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  • Question 1 - A 40-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. She has recently noticed several...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. She has recently noticed several areas of 'pale skin' on her hands. Despite using an emollient and topical hydrocortisone, there has been no improvement. During the examination, you observe multiple depigmented patches on the back of both hands. The patient's medical history includes a previous diagnosis of thyrotoxicosis, for which she is currently taking carbimazole and thyroxine.

      What could be the probable reason behind her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Vitiligo

      Explanation:

      Patients with autoimmune conditions like thyrotoxicosis are more likely to have vitiligo, but there are no other indications in the medical history that point towards Addison’s disease.

      Understanding Vitiligo

      Vitiligo is a medical condition that occurs when the immune system attacks and destroys melanocytes, leading to the loss of skin pigmentation. It is estimated to affect about 1% of the population, with symptoms typically appearing in individuals between the ages of 20 and 30 years. The condition is characterized by well-defined patches of depigmented skin, with the edges of the affected areas being the most prominent. Trauma to the skin may also trigger the development of new lesions, a phenomenon known as the Koebner phenomenon.

      Vitiligo is often associated with other autoimmune disorders such as type 1 diabetes mellitus, Addison’s disease, autoimmune thyroid disorders, pernicious anemia, and alopecia areata. While there is no cure for vitiligo, there are several management options available. These include the use of sunblock to protect the affected areas of skin, camouflage make-up to conceal the depigmented patches, and topical corticosteroids to reverse the changes if applied early. Other treatment options may include topical tacrolimus and phototherapy, although caution is advised when using these treatments on patients with light skin. Overall, early diagnosis and management of vitiligo can help to improve the quality of life for affected individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      4.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 42-year-old Bangladeshi man with a history of mitral stenosis and atrial fibrillation...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old Bangladeshi man with a history of mitral stenosis and atrial fibrillation has been diagnosed with tuberculosis and started on anti-tuberculosis therapy. However, three weeks into the treatment, his INR has increased to 5.6. Which medication is the most likely cause of this increase?

      Your Answer: Isoniazid

      Explanation:

      When answering questions about liver enzymes, it is crucial to determine whether the question pertains to induction or inhibition. Candidates should avoid hastily providing drugs that cause induction as the answer. Inhibited liver enzymes can result in an elevated INR. Additionally, isoniazid is known to inhibit the P450 system.

      P450 Enzyme System and its Inducers and Inhibitors

      The P450 enzyme system is responsible for metabolizing many drugs in the body. Induction of this system occurs when a drug or substance causes an increase in the activity of the P450 enzymes. This process usually requires prolonged exposure to the inducing drug. On the other hand, P450 inhibitors decrease the activity of the enzymes and their effects are often seen rapidly.

      Some common inducers of the P450 system include antiepileptics like phenytoin and carbamazepine, barbiturates such as phenobarbitone, rifampicin, St John’s Wort, chronic alcohol intake, griseofulvin, and smoking. Smoking affects CYP1A2, which is the reason why smokers require more aminophylline.

      In contrast, some common inhibitors of the P450 system include antibiotics like ciprofloxacin and erythromycin, isoniazid, cimetidine, omeprazole, amiodarone, allopurinol, imidazoles such as ketoconazole and fluconazole, SSRIs like fluoxetine and sertraline, ritonavir, sodium valproate, acute alcohol intake, and quinupristin.

      It is important to be aware of the potential for drug interactions when taking medications that affect the P450 enzyme system. Patients should always inform their healthcare provider of all medications and supplements they are taking to avoid any adverse effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Following recent NICE guidelines on child maltreatment, which one of the following should...

    Correct

    • Following recent NICE guidelines on child maltreatment, which one of the following should prompt you to suspect child maltreatment, rather than just considering it:

      Your Answer: An anal fissure on a 7-year-old boy who is not constipated and doesn't have Crohn's

      Explanation:

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) released guidelines in 2009 to help healthcare professionals identify when a child may be experiencing maltreatment. Child abuse can take many forms, including physical, emotional, and sexual abuse, neglect, and fabricated or induced illness. The guidelines provide a comprehensive list of features that may indicate abuse, but only selected features are highlighted here. Neglect may be suspected if a child has severe and persistent infestations, is not receiving essential prescribed treatment, has poor hygiene, or is not being dressed appropriately. Sexual abuse may be suspected if a child has persistent dysuria or anogenital discomfort, a gaping anus during examination, or is exhibiting sexualized behavior. Physical abuse may be suspected if a child has unexplained serious or unusual injuries, cold injuries, hypothermia, oral injuries, bruises, lacerations, burns, human bite marks, or fractures with unsuitable explanations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      4.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 52-year-old man presents with complaints of symmetrical polyarthritis, which first appeared in...

    Correct

    • A 52-year-old man presents with complaints of symmetrical polyarthritis, which first appeared in his toes. He reports stiffness in his back, particularly in the morning. He states that these symptoms have been intermittent for several months and that he was previously treated with naproxen for the toe pain. He is not taking any regular medications except for moisturizers for his psoriasis. On examination, he has nail pitting but no rash.
      What is the most probable diagnosis from the following options?

      Your Answer: Psoriatic arthritis

      Explanation:

      Psoriatic Arthritis: Symptoms and Presentation

      Psoriatic arthritis is a type of arthritis that is often preceded by a rash and/or nail changes. However, in some cases, the arthritis can present without any obvious rash. The arthritis typically affects the wrists, hands, feet, and ankles in a symmetrical pattern. Unlike rheumatoid arthritis, psoriatic arthritis involves the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joints rather than the metacarpophalangeal joints. Enthesopathy, or inflammation at tendon or ligament insertions into bone, is also common in psoriatic arthritis, particularly at the attachment of the Achilles tendon and the plantar fascia to the calcaneus.

      Patients who are HLA-B27 positive may also experience conjunctivitis, uveitis, and sacroiliitis. The presentation of psoriatic arthritis may be asymmetrical and oligoarticular, and dactylitis, or inflammation of a digit causing sausage digits, occurs in up to 35% of patients. Diagnosis is suggested by asymmetrical joint involvement, dactylitis, the absence of rheumatoid factor, and DIP involvement in the absence of osteoarthritis.

      Psoriatic arthritis can also occur in juvenile patients and may be confused with juvenile idiopathic arthritis. Severe derangement of the joints, particularly the DIP joints, can occur in some cases, which is known as arthritis mutilans. It is important to distinguish psoriatic arthritis from other types of arthritis in order to provide appropriate treatment and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 65-year-old man has become ill while at a family gathering. He feels...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man has become ill while at a family gathering. He feels itchy and has red blotchy skin and swollen lips and eyelids. He has an inspiratory stridor and wheeze, and an apex beat of 120/minute. He feels faint on standing and his blood pressure is 90/50 mmHg.
      Select from the list the single most important immediate management option.

      Your Answer: Adrenaline intramuscular injection

      Explanation:

      Understanding Anaphylactic Reactions and Emergency Treatment

      Anaphylactic reactions occur when an allergen triggers specific IgE antibodies on mast cells and basophils, leading to the rapid release of histamine and other mediators. This can cause capillary leakage, mucosal edema, shock, and asphyxia. The severity and rate of progression of anaphylactic reactions can vary, and there may be a history of previous sensitivity to an allergen or recent exposure to a drug.

      Prompt administration of adrenaline and resuscitation measures are crucial in treating anaphylaxis. Antihistamines are now considered a third-line intervention and should not be used to treat Airway/Breathing/Circulation problems during initial emergency treatment. Non-sedating oral antihistamines may be given following initial stabilization, especially in patients with persisting skin symptoms. Corticosteroids are no longer advised for the routine emergency treatment of anaphylaxis.

      The incidence of anaphylaxis is increasing, and it is not always recognized. It is important to understand the causes and emergency treatment of anaphylactic reactions to ensure prompt and effective care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
      3.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 67-year-old man has a persistent tremor that only occurs when he extends...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man has a persistent tremor that only occurs when he extends his arm. His wife is worried that it may be a serious condition. Other than the tremor, there are no other neurological symptoms observed during examination.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Essential tremor

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Tremors: Essential Tremor, Chorea, Intention Tremor, Parkinsonism, and Motor Neurone Disease

      Tremors are involuntary movements that can be caused by various conditions. Essential tremor is a common type that is worsened by movement and relieved by rest. Patients may turn to alcohol to alleviate symptoms. It can be difficult to distinguish from other types of tremors, such as exaggerated physiological tremor or medication-induced tremor. Essential tremor typically affects the upper limbs, but can also involve the neck, face, and jaw muscles.

      Chorea, on the other hand, is characterized by irregular, flowing movements that are not repetitive or rhythmic. Intention tremor is a feature of cerebellar ataxia, which is usually accompanied by other cerebellar signs like ataxia and dysarthria. Parkinsonism causes a resting tremor and cogwheel rigidity, which occurs even in a relaxed limb that is fully supported.

      Motor neurone disease usually presents with fasciculations, which are involuntary muscle contractions and relaxations that are visible under the skin. It is important to differentiate between these different types of tremors to accurately diagnose and treat the underlying condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A patient in their 50s with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is still experiencing...

    Correct

    • A patient in their 50s with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is still experiencing constipation and abdominal discomfort despite trying various laxatives. According to NICE guidelines, linaclotide should be considered as a new medication for patients with IBS with constipation who have not responded to different laxatives. What is the primary mechanism of action of linaclotide?

      Your Answer: Increases amount of fluid in the intestinal lumen

      Explanation:

      Anxiety-reducing (alleviates symptoms of distress)

      Managing irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) can be challenging and varies from patient to patient. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines in 2015 to provide recommendations for the management of IBS. The first-line pharmacological treatment depends on the predominant symptom, with antispasmodic agents recommended for pain, laxatives (excluding lactulose) for constipation, and loperamide for diarrhea. If conventional laxatives are not effective for constipation, linaclotide may be considered. Low-dose tricyclic antidepressants are the second-line pharmacological treatment of choice. For patients who do not respond to pharmacological treatments, psychological interventions such as cognitive behavioral therapy, hypnotherapy, or psychological therapy may be considered. Complementary and alternative medicines such as acupuncture or reflexology are not recommended. General dietary advice includes having regular meals, drinking at least 8 cups of fluid per day, limiting tea and coffee to 3 cups per day, reducing alcohol and fizzy drink intake, limiting high-fiber and resistant starch foods, and increasing intake of oats and linseeds for wind and bloating.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 19-year-old sexually active female who is on the combined oral contraceptive pill...

    Correct

    • A 19-year-old sexually active female who is on the combined oral contraceptive pill presents with breakthrough bleeding between her periods.

      She has been on the same pill for almost three years and noticed breakthrough bleeding for the first time two months ago. She denies post-coital bleeding. On further questioning she has not missed any pills and has had no recent illnesses or medical problems.

      What is the most probable reason for her breakthrough bleeding?

      Your Answer: Chlamydia infection

      Explanation:

      Breakthrough Bleeding on Combined Oral Contraceptive

      In patients experiencing breakthrough bleeding while on the combined oral contraceptive, it is crucial to check their compliance and potential illness. However, if these factors are not the cause, breakthrough bleeding may indicate an alternative issue and prompt further investigation for gynaecological causes. This is especially true for patients who have been taking the pill for an extended period.

      To assess potential gynaecological causes, a pelvic examination and swabs are necessary. It is also important to ensure that the patient’s smear is up-to-date and to take one if overdue. While cervical cancer is rare in this age group, swabs should be taken to check for chlamydial cervicitis, the most common cause of breakthrough bleeding in young sexually active women.

      Additionally, it is crucial to consider the possibility of pregnancy and perform a pregnancy test. However, in cases where compliance and regular usage of the combined pill are confirmed, the likelihood of pregnancy is remote. Proper investigation and assessment can help identify the underlying cause of breakthrough bleeding and ensure appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 28-year-old female presents to the clinic with concerns about a possible pregnancy....

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old female presents to the clinic with concerns about a possible pregnancy. She has been consistently taking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) for the past six years and has two children aged 7 and 9. However, she had unprotected sexual intercourse 12 hours ago and failed to restart her pill three days ago after her week break. She is now seeking advice on post coital contraception. The patient's medical history includes severe trigeminal neuralgia, and she has been taking carbamazepine for the past three months. Based on FSRH guidance, what would be your approach to managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Emergency contraception not necessary

      Explanation:

      Emergency Contraception Options and Considerations

      The copper IUD is the most effective emergency contraception option, with a low documented failure rate. It can be inserted up to five days after the first episode of unprotected sexual intercourse or five days after the estimated date of ovulation. The IUD prevents implantation and is toxic to sperm.

      Levonorgestrel is another option, licensed for use within 72 hours of UPSI (may be effective up to 96 hours). It primarily inhibits ovulation and may be used more than once in a cycle. However, its effectiveness may be reduced in women taking liver enzyme-inducing drugs, such as carbamazepine. In such cases, a double dose of 3mg may be used off-license, but the effectiveness of this has not been studied.

      Ulipristal acetate is as effective as levonorgestrel up to 120 hours (five days) and delays or inhibits ovulation. However, it binds to progesterone receptors, so an additional method of contraception is required if on COCP or POP.

      All eligible women presenting within 120 hours of UPSI or within five days of expected ovulation should be offered a copper IUD, ideally at first presentation. If this is not possible, oral emergency contraception can be given in the interim, with the woman advised to return for the IUD at the earliest appropriate time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
      16.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - You are reviewing your practice policy regarding the use of sharps and prevention...

    Incorrect

    • You are reviewing your practice policy regarding the use of sharps and prevention of sharps injuries during procedures for pediatric patients.

      Which of the following would be appropriate to include in the policy documentation?

      Your Answer: Newer 'safer sharps' must always be used instead of traditional unprotected medical sharps

      Correct Answer: Safer sharps' completely remove the risk of a sharps injury

      Explanation:

      Safe Use of Sharps in Medical Procedures

      Sharps are important tools in medical procedures, but it is important to use them only when necessary. For instance, obtaining urine samples from catheter bags can be done without using needles. In some cases, it may be appropriate to use needles provided by the patient, such as when a diabetic has needles at home for administering insulin.

      To minimize the risk of sharps injuries, it is recommended to use safer sharps that have safety mechanisms, such as a cover that pivots to cover the needle after use. However, even with safer sharps, there is still a potential risk of injury during the procedure.

      Recapping needles is a common source of sharps injury and should be avoided whenever possible. In specific instances where recapping is necessary, a full risk assessment and appropriate steps to minimize the risk of injury must be taken, such as using needle-blocks to remove and hold the needle cap. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can ensure the safe use of sharps in medical procedures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 28-year-old woman has self-diagnosed an early pregnancy by self-testing. She immediately tells...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman has self-diagnosed an early pregnancy by self-testing. She immediately tells her General Practitioner (GP) she wants a termination of pregnancy. The GP has religious beliefs that lead to a moral objection to abortion.
      What should the GP do in this situation?

      Your Answer: Explain that their beliefs prevent them, personally, from facilitating onward care for this specific issue

      Explanation:

      Navigating Personal Beliefs in Medical Practice: Handling Conflicts with Duty of Care in Termination of Pregnancy

      As healthcare professionals, doctors are bound by their duty of care to provide appropriate medical treatment to their patients. However, personal beliefs can sometimes come into conflict with this duty, particularly in cases of termination of pregnancy. The General Medical Council’s Good Medical Practice (2013) allows doctors to practice medicine in accordance with their beliefs, as long as they do not treat patients unfairly, deny them access to appropriate medical treatment or services, or cause them distress.

      If a doctor’s personal beliefs prevent them from facilitating onward care for a patient seeking termination of pregnancy, there are several options available. The doctor can gently explain their conscientious objection to the procedure, but must not delay appropriate treatment or cause the patient distress. They can decline to continue with the consultation, but must still fully assess the patient’s needs and signpost them to another clinician for review if necessary. Alternatively, they can complete the consultation and refer the patient for termination of pregnancy, ensuring that the patient is treated fairly and respectfully and signposted to another clinician who can help.

      Regardless of the chosen course of action, the doctor must not express disapproval of the patient’s choice or imply judgment of their lifestyle, choices, or beliefs. It is important to navigate personal beliefs in medical practice with sensitivity and respect for the patient’s autonomy and well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 25-year-old woman presented to the antenatal clinic for her booking visit. She...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman presented to the antenatal clinic for her booking visit. She speaks very little English and is 20 weeks into her first pregnancy. No medical history of note can be obtained.
      Patient
      Haemoglobin
      101 g/l (115–155 g/l )
      Haematocrit
      0.38 (0.35–0.55)
      Red blood cell count
      5.24 × 1012/l (3.8–5.8 × 1012/l)
      Mean corpuscular volume
      63 fl (76–98 fl)
      Mean corpuscular haemoglobin
      20 pg (27.0–32.0 pg)
      Mean corpuscular haemoglobin concentration
      32 g/dl (32.0–36.0 g/dl)
      White cell count
      6.9 × 109/l (4.0–11.0 × 109/l)
      Platelets
      241 × 109/l (150–400 × 109/l)
      Further testing reveals a fetal haemoglobin (HbF) of 0.6% (normal range < 1%) and haemoglobin A2 (HbA2) of 4.5% (normal range 1.5–3.5%).
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Beta thalassaemia trait

      Explanation:

      Understanding Beta Thalassaemia Trait: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Differences from Other Blood Disorders

      Beta thalassaemia trait is a genetic blood disorder that affects the production of beta globin, a protein that makes up part of the haemoglobin molecule. This condition is autosomal-recessive, meaning that it only occurs when both parents carry the gene mutation. Individuals with beta thalassaemia trait have a mild form of microcytic hypochromic anaemia, which can be detected through blood tests that show a normal red cell count and mean cell haemoglobin concentration, but an elevated level of haemoglobin A2.

      It is important to distinguish beta thalassaemia trait from other blood disorders, such as acute folic acid deficiency, alpha thalassaemia trait, iron deficiency, and sickle cell anaemia. Acute folic acid deficiency typically occurs after tissue damage or renal failure, while alpha thalassaemia trait is caused by a deficiency in alpha globin production. Iron deficiency can coexist with beta thalassaemia trait, but cannot be diagnosed based on microcytosis alone. Sickle cell anaemia is a separate condition that involves homozygosity for the sickle cell haemoglobin mutation.

      Diagnosis of beta thalassaemia trait requires measuring the alpha-beta chain synthesis ratio or performing genetic tests. While beta thalassaemia trait is usually asymptomatic and doesn’t cause problems during pregnancy, it is important to screen both partners to assess the risk of having a child with beta thalassaemia major, a more severe form of the disorder that can lead to life-threatening complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      16.1
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A previously healthy 70-year-old woman attends with her daughter, who noted that her...

    Correct

    • A previously healthy 70-year-old woman attends with her daughter, who noted that her mother has had a poor appetite, lost at least 4.5 kg and has lacked energy three months. The patient has not had cough or fever, but she tires easily.

      On examination she is rather subdued, is apyrexial and has a pulse of 100 per minute irregular and blood pressure is 156/88 mmHg. Examination of the fundi reveals grade II hypertensive changes. Her JVP is elevated by 8 cm but the neck is otherwise normal.

      Examination of the heart and lungs reveals crackles at both lung bases. The abdomen is normal. She has generalised weakness that is most marked in the hip flexors but otherwise neurologic examination is normal.

      Investigations reveal:
      Haemoglobin 110 g/L (115-165)
      White cell count 7.3 ×109/L (4-11)
      Urea 8.8 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)

      Which of the following would be most useful in establishing the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Serum thyroid-stimulating hormone

      Explanation:

      Thyrotoxicosis as a Cause of Heart Failure

      This patient presents with symptoms of heart failure, including fast atrial fibrillation, weight loss, and proximal myopathy. Although hyperthyroidism is typically associated with an increased appetite, apathy and loss of appetite can occur, especially in older patients. The presence of these symptoms suggests thyrotoxicosis, which would be confirmed by a suppressed thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level.

      The absence of a thyroid goitre doesn’t rule out Graves’ disease or a toxic nodule as the underlying cause. Echocardiography can confirm the diagnosis of heart failure but cannot determine the underlying cause. Therefore, it is important to consider thyrotoxicosis as a potential cause of heart failure in this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      21.6
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 3-year-old girl is brought in by her father with symptoms of croup....

    Correct

    • A 3-year-old girl is brought in by her father with symptoms of croup. You decide to administer dexamethasone. Her weight is 12kg.

      The British National Formulary recommends:

      Dexamethasone (for croup):
      A single dose of 150 micrograms/kg by mouth is effective
      Oral solution, sugar-free, dexamethasone (as sodium phosphate) 2 mg/5ml

      What is the accurate dosage of dexamethasone?

      Your Answer: 3.75ml

      Explanation:

      According to instructions, a dose of dexamethasone can be administered at a rate of 150 micrograms per kilogram. This is equivalent to 0.15 milligrams per kilogram. The patient weighs 10 kilograms, so they require a single dose of 1.5 milligrams. The medication is available in an oral suspension form with a concentration of 2 milligrams per 5 milliliters. Therefore, 1.5 milligrams divided by 2 milligrams equals 0.75. Multiplying 0.75 by 5 milliliters gives a single dose of 3.75 milliliters.

      Drug Dose Calculations Made Simple

      Drug dose calculations are becoming increasingly important due to the rise of prescription errors. These errors can result in serious harm to patients, which is why it is crucial to ensure that the calculations are correct. Although the calculations themselves are relatively straightforward, it is easy to make a mistake.

      Most calculations involve drugs given as solutions or infusions. To calculate the correct dose for a patient’s weight, you need to multiply the weight by the recommended dosage. For example, if a child weighs 18kg and the recommended dosage for paracetamol is 20 mg/kg, the calculation would be 18 x 20 = 360mg.

      Paracetamol oral suspension is available in a concentration of 120mg/5ml. To determine the amount of oral suspension to give, divide the total dose by the concentration of the oral suspension. In this case, 360 mg divided by 120 mg equals 3. Multiply this by the volume of the oral suspension, which is 5ml, to get the final dose of 15ml.

      By following these simple steps, you can ensure that drug dose calculations are accurate and prevent any potential harm to patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      23.5
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  • Question 15 - A new drug is tested for the treatment of heart disease. Drug B...

    Correct

    • A new drug is tested for the treatment of heart disease. Drug B is administered to 800 people with early stage heart disease and a placebo is given to 700 people with the same condition. After 3 years, 500 people who received drug B had survived while only 350 who received the placebo survived. What is the number needed to treat to save one life?

      Your Answer: 10

      Explanation:

      Numbers needed to treat (NNT) is a measure that determines how many patients need to receive a particular intervention to reduce the expected number of outcomes by one. To calculate NNT, you divide 1 by the absolute risk reduction (ARR) and round up to the nearest whole number. ARR can be calculated by finding the absolute difference between the control event rate (CER) and the experimental event rate (EER). There are two ways to calculate ARR, depending on whether the outcome of the study is desirable or undesirable. If the outcome is undesirable, then ARR equals CER minus EER. If the outcome is desirable, then ARR is equal to EER minus CER. It is important to note that ARR may also be referred to as absolute benefit increase.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
      4
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 32-year-old man with schizophrenia reports that thoughts are leaking out of his...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man with schizophrenia reports that thoughts are leaking out of his head and being read by others around him.
      What is the correct term for this symptom?

      Your Answer: Thought broadcast

      Explanation:

      Understanding Different Types of Thought Experiences

      There are various types of thought experiences that individuals may encounter. One of these is thought broadcast, where others can seemingly hear or read one’s thoughts as they are being broadcasted from the individual. On the other hand, thought insertion and withdrawal refer to the experience of having thoughts inserted into or taken out of one’s mind by an external force. In thought blocking, individuals may suddenly find themselves unable to continue speaking as their minds go blank. Meanwhile, thought echo involves hearing one’s own thoughts being spoken aloud after thinking them. Finally, auditory hallucinations refer to the perception of hearing sounds or voices without any external stimulus. Understanding these different types of thought experiences can help individuals better recognize and cope with them.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      2
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 58-year-old man with a history of hypertension experiences sudden onset of severe...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old man with a history of hypertension experiences sudden onset of severe chest pain, radiating to the back and left shoulder. On examination, he is hemiplegic, with pallor and sweating. His heart rate is 120 bpm and his blood pressure is 174/89 mmHg, but 153/72 mmHg when measured on the opposite arm.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Dissection of the thoracic aorta

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis of hemiplegia in a patient with chest pain

      Aortic dissection, myocardial infarction, intracranial haemorrhage, ruptured thoracic aneurysm, and ruptured ventricular aneurysm are among the possible causes of chest pain and hemiplegia in a patient with a history of hypertension. Aortic dissection is the most likely diagnosis, given the abrupt onset and maximal severity of chest pain at onset, as well as the potential for carotid involvement and limb blood pressure differences. Myocardial infarction may also cause chest pain but is less likely to present with hemiplegia. Intracranial haemorrhage may cause hemiplegia but is more likely to present with a headache. Ruptured thoracic aneurysm may cause acute chest, back, or neck pain, but is unlikely to cause hemiplegia. Ruptured ventricular aneurysm is a complication of myocardial infarction but typically doesn’t rupture. A careful differential diagnosis is essential for appropriate management and prognosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 48-year-old woman has a hard, smooth nodule on the right lower leg,...

    Correct

    • A 48-year-old woman has a hard, smooth nodule on the right lower leg, measuring 0.5 cm in diameter. She first noticed it several months ago, and since then it has not changed. When the lesion is pinched between the fingers, it dimples inwards. The lesion is light brown, with regular pigmentation.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Dermatofibroma

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Different Skin Lesions: Dermatofibroma, Malignant Melanoma, Seborrhoeic Keratosis, Cutaneous Metastasis, and Actinic Keratosis

      When it comes to skin lesions, it’s important to distinguish between different types to determine the appropriate treatment. One such lesion is a dermatofibroma, which is a benign growth that often appears on the limbs of women. A key feature of a dermatofibroma is the dimpling that occurs when the skin is pinched, due to the fibrous tissue underneath.

      On the other hand, malignant melanoma is less likely to be the cause of a skin lesion if it has regular pigmentation, hasn’t changed in several months, and has dimpling – all features of a dermatofibroma. Seborrhoeic keratosis, another type of skin lesion, has a rough, stuck-on appearance that doesn’t match the description of a dermatofibroma.

      A cutaneous metastasis, which is a skin lesion that results from cancer spreading from another part of the body, typically presents as a rapidly growing nodule. This is different from a dermatofibroma, which is relatively static. Similarly, an actinic keratosis, a flat lesion with a fine scale, is unlikely to be the diagnosis for a nodular lesion like a dermatofibroma.

      In summary, understanding the characteristics of different skin lesions can help in accurately identifying and treating them.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      16.1
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 14-year-old girl with eczema comes in with a bumpy, gooseflesh-like texture on...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old girl with eczema comes in with a bumpy, gooseflesh-like texture on her upper arms. She denies any itching or redness. What is the MOST SUITABLE course of action to take next?

      Your Answer: Routine bloods

      Explanation:

      Understanding Keratosis Pilaris

      Keratosis pilaris is a prevalent skin condition that is characterised by small bumps on the skin. These bumps are caused by the buildup of keratin in the hair follicles, resulting in a rough, bumpy texture. While the condition can resolve on its own over time, there is no specific treatment that has been proven to be effective.

      It is important to note that referral, blood tests, and topical antibacterials are not recommended for the treatment of keratosis pilaris. Instead, individuals with this condition may benefit from taking tepid showers instead of hot baths. This can help to prevent further irritation of the skin. With proper care and attention, individuals with keratosis pilaris can manage their symptoms and enjoy healthy, smooth skin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 20 - A 67-year-old man has been diagnosed with low calcium and is being prescribed...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man has been diagnosed with low calcium and is being prescribed oral calcium carbonate tablets. He has been taking levothyroxine for several years for hypothyroidism and his thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) levels are consistent.

      What guidance should be given to this patient regarding his medications?

      Your Answer: Take calcium 4 hours apart from levothyroxine

      Explanation:

      To prevent reduced absorption of levothyroxine and worsening control of hypothyroidism, it is important to note that iron and calcium carbonate tablets can interfere with its absorption. Therefore, it is recommended to take these supplements 4 hours apart from levothyroxine. It is advised not to take calcium and levothyroxine together, regardless of the time of day. The order in which they are taken doesn’t matter.

      Managing Hypothyroidism: Dosage, Goals, and Side-Effects

      Hypothyroidism is a condition where the thyroid gland doesn’t produce enough thyroid hormone. The management of hypothyroidism involves the use of levothyroxine, a synthetic form of thyroid hormone. The initial starting dose of levothyroxine should be lower in elderly patients and those with ischaemic heart disease. For patients with cardiac disease, severe hypothyroidism, or patients over 50 years, the initial starting dose should be 25mcg od with dose slowly titrated. Other patients should be started on a dose of 50-100 mcg od. After a change in thyroxine dose, thyroid function tests should be checked after 8-12 weeks. The therapeutic goal is to achieve a ‘normalisation’ of the thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) level, with a TSH value of 0.5-2.5 mU/l being the preferred range.

      Women with established hypothyroidism who become pregnant should have their dose increased ‘by at least 25-50 micrograms levothyroxine’* due to the increased demands of pregnancy. The TSH should be monitored carefully, aiming for a low-normal value. There is no evidence to support combination therapy with levothyroxine and liothyronine.

      Levothyroxine therapy may cause side-effects such as hyperthyroidism due to over-treatment, reduced bone mineral density, worsening of angina, and atrial fibrillation. Interactions with iron and calcium carbonate may reduce the absorption of levothyroxine, so they should be given at least 4 hours apart.

      In summary, the management of hypothyroidism involves careful dosage adjustment, regular monitoring of thyroid function tests, and aiming for a TSH value in the normal range. Women who become pregnant should have their dose increased, and combination therapy with levothyroxine and liothyronine is not recommended. Patients should also be aware of potential side-effects and interactions with other medications.

      *source: NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      3.8
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  • Question 21 - A mother brings her 12-month-old son into surgery as she is concerned about...

    Correct

    • A mother brings her 12-month-old son into surgery as she is concerned about his hearing. For a child born in the United Kingdom, at what age would their hearing first be formally assessed?

      Your Answer: Newborn - otoacoustic emission

      Explanation:

      The screening of newborns for hearing problems involves the use of an otoacoustic emission test.

      Hearing Tests for Children

      Hearing tests are important for children to ensure that they are developing normally. There are several tests that may be performed on children of different ages. For newborns, an otoacoustic emission test is typically done as part of the Newborn Hearing Screening Programme. This test involves playing a computer-generated click through a small earpiece and checking for the presence of a soft echo, which indicates a healthy cochlea. If the results of this test are abnormal, an Auditory Brainstem Response test may be done.

      For infants between 6-9 months, a Distraction test may be performed by a health visitor with the help of two trained staff members. For children between 18 months to 2.5 years, a Recognition of familiar objects test may be used, which involves using familiar objects like a teddy or cup and asking the child simple questions like where is the teddy? For children over 2.5 years, Performance testing and Speech discrimination tests using similar-sounding objects like the Kendall Toy test or McCormick Toy Test may be used. Pure tone audiometry is typically done at school entry in most areas of the UK for children over 3 years old.

      In addition to these tests, there is also a questionnaire for parents in the Personal Child Health Records called Can your baby hear you? This questionnaire can help identify any potential hearing issues in children. Overall, hearing tests are an important part of ensuring that children are developing normally and can help identify any issues early on.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      5.2
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 40-year-old woman has been diagnosed with Grave's disease and is now seeking...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old woman has been diagnosed with Grave's disease and is now seeking a review 3 months after commencing a 'block and replace' regimen with carbimazole and thyroxine. She is worried about the possibility of developing thyroid eye disease. What measures can be taken to minimize her risk of developing this condition?

      Your Answer: Stop smoking

      Explanation:

      Smoking is the primary controllable risk factor for thyroid eye disease.

      Thyroid eye disease is a condition that affects a significant proportion of patients with Graves’ disease. It is believed to be caused by an autoimmune response against an autoantigen, possibly the TSH receptor, which leads to inflammation behind the eyes. This inflammation causes the deposition of glycosaminoglycan and collagen in the muscles, resulting in symptoms such as exophthalmos, conjunctival oedema, optic disc swelling, and ophthalmoplegia. In severe cases, patients may be unable to close their eyelids, leading to sore, dry eyes and a risk of exposure keratopathy.

      Prevention of thyroid eye disease is important, and smoking is the most significant modifiable risk factor. Radioiodine treatment may also increase the risk of developing or worsening eye disease, but prednisolone may help reduce this risk. Management of established thyroid eye disease may involve topical lubricants to prevent corneal inflammation, steroids, radiotherapy, or surgery.

      Patients with established thyroid eye disease should be monitored closely for any signs of deterioration, such as unexplained changes in vision, corneal opacity, or disc swelling. Urgent review by an ophthalmologist is necessary in these cases to prevent further complications. Overall, thyroid eye disease is a complex condition that requires careful management and monitoring to ensure the best possible outcomes for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 23 - A 72-year-old man comes to the clinic with a highly sensitive 0.5 cm...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man comes to the clinic with a highly sensitive 0.5 cm nodule on the free border of the helix of his left ear. The nodule has been there for approximately six weeks and has a small amount of scale attached to its surface. He has trouble sleeping on that side of his head. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Chondrodermatitis nodularis helicis

      Explanation:

      Chondrodermatitis Nodularis Chronica Helicis: A Benign Tender Lump in the Ear Cartilage

      Chondrodermatitis nodularis chronica helicis is a common condition characterized by a benign tender lump in the cartilaginous portion of the ear, specifically in the helix or antihelix. It is often caused by pressure between the head and pillow during sleep, particularly in individuals who predominantly sleep on one side. Minor trauma, exposure to cold, and tight headgear or telephone headsets can also trigger the condition.

      The lesion rarely resolves on its own and conservative measures such as using a soft pillow or sleeping on the opposite side may be attempted. Wearing a protective pressure-relieving device, using topical and intralesional steroids, or applying topical glyceryl trinitrate may also provide relief. Cryotherapy is sometimes used as well.

      Excision of the damaged cartilage area is often successful, but recurrence can occur at the edge of the excised area. The distinctive feature of chondrodermatitis nodularis chronica helicis is the associated pain and tenderness, which sets it apart from painless cutaneous tumors and non-tender actinic keratoses.

      It is important to note that tophi, which contain a white pasty material and are usually not painful or tender, typically develop around 10 years after the first attack of gout in untreated patients and are commonly found around the elbows, hands, and feet.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      8.4
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  • Question 24 - A 65-year old man with prostate cancer presents with gynaecomastia.

    Which of the following...

    Correct

    • A 65-year old man with prostate cancer presents with gynaecomastia.

      Which of the following treatments would explain this presentation?

      Your Answer: Radical prostatectomy

      Explanation:

      Iatrogenic Causes of Gynaecomastia: The Role of Gonadorelin Injections

      There are various iatrogenic causes of gynaecomastia that healthcare providers should consider when evaluating a patient with this condition. In this case, the culprit behind the breast enlargement is the gonadorelin injections.

      Gonadorelin analogues initially stimulate the release of luteinising hormone (LH) by the pituitary gland. However, in the early stages of treatment, this can cause a tumour flare, which can lead to complications such as spinal cord compression and ureteric obstruction. To prevent this problem, an anti-androgen may be prescribed alongside the gonadorelin injections.

      Once treatment is established, gonadorelin analogues produce a clinical picture similar to menopause in females and orchidectomy in males. This occurs as continued use results in hypogonadism due to negative feedback. Typical clinical features include hot flashes, sweating, sexual dysfunction, and gynaecomastia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      7.6
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  • Question 25 - In your practice area there is sheltered accommodation for a small number of...

    Correct

    • In your practice area there is sheltered accommodation for a small number of young adults with general learning disability.
      Which of the following is the correct statement concerning general learning disability?

      Your Answer: Expressive language skills may be better than receptive skills

      Explanation:

      Understanding General Learning Disability: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      General learning disability is a condition characterized by incomplete or arrested development of the mind, which is evident from childhood. This term is now recommended in the United Kingdom to replace outdated terms such as mental handicap and mental retardation. The majority of patients have mild learning disability, with an Intelligence Quotient (IQ) of 50-70. The causes of this condition are varied, including genetic, metabolic, and events during pregnancy, childbirth, and the postnatal period. Patients with general learning disability often have associated physical, psychological, and behavioral problems.

      Psychotropic drugs are commonly used to manage behavioral problems, but they are rarely beneficial. Before resorting to medication, doctors should first check for any sources of discomfort, such as earache or toothache. When communicating with patients, it is important to address them directly and obtain as much history as possible from them. However, doctors should also be aware that there may be incongruence between receptive and expressive verbal skills, and patients may not fully understand the questions being asked.

      Most adults with general learning disability have limited economic opportunities. It is important to understand this condition and provide appropriate support and management to improve the quality of life for patients and their families.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
      5.7
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  • Question 26 - A new medication aimed at preventing outbreaks of shingles is being tested in...

    Correct

    • A new medication aimed at preventing outbreaks of shingles is being tested in clinical trials. One hundred participants are administered the new medication. Over a three-month period, 10 of the participants experience a shingles outbreak. Meanwhile, in the control group, 300 participants are given a placebo. During the same time frame, 50 individuals in the control group experience a shingles outbreak. What is the relative risk of experiencing a shingles outbreak while taking the new medication?

      Your Answer: 0.6

      Explanation:

      The experimental event rate (EER) is calculated as 10 events out of 100, resulting in a rate of 0.10. The control event rate (CER) is calculated as 50 events out of 300, resulting in a rate of 0.166. The relative risk is then calculated as the ratio of EER to CER, which is 0.6.

      Understanding Relative Risk in Clinical Trials

      Relative risk (RR) is a measure used in clinical trials to compare the risk of an event occurring in the experimental group to the risk in the control group. It is calculated by dividing the experimental event rate (EER) by the control event rate (CER). If the resulting ratio is greater than 1, it means that the event is more likely to occur in the experimental group than in the control group. Conversely, if the ratio is less than 1, the event is less likely to occur in the experimental group.

      To calculate the relative risk reduction (RRR) or relative risk increase (RRI), the absolute risk change is divided by the control event rate. This provides a percentage that indicates the magnitude of the difference between the two groups. Understanding relative risk is important in evaluating the effectiveness of interventions and treatments in clinical trials. By comparing the risk of an event in the experimental group to the control group, researchers can determine whether the intervention is beneficial or not.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
      4.8
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  • Question 27 - A 58-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner with complaints of diarrhoea without...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner with complaints of diarrhoea without any associated bleeding. She has also experienced weight loss and has abdominal pain with malaise and fever. During the examination, she has oral ulcers, sore red eyes and tender nodules on her shins. There is tenderness in the right iliac fossa and a vague right iliac fossa mass. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Crohn's disease

      Explanation:

      Possible Diagnoses for a Patient with Gastrointestinal Symptoms and Other Complications

      Crohn’s Disease, Appendicular Abscess, Ileocaecal Tuberculosis, Ovarian Cyst, and Ulcerative Colitis are possible diagnoses for a patient presenting with gastrointestinal symptoms and other complications. In women over 60 years of age, Crohn’s disease may even be the most likely diagnosis. This condition can cause episcleritis, uveitis, erythema nodosum, pyoderma gangrenosum, vasculitis, gallstones, kidney stones, or abnormal liver function tests. The predominantly right-sided symptoms suggest terminal ileitis, which is more common in Crohn’s disease than ulcerative colitis. Fever can occur in Crohn’s disease due to the inflammatory process, ranging from high fever during acute flare-ups to persistent low-grade fever. Appendicular abscess is a complication of acute appendicitis, causing a palpable mass in the right iliac fossa and fever. Ileocaecal tuberculosis can present with a palpable mass in the right lower quadrant and complications of obstruction, perforation, or malabsorption, especially in the presence of stricture. A large ovarian cyst may be palpable on abdominal examination, but it is unlikely to cause oral ulcers, sore eyes, or erythema nodosum. Ulcerative colitis, which has similar clinical features to Crohn’s disease, is usually diagnosed from the biopsy result following a sigmoidoscopy or colonoscopy. However, rectal bleeding is more common in ulcerative colitis, while fever is more common in Crohn’s disease. A right lower quadrant mass may be seen in Crohn’s disease but not in ulcerative colitis unless complicated by bowel cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      10.5
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  • Question 28 - A 56-year-old man is prescribed topical fusidic acid for a small patch of...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old man is prescribed topical fusidic acid for a small patch of impetigo on his chin. He has a history of heart disease and recently underwent a cardiac procedure. After seven days of treatment, there has been no improvement in his symptoms. On examination, a persistent small, crusted area is noted on the right side of his chin. While waiting for swab results, what is the best course of action?

      Your Answer: Topical mupirocin

      Explanation:

      In light of the recent hospitalization and the ineffectiveness of fusidic acid, it is important to consider the possibility of MRSA. The most suitable treatment option in this case would be topical mupirocin.

      Understanding Impetigo: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      Impetigo is a common bacterial skin infection that is caused by either Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes. It can occur as a primary infection or as a complication of an existing skin condition such as eczema. Impetigo is most common in children, especially during warm weather. The infection can develop anywhere on the body, but it tends to occur on the face, flexures, and limbs not covered by clothing.

      The infection spreads through direct contact with discharges from the scabs of an infected person. The bacteria invade the skin through minor abrasions and then spread to other sites by scratching. Infection is spread mainly by the hands, but indirect spread via toys, clothing, equipment, and the environment may occur. The incubation period is between 4 to 10 days.

      Symptoms of impetigo include ‘golden’, crusted skin lesions typically found around the mouth. It is highly contagious, and children should be excluded from school until the lesions are crusted and healed or 48 hours after commencing antibiotic treatment.

      Management of impetigo depends on the extent of the disease. Limited, localized disease can be treated with hydrogen peroxide 1% cream or topical antibiotic creams such as fusidic acid or mupirocin. MRSA is not susceptible to either fusidic acid or retapamulin, so topical mupirocin should be used in this situation. Extensive disease may require oral flucloxacillin or oral erythromycin if penicillin-allergic. The use of hydrogen peroxide 1% cream was recommended by NICE and Public Health England in 2020 to cut antibiotic resistance. The evidence base shows it is just as effective at treating non-bullous impetigo as a topical antibiotic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      10
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  • Question 29 - A 65-year-old gentleman, with stable schizophrenia and a penicillin allergy, had a routine...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old gentleman, with stable schizophrenia and a penicillin allergy, had a routine ECG which showed a QTc interval of 420 ms. He takes oral quetiapine regularly. He was started on a course of clarithromycin for a recently suspected tonsillitis and has now recovered. He reported no new symptoms and was otherwise well. Blood tests including electrolytes were normal.

      Which is the SINGLE MOST appropriate NEXT management step?

      Your Answer: Discuss with the on-call psychiatry team for advice

      Explanation:

      Normal QTc Interval in Patient Taking Quetiapine and Clarithromycin

      The normal values for QTc are < 440 ms in men and <470 ms in women. It is important to monitor the QTc interval in patients taking medications such as quetiapine and clarithromycin, which are known to increase the QTc interval. In this scenario, an ECG was performed and the QTc interval was found to be normal. Therefore, no intervention is necessary at this time. It is important to continue monitoring the patient's QTc interval throughout their treatment with these medications. Proper monitoring can help prevent potentially life-threatening arrhythmias.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      6.6
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  • Question 30 - A 30-year-old woman who is 20 weeks pregnant presents with severe acne on...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman who is 20 weeks pregnant presents with severe acne on her face, chest, and shoulders. The inflammation, papules, and pustules are widespread and causing her significant pain, even waking her from sleep. She had been receiving treatment from dermatology but stopped when she began trying to conceive. Her next appointment is not for another 6 weeks. To improve her quality of life, you decide to initiate oral antibiotic therapy. Which antibiotic would be the most appropriate for her?

      Your Answer: Erythromycin

      Explanation:

      Acne vulgaris is a common condition that can significantly impact a patient’s quality of life. The severity of acne can range from mild to severe, and in this case, the patient has moderate to severe acne. Treatment with an oral antibiotic is recommended, and a referral to a dermatologist has already been scheduled.

      Tetracyclines are typically the first-line treatment for acne vulgaris, but they are contraindicated in pregnant women. This patient is pregnant, so an alternative antibiotic is needed. Oral tetracyclines should also be avoided in breastfeeding women and children under 12 years old due to the risk of deposition in developing teeth and bones.

      Erythromycin is a suitable alternative to tetracyclines for the treatment of acne vulgaris in pregnancy. The usual dose is 500 mg twice a day. Some specialists may use trimethoprim, but it is unlicensed for this indication. Women of childbearing age should use effective contraception, especially if using a topical retinoid concomitantly.

      Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that usually affects teenagers and is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, resulting in comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the number and type of lesions present. Treatment for acne typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy and progressing to combination therapy or oral antibiotics if necessary. Tetracyclines are commonly used but should be avoided in certain populations, and a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide should always be co-prescribed to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. Combined oral contraceptives can also be used in women, and oral isotretinoin is reserved for severe cases under specialist supervision. Dietary modification has no role in the management of acne.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      6.4
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Dermatology (6/6) 100%
Infectious Disease And Travel Health (1/1) 100%
Children And Young People (2/2) 100%
Musculoskeletal Health (1/1) 100%
Allergy And Immunology (1/1) 100%
Neurology (1/1) 100%
Gastroenterology (2/2) 100%
Maternity And Reproductive Health (2/2) 100%
Sexual Health (1/1) 100%
Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing (1/2) 50%
Haematology (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular Health (3/3) 100%
Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge (2/2) 100%
Mental Health (1/1) 100%
Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
Eyes And Vision (1/1) 100%
Kidney And Urology (1/1) 100%
Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability (1/1) 100%
Passmed