and Amanita phalloides mushroom, vascular disorders like Budd-Chiari syndrome and vena-occlusive disease, haemorrhage from upper gastrointestinal bleed, and constipation.
The signs of decompensated liver disease include asterixis, jaundice, hepatic encephalopathy, and constructional apraxia, which is a difficulty in drawing a clock face. To manage this condition, it is important to investigate and identify the underlying causes of decompensation. This may involve checking blood tests, reviewing the drug chart, performing a rectal examination for melaena and constipation, and conducting a septic screen.
To enhance nitrate clearance, phosphate enemas can be used to achieve a minimum of three loose stools per day. Lactulose can also be administered to enhance the binding of nitrate in the intestine. Proper management of decompensated liver disease can help prevent further complications and improve the patient’s quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 58-year-old female presents with a cosmetic concern of a lump in her neck. She reports no other symptoms and her past medical history includes hypertension and constipation. On examination, her neck lump is hard, non-tender and measures 2cm by 1 cm, moving with swallowing but not with tongue protrusion. Her blood pressure is elevated at 213/130 mmHg. After an outpatient ultrasound and fine needle aspiration, she is admitted for further investigation due to persistent hypertension. She develops a mild headache which resolves on its own. A positive urinary metanephrine collection is obtained. What investigation is likely to produce the underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer: Genetic testing for RET mutation
Explanation:Understanding Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia
Multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) is an autosomal dominant disorder that affects the endocrine system. There are three main types of MEN, each with its own set of associated features. MEN type I is characterized by the 3 P’s: parathyroid hyperplasia leading to hyperparathyroidism, pituitary tumors, and pancreatic tumors such as insulinomas and gastrinomas. MEN type IIa is associated with the 2 P’s: parathyroid hyperplasia leading to hyperparathyroidism and phaeochromocytoma, as well as medullary thyroid cancer. MEN type IIb is characterized by phaeochromocytoma, medullary thyroid cancer, and a marfanoid body habitus.
The most common presentation of MEN is hypercalcaemia, which is often seen in MEN type I due to parathyroid hyperplasia. MEN type IIa and IIb are both associated with medullary thyroid cancer, which is caused by mutations in the RET oncogene. MEN type I is caused by mutations in the MEN1 gene. Understanding the different types of MEN and their associated features is important for early diagnosis and management of this rare but potentially serious condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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Question 4
Correct
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You are working in the general medical clinic where a 45 year old man comes for review following a recent, short admission to hospital where he was treated for a paracetamol overdose. He has no past medical history of hypertension or any other problems.
During the review, he is found to have a manual blood pressure reading of 155/90 mmHg. Clinical examination of cardiovascular and respiratory systems are normal, as is urine dip and fundoscopy. Given this information what should be your next course of management in relation to his blood pressure?
Start lisinopril
10%
Offer ambulatory blood pressure monitoring
80%
Arrange to check blood pressure again following a two week interval
5%
Start nifedipine
2%
Screen for causes of secondary hypertension
3%
In 2011 the National Institute for Clinical Excellence updated its 2006 guideline for the management of hypertension (see the link below for the quick reference guide). Within this guideline, the first line use of ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) to confirm hypertension in those found to have an elevated clinic reading (> 140/90 mmHg) is emphasised. When using ABPM to confirm a diagnosis of hypertension, two measurements per hour are taken during the persons waking hours. The average value of at least 14 measurements are then used to confirm a diagnosis of hypertension.
Generally speaking, secondary causes of hypertension should be sought in; patients under 40 who lack traditional risk factors for essential hypertension, patients with other signs and/or symptoms of secondary causes, and patients with resistant hypertension. Although in reality the most common cause of secondary hypertension is hyperaldosteronism, and as such a trial of an aldosterone antagonist such as spironolactone is often employed as both a therapeutic and diagnostic measure.
Drug treatment of essential hypertension can be summarised as follows, but for a more detailed explanation see the link below;
Step 1; Age <55 - ACE inhibitor. Age >55 or of black African or Caribbean origin - calcium channel blocker
Step 2; ACE inhibitor + calcium channel blocker
Step 3; ACE inhibitor + calcium channel blocker + thiazide-like diuretic
Step 4; consider further diuretic or beta-blockade or alpha blocker and seeking expert advice?Your Answer: Offer ambulatory blood pressure monitoring
Explanation:In 2011, the National Institute for Clinical Excellence updated its guideline for managing hypertension, emphasizing the use of ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) as the first line of diagnosis for those with elevated clinic readings. ABPM involves taking two measurements per hour during waking hours and using the average of at least 14 measurements to confirm hypertension.
Secondary causes of hypertension should be investigated in patients under 40 without traditional risk factors, those with other symptoms, and those with resistant hypertension. Hyperaldosteronism is the most common cause, and a trial of spironolactone may be used for both diagnosis and treatment.
Drug treatment for essential hypertension follows a stepwise approach, with ACE inhibitors recommended for those under 55 and calcium channel blockers for those over 55 or of black African or Caribbean origin. Combination therapy with ACE inhibitors and calcium channel blockers is recommended in step 2, followed by the addition of a thiazide-like diuretic in step 3. Further diuretics, beta-blockers, or alpha blockers may be considered in step 4, with expert advice sought. For more detailed information, see the provided link.
NICE released updated guidelines in 2019 for the management of hypertension, building on previous guidelines from 2011. These guidelines recommend classifying hypertension into stages and using ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) and home blood pressure monitoring (HBPM) to confirm the diagnosis of hypertension. This is because some patients experience white coat hypertension, where their blood pressure rises in a clinical setting, leading to potential overdiagnosis of hypertension. ABPM and HBPM provide a more accurate assessment of a patient’s overall blood pressure and can help prevent overdiagnosis.
To diagnose hypertension, NICE recommends measuring blood pressure in both arms and repeating the measurements if there is a difference of more than 20 mmHg. If the difference remains, subsequent blood pressures should be recorded from the arm with the higher reading. NICE also recommends taking a second reading during the consultation if the first reading is above 140/90 mmHg. ABPM or HBPM should be offered to any patient with a blood pressure above this level.
If the blood pressure is above 180/120 mmHg, NICE recommends admitting the patient for specialist assessment if there are signs of retinal haemorrhage or papilloedema or life-threatening symptoms such as new-onset confusion, chest pain, signs of heart failure, or acute kidney injury. Referral is also recommended if a phaeochromocytoma is suspected. If none of these apply, urgent investigations for end-organ damage should be arranged. If target organ damage is identified, antihypertensive drug treatment may be started immediately. If no target organ damage is identified, clinic blood pressure measurement should be repeated within 7 days.
ABPM should involve at least 2 measurements per hour during the person’s usual waking hours, with the average value of at least 14 measurements used. If ABPM is not tolerated or declined, HBPM should be offered. For HBPM, two consecutive measurements need to be taken for each blood pressure recording, at least 1 minute apart and with the person seated. Blood pressure should be recorded twice daily, ideally in the morning and evening, for at least 4 days, ideally for 7 days. The measurements taken on the first day should be discarded, and the average value of all the remaining measurements used.
Interpreting the results, ABPM/HBPM above 135/85 mmHg (stage 1 hypertension) should be
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 27 year-old man presents to his GP with a four week history of bilateral pitting oedema of his legs up to his knees. He reports occasional puffiness around the eyes lasting a couple of hours. He denies any past medical history, rash or musculoskeletal problems. On examination, he has bilateral pitting oedema of the legs up to the knees, facial oedema and mild ascites. Blood tests reveal Na+ 135 mmol/l, K+ 3.4 mmol/l, urea 4.1 mmol/l, creatinine 71 µmol/l, albumin 18 g/l and cholesterol 11.2 mmol/l. What is the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms?
Your Answer: Minimal change disease
Explanation:To confirm the diagnosis of minimal change disease, a renal biopsy is necessary for this patient. The symptoms presented are not indicative of IgA nephropathy, post-infectious glomerulonephritis, or SLE, which typically present with a nephritic picture. While diabetic nephropathy can cause a nephrotic syndrome, the patient’s age and lack of diabetes symptoms make this unlikely.
Minimal change disease is a condition that typically presents as nephrotic syndrome, with children accounting for 75% of cases and adults accounting for 25%. While most cases are idiopathic, a cause can be found in around 10-20% of cases, such as drugs like NSAIDs and rifampicin, Hodgkin’s lymphoma, thymoma, or infectious mononucleosis. The pathophysiology of the disease involves T-cell and cytokine-mediated damage to the glomerular basement membrane, resulting in polyanion loss and a reduction of electrostatic charge, which increases glomerular permeability to serum albumin.
The features of minimal change disease include nephrotic syndrome, normotension (hypertension is rare), and highly selective proteinuria, where only intermediate-sized proteins like albumin and transferrin leak through the glomerulus. Renal biopsy shows normal glomeruli on light microscopy, while electron microscopy shows fusion of podocytes and effacement of foot processes.
Management of minimal change disease involves oral corticosteroids, which are effective in 80% of cases. For steroid-resistant cases, cyclophosphamide is the next step. The prognosis for the disease is generally good, although relapse is common. Roughly one-third of patients have just one episode, one-third have infrequent relapses, and one-third have frequent relapses that stop before adulthood.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old man with type 1 diabetes and poor compliance presents to the hospital with shortness of breath, vomiting, and feeling unwell. He is diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis and is transferred to the high dependency unit. After a period of recovery, he starts to feel unwell on day 3 of his treatment. He experiences fatigue, lethargy, and muscle aches, and his legs collapse beneath him while walking to the bathroom.
Upon examination, he is alert with moist mucosa, and there are no fasciculations or myoclonus. He has 4/5 power in all muscle groups with retained sensation. His abdomen is soft, and his chest is clear. His observations show tachypnea at 24 breaths/min.
Admission blood tests reveal the following values compared to current values:
- Sodium: 128 mmol/l (current: 133 mmol/l)
- Potassium: 6.1 mmol/l (current: 4.5 mmol/l)
- Urea: 9.2 mmol/l (current: 5.6 mmol/l)
- Creatinine: 134 µmol/l (current: 87 µmol/l)
- Glucose: 27.1mmol/l (current: 12 mmol/l)
- Ketones: 3.1 mmol/l (current: 0.2 mmol/l)
- pH: 7.01 (current: 7.35)
What is the expected progression of his deterioration?Your Answer: Cerebral pontine myelinolysis
Correct Answer: Hypophosphataemia
Explanation:Individuals who have recovered from DKA are susceptible to hypophosphataemia, which may cause weakness. The possibility of cerebral pontine myelinolysis is unlikely in this case, as the sodium levels have only been corrected by 5 mmol/l within a span of 2-3 days. While sepsis cannot be ruled out, there are no indications of focal signs. It is important to eliminate other potential diagnoses before considering anxiety as a possible cause.
Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of type 1 diabetes mellitus, accounting for around 6% of cases. It can also occur in rare cases of extreme stress in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. DKA is caused by uncontrolled lipolysis, resulting in an excess of free fatty acids that are converted to ketone bodies. The most common precipitating factors of DKA are infection, missed insulin doses, and myocardial infarction. Symptoms include abdominal pain, polyuria, polydipsia, dehydration, Kussmaul respiration, and breath that smells like acetone. Diagnostic criteria include glucose levels above 11 mmol/l or known diabetes mellitus, pH below 7.3, bicarbonate below 15 mmol/l, and ketones above 3 mmol/l or urine ketones ++ on dipstick.
Management of DKA involves fluid replacement, insulin, and correction of electrolyte disturbance. Fluid replacement is necessary as most patients with DKA are deplete around 5-8 litres. Isotonic saline is used initially, even if the patient is severely acidotic. Insulin is administered through an intravenous infusion, and correction of electrolyte disturbance is necessary. Long-acting insulin should be continued, while short-acting insulin should be stopped. Complications may occur from DKA itself or the treatment, such as gastric stasis, thromboembolism, arrhythmias, acute respiratory distress syndrome, acute kidney injury, and cerebral edema. Children and young adults are particularly vulnerable to cerebral edema following fluid resuscitation in DKA and often need 1:1 nursing to monitor neuro-observations, headache, irritability, visual disturbance, focal neurology, etc.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old male with a history of ischaemic heart disease and currently taking aspirin presents with a recent TIA causing brief right sided weakness. There is no known atrial fibrillation and routine telemetry has not detected any.
The MRI brain scan shows no evidence of acute stroke and the transthoracic echocardiogram does not reveal any intra-cardiac thrombus. However, a carotid ultrasound study reveals a 70-80% stenosis of the left internal carotid artery.
In addition to ordering a CT carotid angiogram to further investigate the lesion, what would be the next best step in managing this patient?Your Answer: Commence an unfractionated heparin infusion
Correct Answer: Commence best medical therapy and refer for a carotid endarterectomy within 14 days
Explanation:The Royal College of Physicians (RCP) and NICE have published guidelines on the diagnosis and management of patients following a stroke. The guidelines provide recommendations for the management of acute stroke, including maintaining normal levels of blood glucose, hydration, oxygen saturation, and temperature. Blood pressure should not be lowered in the acute phase unless there are complications. Aspirin should be given as soon as possible if a haemorrhagic stroke has been excluded. Anticoagulants should not be started until brain imaging has excluded haemorrhage, and usually not until 14 days have passed from the onset of an ischaemic stroke. If the cholesterol is > 3.5 mmol/l, patients should be commenced on a statin.
Thrombolysis with alteplase should only be given if it is administered within 4.5 hours of onset of stroke symptoms and haemorrhage has been definitively excluded. There are absolute and relative contraindications to thrombolysis, including previous intracranial haemorrhage, intracranial neoplasm, and active bleeding. Mechanical thrombectomy is a new treatment option for patients with an acute ischaemic stroke. NICE recommends considering thrombectomy together with intravenous thrombolysis for people last known to be well up to 24 hours previously.
Secondary prevention recommendations from NICE include the use of clopidogrel and dipyridamole. Clopidogrel is recommended ahead of combination use of aspirin plus modified-release dipyridamole in people who have had an ischaemic stroke. Aspirin plus MR dipyridamole is recommended after an ischaemic stroke only if clopidogrel is contraindicated or not tolerated. MR dipyridamole alone is recommended after an ischaemic stroke only if aspirin or clopidogrel are contraindicated or not tolerated. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if carotid stenosis is greater than 70% according to ECST criteria or greater than 50% according to NASCET criteria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 24-year-old man with coeliac disease and on oral dapsone presents with persistent microscopic haematuria. His initial investigations show red cell casts in urine microscopy and mesangial proliferation in renal biopsy light microscopy. His blood pressure, haemoglobin, white cell count, platelets, immunoglobulin levels, electrolytes, liver function tests, and albumin are within normal limits, but his 24-hour urinary protein collection is elevated at 1.8 g/24 h. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Immunoglobulin (IgA) nephropathy
Explanation:IgA nephropathy, also known as Berger’s disease, is a type of glomerulonephritis that is characterized by persistent microscopic or recurrent macroscopic hematuria, often associated with upper respiratory tract infections. It is commonly linked to cirrhosis and coeliac disease, and elevated IgA levels are present in 50% of cases. Treatment is usually unnecessary unless renal function is affected, in which case an ACE inhibitor may be prescribed to control blood pressure. Immunotherapy has not been extensively studied. Dapsone, a medication used to treat leprosy and dermatitis herpetiformis, can cause hemolytic anemia and allergic reactions. Amyloidosis causes proteinuria and the nephrotic syndrome, while cryoglobulinemia is associated with hematological malignancies and connective tissue diseases and presents with cutaneous and articular manifestations. Renal cell carcinoma, which arises from the tubular epithelium, typically presents with painless hematuria and a palpable abdominal mass. For further information, refer to Lai K N et al.’s 2015 article on the treatment of IgA nephropathy in Kidney Disease (Basel).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 9
Correct
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A 39-year-old woman presents to the Endocrine Clinic with a complaint of excessive sweating and occasional fever for the past six months. She recently went on a trip to Thailand but had to cut it short due to the unbearable heat. She has also noticed a gradual weight loss over the past year, despite having a good appetite.
Upon examination, she is tachycardic but afebrile. Her palms are sweaty, and there is no palpable goitre or cervical lymphadenopathy. Routine FBC, U&E, and LFT are within normal limits.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Thyrotoxicosis
Explanation:Night sweats can be a symptom of various medical conditions. In a female patient, the differential diagnosis includes hypoglycemia, phaeochromocytoma, carcinoid, Hodgkin’s disease, tuberculosis, and thyrotoxicosis. Episodic bouts of sweating may suggest hypoglycemia, phaeochromocytoma, or carcinoid. However, if the patient reports night sweats, Hodgkin’s disease or tuberculosis should be considered. Hodgkin’s disease typically presents with localised lymphadenopathy, weight loss, pruritus, and fever. On the other hand, patients with thyrotoxicosis report constant sweating and heat intolerance, even without enlargement of the thyroid gland. In this case, considering the patient’s age and sex, thyrotoxicosis is the most likely diagnosis. Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma and infection with an undefined organism are less likely causes, as there is no evidence of lymphadenopathy or abnormal blood tests. Phaeochromocytoma is also unlikely, as the patient does not have severe hypertension or other characteristic symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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Question 10
Correct
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A 38-year-old female presents with 5 days of feeling generally unwell and recent dysuria. Her urine has a foul odor and is dark in color. She has a history of type 1 diabetes and has been on subcutaneous insulin for a long time. Upon admission, her pH was 7.24, bicarbonate was 8 mmol/l, and blood glucose was 32 mmol/l. Her urine dip showed 2+ leukocytes, 2+ nitrites, and 4+ ketones. She was started on treatment for diabetic ketoacidosis with intravenous fluids and fixed rate insulin, as well as intravenous antibiotics for a urinary source of sepsis. You are asked to review her blood sugars 4 hours after treatment initiation. What is the goal in managing hyperglycemia in a patient with diabetic ketoacidosis?
Your Answer: Reduce blood glucose by 3 mmol/l per hour
Explanation:When selecting an intravenous fluid, dextrose is the preferred option. It is important to avoid sudden drops in glucose levels as this can cause a significant increase in osmolality, leading to cerebral edema and potential damage to the brain.
Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of type 1 diabetes mellitus, accounting for around 6% of cases. It can also occur in rare cases of extreme stress in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. DKA is caused by uncontrolled lipolysis, resulting in an excess of free fatty acids that are converted to ketone bodies. The most common precipitating factors of DKA are infection, missed insulin doses, and myocardial infarction. Symptoms include abdominal pain, polyuria, polydipsia, dehydration, Kussmaul respiration, and breath that smells like acetone. Diagnostic criteria include glucose levels above 11 mmol/l or known diabetes mellitus, pH below 7.3, bicarbonate below 15 mmol/l, and ketones above 3 mmol/l or urine ketones ++ on dipstick.
Management of DKA involves fluid replacement, insulin, and correction of electrolyte disturbance. Fluid replacement is necessary as most patients with DKA are deplete around 5-8 litres. Isotonic saline is used initially, even if the patient is severely acidotic. Insulin is administered through an intravenous infusion, and correction of electrolyte disturbance is necessary. Long-acting insulin should be continued, while short-acting insulin should be stopped. Complications may occur from DKA itself or the treatment, such as gastric stasis, thromboembolism, arrhythmias, acute respiratory distress syndrome, acute kidney injury, and cerebral edema. Children and young adults are particularly vulnerable to cerebral edema following fluid resuscitation in DKA and often need 1:1 nursing to monitor neuro-observations, headache, irritability, visual disturbance, focal neurology, etc.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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