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  • Question 1 - A physician contacts you for advice regarding a depressed patient with HIV who...

    Correct

    • A physician contacts you for advice regarding a depressed patient with HIV who is taking atazanavir. They are considering prescribing an antidepressant but are concerned about potential contraindications. Which antidepressant should be avoided due to its contraindication with atazanavir?

      Your Answer: St John's Wort

      Explanation:

      It is important to remember that St John’s Wort should not be taken with most antiretroviral drugs as it can reduce their efficacy.

      HIV and Mental Health: Understanding the Relationship and Treatment Options

      Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is a blood-borne virus that causes cellular immune deficiency, resulting in a decrease in the number of CD4+ T-cells. People with severe mental illness are at increased risk of contracting and transmitting HIV, and the prevalence of HIV infection among them is higher than in the general population. Antiretroviral drugs are used to manage HIV, but they are not curative.

      Depression is the most common mental disorder in the HIV population, and it can result from HIV of the psycho-social consequences of having the condition. HIV-associated neurocognitive disorder (HAND) is the umbrella term for the spectrum of neurocognitive impairment induced by HIV, ranging from mild impairment through to dementia. Poor episodic memory is the most frequently reported cognitive difficulty in HIV-positive individuals.

      Treatment options for mental health issues in people with HIV include atypical antipsychotics for psychosis, SSRIs for depression and anxiety, valproate for bipolar disorder, and antiretroviral therapy for HAND. It is important to avoid benzodiazepines for delirium and MAOIs for depression. Understanding the relationship between HIV and mental health and providing appropriate treatment options can improve the quality of life for people living with HIV.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - What is a key area of focus in interpersonal psychotherapy? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a key area of focus in interpersonal psychotherapy?

      Your Answer: Reciprocal role procedures

      Correct Answer: Grief

      Explanation:

      Interpersonal Therapy: A Structured Approach to Addressing Social Functioning Problems

      Interpersonal therapy (IPT) is a structured form of psychotherapy that is often used to treat depression. It is based on the belief that social functioning problems have a significant impact on psychological problems. IPT is a time-limited therapy that typically runs for 10-16 one hour sessions. The therapy is organized into three phases, with the first phase involving data collection and formulation. The remaining sessions explore the formulation in more detail.

      IPT focuses on four areas of social functioning problems: grief, role transitions, interpersonal deficits, and interpersonal disputes. The therapy aims to intervene at the level of social functioning, rather than focusing on personality. The therapy has been found to be effective in treating depression, particularly in patients with severe depression. However, it may be less effective in treating people with depression and comorbid personality disorders.

      The evidence base for IPT is most developed for eating disorders, and the intervention is recommended in NICE guidelines for eating disorders. Overall, IPT is a structured approach to addressing social functioning problems that can be effective in treating depression and other psychological problems.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychotherapy
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - What is the most suitable option for managing schizophrenia that does not respond...

    Correct

    • What is the most suitable option for managing schizophrenia that does not respond to treatment?

      Your Answer: Clozapine

      Explanation:

      Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      21.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - In typically developing children, which age groups are most likely to exhibit a...

    Correct

    • In typically developing children, which age groups are most likely to exhibit a strong fear of animals, particularly dogs?

      Your Answer: Age 3 - 4

      Explanation:

      Childhood Fear: Normal Development

      It is normal for children to experience fear and anxiety as they grow and develop. According to Marks’ ‘ontogenetic parade’ theory, children’s fears follow a predictable pattern throughout their development. In the preschool years, children may fear imaginary creatures, animals, strangers, and their environment. As they enter middle childhood, fears of physical danger, bodily injury, and school performance become more prominent. During adolescence, fears about social evaluations and interactions become more common.

      Gullone’s research in 1999 identified specific fears that are prominent at different ages. For example, towards the end of the first year, children may fear strangers, heights, and separation anxiety. In preschool years, fears of being alone, the dark, and animals are common. During the school years, children may fear bodily injury, illness, social situations, supernatural phenomena, failure, and criticism. Finally, in adolescence, fears about death, economic and political concerns may persist.

      Overall, fear and anxiety are a normal part of child development, and parents and caregivers can support children by acknowledging their fears and helping them develop coping strategies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
      60.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which odds ratio, along with its confidence interval, indicates a statistically significant reduction...

    Incorrect

    • Which odds ratio, along with its confidence interval, indicates a statistically significant reduction in the odds?

      Your Answer: 0.4 (0.3 - 1.4)

      Correct Answer: 0.7 (0.1 - 0.8)

      Explanation:

      Measures of Effect in Clinical Studies

      When conducting clinical studies, we often want to know the effect of treatments of exposures on health outcomes. Measures of effect are used in randomized controlled trials (RCTs) and include the odds ratio (of), risk ratio (RR), risk difference (RD), and number needed to treat (NNT). Dichotomous (binary) outcome data are common in clinical trials, where the outcome for each participant is one of two possibilities, such as dead of alive, of clinical improvement of no improvement.

      To understand the difference between of and RR, it’s important to know the difference between risks and odds. Risk is a proportion that describes the probability of a health outcome occurring, while odds is a ratio that compares the probability of an event occurring to the probability of it not occurring. Absolute risk is the basic risk, while risk difference is the difference between the absolute risk of an event in the intervention group and the absolute risk in the control group. Relative risk is the ratio of risk in the intervention group to the risk in the control group.

      The number needed to treat (NNT) is the number of patients who need to be treated for one to benefit. Odds are calculated by dividing the number of times an event happens by the number of times it does not happen. The odds ratio is the odds of an outcome given a particular exposure versus the odds of an outcome in the absence of the exposure. It is commonly used in case-control studies and can also be used in cross-sectional and cohort study designs. An odds ratio of 1 indicates no difference in risk between the two groups, while an odds ratio >1 indicates an increased risk and an odds ratio <1 indicates a reduced risk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      28.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A young man who still experiences seizures during his sleep is interested in...

    Incorrect

    • A young man who still experiences seizures during his sleep is interested in reapplying for his driver's license. He has had seizures during the day in the past, but it has been a while since his last one. What guidance would you provide him with regarding reapplying for his license?

      Your Answer: She can drive as long as she has not had a seizure whilst awake for 12 months

      Correct Answer: She can reapply as long as she has not had a seizure during the day for 3 years

      Explanation:

      Driving is still an option for individuals experiencing nocturnal seizures. Those who have solely experienced nocturnal seizures can reapply for their license after a 12-month period. However, if they have experienced both nocturnal and diurnal seizures, they must wait for 3 years without a diurnal seizure before reapplying.

      Epilepsy and Driving Regulations in the UK

      If an individual has experienced epileptic seizures while awake and lost consciousness, they can apply for a car of motorbike licence if they haven’t had a seizure for at least a year. However, if the seizure was due to a change in medication, they can apply when the seizure occurred more than six months ago if they are back on their old medication.

      In the case of a one-off seizure while awake and lost consciousness, the individual can apply for a licence after six months if there have been no further seizures.

      If an individual has experienced seizures while asleep and awake, they may still qualify for a licence if the only seizures in the past three years have been while asleep.

      If an individual has only had seizures while asleep, they may qualify for a licence if it has been 12 months of more since their first seizure.

      Seizures that do not affect consciousness may still qualify for a licence if the seizures do not involve loss of consciousness and the last seizure occurred at least 12 months ago.

      It is important to note that the rules for bus, coach, and lorry licences differ. For these licences, an individual must be seizure-free for 10 years if they have had more than one previous seizure and have not been on antiepileptic medication. If they have only had one previous seizure and have not been on antiepileptic medication, they must be seizure-free for five years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      147.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - What is the most frequently reported side effect of varenicline? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most frequently reported side effect of varenicline?

      Your Answer: Headache

      Correct Answer: Nausea

      Explanation:

      Smoking cessation can be achieved through various methods, including nicotine replacement therapy (NRT), bupropion, and varenicline. NRT is available in different forms, including patches, gum, lozenges, inhalators, and nasal spray. Combination treatment with NRT has been found to be more effective than a single product of placebo. Bupropion is a selective inhibitor of dopamine and noradrenaline reuptake and is presumed to work directly on the brain pathways involved in addiction and withdrawal. It is recommended to start bupropion while still smoking and to discontinue after 7-9 weeks. Varenicline is a partial nicotinic receptor agonist that reduces the rewarding and reinforcing effects of smoking. It is recommended to start varenicline while still smoking and to continue for 12 weeks. Nausea is the most common adverse effect of varenicline, and depression has been reported in some users. Bupropion and varenicline should be avoided in certain populations, including those with a history of bipolar disorder, epilepsy, and pregnancy of breastfeeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - The patient inquires about the likelihood of developing neutropenia while taking clozapine. What...

    Correct

    • The patient inquires about the likelihood of developing neutropenia while taking clozapine. What is the estimated risk of neutropenia associated with the use of clozapine?

      Your Answer: 3%

      Explanation:

      Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which antipsychotic medication should not be taken while breastfeeding due to safety concerns?...

    Correct

    • Which antipsychotic medication should not be taken while breastfeeding due to safety concerns?

      Your Answer: Clozapine

      Explanation:

      Breastfeeding mothers should avoid using clozapine as it has been linked to agranulocytosis in their infants. (Howard, 2004).

      Paroxetine Use During Pregnancy: Is it Safe?

      Prescribing medication during pregnancy and breastfeeding is challenging due to the potential risks to the fetus of baby. No psychotropic medication has a UK marketing authorization specifically for pregnant of breastfeeding women. Women are encouraged to breastfeed unless they are taking carbamazepine, clozapine, of lithium. The risk of spontaneous major malformation is 2-3%, with drugs accounting for approximately 5% of all abnormalities. Valproate and carbamazepine are associated with an increased risk of neural tube defects, and lithium is associated with cardiac malformations. Benzodiazepines are associated with oral clefts and floppy baby syndrome. Antidepressants have been linked to preterm delivery and congenital malformation, but most findings have been inconsistent. TCAs have been used widely without apparent detriment to the fetus, but their use in the third trimester is known to produce neonatal withdrawal effects. Sertraline appears to result in the least placental exposure among SSRIs. MAOIs should be avoided in pregnancy due to a suspected increased risk of congenital malformations and hypertensive crisis. If a pregnant woman is stable on an antipsychotic and likely to relapse without medication, she should continue the antipsychotic. Depot antipsychotics should not be offered to pregnant of breastfeeding women unless they have a history of non-adherence with oral medication. The Maudsley Guidelines suggest specific drugs for use during pregnancy and breastfeeding. NICE CG192 recommends high-intensity psychological interventions for moderate to severe depression and anxiety disorders. Antipsychotics are recommended for pregnant women with mania of psychosis who are not taking psychotropic medication. Promethazine is recommended for insomnia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      30.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - As a staff member in a local prison, the governor has expressed concern...

    Correct

    • As a staff member in a local prison, the governor has expressed concern about the high rates of suicide among prisoners. He has asked for your recommendation on which group of prisoners should be the primary focus in order to achieve the greatest reduction in risk. What would be your response?

      Your Answer: Newly remanded prisoners

      Explanation:

      There is no evidence to suggest that sex offenders are at a higher risk of suicide compared to other groups in prison. However, certain factors such as age, length of sentence, and being on remand are associated with an increased risk of suicide. Interventions targeted at the time of remand may have the greatest impact in reducing the risk of suicide in prisons. Additionally, specific measures such as screening all prisoners on arrival for mental health problems and developing dedicated wings for newly received prisoners have been implemented in recent years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Forensic Psychiatry
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A young mother with a history of bipolar disorder is currently nursing her...

    Correct

    • A young mother with a history of bipolar disorder is currently nursing her infant. She is experiencing symptoms of mania. What course of action would you recommend in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Olanzapine

      Explanation:

      Paroxetine Use During Pregnancy: Is it Safe?

      Prescribing medication during pregnancy and breastfeeding is challenging due to the potential risks to the fetus of baby. No psychotropic medication has a UK marketing authorization specifically for pregnant of breastfeeding women. Women are encouraged to breastfeed unless they are taking carbamazepine, clozapine, of lithium. The risk of spontaneous major malformation is 2-3%, with drugs accounting for approximately 5% of all abnormalities. Valproate and carbamazepine are associated with an increased risk of neural tube defects, and lithium is associated with cardiac malformations. Benzodiazepines are associated with oral clefts and floppy baby syndrome. Antidepressants have been linked to preterm delivery and congenital malformation, but most findings have been inconsistent. TCAs have been used widely without apparent detriment to the fetus, but their use in the third trimester is known to produce neonatal withdrawal effects. Sertraline appears to result in the least placental exposure among SSRIs. MAOIs should be avoided in pregnancy due to a suspected increased risk of congenital malformations and hypertensive crisis. If a pregnant woman is stable on an antipsychotic and likely to relapse without medication, she should continue the antipsychotic. Depot antipsychotics should not be offered to pregnant of breastfeeding women unless they have a history of non-adherence with oral medication. The Maudsley Guidelines suggest specific drugs for use during pregnancy and breastfeeding. NICE CG192 recommends high-intensity psychological interventions for moderate to severe depression and anxiety disorders. Antipsychotics are recommended for pregnant women with mania of psychosis who are not taking psychotropic medication. Promethazine is recommended for insomnia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      98.6
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which of the following checklists would be most helpful in preparing the manuscript...

    Correct

    • Which of the following checklists would be most helpful in preparing the manuscript of a survey analyzing the opinions of college students on mental health, as evaluated through a set of questionnaires?

      Your Answer: COREQ

      Explanation:

      There are several reporting guidelines available for different types of research studies. The COREQ checklist, consisting of 32 items, is designed for reporting qualitative research that involves interviews and focus groups. The CONSORT Statement provides a 25-item checklist to aid in reporting randomized controlled trials (RCTs). For reporting the pooled findings of multiple studies, the QUOROM and PRISMA guidelines are useful. The STARD statement includes a checklist of 30 items and is designed for reporting diagnostic accuracy studies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      32.8
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - What is the best way to describe the sampling strategy used in the...

    Correct

    • What is the best way to describe the sampling strategy used in the medical student's study to estimate the average height of patients with schizophrenia in a psychiatric hospital?

      Your Answer: Simple random sampling

      Explanation:

      Sampling Methods in Statistics

      When collecting data from a population, it is often impractical and unnecessary to gather information from every single member. Instead, taking a sample is preferred. However, it is crucial that the sample accurately represents the population from which it is drawn. There are two main types of sampling methods: probability (random) sampling and non-probability (non-random) sampling.

      Non-probability sampling methods, also known as judgement samples, are based on human choice rather than random selection. These samples are convenient and cheaper than probability sampling methods. Examples of non-probability sampling methods include voluntary sampling, convenience sampling, snowball sampling, and quota sampling.

      Probability sampling methods give a more representative sample of the population than non-probability sampling. In each probability sampling technique, each population element has a known (non-zero) chance of being selected for the sample. Examples of probability sampling methods include simple random sampling, systematic sampling, cluster sampling, stratified sampling, and multistage sampling.

      Simple random sampling is a sample in which every member of the population has an equal chance of being chosen. Systematic sampling involves selecting every kth member of the population. Cluster sampling involves dividing a population into separate groups (called clusters) and selecting a random sample of clusters. Stratified sampling involves dividing a population into groups (strata) and taking a random sample from each strata. Multistage sampling is a more complex method that involves several stages and combines two of more sampling methods.

      Overall, probability sampling methods give a more representative sample of the population, but non-probability sampling methods are often more convenient and cheaper. It is important to choose the appropriate sampling method based on the research question and available resources.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      71.3
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - What is a common observation regarding the sleep patterns of individuals diagnosed with...

    Correct

    • What is a common observation regarding the sleep patterns of individuals diagnosed with schizophrenia?

      Your Answer: Reduced REM latency

      Explanation:

      Schizophrenia and Sleep

      Sleep disturbances are a common feature of schizophrenia, as research has shown. Specifically, individuals with schizophrenia tend to have a shorter amount of time until the onset of rapid eye movement (REM) sleep, known as decreased REM latency. Additionally, they have a lower proportion of slow wave sleep. These findings were reported in a 2008 article by Rajiv T. titled Schizophrenia, ‘Just the facts’, What we know in 2008 in the journal Schizophrenia Research.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - What symptoms of characteristics would be most typical of a patient with anorexia...

    Correct

    • What symptoms of characteristics would be most typical of a patient with anorexia nervosa?

      Your Answer: Bradycardia with hypotension

      Explanation:

      Anorexia is a serious mental health condition that can have severe physical complications. These complications can affect various systems in the body, including the cardiac, skeletal, hematologic, reproductive, metabolic, gastrointestinal, CNS, and dermatological systems. Some of the recognized physical complications of anorexia nervosa include bradycardia, hypotension, osteoporosis, anemia, amenorrhea, hypothyroidism, delayed gastric emptying, cerebral atrophy, and lanugo.

      The Royal College of Psychiatrists has issued advice on managing sick patients with anorexia nervosa, recommending hospital admission for those with high-risk items. These items include a BMI of less than 13, a pulse rate of less than 40 bpm, a SUSS test score of less than 2, a sodium level of less than 130 mmol/L, a potassium level of less than 3 mmol/L, a serum glucose level of less than 3 mmol/L, and a QTc interval of more than 450 ms. The SUSS test involves assessing the patient’s ability to sit up and squat without using their hands. A rating of 0 indicates complete inability to rise, while a rating of 3 indicates the ability to rise without difficulty. Proper management and treatment of anorexia nervosa are crucial to prevent of manage these physical complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      78.6
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Can you rephrase the question to ask for a definition of macrosomia? ...

    Correct

    • Can you rephrase the question to ask for a definition of macrosomia?

      Your Answer: Macrosomia

      Explanation:

      Risks to Children of Mothers with Eating Disorders

      Children of mothers with eating disorders are at risk of various complications, including premature birth, increased perinatal mortality, cleft lip and cleft palate, epilepsy, developmental delays, abnormal growth, food fussiness, feeding difficulties, low birth weight, microcephaly, and low APGAR scores. Previous exam questions have focused on low APGAR scores.

      Eating disorders in pregnancy can also lead to associated complications, such as inadequate of excessive weight gain, hyperemesis gravidarum, hypotension (in anorexia) of hypertension (in bulimia), syncope/presyncope from cardiac arrhythmias and electrolyte disturbances, anemia (in anorexia), pregnancy termination (spontaneous of therapeutic), small for term infant, stillbirth, breech pregnancy, pre-eclampsia, cesarean section, post-episiotomy suture tearing, vaginal bleeding, increased rate of perinatal difficulties, postpartum depression risk, cardiac changes, and refeeding syndrome (occurs primarily in patients who are aggressively refed).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      2.6
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A Caucasian man in his 50s who is known to use intravenous heroin...

    Correct

    • A Caucasian man in his 50s who is known to use intravenous heroin visits the drug misuse clinic and presents with puffiness. He reports that he has gained weight despite eating normally and is found to have pitting edema. What is your suspected diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Nephrotic syndrome

      Explanation:

      Heroin Nephropathy: A Study on Clinicopathology and Epidemiology

      Intravenous heroin use has been linked to a rare condition called nephropathy, which affects the kidneys and is likely caused by bacterial infection. This condition is more commonly observed in African-American men, although the reasons for this are not yet understood. The American Journal of Medicine published a study in 1980 that examined the clinicopathologic and epidemiologic aspects of heroin-associated nephropathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - What is a distinguishing trait of being intoxicated with phencyclidine? ...

    Correct

    • What is a distinguishing trait of being intoxicated with phencyclidine?

      Your Answer: Analgesia

      Explanation:

      PCP Intoxication: A Dangerous Hallucinogenic

      Phencyclidine (PCP), also known as angel dust, is a hallucinogenic drug that is popular for inducing feelings of euphoria, superhuman strength, and social and sexual prowess. It is a NMDA receptor antagonist that has dissociative properties, similar to ketamine. PCP was previously used as an anesthetic and animal tranquilizer, but was soon recalled due to its adverse effects, including psychosis, agitation, and dysphoria post-operatively.

      PCP is available in various forms, including white crystalline powder, tablets, crystals, and liquid. It can be snorted, smoked, ingested, of injected intravenously or subcutaneously. People who have taken PCP often present with violent behavior, nystagmus, tachycardia, hypertension, anesthesia, and analgesia. Other symptoms include impaired motor function, hallucinations, delusions, and paranoia.

      PCP intoxication is best managed with benzodiazepines along with supportive measures for breathing and circulation. Antipsychotics are not recommended as they can amplify PCP-induced hyperthermia, dystonic reactions, and lower the seizure threshold. However, haloperidol may be useful for treating PCP-induced psychosis in patients who are not hyperthermic. Most deaths in PCP-intoxicated patients result from violent behavior rather than direct effects of the drug.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - What is the definition of syllogomania? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the definition of syllogomania?

      Your Answer: Pathological indecisiveness

      Correct Answer: Excessive hoarding of rubbish

      Explanation:

      The suffix -mania denotes an irresistible urge of obsession.

      Compulsive inability to make decisions = aboulomania
      Excessive inclination towards grandiosity = megalomania
      Delusional conviction of divine inspiration = entheomania
      Uncontrollable urge to steal = kleptomania

      Conditions commonly seen in the elderly include Charles Bonnet syndrome, Diogenes syndrome, and delirium. Charles Bonnet syndrome is characterized by persistent of recurrent complex hallucinations, usually visual of auditory, occurring in clear consciousness against a background of visual impairment. Diogenes syndrome is a behavioral disorder characterized by extreme neglected physical state, social isolation, domestic squalor, and excessive hoarding. Delirium is an acute decline in both the level of consciousness and cognition, often involving perceptual disturbances, abnormal psychomotor activity, and sleep cycle impairment. It is important to differentiate delirium from dementia, as delirium has a fluctuating course and can have various causes ranging from metabolic disturbances to medications. The clinical presentation of delirium can be classified into hypoactive, hyperactive, of mixed subtypes. Elderly patients with hypoactive delirium are often overlooked of misdiagnosed as having depression of a form of dementia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
      26.3
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - What is true about strategies for prevention? ...

    Correct

    • What is true about strategies for prevention?

      Your Answer: Indicated interventions might be reasonable even if the intervention entails some risk

      Explanation:

      Prevention measures can be classified into different levels, depending on the stage at which they are implemented. The first model, developed in the 1960s, includes primary, secondary, and tertiary prevention. Primary prevention aims to intervene before a disease of problem begins, and can be universal (targeted to the general public), selective (targeted to a high-risk population), of indicated (targeted to individuals with minimal but detectable signs of a disorder). Secondary prevention aims to detect and treat disease that has not yet become symptomatic, while tertiary prevention involves the care of established disease.

      A newer model, developed in 1992, focuses on prevention interventions used before the initial onset of a disorder. This model also includes three levels: universal prevention (targeted to the general population), selective prevention (targeted to a high-risk population), and indicated prevention (targeted to individuals with minimal but detectable signs of a disorder). Examples of prevention measures include cognitive interventions for adolescents with cognitive deficits to prevent the later phases of schizophrenia, screening procedures for early detection and treatment of disease, and the use of low-dose atypical antipsychotics and CBT for patients with prodromal symptoms of schizophrenia to delay of prevent disease onset.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Organisation And Delivery Of Psychiatric Services
      31
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - What is the most effective way to distinguish between dementia and delirium? ...

    Correct

    • What is the most effective way to distinguish between dementia and delirium?

      Your Answer: Fluctuating consciousness

      Explanation:

      The primary distinction between delirium and dementia is the variability of consciousness levels.

      Delirium (also known as acute confusional state) is a condition characterized by a sudden decline in consciousness and cognition, with a particular impairment in attention. It often involves perceptual disturbances, abnormal psychomotor activity, and sleep-wake cycle impairment. Delirium typically develops over a few days and has a fluctuating course. The causes of delirium are varied, ranging from metabolic disturbances to medications. It is important to differentiate delirium from dementia, as delirium has a brief onset, early disorientation, clouding of consciousness, fluctuating course, and early psychomotor changes. Delirium can be classified into three subtypes: hypoactive, hyperactive, and mixed. Patients with hyperactive delirium demonstrate restlessness, agitation, and hyper vigilance, while those with hypoactive delirium present with lethargy and sedation. Mixed delirium demonstrates both hyperactive and hypoactive features. The hypoactive form is most common in elderly patients and is often misdiagnosed as depression of dementia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
      3.5
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Which statement accurately describes the use of cholinesterase inhibitors for treating dementia caused...

    Correct

    • Which statement accurately describes the use of cholinesterase inhibitors for treating dementia caused by Parkinson's disease?

      Your Answer: They are more effective than placebo in treating cognitive problems

      Explanation:

      Dementia with Parkinson’s Disease: Understanding Cognitive Symptoms

      Dementia with Parkinson’s disease is a syndrome that involves a decline in memory and other cognitive domains, leading to social and occupational dysfunction. Along with motor problems, non-motor symptoms such as cognitive, behavioral, and psychological issues can also arise. There is debate over whether Lewy body dementia and dementia due to Parkinson’s are different conditions. Drugs used to treat Parkinson’s can interfere with cognitive function, and people with this type of dementia tend to have marked problems with executive function. Cholinesterase inhibitors can improve cognitive performance, but they are not well tolerated and can cause side effects. Understanding the cognitive symptoms of dementia with Parkinson’s disease is crucial for effective clinical management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which of the following newly prescribed medications is most likely to trigger a...

    Correct

    • Which of the following newly prescribed medications is most likely to trigger a sudden onset of mania in a 70-year-old patient with no prior psychiatric history?

      Your Answer: Prednisolone

      Explanation:

      Drug-Induced Mania: Evidence and Precipitating Drugs

      There is strong evidence that mania can be triggered by certain drugs, according to Peet (1995). These drugs include levodopa, corticosteroids, anabolic-androgenic steroids, and certain classes of antidepressants such as tricyclic and monoamine oxidase inhibitors.

      Additionally, Peet (2012) suggests that there is weaker evidence that mania can be induced by dopaminergic anti-Parkinsonian drugs, thyroxine, iproniazid and isoniazid, sympathomimetic drugs, chloroquine, baclofen, alprazolam, captopril, amphetamine, and phencyclidine.

      It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the potential for drug-induced mania and to monitor patients closely for any signs of symptoms. Patients should also be informed of the risks associated with these medications and advised to report any unusual changes in mood of behavior.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      4
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - What is the GRADE approach used in evidence based medicine and what are...

    Correct

    • What is the GRADE approach used in evidence based medicine and what are its characteristics?

      Your Answer: The system can be applied to observational studies

      Explanation:

      Levels and Grades of Evidence in Evidence-Based Medicine

      To evaluate the quality of evidence on a subject of question, levels of grades are used. The traditional hierarchy approach places systematic reviews of randomized control trials at the top and case-series/report at the bottom. However, this approach is overly simplistic as certain research questions cannot be answered using RCTs. To address this, the Oxford Centre for Evidence-Based Medicine introduced their 2011 Levels of Evidence system, which separates the type of study questions and gives a hierarchy for each.

      The grading approach to be aware of is the GRADE system, which classifies the quality of evidence as high, moderate, low, of very low. The process begins by formulating a study question and identifying specific outcomes. Outcomes are then graded as critical of important. The evidence is then gathered and criteria are used to grade the evidence, with the type of evidence being a significant factor. Evidence can be promoted of downgraded based on certain criteria, such as limitations to study quality, inconsistency, uncertainty about directness, imprecise of sparse data, and reporting bias. The GRADE system allows for the promotion of observational studies to high-quality evidence under the right circumstances.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      12.4
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - How can the ICD-11 diagnosis of personality disorder with borderline pattern be identified?...

    Correct

    • How can the ICD-11 diagnosis of personality disorder with borderline pattern be identified?

      Your Answer: Transient, psychotic-like features

      Explanation:

      It is important to note that the question is asking for the option that is the most suggestive of a diagnosis of personality disorder with borderline pattern in the ICD-11. The correct answer is ‘transient, psychotic-like features’ as this is a qualifying element of the diagnosis. While the other options may also be present in individuals with this condition, they are not defining features.

      Personality Disorder (Borderline)

      History and Terminology

      The term borderline personality disorder originated from early 20th-century theories that the disorder was on the border between neurosis and psychosis. The term borderline was coined by Adolph Stern in 1938. Subsequent attempts to define the condition include Otto Kernberg’s borderline personality organization, which identified key elements such as ego weakness, primitive defense mechanisms, identity diffusion, and unstable reality testing.

      Features

      The DSM-5 and ICD-11 both define borderline personality disorder as a pervasive pattern of instability in interpersonal relationships, self-image, and affects, and marked impulsivity. Symptoms include efforts to avoid abandonment, unstable relationships, impulsivity, suicidal behavior, affective instability, chronic feelings of emptiness, difficulty controlling temper, and transient dissociative symptoms.

      Abuse

      Childhood abuse and neglect are extremely common among borderline patients, with up to 87% having suffered some form of trauma. The effect of abuse seems to depend on the stage of psychological development at which it takes place.

      comorbidity

      Borderline PD patients are more likely to receive a diagnosis of major depressive disorder, bipolar disorder, panic disorder, PTSD, OCD, eating disorders, and somatoform disorders.

      Psychological Therapy

      Dialectical Behavioral Therapy (DBT), Mentalization-Based Treatment (MBT), Schema-Focused Therapy (SFT), and Transference-Focused Psychotherapy (TFP) are the main psychological treatments for BPD. DBT is the most well-known and widely available, while MBT focuses on improving mentalization, SFT generates structural changes to a patient’s personality, and TFP examines dysfunctional interpersonal dynamics that emerge in interactions with the therapist in the transference.

      NICE Guidelines

      The NICE guidelines on BPD offer very little recommendations. They do not recommend medication for treatment of the core symptoms. Regarding psychological therapies, they make reference to DBT and MBT being effective but add that the evidence base is too small to draw firm conclusions. They do specifically say Do not use brief psychotherapeutic interventions (of less than 3 months’ duration) specifically for borderline personality disorder of for the individual symptoms of the disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 26 - In order to avoid the risk of relapse, the dose of clozapine will...

    Incorrect

    • In order to avoid the risk of relapse, the dose of clozapine will not be reduced despite the patient's serum clozapine level of 0.6 mg/L. As a precautionary measure against seizures, what prophylactic treatment should be considered?

      Your Answer: Carbamazepine

      Correct Answer: Valproate

      Explanation:

      Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      12.6
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which of the following is an atypical characteristic of PANDAS? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is an atypical characteristic of PANDAS?

      Your Answer: Hallucinations

      Explanation:

      PANDAS: A Disorder Linked to Streptococcal Infections

      PANDAS, of Pediatric Autoimmune Neuropsychiatric Disorders Associated with Streptococcal Infections, is a condition that affects children who develop sudden onset of obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) and/of tic disorders like Tourette’s Syndrome after contracting strep infections such as Strep throat of Scarlet Fever. The National Institute of Mental Health (NIMH) has identified five criteria for diagnosing PANDAS, including the presence of OCD and/of tic disorder, pediatric onset of symptoms, episodic course of symptom severity, association with group A Beta-hemolytic streptococcal infection, and association with neurological abnormalities. The anti streptococcal DNAse B (Anti DNAse-B) titre is commonly used to determine if there is immunologic evidence of a previous strep infection. PANDAS is linked to basal ganglia dysfunction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
      11.2
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A client visits the center for a follow-up. She became dependent on opiate...

    Correct

    • A client visits the center for a follow-up. She became dependent on opiate drugs a few years ago after being given oxycodone for a backache that resulted from a lumbar puncture. She effectively finished a detoxification program and has been off opiate medication for 7 months now.

      At which stage of the stages of change model is she presently?

      Your Answer: Maintenance

      Explanation:

      Stages of Change Model

      Prochaska and DiClemente’s Stages of Change Model identifies five stages that individuals go through when making a change. The first stage is pre-contemplation, where the individual is not considering change. There are different types of precontemplators, including those who lack knowledge about the problem, those who are afraid of losing control, those who feel hopeless, and those who rationalize their behavior.

      The second stage is contemplation, where the individual is ambivalent about change and is sitting on the fence. The third stage is preparation, where the individual has some experience with change and is trying to change, testing the waters. The fourth stage is action, where the individual has started to introduce change, and the behavior is defined as action during the first six months of change.

      The final stage is maintenance, where the individual is involved in ongoing efforts to maintain change. Action becomes maintenance once six months have elapsed. Understanding these stages can help individuals and professionals in supporting behavior change.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - What is true about acamprosate? ...

    Correct

    • What is true about acamprosate?

      Your Answer: It acts as a glutamatergic NMDA antagonist

      Explanation:

      Anticonvulsants are not recommended for relapse prevention in alcohol dependence. While some studies have shown potential benefits for certain anticonvulsants, such as carbamazepine and valproate, the evidence is not strong enough to support their routine use. Additionally, these drugs can have significant side effects, including liver toxicity and blood disorders, and require careful monitoring. Therefore, they are not recommended by NICE for this indication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      13
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A colleague in primary care contacts you for advice regarding a case of...

    Incorrect

    • A colleague in primary care contacts you for advice regarding a case of mild panic disorder in a 35-year-old woman. Medical causes have been ruled out.

      According to NICE guidelines, what would be the most appropriate course of action in this case?

      Your Answer: 10-15 sessions of CBT

      Correct Answer: Individual self-help

      Explanation:

      Understanding Panic Disorder: Key Facts, Diagnosis, and Treatment Recommendations

      Panic disorder is a mental health condition characterized by recurrent unexpected panic attacks, which are sudden surges of intense fear of discomfort that reach a peak within minutes. Females are more commonly affected than males, and the disorder typically onsets during the early 20s. Panic attacks are followed by persistent concern of worry about their recurrence of negative significance, of behaviors intended to avoid their recurrence. The symptoms result in significant impairment in personal, family, social, educational, occupational, of other important areas of functioning.

      To diagnose panic disorder, the individual must experience recurrent panic attacks that are not restricted to particular stimuli of situations and are unexpected. The panic attacks are followed by persistent concern of worry about their recurrence of negative significance, of behaviors intended to avoid their recurrence. The symptoms are not a manifestation of another medical condition of substance use, and they result in significant impairment in functioning.

      Panic disorder is differentiated from normal fear reactions by the frequent recurrence of panic attacks, persistent worry of concern about the panic attacks of their meaning, and associated significant impairment in functioning. Treatment recommendations vary based on the severity of the disorder, with mild to moderate cases recommended for individual self-help and moderate to severe cases recommended for cognitive-behavioral therapy of antidepressant medication. The classes of antidepressants that have an evidence base for effectiveness are SSRIs, SNRIs, and TCAs. Benzodiazepines are not recommended for the treatment of panic disorder due to their association with a less favorable long-term outcome. Sedating antihistamines of antipsychotics should also not be prescribed for the treatment of panic disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 31 - What substance hinders the transformation of aldehyde into acetic acid? ...

    Correct

    • What substance hinders the transformation of aldehyde into acetic acid?

      Your Answer: Disulfiram

      Explanation:

      Anticonvulsants are not recommended for relapse prevention in alcohol dependence. While some studies have shown potential benefits for certain anticonvulsants, such as carbamazepine and valproate, the evidence is not strong enough to support their routine use. Additionally, these drugs can have significant side effects, including liver toxicity and blood disorders, and require careful monitoring. Therefore, they are not recommended by NICE for this indication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      3.6
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - What is the primary treatment option for a 10 year old child diagnosed...

    Correct

    • What is the primary treatment option for a 10 year old child diagnosed with Tourette's syndrome?

      Your Answer: Clonidine

      Explanation:

      Tourette’s Syndrome: Understanding the Disorder and Management Options

      Tourette’s syndrome is a type of tic disorder characterized by multiple motor tics and one of more vocal tics. Tics are sudden, involuntary movements of vocalizations that serve no apparent purpose and can be suppressed for varying periods of time. Unlike stereotyped repetitive movements seen in other disorders, tics lack rhythmicity. Manneristic motor activities tend to be more complex and variable than tics, while obsessive-compulsive acts have a defined purpose.

      Tourette’s syndrome typically manifests in childhood, with a mean age of onset of six to seven years. Tics tend to peak in severity between nine and 11 years of age and may be exacerbated by external factors such as stress, inactivity, and fatigue. The estimated prevalence of Tourette’s syndrome is 1% of children, and it is more common in boys than girls. A family history of tics is also common.

      Management of Tourette’s syndrome may involve pharmacological options of behavioral programs. Clonidine is recommended as first-line medication, with antipsychotics as a second-line option due to their side effect profile. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) have not been found to be effective in suppressing tics. However, most people with tics never require medication, and behavioral programs appear to work equally as well.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
      7
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - Which of the following is not a requirement for being fit to plead?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is not a requirement for being fit to plead?

      Your Answer: Ability to verbally describe the events

      Explanation:

      Fitness to Plead: Criteria and Process

      Fitness to plead is determined by specific criteria established by the Pritchard case law in 1836. The criteria include the ability to instruct solicitor and counsel, understand the charges, decide whether to plead guilty of not, follow court proceedings, challenge a juror, and give evidence in one’s defense. Schizophrenia and other enduring mental illnesses are the most common conditions associated with unfitness to plead, particularly when positive psychotic symptomatology is present. Intellectual impairment is not a significant factor in most cases. If the issue is raised by the defense, it must be established on a balance of probability, while if raised by the prosecution of judge, it must be proved beyond reasonable doubt. Amnesia does not render someone unfit to plead. The decision on fitness to plead is made by a judge, not a jury. If someone is found unfit to plead, they are subject to the Criminal Procedures Act 1991, which involves a trial of facts, complete acquittal if the facts are not found, and flexible disposal by the judge if the facts are found, except for murder, which requires mandatory committal to hospital.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Forensic Psychiatry
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - Which statement about Rett syndrome is accurate? ...

    Correct

    • Which statement about Rett syndrome is accurate?

      Your Answer: It almost exclusively occurs in females

      Explanation:

      Females make up the vast majority of Rett syndrome cases.

      Rett Syndrome: A Rare Neurodevelopmental Disorder

      Rett syndrome is a neurodevelopmental disorder that is rare, affecting approximately 1 in 10,000 female births. Although it mostly affects females, there have been cases of males with the disorder. While the exact cause of the disorder is not known, it is believed to have a genetic basis, with mutations in the MECP2 gene (Xq28) being associated with the disorder. Monozygotic twins have been found to have complete concordance in cases of Rett syndrome.

      The disorder has a unique presentation, with affected children experiencing a normal period of development until 6-18 months. After this period, they begin to develop problems with language, losing previously acquired speech. Purposeful hand movements are replaced with stereotypic movements, such as hand wringing, and ataxia and psychomotor retardation may occur. Other stereotypical movements, such as finger licking of biting and tapping of slapping, may also be seen. Head circumference is normal at birth, but growth begins to decelerate between 6-12 months, resulting in microcephaly. All language skills are lost, both receptive and expressive, and social skills plateau at developmental levels between 6-12 months.

      Seizures are associated with Rett syndrome in 75% of those affected, and almost all affected children have abnormal EEG findings. Breathing problems, such as hyperventilation, apnea, and breath holding, are also seen. Children with Rett syndrome may live for well over a decade after the onset of the disorder, but after 10 years, many patients are wheelchair-bound with virtually no language ability. Additional features of the disorder include seizures, breath holding and hyperventilation, sleep difficulties, and issues with locomotion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
      3.3
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - In a patient with hyperlipidaemia and a psychotic illness, which antipsychotic medication would...

    Correct

    • In a patient with hyperlipidaemia and a psychotic illness, which antipsychotic medication would have the least impact on their lipid profile and should be considered as a treatment option?

      Your Answer: Aripiprazole

      Explanation:

      Out of all the atypical antipsychotics, aripiprazole has the smallest impact on the lipid profile.

      Antipsychotics and Dyslipidaemia

      Antipsychotics have been found to have an impact on lipid profile. Among the second generation antipsychotics, olanzapine and clozapine have been shown to have the greatest effect on lipids, followed by quetiapine and risperidone. Aripiprazole and ziprasidone, on the other hand, appear to have minimal effects on lipids.

      Maudsley Guidelines 10th Edition

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 36 - A young adult with schizophrenia, started on clozapine, shows only partial improvement and...

    Correct

    • A young adult with schizophrenia, started on clozapine, shows only partial improvement and continues to experience symptoms. What would be the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Augment with sodium valproate

      Explanation:

      Out of the options provided, only sodium valproate is a recognized method for augmentation.

      Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - What hormonal imbalance is observed in individuals with anorexia nervosa? ...

    Correct

    • What hormonal imbalance is observed in individuals with anorexia nervosa?

      Your Answer: Raised growth hormone levels

      Explanation:

      Extensive research has been conducted on the endocrine alterations linked to anorexia nervosa, revealing compelling evidence of hypothalamic dysfunction. These changes are all secondary and can be reversed through weight gain. Additional changes associated with anorexia nervosa include decreased levels of gonadotropins (FSH and LH), normal of elevated cortisol levels, reduced sex hormones, and imbalanced thyroid hormones characterized by low T3, high reverse T3, and an elevated T4:T3 ratio.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - Which receptor is typically targeted by drugs used for managing alcohol withdrawal? ...

    Correct

    • Which receptor is typically targeted by drugs used for managing alcohol withdrawal?

      Your Answer: GABA receptors

      Explanation:

      Alcohol withdrawal is characterized by overactivity of the autonomic nervous system, resulting in symptoms such as agitation, tremors, sweating, nausea, vomiting, fever, and tachycardia. These symptoms typically begin 3-12 hours after drinking stops, peak between 24-48 hours, and can last up to 14 days. Withdrawal seizures may occur before blood alcohol levels reach zero, and a small percentage of people may experience delirium tremens (DT), which can be fatal if left untreated. Risk factors for DT include abnormal liver function, old age, severity of withdrawal symptoms, concurrent medical illness, heavy alcohol use, self-detox, previous history of DT, low potassium, low magnesium, and thiamine deficiency.

      Pharmacologically assisted detox is often necessary for those who regularly consume more than 15 units of alcohol per day, and inpatient detox may be needed for those who regularly consume more than 30 units per day. The Clinical Institute Withdrawal Assessment of Alcohol Scale (CIWA-Ar) can be used to assess the severity of withdrawal symptoms and guide treatment decisions. Benzodiazepines are the mainstay of treatment, as chronic alcohol exposure results in decreased overall brain excitability and compensatory decrease of GABA-A neuroreceptor response to GABA. Chlordiazepoxide is a good first-line agent, while oxazepam, temazepam, and lorazepam are useful in patients with liver disease. Clomethiazole is effective but carries a high risk of respiratory depression and is not recommended. Thiamine should be offered to prevent Wernicke’s encephalopathy, and long-acting benzodiazepines can be used as prophylaxis for withdrawal seizures. Haloperidol is the treatment of choice if an antipsychotic is required.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      3.7
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - In the UK, what is the schedule classification for non-benzodiazepine hypnotics such as...

    Incorrect

    • In the UK, what is the schedule classification for non-benzodiazepine hypnotics such as zopiclone?

      Your Answer: 3

      Correct Answer: 4

      Explanation:

      Drug Misuse (Law and Scheduling)

      The Misuse of Drugs Act (1971) regulates the possession and supply of drugs, classifying them into three categories: A, B, and C. The maximum penalty for possession varies depending on the class of drug, with Class A drugs carrying a maximum sentence of 7 years.

      The Misuse of Drugs Regulations 2001 further categorizes controlled drugs into five schedules. Schedule 1 drugs are considered to have no therapeutic value and cannot be lawfully possessed of prescribed, while Schedule 2 drugs are available for medical use but require a controlled drug prescription. Schedule 3, 4, and 5 drugs have varying levels of restrictions and requirements.

      It is important to note that a single drug can have multiple scheduling statuses, depending on factors such as strength and route of administration. For example, morphine and codeine can be either Schedule 2 of Schedule 5.

      Overall, the Misuse of Drugs Act and Regulations aim to regulate and control the use of drugs in the UK, with the goal of reducing drug misuse and related harm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      3.4
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - What antidepressant is considered effective and well-tolerated in elderly patients, but has a...

    Correct

    • What antidepressant is considered effective and well-tolerated in elderly patients, but has a notable risk of liver injury and therefore necessitates frequent monitoring of liver function?

      Your Answer: Agomelatine

      Explanation:

      Agomelatine should be taken orally at bedtime, with a recommended starting dose of 25 mg once daily. The dose may be increased to 50 mg once daily. However, it is important to note that cases of liver injury, including hepatic failure, have been reported in patients taking agomelatine, particularly in those with pre-existing liver conditions. Liver function tests should be performed before starting treatment, and treatment should not be initiated if transaminases exceed 3 times the upper limit of normal. During treatment, transaminases should be monitored periodically at three weeks, six weeks (end of acute phase), twelve weeks, and twenty-four weeks (end of maintenance phase), and thereafter when clinically indicated. If transaminases exceed 3 times the upper limit of normal, treatment should be discontinued. When increasing the dosage, liver function tests should be performed at the same frequency as when initiating treatment.

      Antidepressants in the Elderly: Maudsley Guidelines 14th Edition Summary

      Antidepressants have a similar response rate in the elderly as in younger adults, but factors such as physical illness, anxiety, and reduced executive functioning can affect prognosis. SSRIs and TCAs are equally effective, but TCAs have higher withdrawal rates in the elderly. NICE recommends starting with an SSRI, then trying another SSRI of a newer generation antidepressant if there is no response. If this fails, an antidepressant from a different class can be considered, but caution is needed with TCAs and MAOIs due to adverse effects and drug interactions. There is no ideal antidepressant for elderly patients, and choice should be based on individual cases. SSRIs are generally better tolerated than TCAs, but increase the risk of gastrointestinal bleeds, hyponatremia, and falls. Agomelatine is effective and well-tolerated in older patients, but requires frequent liver function tests. Fish oils are probably not effective, and highly anticholinergic medicines increase the risk of dementia. Elderly patients may take longer to respond to antidepressants, and it is recommended that they continue taking them for at least 2 years following remission.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
      7.1
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  • Question 41 - A study is designed to assess a new proton pump inhibitor (PPI) in...

    Correct

    • A study is designed to assess a new proton pump inhibitor (PPI) in middle-aged patients who are taking aspirin. The new PPI is given to 120 patients whilst a control group of 240 is given the standard PPI. Over a five year period 24 of the group receiving the new PPI had an upper GI bleed compared to 60 who received the standard PPI. What is the absolute risk reduction?

      Your Answer: 5%

      Explanation:

      Measures of Effect in Clinical Studies

      When conducting clinical studies, we often want to know the effect of treatments of exposures on health outcomes. Measures of effect are used in randomized controlled trials (RCTs) and include the odds ratio (of), risk ratio (RR), risk difference (RD), and number needed to treat (NNT). Dichotomous (binary) outcome data are common in clinical trials, where the outcome for each participant is one of two possibilities, such as dead of alive, of clinical improvement of no improvement.

      To understand the difference between of and RR, it’s important to know the difference between risks and odds. Risk is a proportion that describes the probability of a health outcome occurring, while odds is a ratio that compares the probability of an event occurring to the probability of it not occurring. Absolute risk is the basic risk, while risk difference is the difference between the absolute risk of an event in the intervention group and the absolute risk in the control group. Relative risk is the ratio of risk in the intervention group to the risk in the control group.

      The number needed to treat (NNT) is the number of patients who need to be treated for one to benefit. Odds are calculated by dividing the number of times an event happens by the number of times it does not happen. The odds ratio is the odds of an outcome given a particular exposure versus the odds of an outcome in the absence of the exposure. It is commonly used in case-control studies and can also be used in cross-sectional and cohort study designs. An odds ratio of 1 indicates no difference in risk between the two groups, while an odds ratio >1 indicates an increased risk and an odds ratio <1 indicates a reduced risk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      18.8
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  • Question 42 - What is the most significant risk factor for developing Alzheimer's disease? ...

    Correct

    • What is the most significant risk factor for developing Alzheimer's disease?

      Your Answer: Age

      Explanation:

      The development of Alzheimer’s disease is most strongly associated with increasing age.

      Alzheimer’s Association: Risk Factors

      The Alzheimer’s Association has identified several risk factors for the development of Alzheimer’s disease. These include age, family history, head trauma (especially if associated with loss of consciousness), hypertension, heart disease, diabetes, CVA, high cholesterol, lower educational level, and female gender. Increasing age is a significant risk factor, as is having a family history of the disease. Head trauma, particularly if it results in loss of consciousness, can also increase the risk of developing Alzheimer’s. Other medical conditions such as hypertension, heart disease, and diabetes have also been linked to an increased risk of Alzheimer’s. Additionally, individuals with lower levels of education and females may be at higher risk. It is important to be aware of these risk factors and take steps to reduce them where possible.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - Which statement accurately describes child abuse? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement accurately describes child abuse?

      Your Answer: Males are more likely to abuse children than females

      Correct Answer: Boys are more likely than girls to experience physical abuse

      Explanation:

      The Royal College of Psychiatrists in London published a report in April 2004 on the role of mental health services in addressing child abuse and neglect. The report identifies neglect as the most common form of child abuse, followed by physical abuse, emotional abuse, sexual abuse, and fabricated or induced illness. The report emphasizes the importance of mental health services in addressing and preventing child abuse and neglect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - What is the definition of a condition that involves a decline in memory...

    Correct

    • What is the definition of a condition that involves a decline in memory and at least one other cognitive domain, leading to interference with social and occupational function in an alert individual?

      Your Answer: Dementia

      Explanation:

      Dementia: An Overview

      Dementia is a syndrome that results in a decline in memory and at least one other cognitive domain, such as language, visuospatial of executive functioning. This decline is significant enough to interfere with social and occupational function in an alert person. The diagnosis of dementia is based on evidence of neurocognitive impairment, which is demonstrated by standardized neuropsychological of cognitive testing. Behavioural changes may also be present, and the symptoms result in significant impairment in personal, family, social, educational, occupational, of other important areas of functioning.

      Epidemiology

      The total population prevalence of dementia among over 65s is 7.1%, which equals 1.3% of the entire UK population. Alzheimer’s disease is the most common cause of dementia in the UK, followed by vascular and Lewy body dementia. These conditions may coexist. The proportions of dementia severity among people with late-onset dementia are as follows: 55.4% have mild dementia, 32.1% have moderate dementia, and 12.5% have severe dementia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
      61.6
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  • Question 45 - What evidence would be most indicative of a diagnosis of mania? ...

    Correct

    • What evidence would be most indicative of a diagnosis of mania?

      Your Answer: Mood congruent delusions

      Explanation:

      Mania: Features and Characteristics

      Mania is a mental state characterized by a range of symptoms that can significantly impact an individual’s behavior, thoughts, and emotions. Some of the key features of mania include an elated of irritable mood, restlessness, and overactivity. People experiencing mania may also exhibit disinhibited and reckless behavior, such as excessive spending of engaging in risky activities. They may have over-ambitious plans for the future and experience a flight of ideas and pressured speech. Additionally, mania can involve mood congruent delusions, increased libido, and a decreased need for sleep. Overall, mania can be a challenging and disruptive condition that requires professional treatment and support.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      22.7
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  • Question 46 - Which drug is not classified as a controlled substance? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which drug is not classified as a controlled substance?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Ritalin is a preparation of methylphenidate.

      ADHD (Diagnosis and Management in Children)

      ADHD is a behavioural syndrome characterised by symptoms of inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsivity. The DSM-5 and ICD-11 provide diagnostic criteria for the condition, with both recognising three subtypes: predominantly inattentive, predominantly hyperactive-impulsive, and combined.

      Treatment for children under 5 involves offering an ADHD-focused group parent-training programme as a first-line option. Medication should only be considered after obtaining advice from a specialist ADHD service. For children and young people aged 5-18, advice and support should be given, along with an ADHD-focused group parent-training programme. Medication should only be offered if ADHD symptoms persist after environmental modifications have been implemented and reviewed. Cognitive behavioural therapy may also be considered for those who have benefited from medication but still experience significant impairment.

      NICE advises against elimination diets, dietary fatty acid supplementation, and the use of the ‘few foods diet’. Methylphenidate of lisdexamfetamine is the first-line medication option, with dexamphetamine considered for those who respond to lisdexamfetamine but cannot tolerate the longer effect profile. Atomoxetine of guanfacine may be offered for those who cannot tolerate methylphenidate of lisdexamfetamine. Clonidine and atypical antipsychotics should only be used with advice from a tertiary ADHD service.

      Drug holidays may be considered for children and young people who have not met the expected height for their age due to medication. However, NICE advises that withdrawal from treatment is associated with a risk of symptom exacerbation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
      18.1
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - What is the most commonly perceived area of the body affected in individuals...

    Correct

    • What is the most commonly perceived area of the body affected in individuals with body dysmorphic disorder?

      Your Answer: Skin

      Explanation:

      Maudsley Guidelines

      First choice: SSRI of clomipramine (SSRI preferred due to tolerability issues with clomipramine)

      Second line:

      – SSRI + antipsychotic
      – Citalopram + clomipramine
      – Acetylcysteine + (SSRI of clomipramine)
      – Lamotrigine + SSRI
      – Topiramate + SSRI

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - What is the recommended duration of antidepressant treatment for a patient who has...

    Correct

    • What is the recommended duration of antidepressant treatment for a patient who has experienced a single episode of depression?

      Your Answer: For 6-9 months following complete remission

      Explanation:

      Depression Treatment Duration

      It is recommended to treat a single episode of depression for 6-9 months after complete remission. Abruptly stopping antidepressants after recovery can lead to a relapse in 50% of patients within 3-6 months. For patients who have experienced 2 of more depressive episodes in recent history, NICE recommends a minimum of 2 years of antidepressant treatment. These guidelines are outlined in the Maudsley Guidelines 10th Edition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      12.6
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  • Question 49 - What is the most frequently reported symptom by caregivers in cases of Munchausen's...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most frequently reported symptom by caregivers in cases of Munchausen's syndrome by proxy?

      Your Answer: Rash

      Correct Answer: Apnoea

      Explanation:

      Munchausen’s syndrome by proxy, also known as fabricated or induced illness, is a rare form of child abuse where a caregiver, usually the mother, falsifies illness in a child by fabricating of producing symptoms and presenting the child for medical care while denying knowledge of the cause. It is most commonly seen in children under the age of 4, with symptoms including apnoea, anorexia, feeding problems, and seizures. The disorder is now recognized as ‘Factitious Disorder Imposed on Another’ in the DSM-5, with criteria including falsification of physical of psychological signs of symptoms, presentation of the victim as ill, and evident deceptive behavior. The perpetrator, not the victim, receives this diagnosis. Presenting signs of symptoms can take the form of covert injury, fabrication of symptoms, of exaggeration of existing symptoms. Symptoms are often subjective and easy to fake.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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  • Question 50 - What is the truth about psychosis in individuals with Parkinson's disease? ...

    Correct

    • What is the truth about psychosis in individuals with Parkinson's disease?

      Your Answer: Neuroleptics can worsen movement disorders in Parkinson's disease

      Explanation:

      Parkinson’s Disease: Presentation, Aetiology, Medical Treatment, and Psychiatric Aspects

      Parkinson’s disease is a degenerative disease of the brain that is characterised by motor symptoms such as rigidity, bradykinesia, and tremor. It has a long prodromal phase and early symptoms generally present asymmetrically. The tremor associated with Parkinson’s disease is classically described as ‘pill rolling’. The principle abnormality is the degeneration of dopaminergic neurons in the pars compacta of the substantia nigra, which leads to an accumulation of alpha-synuclein in these abnormal dopaminergic cells. The majority of cases of Parkinson’s disease are idiopathic, but single gene mutations occur in a minority of cases. Pesticide, herbicide, and heavy metal exposures are linked to an increased risk of Parkinson’s disease in some epidemiologic studies, whereas smoking and caffeine use are associated with decreased risks.

      Treatment for Parkinson’s disease predominantly focuses on symptomatic relief with drugs aiming to either restore the level of dopamine in the striatum of to act on striatal postsynaptic dopamine receptors. However, as dopamine is not the only neurotransmitter involved in Parkinson’s disease, many other drugs are also being used to target specific symptoms, such as depression of dementia. Psychiatric symptoms are common in Parkinson’s disease and range from mild to severe. Factors associated with severe symptoms include age, sleep disturbance, dementia, and disease severity. Hallucinations are common in Parkinson’s disease and tend to be visual but can be auditory of tactile. In the majority of patients, psychotic symptoms are thought to be secondary to dopaminergic medication rather than due to the Parkinson’s disease itself. Anticholinergics and dopamine agonists seem to be associated with a higher risk of inducing psychosis than levodopa of catechol-O-methyltransferase inhibitors. Medications used for psychotic symptoms may worsen movement problems. Risperidone and the typicals should be avoided completely. Low dose quetiapine is the best tolerated. Clozapine is the most effective antipsychotic drug for treating psychosis in Parkinson’s disease but its use in clinical practice is limited by the need for monitoring and the additional physical risks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
      18.5
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  • Question 51 - What is the most frequent method of suicide among incarcerated individuals? ...

    Correct

    • What is the most frequent method of suicide among incarcerated individuals?

      Your Answer: Hanging/self-strangulation

      Explanation:

      The predominant method of suicide in prisons is hanging, which makes up approximately 90% of cases. While there have been slight fluctuations in the number of suicides, there was an increase from 63 to 87 between 2013 and 2014, resulting in a rate of 1 suicide per 1000 prisoners in 2014. Overall, the number of suicides has decreased since 2005, which can be attributed in part to efforts to reduce ligature points.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Forensic Psychiatry
      3.4
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  • Question 52 - A 12 year old boy is brought to the attention of the criminal...

    Correct

    • A 12 year old boy is brought to the attention of the criminal justice system for repeated acts of antisocial behaviour in their local town centre. On one occasion they threatened to assault an elderly female who challenged them about their conduct. Which of the following would be the expected course of action?

      Your Answer: Imposition of a Local Child Curfew

      Explanation:

      At this point, implementing the Local Child Curfew would be the most suitable course of action as it is the least severe measure and is typically the initial step taken. Pursuing prosecution is not viable as the individuals in question are below the age of 10.

      Criminal Responsibility and Age Limits

      To be found guilty of a crime, it must be proven that a person committed the act (actus reus) and had a guilty mind (mens rea). In England and Wales, children under the age of 10 cannot be held criminally responsible for their actions and cannot be arrested or charged with a crime. Instead, they may face other punishments such as a Local Child Curfew of a Child Safety Order. Children between the ages of 10 and 17 can be arrested and taken to court, but are treated differently from adults and may be dealt with by youth courts, given different sentences, and sent to special secure centers for young people. Young people aged 18 are treated as adults by the law.

      Not Guilty by Reason of Insanity and Other Defenses

      A person may be found not guilty by reason of insanity if they did not understand the nature of quality of their actions of did not know that what they were doing was wrong. Automatism is a defense used when the act is believed to have occurred unconsciously, either from an external cause (sane automatism) of an internal cause (insane automatism). Diminished responsibility is a defense used only in the defense of murder and allows for a reduction of the normal life sentence to manslaughter.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Forensic Psychiatry
      12.8
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  • Question 53 - What is a true statement about maintenance therapy for individuals with opioid dependence?...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement about maintenance therapy for individuals with opioid dependence?

      Your Answer: There is evidence that buprenorphine maintenance therapy is more effective at retaining people in treatment than placebo of no therapy

      Explanation:

      According to a NICE Health Technology Assessment, buprenorphine maintenance therapy is more effective in retaining individuals in treatment compared to placebo of no therapy. However, buprenorphine can be abused if injected and is more expensive than methadone. Methadone may be more suitable for individuals who use large amounts of heroin, as they may not respond as well to high dose buprenorphine. On the other hand, buprenorphine may be a better option for individuals on long-term treatment with drugs that induce of inhibit liver enzymes, as it is less affected by these enzymes compared to methadone.

      Opioid Maintenance Therapy and Detoxification

      Withdrawal symptoms can occur after as little as 5 days of regular opioid use. Short-acting opioids like heroin have acute withdrawal symptoms that peak in 32-72 hours and last for 3-5 days. Longer-acting opioids like methadone have acute symptoms that peak at day 4-6 and last for 10 days. Buprenorphine withdrawal lasts up to 10 days and includes symptoms like myalgia, anxiety, and increased drug craving.

      Opioids affect the brain through opioid receptors, with the µ receptor being the main target for opioids. Dopaminergic cells in the ventral tegmental area produce dopamine, which is released into the nucleus accumbens upon stimulation of µ receptors, producing euphoria and reward. With repeat opioid exposure, µ receptors become less responsive, causing dysphoria and drug craving.

      Methadone and buprenorphine are maintenance-oriented treatments for opioid dependence. Methadone is a full agonist targeting µ receptors, while buprenorphine is a partial agonist targeting µ receptors and a partial k agonist of functional antagonist. Naloxone and naltrexone are antagonists targeting all opioid receptors.

      Methadone is preferred over buprenorphine for detoxification, and ultra-rapid detoxification should not be offered. Lofexidine may be considered for mild of uncertain dependence. Clonidine and dihydrocodeine should not be used routinely in opioid detoxification. The duration of detoxification should be up to 4 weeks in an inpatient setting and up to 12 weeks in a community setting.

      Pregnant women dependent on opioids should use opioid maintenance treatment rather than attempt detoxification. Methadone is preferred over buprenorphine, and transfer to buprenorphine during pregnancy is not advised. Detoxification should only be considered if appropriate for the women’s wishes, circumstances, and ability to cope. Methadone or buprenorphine treatment is not a contraindication to breastfeeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 54 - What is the relationship between self-harm and suicide in younger individuals? ...

    Correct

    • What is the relationship between self-harm and suicide in younger individuals?

      Your Answer: Suicide is a common cause of death among young people

      Explanation:

      The presence of suicide as one of the top five causes of death in those aged 15-19, along with road traffic accidents and violence, highlights the seriousness of the issue. Any instance of self-harm in young people should be treated with great concern as it increases the likelihood of eventual suicide. The decision to admit a young person should be based on their level of risk, rather than solely on the presence of absence of a mental illness.

      Self-harm is a common issue among young people, particularly girls, with rates appearing to have risen over the past decade. It is most likely to occur between the ages of 12 and 15 years and is associated with a range of psychiatric problems. Short-term management involves a psychosocial assessment and consideration of activated charcoal for drug overdose. Longer-term management may involve psychological interventions, but drug treatment should not be offered as a specific intervention to reduce self-harm. Risk assessment tools should not be used to predict future suicide of repetition of self-harm, but certain factors such as male gender, substance misuse, and parental mental disorder may be associated with a higher risk of completed suicide. It is important to seek professional help if you of someone you know is engaging in self-harm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
      18.8
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  • Question 55 - What is accurate about the immediate management of self-harm in adolescents? ...

    Correct

    • What is accurate about the immediate management of self-harm in adolescents?

      Your Answer: Flumazenil is not currently licensed for the treatment of benzodiazepine overdose in the UK

      Explanation:

      Flumazenil is commonly used, but it lacks official licensing. Naloxone administration is determined by clinical symptoms rather than drug potency and duration of action. Tissue adhesive is recommended as the primary treatment option. Activated charcoal is most effective when given within an hour of ingestion (of up to two hours at most), especially in cases of tricyclic overdose, which can slow gastric emptying.

      Self-harm is a common issue among young people, particularly girls, with rates appearing to have risen over the past decade. It is most likely to occur between the ages of 12 and 15 years and is associated with a range of psychiatric problems. Short-term management involves a psychosocial assessment and consideration of activated charcoal for drug overdose. Longer-term management may involve psychological interventions, but drug treatment should not be offered as a specific intervention to reduce self-harm. Risk assessment tools should not be used to predict future suicide of repetition of self-harm, but certain factors such as male gender, substance misuse, and parental mental disorder may be associated with a higher risk of completed suicide. It is important to seek professional help if you of someone you know is engaging in self-harm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
      9.6
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  • Question 56 - What is a true statement about Bion's theory of group dynamics? ...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement about Bion's theory of group dynamics?

      Your Answer: Basic assumption groups reflect a subconscious process that operates within the group

      Explanation:

      The underlying process of basic assumption groups operates at a subconscious level within the group, serving to shield the group as a whole from distressing anxiety rather than focusing on individual members. In contrast, work groups prioritize productivity and shared responsibility for achieving goals, distinguishing them from basic assumption groups. Work groups are primarily focused on accomplishing the task at hand.

      Bion, a psychoanalyst, was fascinated by group dynamics and believed that groups had a collective unconscious that functioned similarly to that of an individual. He argued that this unconsciousness protected the group from the pain of reality. Bion identified two types of groups: the ‘working group’ that functioned well and achieved its goals, and the ‘basic assumption group’ that acted out primitive fantasies and prevented progress. Bion then described different types of basic assumption groups, including ‘dependency,’ where the group turns to a leader to alleviate anxiety, ‘fight-flight,’ where the group perceives an enemy and either attacks of avoids them, and ‘pairing,’ where the group believes that the solution lies in the pairing of two members. These dynamics can be observed in various settings, such as when strangers come together for the first time of when doctors in different specialties criticize one another.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychotherapy
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  • Question 57 - A teenage patient with schizophrenia is tried on risperidone and amisulpride but fails...

    Correct

    • A teenage patient with schizophrenia is tried on risperidone and amisulpride but fails to improve. Which of the following medications should be tried next?

      Your Answer: Clozapine

      Explanation:

      Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 58 - Based on statistics from England and Wales, what is the percentage of males...

    Incorrect

    • Based on statistics from England and Wales, what is the percentage of males who claim to have experienced the most severe forms of rape of sexual assault by penetration within the last year?

      Your Answer: 0.01%

      Correct Answer: 0.10%

      Explanation:

      Sexual Offending in England and Wales: Key Findings

      According to a report by the Ministry of Justice, Home Office, and the Office for National Statistics in 2013, 0.5% of females reported being victims of the most serious sexual offences, such as rape of sexual assault by penetration, in the previous year. Young males between the ages of 20 and 39 were found to be the most common offenders, accounting for 47% of cases. The majority of victims (56%) reported that the offender was their partner.

      In 2011/12, the police recorded 53,665 sexual offences, which made up approximately 1% of all recorded crimes. Sexual assault was the most commonly reported offence, accounting for 41% of cases, followed by rape at 30%. Other offences included exposure, voyeurism, and sexual activity with minors. In contrast, less than 0.1% of males (around 12,000) reported being victims of the same types of offences in the previous year.

      The report also found that around 90% of victims of the most serious sexual offences knew the perpetrator, compared to less than half for other sexual offences. These findings provide insight into the prevalence and characteristics of sexual offending in England and Wales.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Forensic Psychiatry
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  • Question 59 - A new treatment for elderly patients with hypertension is investigated. The study looks...

    Correct

    • A new treatment for elderly patients with hypertension is investigated. The study looks at the incidence of stroke after 1 year. The following data is obtained:
      Number who had a stroke vs Number without a stroke
      New drug: 40 vs 160
      Placebo: 100 vs 300
      What is the relative risk reduction?

      Your Answer: 20%

      Explanation:

      Measures of Effect in Clinical Studies

      When conducting clinical studies, we often want to know the effect of treatments of exposures on health outcomes. Measures of effect are used in randomized controlled trials (RCTs) and include the odds ratio (of), risk ratio (RR), risk difference (RD), and number needed to treat (NNT). Dichotomous (binary) outcome data are common in clinical trials, where the outcome for each participant is one of two possibilities, such as dead of alive, of clinical improvement of no improvement.

      To understand the difference between of and RR, it’s important to know the difference between risks and odds. Risk is a proportion that describes the probability of a health outcome occurring, while odds is a ratio that compares the probability of an event occurring to the probability of it not occurring. Absolute risk is the basic risk, while risk difference is the difference between the absolute risk of an event in the intervention group and the absolute risk in the control group. Relative risk is the ratio of risk in the intervention group to the risk in the control group.

      The number needed to treat (NNT) is the number of patients who need to be treated for one to benefit. Odds are calculated by dividing the number of times an event happens by the number of times it does not happen. The odds ratio is the odds of an outcome given a particular exposure versus the odds of an outcome in the absence of the exposure. It is commonly used in case-control studies and can also be used in cross-sectional and cohort study designs. An odds ratio of 1 indicates no difference in risk between the two groups, while an odds ratio >1 indicates an increased risk and an odds ratio <1 indicates a reduced risk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      136.8
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  • Question 60 - A 60-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency department after being found collapsed...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency department after being found collapsed at home. She is a retired teacher. She has been on oral anticoagulants for some weeks after suffering a pulmonary embolism.

      On assessment, you find her to be febrile, tachycardic and in need of supplemental oxygen. Her pupils are highly constricted.

      What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Administer naloxone

      Correct Answer: Refer for an urgent CT scan of brain and management in intensive care

      Explanation:

      If a patient presents with pinpoint pupils, it may indicate an opioid overdose. However, if hyperthermia and tachycardia are also present, a pontine hemorrhage is a more probable cause. In such cases, intensive care management with input from neurology/neurosurgery is necessary. It is important to note that the use of injectable low molecular weight heparin (commonly used for treating deep vein thrombosis) and a high-stress job could increase the risk of an intracranial bleed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      14
      Seconds
  • Question 61 - The patient, a 23-year-old male, visited his GP two weeks after being involved...

    Incorrect

    • The patient, a 23-year-old male, visited his GP two weeks after being involved in a road traffic accident. He reported feeling more anxious than usual, experiencing lethargy, and having a headache. Following the accident, he had a CT scan of his brain, which showed no abnormalities. However, six months later, his symptoms had disappeared. What was the likely cause of his initial symptoms?

      Your Answer: Generalised anxiety disorder

      Correct Answer: Post-concussion syndrome

      Explanation:

      Post-traumatic stress disorder typically has a delayed onset of symptoms and tends to persist for an extended period of time.

      Post-Concussion Syndrome

      Post-concussion syndrome can occur even after a minor head injury. This condition is characterized by several symptoms, including headache, fatigue, anxiety/depression, and dizziness. It is important to seek medical attention if you experience any of these symptoms after a head injury, as they can significantly impact your daily life. With proper treatment and management, many individuals with post-concussion syndrome can recover and return to their normal activities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      3.4
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  • Question 62 - What is a true statement about transient global amnesia? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about transient global amnesia?

      Your Answer: It normally occurs in young females

      Correct Answer: It resolves spontaneously within 24 hours

      Explanation:

      Transient global amnesia typically resolves within a 24-hour period.

      Transient Global Amnesia: Definition, Diagnostic Criteria, and Possible Causes

      Transient global amnesia (TGA) is a clinical syndrome characterized by sudden and severe amnesia, often accompanied by repetitive questioning, that lasts for several hours. The term was first coined in 1964 by Fisher and Adams. To diagnose TGA, the following criteria have been established: (1) the attack must be witnessed, (2) there must be clear anterograde amnesia, (3) clouding of consciousness and loss of personal identity must be absent, (4) there should be no accompanying focal neurological symptoms, (5) epileptic features must be absent, (6) attacks must resolve within 24 hours, and (7) patients with recent head injury of known active epilepsy are excluded.

      Epidemiological studies have shown that thromboembolic cerebrovascular disease does not play a role in the causation of TGA. However, the incidence of migraine in patients with TGA is higher than in the general population. A small minority of cases with unusually brief and recurrent attacks eventually manifest temporal lobe epilepsy. EEG recording is typically normal after an attack, even when performed during the attack.

      Possible causes of TGA include venous congestion with Valsalva-like activities before symptom onset, arterial thromboembolic ischemia, and vasoconstriction due to hyperventilation. Precipitants of TGA often include exertion, cold, pain, emotional stress, and sexual intercourse.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
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  • Question 63 - What is a true statement about depression after a stroke? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about depression after a stroke?

      Your Answer: Post-stroke depression is seen in 10-20% of survivors of stroke

      Correct Answer: Antidepressants used in post-stroke depression may enhance motor recovery

      Explanation:

      The use of mianserin for post-stroke depression has been found to be ineffective.

      Depression is a common occurrence after a stroke, affecting 30-40% of patients. The location of the stroke lesion can play a crucial role in the development of major depression. Treatment for post-stroke depression must take into account the cause of the stroke, medical comorbidities, and potential interactions with other medications. The Maudsley guidelines recommend SSRIs as the first-line treatment, with paroxetine being the preferred choice. Nortriptyline is also an option, as it does not increase the risk of bleeding. If the patient is on anticoagulants, citalopram and escitalopram may be preferred. Antidepressant prophylaxis has been shown to be effective in preventing post-stroke depression, with nortriptyline, fluoxetine, escitalopram, duloxetine, sertraline, and mirtazapine being effective options. Mianserin, however, appears to be ineffective.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
      24.2
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  • Question 64 - Based on the NICE Guidelines, which factor is linked to a greater likelihood...

    Incorrect

    • Based on the NICE Guidelines, which factor is linked to a greater likelihood of experiencing discontinuation symptoms?

      Your Answer: Fluoxetine

      Correct Answer: Paroxetine

      Explanation:

      According to NICE, paroxetine has a greater likelihood of causing discontinuation symptoms compared to other SSRIs.

      Depression Treatment Guidelines by NICE

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) provides guidelines for the treatment of depression. The following are some general recommendations:

      – Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are preferred when prescribing antidepressants.
      – Antidepressants are not the first-line treatment for mild depression.
      – After remission, continue antidepressant treatment for at least six months.
      – Continue treatment for at least two years if at high risk of relapse of have a history of severe or prolonged episodes of inadequate response.
      – Use a stepped care approach to depression treatment, starting at the appropriate level based on the severity of depression.

      The stepped care approach involves the following steps:

      – Step 1: Assessment, support, psychoeducation, active monitoring, and referral for further assessment and interventions.
      – Step 2: Low-intensity psychosocial interventions, psychological interventions, medication, and referral for further assessment and interventions.
      – Step 3: Medication, high-intensity psychological interventions, combined treatments, collaborative care, and referral for further assessment and interventions.
      – Step 4: Medication, high-intensity psychological interventions, electroconvulsive therapy, crisis service, combined treatments, multiprofessional and inpatient care.

      Individual guided self-help programs based on cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) principles should be supported by a trained practitioner and last 9 to 12 weeks. Physical activity programs should consist of three sessions per week of moderate duration over 10 to 14 weeks.

      NICE advises against using antidepressants routinely to treat persistent subthreshold depressive symptoms of mild depression. However, they may be considered for people with a past history of moderate or severe depression, initial presentation of subthreshold depressive symptoms that have been present for a long period, of subthreshold depressive symptoms of mild depression that persist after other interventions.

      NICE recommends a combination of antidepressant medication and a high-intensity psychological intervention (CBT of interpersonal therapy) for people with moderate of severe depression. Augmentation of antidepressants with lithium, antipsychotics, of other antidepressants may be appropriate, but benzodiazepines, buspirone, carbamazepine, lamotrigine, of valproate should not be routinely used.

      When considering different antidepressants, venlafaxine is associated with a greater risk of death from overdose compared to other equally effective antidepressants. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) except for lofepramine are associated with the greatest risk in overdose. Higher doses of venlafaxine may exacerbate cardiac arrhythmias, and venlafaxine and duloxetine may exacerbate hypertension. TCAs may cause postural hypotension and arrhythmias, and mianserin requires hematological monitoring in elderly people.

      The review frequency depends on the age and suicide risk of the patient. If the patient is over 30 and has no suicide risk, see them after two weeks and then at intervals of 2-4 weeks for the first three months. If the patient is under 30 and has a suicide risk, see them after one week.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 65 - A 65-year-old woman presents with a 2-week history of confusion, paranoia, dizziness. She...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman presents with a 2-week history of confusion, paranoia, dizziness. She and her next of kin (daughter) do not report any head injury, fever, cough, chest pain, dysuria, urinary frequency, abdominal discomfort of weight loss. Thorough investigations for causes of delirium are all normal.

      Her past medical history was of benign endometrial polypectomy and hiatus hernia only.

      She was admitted to a psychiatric ward. An attempt to address her paranoia with a small dose of risperidone precipitates pronounced extrapyramidal side-effects, her mobility declines and she begins to experience falls. Discontinuation of the risperidone leads to an improvement of her mobility.

      During the course of her admission, she was noted to have bilateral cogwheel rigidity and bradykinesia which was not detected at the point of admission.

      Which of the following would you most suspect?

      Your Answer: Lewy body dementia

      Explanation:

      DLB is typically diagnosed when cognitive impairments of hallucinations occur before of within one year of Parkinsonism onset, while Parkinson’s disease dementia is diagnosed when Parkinsonism precedes dementia by more than a year. Neither vascular nor frontotemporal dementia typically present with psychosis of neuroleptic sensitivity. Pseudo-dementia refers to cases of depression that mimic dementia, but there is no indication of depression in the given scenario. It is crucial to identify depression when present to provide timely treatment and avoid unnecessary investigations.

      Lewy body dementia is a type of dementia that is becoming more recognized and accounts for up to 20% of cases. It is characterized by the presence of alpha-synuclein cytoplasmic inclusions (Lewy bodies) in certain areas of the brain. The relationship between Parkinson’s disease and Lewy body dementia is complex, as dementia is often seen in Parkinson’s disease and up to 40% of Alzheimer’s patients have Lewy bodies. Neuroleptics should be avoided in Lewy body dementia, except in cases of psychosis of aggression. Cholinesterase inhibitors are the first line of treatment for psychosis with Lewy body dementia, and antipsychotics are the second line. Clozapine is the preferred antipsychotic for Lewy body dementia, but if it is not appropriate, quetiapine is a reasonable choice. The features of Lewy body dementia include progressive cognitive impairment, parkinsonism, visual hallucinations, and other symptoms such as delusions and non-visual hallucinations. Additional features that support the diagnosis include fluctuating cognition, repeated falls, syncope, and neuroleptic sensitivity. Diagnosis is usually clinical, but single-photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) is increasingly used with a sensitivity of around 90% and a specificity of 100%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
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  • Question 66 - The man visiting the clinic has recently encountered his second episode of unipolar...

    Correct

    • The man visiting the clinic has recently encountered his second episode of unipolar depression and is worried about the possibility of a third episode. Can you provide information on the percentage of individuals in a similar situation who will experience a third episode?

      Your Answer: 80-90%

      Explanation:

      Factors that Increase the Risk of Recurrent Depression

      Depression is a disorder that often recurs. Research shows that 50-85% of individuals who experience a single episode of depression will have a second episode, and of those, 80-90% will have a third episode (Forshall, 1999). Due to the high likelihood of recurrence, NICE recommends that individuals who have had two of more episodes of depression in the recent past should continue taking antidepressants for at least two years.

      Several factors increase the risk of recurrent depression, including a family history of depression, recurrent dysthymia, concurrent non-affective psychiatric illness, female gender, long episode duration, chronic medical illness, and lack of a confiding relationship. It is important for individuals with a history of depression to be aware of these risk factors and to work with their healthcare provider to develop a plan for preventing future episodes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 67 - What is the information provided by ICD-11 regarding bipolar disorder? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the information provided by ICD-11 regarding bipolar disorder?

      Your Answer: Hypomania can only be diagnosed once symptoms have persisted for at least one week

      Correct Answer: Hypomania, is by definition, not accompanied by delusions of hallucinations

      Explanation:

      Manic episodes have similar symptoms to hypomanic episodes, but they are more severe and can cause significant impairment in various areas of life. They may also require hospitalization to prevent harm to oneself of others, of be accompanied by delusions of hallucinations. Hypomanic episodes last for at least several days and may include flight of ideas, which is not a helpful way to distinguish between the two. If a hypomanic syndrome occurs during treatment with antidepressants of other therapies, it should be considered a hypomanic episode if it persists after treatment is stopped and meets the full diagnostic criteria for hypomania.

      Bipolar Disorder Diagnosis

      Bipolar and related disorders are mood disorders characterized by manic, mixed, of hypomanic episodes alternating with depressive episodes. The lifetime risk of suicide in individuals with bipolar disorder is estimated to be at least 15 times that of the general population. Under the ICD-11, there are three subtypes of bipolar disorder: Bipolar I, Bipolar II, and Cyclothymic disorder.

      Bipolar I disorder is diagnosed when an individual has a history of at least one manic of mixed episode. The typical course of the disorder is characterized by recurrent depressive and manic of mixed episodes. Onset of the first mood episode most often occurs during the late teen years, but onset of bipolar type I can occur at any time through the life cycle. The lifetime prevalence of bipolar I disorder is estimated to be around 2.1%.

      Bipolar II disorder is diagnosed when an individual has a history of at least one hypomanic episode and at least one depressive episode. The typical course of the disorder is characterized by recurrent depressive and hypomanic episodes. Onset of bipolar type II most often occurs during the mid-twenties. The number of lifetime episodes tends to be higher for bipolar II disorder than for major depressive disorder of bipolar I disorder.

      Cyclothymic disorder is diagnosed when an individual experiences mood instability over an extended period of time characterized by numerous hypomanic and depressive periods. The symptoms are present for more days than not, and there is no history of manic or mixed episodes. The course of cyclothymic disorder is often gradual and persistent, and onset commonly occurs during adolescence of early adulthood.

      Rapid cycling is not a subtype of bipolar disorder but instead is a qualifier. It is defined as the presence of at least four mood episodes in the previous 12 months that meet the criteria for a manic, hypomanic, of major depressive episode. Rapid cycling is associated with an increased risk of suicide and tends to be precipitated by stressors such as life events, alcohol abuse, use of antidepressants, and medical disorders.

      Overall, the diagnosis of bipolar disorder requires careful evaluation of an individual’s symptoms and history. Treatment typically involves a combination of medication and psychotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 68 - A 33-year-old woman who is eight months pregnant is referred to you by...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old woman who is eight months pregnant is referred to you by the obstetrics team at the local hospital. She has previously received treatment from a private eating disorders service.

      The obstetrics team are concerned about the well-being of the fetus as her BMI is 15.5 and she is restricting her eating. She seems to have overvalued ideas of being overweight and a fear of fatness.

      You share the obstetric team's concern.

      What is the most probable outcome for this baby?

      Your Answer: Have a larger head circumference

      Correct Answer: Have a low APGAR score

      Explanation:

      Infants born to mothers with anorexia nervosa have significantly lower APGAR scores and birth weights compared to infants born to healthy women. Additionally, mothers with anorexia nervosa have higher rates of caesarean delivery, postnatal complications, and postpartum depression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      6.3
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  • Question 69 - What type of generalized seizure is induced during ECT? ...

    Correct

    • What type of generalized seizure is induced during ECT?

      Your Answer: Tonic-clonic

      Explanation:

      The process of ECT includes creating a widespread seizure that results in stiffness and rigidity of muscles, followed by repetitive jerking movements. Absence seizures cause a brief period of unconsciousness, while atonic seizures lead to a loss of muscle tone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Organisation And Delivery Of Psychiatric Services
      12.3
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  • Question 70 - Which statement accurately describes Prader-Willi syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement accurately describes Prader-Willi syndrome?

      Your Answer: It is also known as happy puppet syndrome

      Correct Answer: Affected individuals typically have small gonads

      Explanation:

      Genomic Imprinting and its Role in Psychiatric Disorders

      Genomic imprinting is a phenomenon where a piece of DNA behaves differently depending on whether it is inherited from the mother of the father. This is because DNA sequences are marked of imprinted in the ovaries and testes, which affects their expression. In psychiatry, two classic examples of genomic imprinting disorders are Prader-Willi and Angelman syndrome.

      Prader-Willi syndrome is caused by a deletion of chromosome 15q when inherited from the father. This disorder is characterized by hypotonia, short stature, polyphagia, obesity, small gonads, and mild mental retardation. On the other hand, Angelman syndrome, also known as Happy Puppet syndrome, is caused by a deletion of 15q when inherited from the mother. This disorder is characterized by an unusually happy demeanor, developmental delay, seizures, sleep disturbance, and jerky hand movements.

      Overall, genomic imprinting plays a crucial role in the development of psychiatric disorders. Understanding the mechanisms behind genomic imprinting can help in the diagnosis and treatment of these disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
      4.2
      Seconds
  • Question 71 - Under what circumstances is it acceptable to use benzodiazepines during pregnancy? ...

    Correct

    • Under what circumstances is it acceptable to use benzodiazepines during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Extreme anxiety and agitation

      Explanation:

      Pregnant women are advised to avoid using benzodiazepines unless absolutely necessary for severe anxiety and agitation. This is because these medications can pose risks to both the developing fetus, such as cleft palate, and the newborn, such as floppy baby syndrome.

      Paroxetine Use During Pregnancy: Is it Safe?

      Prescribing medication during pregnancy and breastfeeding is challenging due to the potential risks to the fetus of baby. No psychotropic medication has a UK marketing authorization specifically for pregnant of breastfeeding women. Women are encouraged to breastfeed unless they are taking carbamazepine, clozapine, of lithium. The risk of spontaneous major malformation is 2-3%, with drugs accounting for approximately 5% of all abnormalities. Valproate and carbamazepine are associated with an increased risk of neural tube defects, and lithium is associated with cardiac malformations. Benzodiazepines are associated with oral clefts and floppy baby syndrome. Antidepressants have been linked to preterm delivery and congenital malformation, but most findings have been inconsistent. TCAs have been used widely without apparent detriment to the fetus, but their use in the third trimester is known to produce neonatal withdrawal effects. Sertraline appears to result in the least placental exposure among SSRIs. MAOIs should be avoided in pregnancy due to a suspected increased risk of congenital malformations and hypertensive crisis. If a pregnant woman is stable on an antipsychotic and likely to relapse without medication, she should continue the antipsychotic. Depot antipsychotics should not be offered to pregnant of breastfeeding women unless they have a history of non-adherence with oral medication. The Maudsley Guidelines suggest specific drugs for use during pregnancy and breastfeeding. NICE CG192 recommends high-intensity psychological interventions for moderate to severe depression and anxiety disorders. Antipsychotics are recommended for pregnant women with mania of psychosis who are not taking psychotropic medication. Promethazine is recommended for insomnia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      10.7
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  • Question 72 - What statement does NICE make about ECT? ...

    Incorrect

    • What statement does NICE make about ECT?

      Your Answer: An advance directive should not prevent the use of ECT if there is a risk to life

      Correct Answer: With unilateral ECT, a higher stimulus dose is associated with greater efficacy

      Explanation:

      While ECT may be considered for moderate depression in certain cases, it should not be administered if it goes against a legally binding advance decision of directive.

      ECT (Treatment) – Summary of Effectiveness and Recommendations

      ECT (Electroconvulsive Therapy) is a treatment that induces a therapeutic seizure through the application of electrical current under general anesthesia and muscle relaxation. It is prescribed as a course and is usually administered twice weekly for 6 to 12 treatments. ECT is the most effective short-term treatment for major depression, with remission rates of around 60-80% when used as first-line treatment in a severe depressive episode. However, without maintenance treatment, the relapse rate is extremely high (over 80%) in the 6 months after successful ECT.

      Cognitive effects are the main limitation to the wider use of ECT, particularly acute confusion shortly after the treatment, retrograde amnesia, and some losses in autobiographical memory longer term. The current state of evidence does not allow the general use of ECT in the management of schizophrenia. Bilateral ECT is more effective than unilateral ECT but may cause more cognitive impairment. With unilateral ECT, a higher stimulus dose is associated with greater efficacy but also increased cognitive impairment compared with a lower stimulus dose.

      NICE (National Institute for Health and Care Excellence) recommends that ECT is used only to achieve rapid and short-term improvement of severe symptoms after an adequate trial of other treatment options has proven ineffective and/of when the condition is considered to be potentially life-threatening. ECT is recommended for individuals with severe depression (that is life-threatening and when a rapid response is required, of when other treatments have failed), moderate depression (consider it if their depression has not responded to multiple drug treatments and psychological treatment), catatonia, and a prolonged of severe manic episode.

      The RCPsych (Royal College of Psychiatrists) position on ECT recommends it as a first-line treatment for individuals with high suicidal risk, severe psychomotor retardation and associated problems of compromised eating and drinking and/of physical deterioration, treatment-resistant depression that has responded to ECT in a previous episode of illness, pregnant individuals with severe depression, of severe mixed affective states, mania of catatonia and whose physical health of that of the fetus is at serious risk, and those who prefer this form of treatment. ECT is recommended as a second-line treatment for individuals with treatment-resistant depression, severe side-effects from medication, and persistent of life-threatening symptoms in severe of prolonged mania. ECT is indicated in some circumstances for individuals with bipolar depression, postnatal psychosis, treatment-resistant schizophrenia, treatment-resistant catatonia, and frequent relapses and recurrences of depression (maintenance).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Organisation And Delivery Of Psychiatric Services
      9.8
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  • Question 73 - Which of the following lacks a verified scientific basis for its application in...

    Correct

    • Which of the following lacks a verified scientific basis for its application in attention deficit hyperactivity disorder?

      Your Answer: Olanzapine

      Explanation:

      According to the Maudsley Guidelines 14th Edition, there is no proof that second generation antipsychotics are effective in treating ADHD symptoms. However, there is some evidence to support the use of all other listed options. Bupropion has shown to be effective and well-tolerated, but there is a lack of evidence compared to standard treatments.

      ADHD (Diagnosis and Management in Children)

      ADHD is a behavioural syndrome characterised by symptoms of inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsivity. The DSM-5 and ICD-11 provide diagnostic criteria for the condition, with both recognising three subtypes: predominantly inattentive, predominantly hyperactive-impulsive, and combined.

      Treatment for children under 5 involves offering an ADHD-focused group parent-training programme as a first-line option. Medication should only be considered after obtaining advice from a specialist ADHD service. For children and young people aged 5-18, advice and support should be given, along with an ADHD-focused group parent-training programme. Medication should only be offered if ADHD symptoms persist after environmental modifications have been implemented and reviewed. Cognitive behavioural therapy may also be considered for those who have benefited from medication but still experience significant impairment.

      NICE advises against elimination diets, dietary fatty acid supplementation, and the use of the ‘few foods diet’. Methylphenidate of lisdexamfetamine is the first-line medication option, with dexamphetamine considered for those who respond to lisdexamfetamine but cannot tolerate the longer effect profile. Atomoxetine of guanfacine may be offered for those who cannot tolerate methylphenidate of lisdexamfetamine. Clonidine and atypical antipsychotics should only be used with advice from a tertiary ADHD service.

      Drug holidays may be considered for children and young people who have not met the expected height for their age due to medication. However, NICE advises that withdrawal from treatment is associated with a risk of symptom exacerbation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
      9.2
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  • Question 74 - What substance is involved in the abnormal ingestion known as amylophagia in cases...

    Incorrect

    • What substance is involved in the abnormal ingestion known as amylophagia in cases of pica?

      Your Answer: Clay

      Correct Answer: Starch

      Explanation:

      Pregnant women often exhibit a type of pica known as amylophagia.

      Pica: Eating Non-Nutritive Substances

      Pica is a condition where a person persistently eats non-nutritive substances for at least a month. The name pica comes from the Latin word for magpie, a bird known for its large and random appetite. To be diagnosed with pica, the behavior must be developmentally inappropriate, not culturally sanctioned, and severe enough to require clinical attention. It is more common in young people than adults and is often associated with mental retardation.

      There are various causes of pica, including mental disorders such as autism and schizophrenia, iron and zinc deficiency (although this is rare and not clear if it is a cause of effect), and pregnancy. The DSM-5 requires a minimum age of 2 before a diagnosis can be made. Pregnant women have been reported to experience certain forms of pica, such as geophagia (clay eating) and amylophagia (starch eating).

      Pica affects both sexes equally and is estimated to occur in up to 15% of those with severe intellectual disability. However, aside from cases of autistic spectrum disorder of intellectual disability, pica usually remits by adolescence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
      9.2
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  • Question 75 - An older female patient complained of a specific disturbance in memory that occurred...

    Incorrect

    • An older female patient complained of a specific disturbance in memory that occurred whilst having sex. This episode lasted 6 hours and she was fully conscious throughout. She made a full recovery following the event. Select the most likely diagnosis.
      Encephalitis
      1%
      Cerebrovascular accident
      7%
      Transient global amnesia
      81%
      Complex partial seizure
      2%
      Dissociative Amnesia
      9%

      Your Answer: Cerebrovascular accident

      Correct Answer: Transient global amnesia

      Explanation:

      Transient Global Amnesia: Definition, Diagnostic Criteria, and Possible Causes

      Transient global amnesia (TGA) is a clinical syndrome characterized by sudden and severe amnesia, often accompanied by repetitive questioning, that lasts for several hours. The term was first coined in 1964 by Fisher and Adams. To diagnose TGA, the following criteria have been established: (1) the attack must be witnessed, (2) there must be clear anterograde amnesia, (3) clouding of consciousness and loss of personal identity must be absent, (4) there should be no accompanying focal neurological symptoms, (5) epileptic features must be absent, (6) attacks must resolve within 24 hours, and (7) patients with recent head injury of known active epilepsy are excluded.

      Epidemiological studies have shown that thromboembolic cerebrovascular disease does not play a role in the causation of TGA. However, the incidence of migraine in patients with TGA is higher than in the general population. A small minority of cases with unusually brief and recurrent attacks eventually manifest temporal lobe epilepsy. EEG recording is typically normal after an attack, even when performed during the attack.

      Possible causes of TGA include venous congestion with Valsalva-like activities before symptom onset, arterial thromboembolic ischemia, and vasoconstriction due to hyperventilation. Precipitants of TGA often include exertion, cold, pain, emotional stress, and sexual intercourse.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
      1.7
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  • Question 76 - What test is the most supportive in diagnosing PANDAS? ...

    Incorrect

    • What test is the most supportive in diagnosing PANDAS?

      Your Answer: ESR

      Correct Answer: Anti DNAse-B

      Explanation:

      PANDAS: A Disorder Linked to Streptococcal Infections

      PANDAS, of Pediatric Autoimmune Neuropsychiatric Disorders Associated with Streptococcal Infections, is a condition that affects children who develop sudden onset of obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) and/of tic disorders like Tourette’s Syndrome after contracting strep infections such as Strep throat of Scarlet Fever. The National Institute of Mental Health (NIMH) has identified five criteria for diagnosing PANDAS, including the presence of OCD and/of tic disorder, pediatric onset of symptoms, episodic course of symptom severity, association with group A Beta-hemolytic streptococcal infection, and association with neurological abnormalities. The anti streptococcal DNAse B (Anti DNAse-B) titre is commonly used to determine if there is immunologic evidence of a previous strep infection. PANDAS is linked to basal ganglia dysfunction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
      3
      Seconds
  • Question 77 - Which drug is most likely to cause withdrawal symptoms between doses? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which drug is most likely to cause withdrawal symptoms between doses?

      Your Answer: Nitrazepam

      Correct Answer: Oxazepam

      Explanation:

      Interdose withdrawal can occur with short-acting drugs, causing withdrawal symptoms to manifest as the effects of the previous dose start to diminish.

      Benzodiazepines are a class of drugs commonly used to treat anxiety and sleep disorders. It is important to have a working knowledge of the more common benzodiazepines and their half-life. Half-life refers to the amount of time it takes for half of the drug to be eliminated from the body.

      Some of the more common benzodiazepines and their half-life include diazepam with a half-life of 20-100 hours, clonazepam with a half-life of 18-50 hours, chlordiazepoxide with a half-life of 5-30 hours, nitrazepam with a half-life of 15-38 hours, temazepam with a half-life of 8-22 hours, lorazepam with a half-life of 10-20 hours, alprazolam with a half-life of 10-15 hours, oxazepam with a half-life of 6-10 hours, zopiclone with a half-life of 5-6 hours, zolpidem with a half-life of 2 hours, and zaleplon with a half-life of 2 hours. Understanding the half-life of these drugs is important for determining dosages and timing of administration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      3
      Seconds
  • Question 78 - On which principle does the Id operate? ...

    Correct

    • On which principle does the Id operate?

      Your Answer: Pleasure

      Explanation:

      Freud’s Structural Theory: Understanding the Three Areas of the Mind

      According to Freud’s structural model, the human mind is divided into three distinct areas: the Id, the Ego, and the Superego. The Id is the part of the mind that contains instinctive drives and operates on the ‘pleasure principle’. It functions without a sense of time and is governed by ‘primary process thinking’. The Ego, on the other hand, attempts to modify the drives from the Id with external reality. It operates on the ‘reality principle’ and has conscious, preconscious, and unconscious aspects. It is also home to the defense mechanisms. Finally, the Superego acts as a critical agency, constantly observing a person’s behavior. Freud believed that it developed from the internalized values of a child’s main caregivers. The Superego contains the ‘ego ideal’, which represents ideal attitudes and behavior. It is often referred to as the conscience. Understanding these three areas of the mind is crucial to understanding Freud’s structural theory.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychotherapy
      4.9
      Seconds
  • Question 79 - What instrument was utilized during the National Comorbidity survey? ...

    Correct

    • What instrument was utilized during the National Comorbidity survey?

      Your Answer: Composite International Diagnostic Interview (CIDI)

      Explanation:

      Epidemiological surveys and prevalence estimates have been conducted to determine the prevalence of various mental health conditions. The Epidemiological Catchment Area (ECA) study was conducted in the mid-1980s using the Diagnostic Interview Schedule (DIS) based on DSM-III criteria. The National Comorbidity Survey (NCS) used the Composite International Diagnostic Interview (CIDI) and was conducted in the 1990s and repeated in 2001. The Adult Psychiatric Morbidity Survey (APMS) used the Clinical Interview Schedule (CIS-R) and was conducted in England every 7 years since 1993. The WHO World Mental Health (WMH) Survey Initiative used the World Mental Health Composite International Diagnostic Interview (WMH-CIDI) and was conducted in close to 30 countries from 2001 onwards.

      The main findings of these studies show that major depression has a prevalence of 4-10% worldwide, with 6.7% in the past 12 months and 16.6% lifetime prevalence. Generalised anxiety disorder (GAD) has a 3.1% 12-month prevalence and 5.7% lifetime prevalence. Panic disorder has a 2.7% 12-month prevalence and 4.7% lifetime prevalence. Specific phobia has an 8.7% 12-month prevalence and 12.5% lifetime prevalence. Social anxiety disorder has a 6.8% 12-month prevalence and 12.1% lifetime prevalence. Agoraphobia without panic disorder has a 0.8% 12-month prevalence and 1.4% lifetime prevalence. Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) has a 1.0% 12-month prevalence and 1.6% lifetime prevalence. Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) has a 1.3-3.6% 12-month prevalence and 6.8% lifetime prevalence. Schizophrenia has a 0.33% 12-month prevalence and 0.48% lifetime prevalence. Bipolar I disorder has a 1.5% 12-month prevalence and 2.1% lifetime prevalence. Bulimia nervosa has a 0.63% lifetime prevalence, anorexia nervosa has a 0.16% lifetime prevalence, and binge eating disorder has a 1.53% lifetime prevalence.

      These prevalence estimates provide important information for policymakers, healthcare providers, and researchers to better understand the burden of mental health conditions and to develop effective prevention and treatment strategies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      37.9
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  • Question 80 - A 45-year-old woman with a 20-year history of bipolar disorder and receiving treatment...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman with a 20-year history of bipolar disorder and receiving treatment from a mental health team, is experiencing difficulties with attention, memory and executive function. Which of the following statements about her cognitive deficits is not true?

      Your Answer: Cognitive deficits are readily treated by antipsychotic medication

      Explanation:

      More than 50% of individuals with schizophrenia exhibit cognitive impairments, specifically in attention, learning, memory, and executive function. These deficits have a significant impact on prognosis, as they are difficult to address with medication and are associated with poorer outcomes in terms of employment and independent living.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      9.4
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  • Question 81 - Which option is not a type of cognitive distortion? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which option is not a type of cognitive distortion?

      Your Answer: Personalisation

      Correct Answer: Isolation

      Explanation:

      The term isolation belongs to the psychodynamic field.

      Cognitive Therapy and Negative Automatic Thoughts

      Cognitive therapy is a present-focused approach that aims to help clients overcome difficulties by identifying and changing dysfunctional thinking. This therapy is based on collaboration between the client and therapist and on testing beliefs through collaborative empiricism. One of the techniques used in cognitive therapy is Socratic questioning, which helps elicit false beliefs called negative automatic thoughts.

      Negative automatic thoughts, also known as cognitive distortions, can be categorized into different types. Dichotomous thinking is the tendency to see things as black and white rather than shades of grey. Personalization is the incorrect assumption that things happen due to us, while overgeneralization involves coming to a general conclusion based on a single piece of evidence. Arbitrary inference is drawing an unjustified conclusion, while selective abstraction involves concentrating on the negative while ignoring the positives. Catastrophizing is expecting disaster from relatively trivial events, while filtering involves selecting out only negative aspects of a situation and leaving out the positive.

      Control fallacies involve believing that we are responsible for everything (internal control fallacy) of nothing (external control fallacy). The fallacy of fairness is believing that life is fair, while blaming involves holding others responsible for our distress. Shoulds are preconceived rules we believe (often incorrect) which makes us angry when others don’t obey them. Magnification is a tendency to exaggerate the importance of negative information of experiences, while trivializing of reducing the significance of positive information of experiences. Minimization involves an undervaluation of positive attributes, while emotional reasoning is believing what we feel must be true.

      The fallacy of change involves expecting others to change just because it suits us, while global labeling involves exaggerating and labeling behavior (e.g. when you fail at something, saying ‘I’m a loser’). Always being right is when the need to be right dominates all other needs, while the heaven’s reward fallacy involves expecting our sacrifices will pay off. Finally, magical thinking is incorrectly believing that our actions influence the outcomes.

      Overall, cognitive therapy helps individuals identify and challenge negative automatic thoughts to improve their mental health and well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychotherapy
      12.9
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  • Question 82 - What is a fact about self-harm among youth? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a fact about self-harm among youth?

      Your Answer: Self-harming behaviours are most likely to occur between the ages of 9 and 13 years

      Correct Answer: It is more common in girls than boys

      Explanation:

      Self-harm is a common issue among young people, particularly girls, with rates appearing to have risen over the past decade. It is most likely to occur between the ages of 12 and 15 years and is associated with a range of psychiatric problems. Short-term management involves a psychosocial assessment and consideration of activated charcoal for drug overdose. Longer-term management may involve psychological interventions, but drug treatment should not be offered as a specific intervention to reduce self-harm. Risk assessment tools should not be used to predict future suicide of repetition of self-harm, but certain factors such as male gender, substance misuse, and parental mental disorder may be associated with a higher risk of completed suicide. It is important to seek professional help if you of someone you know is engaging in self-harm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 83 - Which statement accurately reflects the results of the AESOP study? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement accurately reflects the results of the AESOP study?

      Your Answer: Asian patients were most likely to come to the attention of mental health services via the police

      Correct Answer: African-Caribbean and Black African patients were most likely to undergo compulsory admission to hospital

      Explanation:

      The AESOP study is a first-presentation study of schizophrenia and other psychotic disorders that identified all people presenting to services with psychotic symptoms in well-defined catchment areas in South London, Nottingham and Bristol. The study aimed to elucidate the overall rates of psychotic disorder in the 3 centres, confirm and extend previous findings of raised rates of psychosis in certain migrant groups in the UK, and explore in detail the biological and social risk factors in these populations and their possible interactions. The study found that the incidence of all psychoses was higher in African-Caribbean and Black African populations, particularly in schizophrenia and manic psychosis. These groups were also more likely to be compulsorily admitted to hospital and come to the attention of mental health services via police of other criminal justice agencies, and less likely to come via the GP.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      17
      Seconds
  • Question 84 - In psychodynamic theory, what are the two defences that are thought to be...

    Incorrect

    • In psychodynamic theory, what are the two defences that are thought to be the basis of phobias?

      Your Answer: Projection and splitting

      Correct Answer: Repression and displacement

      Explanation:

      Defense Mechanisms in Specific Conditions

      Certain psychiatric conditions are characterized by specific defense mechanisms. These mechanisms are used by individuals to protect themselves from anxiety and other negative emotions. The following conditions and the associated defenses tend to come up on membership exams.

      Phobias are characterized by intense and irrational fears of specific objects of situations. The defense mechanisms commonly used in phobias are repression and displacement. Repression involves pushing the anxiety-provoking thoughts of memories out of conscious awareness. Displacement involves redirecting the anxiety onto a less threatening object of situation.

      Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is characterized by intrusive and repetitive thoughts (obsessions) and/of repetitive behaviors (compulsions). The defense mechanisms commonly used in OCD are isolation, undoing, and reaction formation. Isolation involves separating the anxiety-provoking thought from the associated emotion. Undoing involves performing a ritual of action to undo the anxiety-provoking thought. Reaction formation involves expressing the opposite emotion of the anxiety-provoking thought.

      Borderline personality disorder (BPD) is characterized by unstable moods, relationships, and self-image. The defense mechanisms commonly used in BPD are projection and splitting. Projection involves attributing one’s own unacceptable thoughts of feelings onto another person. Splitting involves seeing people of situations as either all good of all bad.

      Narcissistic personality disorder (NPD) is characterized by a grandiose sense of self-importance, a need for admiration, and a lack of empathy. The defense mechanisms commonly used in NPD are projection and splitting, similar to BPD.

      Agoraphobia is characterized by a fear of being in situations where escape may be difficult of embarrassing. The defense mechanism commonly used in agoraphobia is displacement, which involves redirecting the anxiety onto a less threatening object of situation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychotherapy
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 85 - Which condition has the most extensive evidence base for the use of phototherapy?...

    Incorrect

    • Which condition has the most extensive evidence base for the use of phototherapy?

      Your Answer: Anxiety

      Correct Answer: Depression

      Explanation:

      Phototherapy, also known as light therapy, has been extensively studied for its use in treating seasonal affective disorder (SAD) of winter depression. The treatment involves sitting next to a bright light for 1-2 hours. A 2005 meta-analysis of randomized, controlled trials found that bright light treatment is effective, with results equivalent to most antidepressant pharmacotherapy trials. However, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) advises that the evidence for the efficacy of light therapy is uncertain for those with winter depression. Light therapy has also been found to be effective in treating non-seasonal depression and ADHD. The type and strength of light that works best and the timing of the therapy remain unclear. It is important for the light to enter the eye, so it cannot be delivered while a person is asleep. (Golden, 2005).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Organisation And Delivery Of Psychiatric Services
      5.7
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  • Question 86 - During which decade was electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) first developed? ...

    Incorrect

    • During which decade was electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) first developed?

      Your Answer: 1950s

      Correct Answer: 1930s

      Explanation:

      History of ECT

      ECT, of electroconvulsive therapy, was first developed in Italy in 1938. Prior to this, convulsive therapy had been used in various forms throughout the 1930s. However, it was not until Ugo Cerletti’s invention of ECT that a more controlled and effective method of inducing convulsions was developed. Cerletti’s first successful use of ECT involved producing a convulsion in a man in 1938. Since then, ECT has been used as a treatment for various mental health conditions, although its use has been controversial and subject to debate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Organisation And Delivery Of Psychiatric Services
      9.9
      Seconds
  • Question 87 - An 87 year old Afro-Caribbean man who has been taking clozapine for the...

    Incorrect

    • An 87 year old Afro-Caribbean man who has been taking clozapine for the past 6 months develops agranulocytosis following an increase in the dose. He is heavy smoker and wonders if this has caused the problem. Regarding his case, which of the following is most likely to have contributed?

      Your Answer: His ethnicity

      Correct Answer: His age

      Explanation:

      Age is the primary factor contributing to agranulocytosis, and recent dose increase and smoking status are not significant factors. The risk factors for agranulocytosis and neutropenia differ, suggesting distinct underlying mechanisms for each disorder. Agranulocytosis is more prevalent in women and Asians, with a higher incidence in older individuals. In contrast, neutropenia is more common in black individuals, but not associated with race of age.

      Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      93.2
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  • Question 88 - Which statement about Brief psychodynamic therapy is false? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement about Brief psychodynamic therapy is false?

      Your Answer: Patients should be able to think in feeling terms

      Correct Answer: Transference is not considered important

      Explanation:

      Brief Psychodynamic Psychotherapy: A Time-Limited Treatment

      Brief psychodynamic psychotherapy is a type of therapy that is based on psychodynamic principles and is designed to be completed within a limited time frame, typically 10-12 sessions. This therapy is particularly effective when there is a specific focus of problem that the patient is dealing with. However, it is important that the patient is highly motivated and able to think in feeling terms for the therapy to be successful.

      There are different subtypes of brief psychodynamic psychotherapy, and some factors are considered contraindications for this type of therapy. These include serious suicide attempts, substance abuse, and marked acting out. Overall, brief psychodynamic psychotherapy can be a useful tool for addressing specific issues and helping patients achieve their therapeutic goals within a limited time frame.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychotherapy
      15.4
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  • Question 89 - A study of 30 patients with hypertension compares the effectiveness of a new...

    Incorrect

    • A study of 30 patients with hypertension compares the effectiveness of a new blood pressure medication with standard treatment. 80% of the new treatment group achieved target blood pressure levels at 6 weeks, compared with only 40% of the standard treatment group. What is the number needed to treat for the new treatment?

      Your Answer: 6

      Correct Answer: 3

      Explanation:

      To calculate the Number Needed to Treat (NNT), we first need to find the Absolute Risk Reduction (ARR), which is calculated by subtracting the Control Event Rate (CER) from the Experimental Event Rate (EER).

      Given that CER is 0.4 and EER is 0.8, we can calculate ARR as follows:

      ARR = CER – EER
      = 0.4 – 0.8
      = -0.4

      Since the ARR is negative, this means that the treatment actually increases the risk of the event occurring. Therefore, we cannot calculate the NNT in this case.

      Measures of Effect in Clinical Studies

      When conducting clinical studies, we often want to know the effect of treatments of exposures on health outcomes. Measures of effect are used in randomized controlled trials (RCTs) and include the odds ratio (of), risk ratio (RR), risk difference (RD), and number needed to treat (NNT). Dichotomous (binary) outcome data are common in clinical trials, where the outcome for each participant is one of two possibilities, such as dead of alive, of clinical improvement of no improvement.

      To understand the difference between of and RR, it’s important to know the difference between risks and odds. Risk is a proportion that describes the probability of a health outcome occurring, while odds is a ratio that compares the probability of an event occurring to the probability of it not occurring. Absolute risk is the basic risk, while risk difference is the difference between the absolute risk of an event in the intervention group and the absolute risk in the control group. Relative risk is the ratio of risk in the intervention group to the risk in the control group.

      The number needed to treat (NNT) is the number of patients who need to be treated for one to benefit. Odds are calculated by dividing the number of times an event happens by the number of times it does not happen. The odds ratio is the odds of an outcome given a particular exposure versus the odds of an outcome in the absence of the exposure. It is commonly used in case-control studies and can also be used in cross-sectional and cohort study designs. An odds ratio of 1 indicates no difference in risk between the two groups, while an odds ratio >1 indicates an increased risk and an odds ratio <1 indicates a reduced risk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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  • Question 90 - What is a distinguishing trait of the initial phase of Alzheimer's disease? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a distinguishing trait of the initial phase of Alzheimer's disease?

      Your Answer: Visual hallucinations

      Correct Answer: Impaired short term memory

      Explanation:

      Dementia: Types and Clinical Characteristics

      Dementia is a progressive impairment of cognitive functions occurring in clear consciousness. There are over 100 different causes of dementia, and a detailed knowledge is required for the more common types. The following are some of the subtypes of dementia, along with their early features, neuropathology, and proportion:

      – Alzheimer’s disease: Impaired memory, apathy, and depression; gradual onset; cortical amyloid plaques and neurofibrillary tangles; 50-75% proportion.
      – Vascular dementia: Similar to AD, but memory less affected, and mood fluctuations more prominent; physical frailty; stepwise onset; cerebrovascular disease; single infarcts in critical regions, of more diffuse multi-infarct disease; 20-30% proportion.
      – Frontotemporal dementia: Personality changes, mood changes, disinhibition, language difficulties; no single pathology – damage limited to frontal and temporal lobes; 5-10% proportion.
      – Dementia with Lewy Bodies: Marked fluctuation in cognitive ability, visual hallucinations, Parkinsonism (tremor and rigidity); cortical Lewy bodies (alpha-synuclein); <5% proportion. Other types of dementia include Pick’s disease, Huntington’s disease, pseudodementia, and progressive supranuclear palsy. Each subtype has its own unique clinical characteristics and neuropathology. It is important to accurately diagnose the type of dementia in order to provide appropriate treatment and care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
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  • Question 91 - What is the term used to describe a test that initially appears to...

    Incorrect

    • What is the term used to describe a test that initially appears to measure what it is intended to measure?

      Your Answer: Good internal validity

      Correct Answer: Good face validity

      Explanation:

      A test that seems to measure what it is intended to measure has strong face validity.

      Validity in statistics refers to how accurately something measures what it claims to measure. There are two main types of validity: internal and external. Internal validity refers to the confidence we have in the cause and effect relationship in a study, while external validity refers to the degree to which the conclusions of a study can be applied to other people, places, and times. There are various threats to both internal and external validity, such as sampling, measurement instrument obtrusiveness, and reactive effects of setting. Additionally, there are several subtypes of validity, including face validity, content validity, criterion validity, and construct validity. Each subtype has its own specific focus and methods for testing validity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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  • Question 92 - Which risk factor is the strongest predictor of future sexual reoffending? ...

    Correct

    • Which risk factor is the strongest predictor of future sexual reoffending?

      Your Answer: Phallometric confirmation of sexual interest in children

      Explanation:

      Research has shown that phallometric assessment, which confirms sexual interest in children, is the most accurate predictor of sexual re-offending. According to a meta-analysis by Hanson and Bussière, offenders who demonstrated a sexual interest in children had a re-offending rate of 32%. Other factors associated with re-offending included a diagnosis of antisocial personality disorder (14%), a history of previous offenses (13%), failure to complete treatment (17%), and being single (never married) (11%).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Forensic Psychiatry
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  • Question 93 - Who is responsible for outlining the pathways to care? ...

    Incorrect

    • Who is responsible for outlining the pathways to care?

      Your Answer: Delay and Deniker

      Correct Answer: Goldberg and Huxley

      Explanation:

      The study by Brown and Harris explores the societal factors that contribute to the development of depression.

      Model for Identifying Pathways to Psychiatric Care

      Goldberg and Huxley (1992) proposed a model that can be used to examine the identification, assessment, and pathway to psychiatric care for individuals with common mental health disorders. The model consists of five levels of care, with filters between them that are influenced by the behavior of those with the disorders and the healthcare practitioners they encounter. The authors highlight that only a small percentage of individuals with mental disorders receive specialized psychiatric care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Organisation And Delivery Of Psychiatric Services
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  • Question 94 - What is the truth about neonaticide in the UK? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the truth about neonaticide in the UK?

      Your Answer: The infant’s death usually results from violent action

      Correct Answer: Neonaticide mothers tend to be be younger than mothers who kill older infants

      Explanation:

      Mothers who commit neonaticide, which is the killing of a newborn within 24 hours, are typically younger than those who kill their older infants. While both boys and girls are equally at risk of neonaticide, boys are more likely to be victims of infant homicide.

      Infant Homicide

      Homicide is a significant contributor to infant mortality, with infants under 1 year of age being more likely to be victims of homicide than older children of the general population. Neonaticide, the killing of a baby within 24 hours of delivery, is different from the homicide of infants older than a day. Neonaticide is usually committed by the mother, who is often young, single, and living with her parents. The pregnancy is often unintentional and concealed, and the motivation to kill is usually because the child was unwanted. In contrast, the homicide of infants older than a day is more likely to be committed by a parent, with boys at greater risk than girls. Risk factors for the homicide of infants older than a day include younger age, family history of violence, violence in current relationships of the perpetrator, evidence of past abuse of neglect of children, and personality disorder and/of depression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Forensic Psychiatry
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  • Question 95 - What is the approximate percentage of individuals in the UK who have engaged...

    Incorrect

    • What is the approximate percentage of individuals in the UK who have engaged in self-harm at some point in their lives?

      Your Answer: 0.40%

      Correct Answer: 6%

      Explanation:

      Self-Harm and its Management

      Self-harm refers to intentional acts of self-poisoning of self-injury. It is prevalent among younger people, with an estimated 10% of girls and 3% of boys aged 15-16 years having self-harmed in the previous year. Risk factors for non-fatal repetition of self-harm include previous self-harm, personality disorder, hopelessness, history of psychiatric treatment, schizophrenia, alcohol abuse/dependence, and drug abuse/dependence. Suicide following an act of self-harm is more likely in those with previous episodes of self-harm, suicidal intent, poor physical health, and male gender.

      Risk assessment tools are not recommended for predicting future suicide of repetition of self-harm. The recommended interventions for self-harm include 4-10 sessions of CBT specifically structured for people who self-harm and considering DBT for adolescents with significant emotional dysregulation. Drug treatment as a specific intervention to reduce self-harm should not be offered.

      In the management of ingestion, activated charcoal can help if used early, while emetics and cathartics should not be used. Gastric lavage should generally not be used unless recommended by TOXBASE. Paracetamol is involved in 30-40% of acute presentations with poisoning. Intravenous acetylcysteine is the treatment of choice, and pseudo-allergic reactions are relatively common. Naloxone is used as an antidote for opioid overdose, while flumazenil can help reduce the need for admission to intensive care in benzodiazepine overdose.

      For superficial uncomplicated skin lacerations of 5 cm of less in length, tissue adhesive of skin closure strips could be used as a first-line treatment option. All children who self-harm should be admitted for an overnight stay at a pediatric ward.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 96 - What is the most frequently observed symptom of post-traumatic stress disorder among individuals...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most frequently observed symptom of post-traumatic stress disorder among individuals with learning disabilities?

      Your Answer: Hypervigilance

      Correct Answer: Aggression

      Explanation:

      Post Traumatic Stress Disorder in People with Learning Difficulties

      Post traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) can present differently in people with learning difficulties compared to those without. While nightmares, jumpiness, and sleep disturbance are common in the general population, aggression and behavioral disturbance are more common in those with learning disabilities. Other symptoms may include disruptive of defiant behavior, self-harm, agitation, distractibility, and depressed mood.

      The most common cause of PTSD in people with learning difficulties is abuse. Treatment for PTSD in this population is similar to that for those without learning difficulties, including trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy of eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) with selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) of venlafaxine as an alternative of combined. However, the therapy must be tailored to the individual’s ability to understand and communicate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Learning Disability
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  • Question 97 - What is the recommended course of action when a patient with psychotic depression...

    Correct

    • What is the recommended course of action when a patient with psychotic depression cannot tolerate a tricyclic antidepressant?

      Your Answer: SSRI with antipsychotic augmentation

      Explanation:

      Psychotic Depression

      Psychotic depression is a type of depression that is characterized by the presence of delusions and/of hallucinations in addition to depressive symptoms. This condition is often accompanied by severe anhedonia, loss of interest, and psychomotor retardation. People with psychotic depression are tormented by hallucinations and delusions with typical themes of worthlessness, guilt, disease, of impending disaster. This condition affects approximately 14.7-18.5% of depressed patients and is estimated to affect around 0.4% of community adult samples, with a higher prevalence in the elderly community at around 1.4-3.0%. People with psychotic depression are at a higher risk of attempting and completing suicide than those with non-psychotic depression.

      Diagnosis

      Psychotic depression is currently classified as a subtype of depression in both the ICD-11 and the DSM-5. The main difference between the two is that in the ICD-11, the depressive episode must be moderate of severe to qualify for a diagnosis of depressive episode with psychotic symptoms, whereas in the DSM-5, the diagnosis can be applied to any severity of depressive illness.

      Treatment

      The recommended treatment for psychotic depression is tricyclics as first-line treatment, with antipsychotic augmentation. Second-line treatment includes SSRI/SNRI. Augmentation of antidepressant with olanzapine or quetiapine is recommended. The optimum dose and duration of antipsychotic augmentation are unknown. If one treatment is to be stopped during the maintenance phase, then this should be the antipsychotic. ECT should be considered where a rapid response is required of where other treatments have failed. According to NICE (ng222), combination treatment with antidepressant medication and antipsychotic medication (such as olanzapine or quetiapine) should be considered for people with depression with psychotic symptoms. If a person with depression with psychotic symptoms does not wish to take antipsychotic medication in addition to an antidepressant, then treat with an antidepressant alone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 98 - A teenage male patient taking risperidone reports sexual dysfunction and is diagnosed with...

    Correct

    • A teenage male patient taking risperidone reports sexual dysfunction and is diagnosed with elevated prolactin levels. What would be the most appropriate alternative medication?

      Your Answer: Aripiprazole

      Explanation:

      Sexual side effects are rare when using aripiprazole.

      Antipsychotics: Common Side Effects and Relative Adverse Effects

      Antipsychotics are medications used to treat various mental health conditions, including schizophrenia and bipolar disorder. However, they can also cause side effects that can be bothersome of even serious. The most common side effects of antipsychotics are listed in the table below, which includes the adverse effects associated with their receptor activity.

      Antidopaminergic effects: These effects are related to the medication’s ability to block dopamine receptors in the brain. They can cause galactorrhoea, gynecomastia, menstrual disturbance, lowered sperm count, reduced libido, Parkinsonism, dystonia, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia.

      Anticholinergic effects: These effects are related to the medication’s ability to block acetylcholine receptors in the brain. They can cause dry mouth, blurred vision, urinary retention, and constipation.

      Antiadrenergic effects: These effects are related to the medication’s ability to block adrenaline receptors in the body. They can cause postural hypotension and ejaculatory failure.

      Histaminergic effects: These effects are related to the medication’s ability to block histamine receptors in the brain. They can cause drowsiness.

      The Maudsley Guidelines provide a rough guide to the relative adverse effects of different antipsychotics. The table below summarizes their findings, with +++ indicating a high incidence of adverse effects, ++ indicating a moderate incidence, + indicating a low incidence, and – indicating a very low incidence.

      Drug Sedation Weight gain Diabetes EPSE Anticholinergic Postural Hypotension Prolactin elevation
      Amisulpride – + + + – – +++
      Aripiprazole – +/- – +/- – – –
      Asenapine + + +/- +/- – – +/-
      Clozapine +++ +++ +++ – +++ +++ –
      Flupentixol + ++ + ++ ++ + +++
      Fluphenazine + + + +++ ++ + +++
      Haloperidol + + +/- +++ + + +++
      Olanzapine ++ +++ +++ +/- + + +
      Paliperidone + ++ + + + ++ +++
      Pimozide + + – + + + +++
      Quetiapine ++ ++ ++ – + ++ –
      Risperidone + ++ + + + ++ +++
      Zuclopenthixol ++ ++ + ++ ++ + +++

      Overall, it is important to discuss the potential side effects of antipsychotics with a healthcare provider and to monitor for any adverse effects while taking these medications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 99 - What is the term used to describe the decrease in anxiety that occurs...

    Incorrect

    • What is the term used to describe the decrease in anxiety that occurs during flooding therapy?

      Your Answer: Immunisation

      Correct Answer: Habituation

      Explanation:

      Flooding as a Treatment for Phobias

      Flooding is a treatment method for phobias that involves directly confronting the fear and remaining in the situation until the anxiety subsides. This process is called habituation and is different from systematic desensitization. However, flooding can be challenging for patients as it produces high levels of anxiety, which can cause them to leave the situation before the fear response is extinguished. As a result, desensitization is generally preferred over flooding as a treatment method for phobias.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychotherapy
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  • Question 100 - What is the standardized score (z-score) for a woman whose haemoglobin concentration is...

    Incorrect

    • What is the standardized score (z-score) for a woman whose haemoglobin concentration is 150 g/L, given that the mean haemoglobin concentration for healthy women is 135 g/L and the standard deviation is 15 g/L?

      Your Answer: 15

      Correct Answer: 1

      Explanation:

      Z Scores: A Special Application of Transformation Rules

      Z scores are a unique way of measuring how much and in which direction an item deviates from the mean of its distribution, expressed in units of its standard deviation. To calculate the z score for an observation x from a population with mean and standard deviation, we use the formula z = (x – mean) / standard deviation. For example, if our observation is 150 and the mean and standard deviation are 135 and 15, respectively, then the z score would be 1.0. Z scores are a useful tool for comparing observations from different distributions and for identifying outliers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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  • Question 101 - With which of the following is John Bowlby most closely associated? ...

    Incorrect

    • With which of the following is John Bowlby most closely associated?

      Your Answer: Interpersonal Therapy

      Correct Answer: Attachment theory

      Explanation:

      Neo-Freudians were therapists who developed their own theories while still retaining core Freudian components. Some important neo-Freudians include Alfred Adler, Carl Jung, Erik Erickson, Harry Stack Sullivan, Wilfred Bion, John Bowlby, Anna Freud, Otto Kernberg, Margaret Mahler, and Donald Winnicott. Each of these individuals contributed unique ideas to the field of psychology. For example, Carl Jung introduced the concept of the persona and differentiated between the personal and collective unconscious, while Erik Erickson is known for his stages of psychosocial development. Margaret Mahler developed theories on child development, including the three main phases of autistic, symbiotic, and separation-individuation. Donald Winnicott introduced the concept of the transitional object and the good enough mother. Overall, neo-Freudians expanded upon Freud’s ideas and helped to shape modern psychotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychotherapy
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  • Question 102 - What is the most frequently observed symptom in children diagnosed with bodily distress...

    Correct

    • What is the most frequently observed symptom in children diagnosed with bodily distress disorder?

      Your Answer: Abdominal pain

      Explanation:

      According to ICD-11, the bodily symptoms that are most frequently reported by children and adolescents are gastrointestinal symptoms that occur repeatedly (such as abdominal pain and nausea), fatigue, headaches, and musculoskeletal pain. Typically, children tend to experience one recurring symptom rather than multiple bodily symptoms.

      Somatoform and dissociative disorders are two groups of psychiatric disorders that are characterized by physical symptoms and disruptions in the normal integration of identity, sensations, perceptions, affects, thoughts, memories, control over bodily movements, of behavior. Somatoform disorders are characterized by physical symptoms that are presumed to have a psychiatric origin, while dissociative disorders are characterized by the loss of integration between memories, identity, immediate sensations, and control of bodily movements. The ICD-11 lists two main types of somatoform disorders: bodily distress disorder and body integrity dysphoria. Dissociative disorders include dissociative neurological symptom disorder, dissociative amnesia, trance disorder, possession trance disorder, dissociative identity disorder, partial dissociative identity disorder, depersonalization-derealization disorder, and other specified dissociative disorders. The symptoms of these disorders result in significant impairment in personal, family, social, educational, occupational, of other important areas of functioning. Diagnosis of these disorders involves a thorough evaluation of the individual’s symptoms and medical history, as well as ruling out other possible causes of the symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 103 - Whilst on call, you are called to a psychiatric intensive care unit (PICU)...

    Incorrect

    • Whilst on call, you are called to a psychiatric intensive care unit (PICU) as a newly admitted male patient has become agitated and aggressive and requires tranquilising medication. He is refusing oral medication. The patient is known to have schizophrenia and had been non-compliant with medication resulting in his deterioration. On admission, he was commenced on quetiapine. His physical examination on admission was noted to be normal other than for a slightly raised blood pressure and a QTc interval of 480 ms.

      Which of the following would be the most suitable option?:

      Your Answer: IM aripiprazole 9.75 mg + IM lorazepam

      Correct Answer: IM lorazepam 2 mg

      Explanation:

      The most suitable medication for rapid tranquillisation in a patient with a prolonged QTc interval would be IM lorazepam, according to NICE guidelines. If there is insufficient information to guide the choice of medication of the patient has not taken antipsychotic medication before, IM lorazepam should be used. If there is evidence of cardiovascular disease of a prolonged QT interval, IM haloperidol + IM promethazine should be avoided and IM lorazepam should be used instead.

      Violence and aggression can be managed through rapid tranquillisation, although the evidence base for this approach is not strong. Different guidelines provide varying recommendations for rapid tranquillisation, including NICE, Maudsley Guidelines, and the British Association for Psychopharmacology (BAP). NICE recommends using IM lorazepam of IM haloperidol + IM promethazine for rapid tranquillisation in adults, taking into account factors such as previous response and patient preference. BAP provides a range of options for oral, inhaled, IM, and IV medications, including inhaled loxapine, buccal midazolam, and oral antipsychotics. Maudsley Guidelines suggest using oral lorazepam, oral promethazine, of buccal midazolam if prescribed a regular antipsychotic, of oral olanzapine, oral risperidone, of oral haloperidol if not already taking an antipsychotic. IM options include lorazepam, promethazine, olanzapine, aripiprazole, and haloperidol, although drugs should not be mixed in the same syringe. Haloperidol should ideally be used with promethazine to reduce the risk of dystonia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Forensic Psychiatry
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  • Question 104 - What is the duration of time that cannabis can be detected in the...

    Correct

    • What is the duration of time that cannabis can be detected in the urine of individuals who use it frequently, following their last consumption?

      Your Answer: 14 days

      Explanation:

      The duration of cannabis in the system may vary, but it typically lasts for weeks rather than just a few hours of days. However, if cannabis is used only once, it may only be detectable for a period of 6-24 hours.

      Drug Screening

      Drug testing can be conducted through various methods, but urinalysis is the most common. Urine drug tests can be either screening of confirmatory. Screening tests use enzymatic immunoassays to detect drug metabolites of classes of drug metabolites in the urine. However, these tests have limitations, such as false positives due to cross-reactivity. Therefore, any positive test should be confirmed through gas chromatography of mass spectrometry.

      People may try to manipulate drug testing procedures by adulterating the sample. Normal urine parameters, such as temperature, specific gravity, and pH, can assist in detecting adulterated samples. Adulterants include household items like vinegar, detergent, and ammonia, as well as commercially available products. Diluted urine may also yield false negatives.

      Detection times vary from person to person, and the approximate drug detection time in urine can be found in a table provided by Nelson (2016). False positives can occur due to cross-reactivity, as illustrated by Moeller (2017). Clinicians should be aware of the limitations of urine drug tests and the potential for manipulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 105 - What is a true statement about Transient Global Amnesia? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about Transient Global Amnesia?

      Your Answer: Cognition is characteristically impaired during an attack

      Correct Answer: Attacks are often precipitated by a Valsalva manoeuvres

      Explanation:

      Transient global amnesia typically affects individuals aged 40 to 80 and can be triggered by physical activities such as swimming, heavy lifting, of straining to defecate, as well as psychological stressors like arguments. The condition is characterized by sudden onset of severe anterograde amnesia, accompanied by repetitive questioning, but without any focal neurological symptoms. Patients remain alert and attentive, but disoriented to time and place. Episodes usually last between 1 to 8 hours, but no longer than 24 hours. There is no specific treatment for a typical episode. During an episode, patients are unable to form new memories, resulting in profound anterograde amnesia, while retrograde amnesia may also be present, lasting from a few hours to years.

      Transient Global Amnesia: Definition, Diagnostic Criteria, and Possible Causes

      Transient global amnesia (TGA) is a clinical syndrome characterized by sudden and severe amnesia, often accompanied by repetitive questioning, that lasts for several hours. The term was first coined in 1964 by Fisher and Adams. To diagnose TGA, the following criteria have been established: (1) the attack must be witnessed, (2) there must be clear anterograde amnesia, (3) clouding of consciousness and loss of personal identity must be absent, (4) there should be no accompanying focal neurological symptoms, (5) epileptic features must be absent, (6) attacks must resolve within 24 hours, and (7) patients with recent head injury of known active epilepsy are excluded.

      Epidemiological studies have shown that thromboembolic cerebrovascular disease does not play a role in the causation of TGA. However, the incidence of migraine in patients with TGA is higher than in the general population. A small minority of cases with unusually brief and recurrent attacks eventually manifest temporal lobe epilepsy. EEG recording is typically normal after an attack, even when performed during the attack.

      Possible causes of TGA include venous congestion with Valsalva-like activities before symptom onset, arterial thromboembolic ischemia, and vasoconstriction due to hyperventilation. Precipitants of TGA often include exertion, cold, pain, emotional stress, and sexual intercourse.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
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  • Question 106 - A 38-year-old woman who has frequently attended in the past with multiple somatic...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old woman who has frequently attended in the past with multiple somatic complaints is diagnosed with generalised anxiety disorder. She is initially treated with a low intensity psychological interventions which unfortunately fails to improve her symptoms. What is the most appropriate medication to offer her next line?

      Your Answer: Sertraline

      Explanation:

      Anxiety (NICE guidelines)

      The NICE Guidelines on Generalised anxiety disorder and panic disorder were issued in 2011. For the management of generalised anxiety disorder, NICE suggests a stepped approach. For mild GAD, education and active monitoring are recommended. If there is no response to step 1, low-intensity psychological interventions such as CBT-based self-help of psychoeducational groups are suggested. For those with marked functional impairment of those who have not responded to step 2, individual high-intensity psychological intervention of drug treatment is recommended. Specialist treatment is suggested for those with very marked functional impairment, no response to step 3, self-neglect, risks of self-harm or suicide, of significant comorbidity. Benzodiazepines should not be used beyond 2-4 weeks, and SSRIs are first line. For panic disorder, psychological therapy (CBT), medication, and self-help have all been shown to be effective. Benzodiazepines, sedating antihistamines, of antipsychotics should not be used. SSRIs are first line, and if they fail, imipramine of clomipramine can be used. Self-help (CBT based) should be encouraged. If the patient improves with an antidepressant, it should be continued for at least 6 months after the optimal dose is reached, after which the dose can be tapered. If there is no improvement after a 12-week course, an alternative medication of another form of therapy should be offered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 107 - What is the most common reason for individuals being deemed 'unfit to plead'?...

    Correct

    • What is the most common reason for individuals being deemed 'unfit to plead'?

      Your Answer: Schizophrenia

      Explanation:

      The Pritchard Criteria, which assess cognitive ability, are not the sole determining factor for individuals found unfit to plead. In fact, less than one third of those deemed unfit have an intellectual impairment. The majority of individuals found unfit to plead actually have schizophrenia. This information was reported in a systematic review of the constructs and their application in the Journal of Forensic Psychiatry and Psychology by T Rogers in 2008.

      Fitness to Plead: Criteria and Process

      Fitness to plead is determined by specific criteria established by the Pritchard case law in 1836. The criteria include the ability to instruct solicitor and counsel, understand the charges, decide whether to plead guilty of not, follow court proceedings, challenge a juror, and give evidence in one’s defense. Schizophrenia and other enduring mental illnesses are the most common conditions associated with unfitness to plead, particularly when positive psychotic symptomatology is present. Intellectual impairment is not a significant factor in most cases. If the issue is raised by the defense, it must be established on a balance of probability, while if raised by the prosecution of judge, it must be proved beyond reasonable doubt. Amnesia does not render someone unfit to plead. The decision on fitness to plead is made by a judge, not a jury. If someone is found unfit to plead, they are subject to the Criminal Procedures Act 1991, which involves a trial of facts, complete acquittal if the facts are not found, and flexible disposal by the judge if the facts are found, except for murder, which requires mandatory committal to hospital.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Forensic Psychiatry
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  • Question 108 - Can you explain what transference means in the context of psychotherapy? ...

    Incorrect

    • Can you explain what transference means in the context of psychotherapy?

      Your Answer: Tell them it is an inappropriate question because transference can be an obstacle to treatment success and ask them about their childhood

      Correct Answer: The thoughts and feelings of the patient towards the therapist

      Explanation:

      Transference is when a patient unconsciously assigns to their therapist feelings and attitudes that are associated with significant people from their past. These feelings can be positive, negative, of ambivalent. Projection occurs when a patient attributes their unacceptable thoughts and impulses to their therapist. Countertransference refers to the therapist’s emotions towards the patient. When a patient internalizes feelings of anger and self-harms, various processes such as denial, repression, and acting out may be involved. Although Freud initially viewed transference as a hindrance to therapy, it is now recognized that interpreting transference can aid patients in comprehending past relationships.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychotherapy
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  • Question 109 - A 45-year-old female is referred to you by her primary care physician. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old female is referred to you by her primary care physician. She recently experienced a traumatic event and has been crying frequently in response to minor triggers. On your assessment, you do not find any evidence of depression, anxiety, of suicidal ideation, but note that the patient started crying several times during the hour you spent with her. Which antidepressant medication would you consider prescribing in this situation?

      Your Answer: Amitriptyline

      Correct Answer: Citalopram

      Explanation:

      The patient has been diagnosed with post-stroke pathological crying, a condition characterized by episodes of crying triggered by minor stimuli without any accompanying changes in mood. This condition is associated with disrupted serotonergic neurotransmission. Treatment options include the use of antidepressants, with SSRIs being the preferred choice over venlafaxine and tricyclics due to their better tolerability and greater efficacy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
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  • Question 110 - Which of the following biochemical/haematological changes is associated with clozapine? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following biochemical/haematological changes is associated with clozapine?

      Your Answer: Raised ALP

      Explanation:

      Biochemical Changes Associated with Psychotropic Drugs

      Psychotropic drugs can have incidental biochemical of haematological effects that need to be identified and monitored. The evidence for many of these changes is limited to case reports of information supplied by manufacturers. The Maudsley Guidelines 14th Edition summarises the important changes to be aware of.

      One important parameter to monitor is ALT, a liver enzyme. Agents that can raise ALT levels include clozapine, haloperidol, olanzapine, quetiapine, chlorpromazine, mirtazapine, moclobemide, SSRIs, carbamazepine, lamotrigine, and valproate. On the other hand, vigabatrin can lower ALT levels.

      Another liver enzyme to monitor is ALP. Haloperidol, clozapine, olanzapine, duloxetine, sertraline, and carbamazepine can raise ALP levels, while buprenorphine and zolpidem (rarely) can lower them.

      AST levels are often associated with ALT levels. Trifluoperazine and vigabatrin can raise AST levels, while agents that raise ALT levels can also raise AST levels.

      TSH levels, which are associated with thyroid function, can be affected by aripiprazole, carbamazepine, lithium, quetiapine, rivastigmine, sertraline, and valproate (slightly). Moclobemide can lower TSH levels.

      Thyroxine levels can be affected by dexamphetamine, moclobemide, lithium (which can raise of lower levels), aripiprazole (rarely), and quetiapine (rarely).

      Overall, it is important to monitor these biochemical changes when prescribing psychotropic drugs to ensure the safety and well-being of patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      15.2
      Seconds
  • Question 111 - Which of the options below is not included in the DSM-5 criteria for...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the options below is not included in the DSM-5 criteria for diagnosing attention deficit hyperactivity disorder?

      Your Answer: Is often forgetful in daily activities

      Correct Answer: Often loses temper

      Explanation:

      ADHD (Diagnosis and Management in Children)

      ADHD is a behavioural syndrome characterised by symptoms of inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsivity. The DSM-5 and ICD-11 provide diagnostic criteria for the condition, with both recognising three subtypes: predominantly inattentive, predominantly hyperactive-impulsive, and combined.

      Treatment for children under 5 involves offering an ADHD-focused group parent-training programme as a first-line option. Medication should only be considered after obtaining advice from a specialist ADHD service. For children and young people aged 5-18, advice and support should be given, along with an ADHD-focused group parent-training programme. Medication should only be offered if ADHD symptoms persist after environmental modifications have been implemented and reviewed. Cognitive behavioural therapy may also be considered for those who have benefited from medication but still experience significant impairment.

      NICE advises against elimination diets, dietary fatty acid supplementation, and the use of the ‘few foods diet’. Methylphenidate of lisdexamfetamine is the first-line medication option, with dexamphetamine considered for those who respond to lisdexamfetamine but cannot tolerate the longer effect profile. Atomoxetine of guanfacine may be offered for those who cannot tolerate methylphenidate of lisdexamfetamine. Clonidine and atypical antipsychotics should only be used with advice from a tertiary ADHD service.

      Drug holidays may be considered for children and young people who have not met the expected height for their age due to medication. However, NICE advises that withdrawal from treatment is associated with a risk of symptom exacerbation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 112 - A teenager on a psychiatric ward, with a history of bulimia, is suspected...

    Incorrect

    • A teenager on a psychiatric ward, with a history of bulimia, is suspected to have been vomiting in her room. A set of bloods are taken soon after. Which of the following would indicate that the team's suspicion is valid?:

      Your Answer: Raised alanine aminotransferase

      Correct Answer: Raised serum amylase

      Explanation:

      The salivary gland is likely the source of the elevated amylase levels observed in bulimic patients as a result of vomiting.

      Bulimia, a disorder characterized by inducing vomiting, is a serious health concern. One method used to induce vomiting is through the use of syrup of ipecac, which contains emetine, a toxic alkaloid that irritates the stomach and causes vomiting. While it may produce vomiting within 15-30 minutes, it is not always effective. Unfortunately, nearly 8% of women with eating disorders experiment with ipecac, and 1-2% use it frequently. This is concerning because ipecac is associated with serious cardiac toxicity, including cardiomyopathy and left ventricular dysfunction. Elevated serum amylase levels are a strong indication that a patient has recently been vomiting. It is important to seek professional help for bulimia and avoid using dangerous methods like ipecac to induce vomiting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      20.2
      Seconds
  • Question 113 - A patient with chronic depression presents with unusual somatic symptoms after trying a...

    Incorrect

    • A patient with chronic depression presents with unusual somatic symptoms after trying a medication called hypericum perforatum that she purchased in Germany. Which of the following symptoms could be attributed to the new medication?

      Your Answer: Hiccups

      Correct Answer: Headache

      Explanation:

      St John’s Wort may cause several side effects, including dry mouth, nausea, rash, diarrhea, fatigue, dizziness, headache, and restlessness.

      Herbal Remedies for Depression and Anxiety

      Depression can be treated with Hypericum perforatum (St John’s Wort), which has been found to be more effective than placebo and as effective as standard antidepressants. However, its use is not advised due to uncertainty about appropriate doses, variation in preparations, and potential interactions with other drugs. St John’s Wort can cause serotonin syndrome and decrease levels of drugs such as warfarin and ciclosporin. The effectiveness of the combined oral contraceptive pill may also be reduced.

      Anxiety can be reduced with Piper methysticum (kava), but it cannot be recommended for clinical use due to its association with hepatotoxicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 114 - In the Epidemiological catchment area study, which anxiety disorder was discovered to have...

    Incorrect

    • In the Epidemiological catchment area study, which anxiety disorder was discovered to have the highest occurrence rate?

      Your Answer: Obsessive compulsive disorder

      Correct Answer: Phobia

      Explanation:

      In the ECA, phobias were the prevalent form of anxiety disorder.

      Epidemiological Catchment Area Study: A Landmark Community-Based Survey

      The Epidemiological Catchment Area Study (ECA) was a significant survey conducted in five US communities from 1980-1985. The study included 20,000 participants, with 3000 community residents and 500 residents of institutions sampled in each site. The Diagnostic Interview Schedule (DIS) was used to conduct two interviews over a year with each participant.

      However, the DIS diagnosis of schizophrenia was not consistent with psychiatrists’ classification, with only 20% of cases identified by the DIS in the Baltimore ECA site matching the psychiatrist’s diagnosis. Despite this, the ECA produced valuable findings, including a lifetime prevalence rate of 32.3% for any disorder, 16.4% for substance misuse disorder, 14.6% for anxiety disorder, 8.3% for affective disorder, 1.5% for schizophrenia and schizophreniform disorder, and 0.1% for somatization disorder.

      The ECA also found that phobia had a one-month prevalence of 12.5%, generalized anxiety and depression had a prevalence of 8.5%, obsessive-compulsive disorder had a prevalence of 2.5%, and panic had a prevalence of 1.6%. Overall, the ECA was a landmark community-based survey that provided valuable insights into the prevalence of mental disorders in the US.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      32.6
      Seconds
  • Question 115 - Which of the following statements accurately describes significance tests? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements accurately describes significance tests?

      Your Answer: The type I error level is not affected by sample size

      Explanation:

      The α value, also known as the type I error, is the predetermined probability that is considered acceptable for making an error. If the P value is lower than the predetermined α value, then the null hypothesis (Ho) is rejected, and it is concluded that the observed difference, association, of correlation is statistically significant.

      Understanding Hypothesis Testing in Statistics

      In statistics, it is not feasible to investigate hypotheses on entire populations. Therefore, researchers take samples and use them to make estimates about the population they are drawn from. However, this leads to uncertainty as there is no guarantee that the sample taken will be truly representative of the population, resulting in potential errors. Statistical hypothesis testing is the process used to determine if claims from samples to populations can be made and with what certainty.

      The null hypothesis (Ho) is the claim that there is no real difference between two groups, while the alternative hypothesis (H1 of Ha) suggests that any difference is due to some non-random chance. The alternative hypothesis can be one-tailed of two-tailed, depending on whether it seeks to establish a difference of a change in one direction.

      Two types of errors may occur when testing the null hypothesis: Type I and Type II errors. Type I error occurs when the null hypothesis is rejected when it is true, while Type II error occurs when the null hypothesis is accepted when it is false. The power of a study is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false, and it can be increased by increasing the sample size.

      P-values provide information on statistical significance and help researchers decide if study results have occurred due to chance. The p-value is the probability of obtaining a result that is as large of larger when in reality there is no difference between two groups. The cutoff for the p-value is called the significance level (alpha level), typically set at 0.05. If the p-value is less than the cutoff, the null hypothesis is rejected, and if it is greater or equal to the cut off, the null hypothesis is not rejected. However, the p-value does not indicate clinical significance, which may be too small to be meaningful.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 116 - What is the recommended initial medication treatment for an adult patient with obsessive...

    Incorrect

    • What is the recommended initial medication treatment for an adult patient with obsessive compulsive disorder who prefers pharmacological therapy over psychological therapy?

      Your Answer: Venlafaxine

      Correct Answer: Fluoxetine

      Explanation:

      Both the NICE Guidelines and the Maudsley Guidelines suggest using SSRIs as the primary treatment for OCD, with the Maudsley also mentioning clomipramine as an option. However, the Maudsley advises trying SSRIs first due to potential tolerability concerns with clomipramine. It is recommended to follow both sets of guidelines consistently whenever feasible.

      Maudsley Guidelines

      First choice: SSRI of clomipramine (SSRI preferred due to tolerability issues with clomipramine)

      Second line:

      – SSRI + antipsychotic
      – Citalopram + clomipramine
      – Acetylcysteine + (SSRI of clomipramine)
      – Lamotrigine + SSRI
      – Topiramate + SSRI

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      14.7
      Seconds
  • Question 117 - Out of the 5 trials included in a meta-analysis comparing the effects of...

    Incorrect

    • Out of the 5 trials included in a meta-analysis comparing the effects of depot olanzapine and depot risperidone on psychotic symptoms (measured by PANSS), which trial showed a statistically significant difference between the two treatments at a significance level of 5%?

      Your Answer: Trial 3 shows a reduction of 15 on the PANSS (p=0.08)

      Correct Answer: Trial 2 shows a reduction of 2 on the PANSS (p=0.001)

      Explanation:

      The results of Trial 4 indicate a decrease of 10 points on the PANSS scale, with a p-value of 0.9.

      Understanding Hypothesis Testing in Statistics

      In statistics, it is not feasible to investigate hypotheses on entire populations. Therefore, researchers take samples and use them to make estimates about the population they are drawn from. However, this leads to uncertainty as there is no guarantee that the sample taken will be truly representative of the population, resulting in potential errors. Statistical hypothesis testing is the process used to determine if claims from samples to populations can be made and with what certainty.

      The null hypothesis (Ho) is the claim that there is no real difference between two groups, while the alternative hypothesis (H1 of Ha) suggests that any difference is due to some non-random chance. The alternative hypothesis can be one-tailed of two-tailed, depending on whether it seeks to establish a difference of a change in one direction.

      Two types of errors may occur when testing the null hypothesis: Type I and Type II errors. Type I error occurs when the null hypothesis is rejected when it is true, while Type II error occurs when the null hypothesis is accepted when it is false. The power of a study is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false, and it can be increased by increasing the sample size.

      P-values provide information on statistical significance and help researchers decide if study results have occurred due to chance. The p-value is the probability of obtaining a result that is as large of larger when in reality there is no difference between two groups. The cutoff for the p-value is called the significance level (alpha level), typically set at 0.05. If the p-value is less than the cutoff, the null hypothesis is rejected, and if it is greater or equal to the cut off, the null hypothesis is not rejected. However, the p-value does not indicate clinical significance, which may be too small to be meaningful.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      15.5
      Seconds
  • Question 118 - Which of the following is an example of secondary evidence? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is an example of secondary evidence?

      Your Answer: A Cochrane review on the evidence of exercise for reducing the duration of depression relapses

      Explanation:

      Scientific literature can be classified into two main types: primary and secondary sources. Primary sources are original research studies that present data and analysis without any external evaluation of interpretation. Examples of primary sources include randomized controlled trials, cohort studies, case-control studies, case-series, and conference papers. Secondary sources, on the other hand, provide an interpretation and analysis of primary sources. These sources are typically removed by one of more steps from the original event. Examples of secondary sources include evidence-based guidelines and textbooks, meta-analyses, and systematic reviews.

      Evidence-based medicine involves four basic steps: developing a focused clinical question, searching for the best evidence, critically appraising the evidence, and applying the evidence and evaluating the outcome. When developing a question, it is important to understand the difference between background and foreground questions. Background questions are general questions about conditions, illnesses, syndromes, and pathophysiology, while foreground questions are more often about issues of care. The PICO system is often used to define the components of a foreground question: patient group of interest, intervention of interest, comparison, and primary outcome.

      When searching for evidence, it is important to have a basic understanding of the types of evidence and sources of information. Scientific literature is divided into two basic categories: primary (empirical research) and secondary (interpretation and analysis of primary sources). Unfiltered sources are large databases of articles that have not been pre-screened for quality, while filtered resources summarize and appraise evidence from several studies.

      There are several databases and search engines that can be used to search for evidence, including Medline and PubMed, Embase, the Cochrane Library, PsycINFO, CINAHL, and OpenGrey. Boolean logic can be used to combine search terms in PubMed, and phrase searching and truncation can also be used. Medical Subject Headings (MeSH) are used by indexers to describe articles for MEDLINE records, and the MeSH Database is like a thesaurus that enables exploration of this vocabulary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 119 - What is the first line treatment recommended by NICE for school age children...

    Incorrect

    • What is the first line treatment recommended by NICE for school age children and young people with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder with moderate impairment?

      Your Answer: Atomoxetine

      Correct Answer: Parental training programmes

      Explanation:

      ADHD (Diagnosis and Management in Children)

      ADHD is a behavioural syndrome characterised by symptoms of inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsivity. The DSM-5 and ICD-11 provide diagnostic criteria for the condition, with both recognising three subtypes: predominantly inattentive, predominantly hyperactive-impulsive, and combined.

      Treatment for children under 5 involves offering an ADHD-focused group parent-training programme as a first-line option. Medication should only be considered after obtaining advice from a specialist ADHD service. For children and young people aged 5-18, advice and support should be given, along with an ADHD-focused group parent-training programme. Medication should only be offered if ADHD symptoms persist after environmental modifications have been implemented and reviewed. Cognitive behavioural therapy may also be considered for those who have benefited from medication but still experience significant impairment.

      NICE advises against elimination diets, dietary fatty acid supplementation, and the use of the ‘few foods diet’. Methylphenidate of lisdexamfetamine is the first-line medication option, with dexamphetamine considered for those who respond to lisdexamfetamine but cannot tolerate the longer effect profile. Atomoxetine of guanfacine may be offered for those who cannot tolerate methylphenidate of lisdexamfetamine. Clonidine and atypical antipsychotics should only be used with advice from a tertiary ADHD service.

      Drug holidays may be considered for children and young people who have not met the expected height for their age due to medication. However, NICE advises that withdrawal from treatment is associated with a risk of symptom exacerbation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 120 - What is a true statement about Cognitive Analytic Therapy? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about Cognitive Analytic Therapy?

      Your Answer: It was developed by Aaron Beck

      Correct Answer: It was developed to be suitable for research

      Explanation:

      Understanding Cognitive Analytic Therapy

      Cognitive Analytic Therapy (CAT) is a form of therapy that combines psychodynamic and cognitive approaches. It is a brief therapy that typically lasts between 16-24 sessions. Developed by Anthony Ryle, CAT aims to identify the useful parts of psychotherapy and make it more efficient. It also aims to create a therapy that can be easily researched.

      CAT focuses on identifying key issues early on and conceptualizing them as repeated unsuccessful strategies. These strategies are categorized into traps, dilemmas, and snags. Traps are flawed thinking patterns that result in a vicious cycle of negative assumptions and actions. Dilemmas occur when a person believes their choices are restricted to opposite actions, neither of which is satisfactory. Snags are thinking patterns that restrict actions due to a perception of potential harm of failure.

      CAT follows a procedural sequence model, where the problem is appraised, options are discussed, a plan is created and put into place, and consequences are evaluated. The therapist often summarizes the problem and plan in a letter to the client.

      CAT also identifies reciprocal role procedures (RRPs), which are patterns observed in the way we related to others. These patterns are visually presented using a sequential diagrammatic reformulation. For example, a client who rebelled against a stern, dominating father may be dismissive of therapy because they see the therapist as a demanding authority figure.

      Overall, CAT is a useful therapy that combines psychodynamic and cognitive approaches to identify and address maladaptive patterns. Its procedural sequence model and use of RRPs make it an efficient and effective therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychotherapy
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 121 - One of the statements about postpartum mental health problems is incorrect. ...

    Incorrect

    • One of the statements about postpartum mental health problems is incorrect.

      Your Answer: Puerperal psychosis has a recurrence rate of around 60%

      Correct Answer: Post-natal depression is seen in around 2-3% of women

      Explanation:

      Perinatal Depression, Baby Blues, and Postpartum Depression

      Perinatal depression, also known as postpartum depression, is a common mood disorder experienced by new mothers after childbirth. The term baby blues is used to describe the emotional lability that some mothers experience during the first week after childbirth, which usually resolves by day 10 without treatment. The prevalence of baby blues is around 40%. Postpartum depression, on the other hand, refers to depression that occurs after childbirth. While neither DSM-5 nor ICD-11 specifically mention postpartum depression, both diagnostic systems offer categories that encompass depression during pregnancy of in the weeks following delivery. The prevalence of postpartum depression is approximately 10-15%.

      Various factors have been shown to increase the risk of postnatal depression, including youth, marital and family conflict, lack of social support, anxiety and depression during pregnancy, substance misuse, previous pregnancy loss, ambivalence about the current pregnancy, and frequent antenatal admissions to a maternity hospital. However, obstetric factors such as length of labor, assisted delivery, of separation of the mother from the baby in the Special Care Baby Unit do not seem to influence the development of postnatal depression. Additionally, social class does not appear to be associated with postnatal depression.

      Puerperal psychosis, along with severe depression, is thought to be mainly caused by biological factors, while psychosocial factors are most important in the milder postnatal depressive illnesses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      10.9
      Seconds
  • Question 122 - What benefit does conducting a cost-effectiveness analysis offer? ...

    Incorrect

    • What benefit does conducting a cost-effectiveness analysis offer?

      Your Answer: They allow for comparisons with other interventions whose effects are expressed in different metrics

      Correct Answer: Outcomes are expressed in natural units that are clinically meaningful

      Explanation:

      A major benefit of using cost-effectiveness analysis is that the results are immediately understandable, such as the cost per year of remission from depression. When conducting economic evaluations, costs are typically estimated in a standardized manner across different types of studies, taking into account direct costs (e.g. physician time), indirect costs (e.g. lost productivity from being absent from work), and future costs (e.g. developing diabetes as a result of treatment with clozapine). The primary variation between economic evaluations lies in how outcomes are evaluated.

      Methods of Economic Evaluation

      There are four main methods of economic evaluation: cost-effectiveness analysis (CEA), cost-benefit analysis (CBA), cost-utility analysis (CUA), and cost-minimisation analysis (CMA). While all four methods capture costs, they differ in how they assess health effects.

      Cost-effectiveness analysis (CEA) compares interventions by relating costs to a single clinical measure of effectiveness, such as symptom reduction of improvement in activities of daily living. The cost-effectiveness ratio is calculated as total cost divided by units of effectiveness. CEA is typically used when CBA cannot be performed due to the inability to monetise benefits.

      Cost-benefit analysis (CBA) measures all costs and benefits of an intervention in monetary terms to establish which alternative has the greatest net benefit. CBA requires that all consequences of an intervention, such as life-years saved, treatment side-effects, symptom relief, disability, pain, and discomfort, are allocated a monetary value. CBA is rarely used in mental health service evaluation due to the difficulty in converting benefits from mental health programmes into monetary values.

      Cost-utility analysis (CUA) is a special form of CEA in which health benefits/outcomes are measured in broader, more generic ways, enabling comparisons between treatments for different diseases and conditions. Multidimensional health outcomes are measured by a single preference- of utility-based index such as the Quality-Adjusted-Life-Years (QALY). QALYs are a composite measure of gains in life expectancy and health-related quality of life. CUA allows for comparisons across treatments for different conditions.

      Cost-minimisation analysis (CMA) is an economic evaluation in which the consequences of competing interventions are the same, and only inputs, i.e. costs, are taken into consideration. The aim is to decide the least costly way of achieving the same outcome.

      Costs in Economic Evaluation Studies

      There are three main types of costs in economic evaluation studies: direct, indirect, and intangible. Direct costs are associated directly with the healthcare intervention, such as staff time, medical supplies, cost of travel for the patient, childcare costs for the patient, and costs falling on other social sectors such as domestic help from social services. Indirect costs are incurred by the reduced productivity of the patient, such as time off work, reduced work productivity, and time spent caring for the patient by relatives. Intangible costs are difficult to measure, such as pain of suffering on the part of the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      35.2
      Seconds
  • Question 123 - A 17-year-old girl has been treated for an episode of depression which began...

    Correct

    • A 17-year-old girl has been treated for an episode of depression which began gradually about 17 weeks ago. Her father suffers from bipolar affective disorder and is worried about her developing the same condition in the future. You try to explain to the father what factors may predict the development of bipolar affective disorder after a depressive episode in adolescence. Which of the following is not a predictor of the future development of bipolar affective disorder after a depressive episode in adolescence?

      Your Answer: Insidious onset of depressive symptoms

      Explanation:

      Factors that may indicate the development of bipolar affective disorder following a childhood depression episode are the occurrence of psychosis, psychomotor retardation, a history of antidepressant-induced mania, and a family history of the disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 124 - Which antiepileptic medication has the most substantial evidence linking it to aggression when...

    Incorrect

    • Which antiepileptic medication has the most substantial evidence linking it to aggression when utilized in the treatment of epilepsy?

      Your Answer: Phenobarbital

      Correct Answer: Perampanel

      Explanation:

      Antiepileptic drugs (AEDs) are commonly used for the treatment of epilepsy, but many of them also have mood stabilizing properties and are used for the prophylaxis and treatment of bipolar disorder. However, some AEDs carry product warnings for serious side effects such as hepatic failure, pancreatitis, thrombocytopenia, and skin reactions. Additionally, some AEDs have been associated with an increased risk of suicidal behavior and ideation.

      Behavioral side-effects associated with AEDs include depression, aberrant behaviors, and the development of worsening of irritability, impulsivity, anger, hostility, and aggression. Aggression can occur before, after, of in between seizures. Some AEDs are considered to carry a higher risk of aggression, including levetiracetam, perampanel, and topiramate. However, data on the specific risk of aggression for other AEDs is lacking of mixed. It is important for healthcare providers to carefully consider the potential risks and benefits of AEDs when prescribing them for patients with epilepsy of bipolar disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 125 - A male patient with anorexia nervosa would likely have elevated levels of which...

    Incorrect

    • A male patient with anorexia nervosa would likely have elevated levels of which of the following?

      Your Answer: Potassium

      Correct Answer: Liver enzymes

      Explanation:

      In individuals with anorexia, the majority of their blood test results are typically below normal levels, with the exception of growth hormone, cholesterol, and cortisol.

      Eating Disorders: Lab Findings and Medical Complications

      Eating disorders can lead to a range of medical complications, including renal failure, peripheral edema, sinus bradycardia, QT-prolongation, pericardial effusion, and slowed GI motility. Other complications include constipation, cathartic colon, esophageal esophagitis, hair loss, and dental erosion. Blood abnormalities are also common in patients with eating disorders, including hyponatremia, hypokalemia, hypophosphatemia, and hypoglycemia. Additionally, patients may experience leucopenia, anemia, low albumin, elevated liver enzymes, and vitamin deficiencies. These complications can cause significant morbidity and mortality in patients with eating disorders. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor patients for these complications and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      20
      Seconds
  • Question 126 - What can be done to distinguish between paranoid personality disorder and schizotypal personality...

    Incorrect

    • What can be done to distinguish between paranoid personality disorder and schizotypal personality disorder?

      Your Answer: Lack of remorse

      Correct Answer: Hypersensitivity to criticism

      Explanation:

      All personality disorders typically develop during childhood of adolescence and share symptoms such as paranoid thoughts and difficulty forming close relationships. However, individuals with schizotypal personality disorder do not typically exhibit an excessive sensitivity to criticism.

      Schizotypal Personality Disorder: Symptoms and Diagnostic Criteria

      Schizotypal personality disorder is a type of personality disorder that is characterized by a pervasive pattern of discomfort with close relationships, distorted thinking and perceptions, and eccentric behavior. This disorder typically begins in early adulthood and is present in a variety of contexts. To be diagnosed with schizotypal personality disorder, an individual must exhibit at least five of the following symptoms:

      1. Ideas of reference (excluding delusions of reference).
      2. Odd beliefs of magical thinking that influences behavior and is inconsistent with subcultural norms.
      3. Unusual perceptual experiences, including bodily illusions.
      4. Odd thinking and speech.
      5. Suspiciousness of paranoid ideation.
      6. Inappropriate or constricted affect.
      7. Behavior of appearance that is odd, eccentric, of peculiar.
      8. Lack of close friends of confidants other than first-degree relatives.
      9. Excessive social anxiety that does not diminish with familiarity and tends to be associated with paranoid fears rather than negative judgments about self.

      It is important to note that the ICD-11 does not have a specific category for schizotypal personality disorder, as it has abandoned the categorical approach in favor of a dimensional one.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      3.3
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  • Question 127 - A 60-year-old woman from South Africa presents with cognitive impairment, slow movements, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman from South Africa presents with cognitive impairment, slow movements, and some psychotic symptoms. She has been referred to you by the medical team at the local hospital who are investigating her for an unexplained low-grade fever. Upon assessment, you find that she is relatively oriented and her sleep pattern is not disrupted. She is aware of her memory issues. During the physical examination, you observe signs of hypertonia and hyperreflexia. Additionally, there are raised purple plaques on her ankle. What is your preferred diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Lyme disease

      Correct Answer: HIV dementia

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms are consistent with subcortical dementia caused by HIV. Kaposi’s sarcoma plaques, African origin, and a fever of unknown origin provide additional evidence for this diagnosis. While delirium can be a symptom of cerebral malaria and Lyme disease, the patient in this case remains oriented. Culture bound syndromes typically do not cause fever. Alzheimer’s disease typically affects the cortical regions of the brain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      5.2
      Seconds
  • Question 128 - What is the name of the database that focuses on literature created by...

    Correct

    • What is the name of the database that focuses on literature created by non-traditional commercial of academic publishing and distribution channels?

      Your Answer: OpenGrey

      Explanation:

      SIGLE is a database that specializes in collecting and indexing grey literature.

      Evidence-based medicine involves four basic steps: developing a focused clinical question, searching for the best evidence, critically appraising the evidence, and applying the evidence and evaluating the outcome. When developing a question, it is important to understand the difference between background and foreground questions. Background questions are general questions about conditions, illnesses, syndromes, and pathophysiology, while foreground questions are more often about issues of care. The PICO system is often used to define the components of a foreground question: patient group of interest, intervention of interest, comparison, and primary outcome.

      When searching for evidence, it is important to have a basic understanding of the types of evidence and sources of information. Scientific literature is divided into two basic categories: primary (empirical research) and secondary (interpretation and analysis of primary sources). Unfiltered sources are large databases of articles that have not been pre-screened for quality, while filtered resources summarize and appraise evidence from several studies.

      There are several databases and search engines that can be used to search for evidence, including Medline and PubMed, Embase, the Cochrane Library, PsycINFO, CINAHL, and OpenGrey. Boolean logic can be used to combine search terms in PubMed, and phrase searching and truncation can also be used. Medical Subject Headings (MeSH) are used by indexers to describe articles for MEDLINE records, and the MeSH Database is like a thesaurus that enables exploration of this vocabulary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      10.1
      Seconds
  • Question 129 - Which antipsychotic has the strongest evidence to support its use in preventing postoperative...

    Incorrect

    • Which antipsychotic has the strongest evidence to support its use in preventing postoperative delirium?

      Your Answer: Olanzapine

      Correct Answer: Haloperidol

      Explanation:

      Delirium (also known as acute confusional state) is a condition characterized by a sudden decline in consciousness and cognition, with a particular impairment in attention. It often involves perceptual disturbances, abnormal psychomotor activity, and sleep-wake cycle impairment. Delirium typically develops over a few days and has a fluctuating course. The causes of delirium are varied, ranging from metabolic disturbances to medications. It is important to differentiate delirium from dementia, as delirium has a brief onset, early disorientation, clouding of consciousness, fluctuating course, and early psychomotor changes. Delirium can be classified into three subtypes: hypoactive, hyperactive, and mixed. Patients with hyperactive delirium demonstrate restlessness, agitation, and hyper vigilance, while those with hypoactive delirium present with lethargy and sedation. Mixed delirium demonstrates both hyperactive and hypoactive features. The hypoactive form is most common in elderly patients and is often misdiagnosed as depression of dementia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
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  • Question 130 - What is a known factor that can lead to inaccurate positive results for...

    Incorrect

    • What is a known factor that can lead to inaccurate positive results for amphetamine on drug screening tests?

      Your Answer: Ibuprofen

      Correct Answer: Atomoxetine

      Explanation:

      Drug Screening

      Drug testing can be conducted through various methods, but urinalysis is the most common. Urine drug tests can be either screening of confirmatory. Screening tests use enzymatic immunoassays to detect drug metabolites of classes of drug metabolites in the urine. However, these tests have limitations, such as false positives due to cross-reactivity. Therefore, any positive test should be confirmed through gas chromatography of mass spectrometry.

      People may try to manipulate drug testing procedures by adulterating the sample. Normal urine parameters, such as temperature, specific gravity, and pH, can assist in detecting adulterated samples. Adulterants include household items like vinegar, detergent, and ammonia, as well as commercially available products. Diluted urine may also yield false negatives.

      Detection times vary from person to person, and the approximate drug detection time in urine can be found in a table provided by Nelson (2016). False positives can occur due to cross-reactivity, as illustrated by Moeller (2017). Clinicians should be aware of the limitations of urine drug tests and the potential for manipulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 131 - Regarding symptoms of withdrawal associated with prolonged alcohol consumption, which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding symptoms of withdrawal associated with prolonged alcohol consumption, which of the following statements is accurate?

      Your Answer: Withdrawal reflects enhanced neurotransmission in type A gamma-aminobutyric acid pathways

      Correct Answer: Carbamazepine is as effective as benzodiazepines in the acute treatment of the symptoms of alcohol withdrawal

      Explanation:

      A study has found that starting with a dose of 800 mg of Carbamazepine per day is just as effective as using Oxazepam for treating acute alcohol withdrawal. However, Phenytoin has been shown to be ineffective in treating seizures related to alcohol withdrawal. The symptoms of alcohol withdrawal are caused by a decrease in neurotransmission through type A gamma-aminobutyric pathways and an increase in neurotransmission through N-methyl-D-aspartate pathways. For more information, refer to the article Management of Drug and Alcohol Withdrawal by Kosten TR and O’Connor PG in the New England Journal of Medicine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      5.2
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  • Question 132 - According to Klerman's bipolar subtypes, which of the following is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • According to Klerman's bipolar subtypes, which of the following is true?

      Your Answer: Bipolar V refers to hypomania in cases where there is a family history of mania

      Correct Answer: Bipolar VI refers to mania without depression

      Explanation:

      Klerman identified bipolar VI as unipolar mania, which is characterized by manic episodes without any history of depression. However, determining the exact prevalence of unipolar mania is challenging. Studies suggest that individuals with unipolar mania tend to exhibit hyperthymic temperament, grandiosity, and psychotic symptoms before the onset of the illness. They also experience less rapid cycling, suicidality, comorbid anxiety disorder, and seasonality compared to those with bipolar mania. Unfortunately, unipolar mania does not respond well to lithium prophylaxis, and valproate may be a more effective treatment option for these patients.

      Bipolar Disorder: Historical Subtypes

      Bipolar disorder is a complex mental illness that has been classified into several subtypes over the years. The most widely recognized subtypes are Bipolar I, Bipolar II, and Cyclothymia. However, there have been other classification systems proposed by experts in the field.

      In 1981, Gerald Klerman proposed a classification system that included Bipolar I, Bipolar II, Bipolar III, Bipolar IV, Bipolar V, and Bipolar VI. This system was later expanded by Akiskal in 1999, who added more subtypes such as Bipolar I 1/2, Bipolar II 1/2, and Bipolar III 1/2.

      Bipolar I is characterized by full-blown mania, while Bipolar II is characterized by hypomania with depression. Cyclothymia is a milder form of bipolar disorder that involves cycling between hypomania and mild depression.

      Other subtypes include Bipolar III, which is associated with hypomania of mania precipitated by antidepressant drugs, and Bipolar IV, which is characterized by hyperthymic depression. Bipolar V is associated with depressed patients who have a family history of bipolar illness, while Bipolar VI is characterized by mania without depression (unipolar mania).

      Overall, the classification of bipolar disorder subtypes has evolved over time, and different experts have proposed different systems. However, the most widely recognized subtypes are still Bipolar I, Bipolar II, and Cyclothymia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 133 - What is the most accurate approximation of the lifetime occurrence rate of major...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most accurate approximation of the lifetime occurrence rate of major depression?

      Your Answer: 10%

      Correct Answer: 15%

      Explanation:

      Epidemiological surveys and prevalence estimates have been conducted to determine the prevalence of various mental health conditions. The Epidemiological Catchment Area (ECA) study was conducted in the mid-1980s using the Diagnostic Interview Schedule (DIS) based on DSM-III criteria. The National Comorbidity Survey (NCS) used the Composite International Diagnostic Interview (CIDI) and was conducted in the 1990s and repeated in 2001. The Adult Psychiatric Morbidity Survey (APMS) used the Clinical Interview Schedule (CIS-R) and was conducted in England every 7 years since 1993. The WHO World Mental Health (WMH) Survey Initiative used the World Mental Health Composite International Diagnostic Interview (WMH-CIDI) and was conducted in close to 30 countries from 2001 onwards.

      The main findings of these studies show that major depression has a prevalence of 4-10% worldwide, with 6.7% in the past 12 months and 16.6% lifetime prevalence. Generalised anxiety disorder (GAD) has a 3.1% 12-month prevalence and 5.7% lifetime prevalence. Panic disorder has a 2.7% 12-month prevalence and 4.7% lifetime prevalence. Specific phobia has an 8.7% 12-month prevalence and 12.5% lifetime prevalence. Social anxiety disorder has a 6.8% 12-month prevalence and 12.1% lifetime prevalence. Agoraphobia without panic disorder has a 0.8% 12-month prevalence and 1.4% lifetime prevalence. Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) has a 1.0% 12-month prevalence and 1.6% lifetime prevalence. Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) has a 1.3-3.6% 12-month prevalence and 6.8% lifetime prevalence. Schizophrenia has a 0.33% 12-month prevalence and 0.48% lifetime prevalence. Bipolar I disorder has a 1.5% 12-month prevalence and 2.1% lifetime prevalence. Bulimia nervosa has a 0.63% lifetime prevalence, anorexia nervosa has a 0.16% lifetime prevalence, and binge eating disorder has a 1.53% lifetime prevalence.

      These prevalence estimates provide important information for policymakers, healthcare providers, and researchers to better understand the burden of mental health conditions and to develop effective prevention and treatment strategies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      3
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  • Question 134 - You are asked to design a study to assess whether living near electricity...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to design a study to assess whether living near electricity pylons is a risk factor for adult leukemia. What is the most appropriate type of study design?:

      Your Answer: Retrospective cohort study

      Correct Answer: Case-control study

      Explanation:

      Due to the low incidence of childhood leukaemia, a cohort study would require a significant amount of time to yield meaningful findings.

      Types of Primary Research Studies and Their Advantages and Disadvantages

      Primary research studies can be categorized into six types based on the research question they aim to address. The best type of study for each question type is listed in the table below. There are two main types of study design: experimental and observational. Experimental studies involve an intervention, while observational studies do not. The advantages and disadvantages of each study type are summarized in the table below.

      Type of Question Best Type of Study

      Therapy Randomized controlled trial (RCT), cohort, case control, case series
      Diagnosis Cohort studies with comparison to gold standard test
      Prognosis Cohort studies, case control, case series
      Etiology/Harm RCT, cohort studies, case control, case series
      Prevention RCT, cohort studies, case control, case series
      Cost Economic analysis

      Study Type Advantages Disadvantages

      Randomized Controlled Trial – Unbiased distribution of confounders – Blinding more likely – Randomization facilitates statistical analysis – Expensive – Time-consuming – Volunteer bias – Ethically problematic at times
      Cohort Study – Ethically safe – Subjects can be matched – Can establish timing and directionality of events – Eligibility criteria and outcome assessments can be standardized – Administratively easier and cheaper than RCT – Controls may be difficult to identify – Exposure may be linked to a hidden confounder – Blinding is difficult – Randomization not present – For rare disease, large sample sizes of long follow-up necessary
      Case-Control Study – Quick and cheap – Only feasible method for very rare disorders of those with long lag between exposure and outcome – Fewer subjects needed than cross-sectional studies – Reliance on recall of records to determine exposure status – Confounders – Selection of control groups is difficult – Potential bias: recall, selection
      Cross-Sectional Survey – Cheap and simple – Ethically safe – Establishes association at most, not causality – Recall bias susceptibility – Confounders may be unequally distributed – Neyman bias – Group sizes may be unequal
      Ecological Study – Cheap and simple – Ethically safe – Ecological fallacy (when relationships which exist for groups are assumed to also be true for individuals)

      In conclusion, the choice of study type depends on the research question being addressed. Each study type has its own advantages and disadvantages, and researchers should carefully consider these when designing their studies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      2
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  • Question 135 - A reduction in the quantity of leukocytes is known as: ...

    Incorrect

    • A reduction in the quantity of leukocytes is known as:

      Your Answer: Granulocytopenia

      Correct Answer: Leukopenia

      Explanation:

      Agranulocytosis is a condition characterized by a decrease in the number of granulocytes, a type of white blood cell that includes neutrophils, basophils, and eosinophils.

      Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 136 - Which term is not linked to Winnicott? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which term is not linked to Winnicott?

      Your Answer: False self

      Correct Answer: Identity crisis

      Explanation:

      Erik Erikson coined the term identity crisis.

      Winnicott: An Overview

      Donald Winnicott, a British paediatrician and psychotherapist, is known for his contributions to the field of child development and psychoanalysis. He introduced several concepts that are still relevant today.

      Good Enough Mother: Winnicott emphasised the importance of being a good enough mother rather than a perfect one. He believed that children needed someone who would attend to them but not immediately so that they could learn to tolerate frustration.

      Holding Environment: This refers to the psychic and physical space between the mother and infant that ensures the mother is there for the child when needed but allows them to explore independently when ready.

      Transitional Object: Winnicott talked about the two separate realities for a child, the ‘me’ and the ‘not me’. The transitional object is one that represents another (e.g. Mother) and is regarded as the first ‘not me’ possession.

      False Self: Winnicott described the situation of ‘not good-enough mothering’ as one in which the mother (consciously of unconsciously) is unable to respond adequately to her infant’s spontaneous behaviour (true self), but tends to impose her own wishes and desires (e.g. for an ‘ideal’ child). This may lead the infant to an adaptation on the basis of ’compliance’ (false self) and later, in adulthood, to the loss of a sense of personal autonomy and integrity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychotherapy
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  • Question 137 - Which of the following is most commonly associated with pica? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is most commonly associated with pica?

      Your Answer: Social phobia

      Correct Answer: Autism

      Explanation:

      Pica: Eating Non-Nutritive Substances

      Pica is a condition where a person persistently eats non-nutritive substances for at least a month. The name pica comes from the Latin word for magpie, a bird known for its large and random appetite. To be diagnosed with pica, the behavior must be developmentally inappropriate, not culturally sanctioned, and severe enough to require clinical attention. It is more common in young people than adults and is often associated with mental retardation.

      There are various causes of pica, including mental disorders such as autism and schizophrenia, iron and zinc deficiency (although this is rare and not clear if it is a cause of effect), and pregnancy. The DSM-5 requires a minimum age of 2 before a diagnosis can be made. Pregnant women have been reported to experience certain forms of pica, such as geophagia (clay eating) and amylophagia (starch eating).

      Pica affects both sexes equally and is estimated to occur in up to 15% of those with severe intellectual disability. However, aside from cases of autistic spectrum disorder of intellectual disability, pica usually remits by adolescence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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  • Question 138 - What is the most common personality disorder found among male prisoners in England...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most common personality disorder found among male prisoners in England and Wales?

      Your Answer: Borderline

      Correct Answer: Antisocial

      Explanation:

      The prevalent personality disorder among prisoners is antisocial.

      Prisoner Mental Health: Epidemiological Data from the UK

      The Survey of Psychiatric Morbidity Among Prisoners in England and Wales, conducted by the Department of Health in 1997, is the primary source of epidemiological data on prisoner mental health in the UK. Despite the lack of updates, this survey remains a valuable resource for understanding the mental health needs of prisoners.

      Although the prison population represents only 0.1% of the total UK population, prisoners are extensive consumers of mental health services. In 1997, the UK prison population consisted of 46,872 male sentenced prisoners (76%), 12,302 male remand prisoners, and 2,770 female prisoners (<5%). The 1997 study involved interviews with over 3000 prisoners. The key findings of the 1997 study revealed high rates of personality disorders among prisoners, with 78% of male remand, 64% of male sentenced, and 50% of female prisoners having any personality disorder. Antisocial personality disorder had the highest prevalence, followed by paranoid personality disorder. Borderline personality disorder was more common in females than paranoid personality disorder. The study also found high rates of functional psychosis, with prevalence rates of 7% for male sentenced, 10% for male remand, and 14% for females. Rates of suicidal ideation and attempts were higher in remand compared to sentenced prisoners, with women reporting higher rates of suicidal ideation and attempts than males. Overall, the 1997 survey highlights the significant mental health needs of prisoners in the UK and underscores the importance of providing adequate mental health services to this population.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Forensic Psychiatry
      3.1
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  • Question 139 - Which brain region experiences increased neuronal activity leading to symptoms like yawning, abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • Which brain region experiences increased neuronal activity leading to symptoms like yawning, abdominal cramps, and goosebumps during opioid withdrawal?

      Your Answer: Ventral tegmental area

      Correct Answer: Locus coeruleus

      Explanation:

      Opioid Maintenance Therapy and Detoxification

      Withdrawal symptoms can occur after as little as 5 days of regular opioid use. Short-acting opioids like heroin have acute withdrawal symptoms that peak in 32-72 hours and last for 3-5 days. Longer-acting opioids like methadone have acute symptoms that peak at day 4-6 and last for 10 days. Buprenorphine withdrawal lasts up to 10 days and includes symptoms like myalgia, anxiety, and increased drug craving.

      Opioids affect the brain through opioid receptors, with the µ receptor being the main target for opioids. Dopaminergic cells in the ventral tegmental area produce dopamine, which is released into the nucleus accumbens upon stimulation of µ receptors, producing euphoria and reward. With repeat opioid exposure, µ receptors become less responsive, causing dysphoria and drug craving.

      Methadone and buprenorphine are maintenance-oriented treatments for opioid dependence. Methadone is a full agonist targeting µ receptors, while buprenorphine is a partial agonist targeting µ receptors and a partial k agonist of functional antagonist. Naloxone and naltrexone are antagonists targeting all opioid receptors.

      Methadone is preferred over buprenorphine for detoxification, and ultra-rapid detoxification should not be offered. Lofexidine may be considered for mild of uncertain dependence. Clonidine and dihydrocodeine should not be used routinely in opioid detoxification. The duration of detoxification should be up to 4 weeks in an inpatient setting and up to 12 weeks in a community setting.

      Pregnant women dependent on opioids should use opioid maintenance treatment rather than attempt detoxification. Methadone is preferred over buprenorphine, and transfer to buprenorphine during pregnancy is not advised. Detoxification should only be considered if appropriate for the women’s wishes, circumstances, and ability to cope. Methadone or buprenorphine treatment is not a contraindication to breastfeeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      17
      Seconds
  • Question 140 - The terms anima and animus are linked to which of the following post-Freudian...

    Correct

    • The terms anima and animus are linked to which of the following post-Freudian psychologists?

      Your Answer: Carl Jung

      Explanation:

      Neo-Freudians were therapists who developed their own theories while still retaining core Freudian components. Some important neo-Freudians include Alfred Adler, Carl Jung, Erik Erickson, Harry Stack Sullivan, Wilfred Bion, John Bowlby, Anna Freud, Otto Kernberg, Margaret Mahler, and Donald Winnicott. Each of these individuals contributed unique ideas to the field of psychology. For example, Carl Jung introduced the concept of the persona and differentiated between the personal and collective unconscious, while Erik Erickson is known for his stages of psychosocial development. Margaret Mahler developed theories on child development, including the three main phases of autistic, symbiotic, and separation-individuation. Donald Winnicott introduced the concept of the transitional object and the good enough mother. Overall, neo-Freudians expanded upon Freud’s ideas and helped to shape modern psychotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychotherapy
      5.5
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  • Question 141 - You audit the antipsychotic use on a pediatric intensive care ward of 5...

    Incorrect

    • You audit the antipsychotic use on a pediatric intensive care ward of 5 patients. Which of the following would you identify as high dose prescribing (exceeding 100% max of the BNF)?:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aripiprazole at 40 mg daily

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotics (Maximum Doses)

      It is important to be aware of the maximum doses for commonly used antipsychotics. The following are the maximum doses for various antipsychotics:

      – Clozapine (oral): 900 mg/day
      – Haloperidol (oral): 20 mg/day
      – Olanzapine (oral): 20 mg/day
      – Quetiapine (oral): 750mg/day (for schizophrenia) and 800 mg/day (for bipolar disorder)
      – Risperidone (oral): 16 mg/day
      – Amisulpride (oral): 1200 mg/day
      – Aripiprazole (oral): 30 mg/day
      – Flupentixol (depot): 400 mg/week
      – Zuclopenthixol (depot): 600 mg/week
      – Haloperidol (depot): 300 mg every 4 weeks

      It is important to keep these maximum doses in mind when prescribing antipsychotics to patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 142 - What is the most reliable predictor of a positive outcome in psychodynamic psychotherapy?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most reliable predictor of a positive outcome in psychodynamic psychotherapy?

      Your Answer: Patient has a supportive home environment

      Correct Answer: Patient is motivated to change

      Explanation:

      Factors Predicting Favorable Outcome for Psychotherapy

      There are several factors that can predict a favorable outcome for psychotherapy, indicating that a patient is suitable for this type of treatment. One of the most important factors is the patient’s capacity to form a therapeutic relationship with the therapist. This means that the patient is able to establish a trusting and collaborative relationship with the therapist, which is essential for effective therapy.

      Another important factor is the patient’s motivation to change. Patients who are motivated to change are more likely to engage in therapy and to make progress towards their goals. This motivation can come from a variety of sources, such as a desire to improve their quality of life, reduce symptoms of mental illness, of improve their relationships with others.

      Psychological mindedness is also an important factor in predicting a favorable outcome for psychotherapy. This refers to the patient’s ability to understand and reflect on their own thoughts, feelings, and behaviors, as well as those of others. Patients who are psychologically minded are more likely to benefit from therapy because they are able to engage in self-reflection and gain insight into their own experiences.

      Finally, good ego strength is another factor that predicts a favorable outcome for psychotherapy. Ego strength refers to the patient’s ability to cope with stress and adversity, and to maintain a sense of self-worth and self-esteem. Patients with good ego strength are better able to tolerate the emotional challenges of therapy and to make progress towards their goals. Overall, these factors can help clinicians identify patients who are likely to benefit from psychotherapy and tailor their treatment accordingly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychotherapy
      4
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  • Question 143 - A worldwide epidemic of influenza is known as a: ...

    Incorrect

    • A worldwide epidemic of influenza is known as a:

      Your Answer: Megademic

      Correct Answer: Pandemic

      Explanation:

      Epidemiology Key Terms

      – Epidemic (Outbreak): A rise in disease cases above the anticipated level in a specific population during a particular time frame.
      – Endemic: The regular of anticipated level of disease in a particular population.
      – Pandemic: Epidemics that affect a significant number of individuals across multiple countries, regions, of continents.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      6.7
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  • Question 144 - Which drug has the lowest likelihood of causing both physical and psychological addiction?...

    Incorrect

    • Which drug has the lowest likelihood of causing both physical and psychological addiction?

      Your Answer: Alcohol

      Correct Answer: Cannabis

      Explanation:

      The low potential for dependence on cannabis is widely acknowledged.

      Cannabis, also known as marijuana, grass, pot, weed, tea, of Mary Jane, is a plant that contains over 60 unique cannabinoids. The primary psychoactive component of cannabis is delta-9-tetrahydrocannabinol (Delta 9-THC), which is rapidly converted into 11-hydroxy-delta 9-THC, the active metabolite in the central nervous system. Specific cannabinoid receptors, including CB1 and CB2 receptors, have been identified in the body. CB1 receptors are found mainly at nerve terminals, where they inhibit transmitter release, while CB2 receptors occur mainly on immune cells and modulate cytokine release. The cannabinoid receptor is found in highest concentrations in the basal ganglia, hippocampus, and cerebellum, with lower concentrations in the cerebral cortex. Cannabis use has been associated with the amotivational syndrome, characterized by apathy, anergy, weight gain, and a lack of persistence in tasks requiring prolonged attention of tenacity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 145 - If a couple has a child with autism, what advice would you give...

    Incorrect

    • If a couple has a child with autism, what advice would you give them regarding the likelihood of having another child with the same condition?

      Your Answer: There is a 5 fold increase in risk to a future sibling

      Correct Answer: There is a 8 fold increase in risk to a future sibling

      Explanation:

      According to a study conducted in 2019 across various countries, the likelihood of developing ASD is significantly higher if a sibling has already been diagnosed with the disorder, with an 8-fold increase in risk.

      Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD) is a lifelong disorder characterized by deficits in communication and social understanding, as well as restrictive and repetitive behaviors. The distinction between autism and Asperger’s has been abandoned, and they are now grouped together under the ASD category. Intellectual ability is difficult to assess in people with ASD, with an estimated 33% having an intellectual disability. ASD was first described in Europe and the United States using different terms, with Leo Kanner and Hans Asperger being the pioneers. Diagnosis is based on persistent deficits in social communication and social interaction, as well as restricted, repetitive patterns of behavior. The worldwide population prevalence is about 1%, with comorbidity being common. Heritability is estimated at around 90%, and both genetic and environmental factors seem to cause ASD. Currently, there are no validated pharmacological treatments that alleviate core ASD symptoms, but second-generation antipsychotics are the first-line pharmacological treatment for children and adolescents with ASD and associated irritability.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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  • Question 146 - You are asked to write a court report for a man convicted of...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to write a court report for a man convicted of a sexual assault, which of the following is most likely to increase his risk of subsequent sexual offending?:

      Your Answer: Lack of victim empathy

      Correct Answer: Phallometric evidence of sexual interest in children

      Explanation:

      Hanson & Bussiere (1998) conducted a thorough analysis on this topic and found that the most significant indicators of sexual offense recidivism are factors associated with sexual deviance, including deviant sexual preferences, previous sexual offenses, early onset of sexual offending, and the variety of sexual crimes committed. The most powerful predictor was determined to be sexual attraction to children, as measured by phallometric assessment.

      Methods of Risk Assessment

      Methods of risk assessment are important in determining the potential harm that an individual may pose to others. There are three main methods for assessing risk to others: unstructured clinical approach, actuarial risk assessment, and structured professional judgment. The unstructured clinical approach is based solely on professional experience and does not involve any specific framework. Actuarial risk assessment uses tools that are based on statistical models of weighted factors supported by research as being predictive for future risk. Structured professional judgment combines professional judgment with a consideration of static and dynamic risk factors. Following this, the risk is formulated, and a plan is devised. There are various tools available for each method, such as the Historical-Clinical-Risk Management-20 (HCR-20) for violence, the Risk of Sexual Violence Protocol (RSVP) for sexual risk, and the Hare Psychopathy Checklist (PCL-R) for violence. It is important to use a multidisciplinary approach and consider all relevant risk factors in the formulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Forensic Psychiatry
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  • Question 147 - If a man consumes alcohol daily and increases his intake on weekends, but...

    Incorrect

    • If a man consumes alcohol daily and increases his intake on weekends, but abstains on Monday due to a crucial work meeting, and then experiences a seizure during the meeting, what would you suspect?

      Your Answer: Hyperglycemia

      Correct Answer: Alcohol withdrawal

      Explanation:

      Alcohol withdrawal is characterized by overactivity of the autonomic nervous system, resulting in symptoms such as agitation, tremors, sweating, nausea, vomiting, fever, and tachycardia. These symptoms typically begin 3-12 hours after drinking stops, peak between 24-48 hours, and can last up to 14 days. Withdrawal seizures may occur before blood alcohol levels reach zero, and a small percentage of people may experience delirium tremens (DT), which can be fatal if left untreated. Risk factors for DT include abnormal liver function, old age, severity of withdrawal symptoms, concurrent medical illness, heavy alcohol use, self-detox, previous history of DT, low potassium, low magnesium, and thiamine deficiency.

      Pharmacologically assisted detox is often necessary for those who regularly consume more than 15 units of alcohol per day, and inpatient detox may be needed for those who regularly consume more than 30 units per day. The Clinical Institute Withdrawal Assessment of Alcohol Scale (CIWA-Ar) can be used to assess the severity of withdrawal symptoms and guide treatment decisions. Benzodiazepines are the mainstay of treatment, as chronic alcohol exposure results in decreased overall brain excitability and compensatory decrease of GABA-A neuroreceptor response to GABA. Chlordiazepoxide is a good first-line agent, while oxazepam, temazepam, and lorazepam are useful in patients with liver disease. Clomethiazole is effective but carries a high risk of respiratory depression and is not recommended. Thiamine should be offered to prevent Wernicke’s encephalopathy, and long-acting benzodiazepines can be used as prophylaxis for withdrawal seizures. Haloperidol is the treatment of choice if an antipsychotic is required.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 148 - A 42-year-old man is evaluated by an occupational health physician for prolonged absence...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man is evaluated by an occupational health physician for prolonged absence from work. He reports persistent lower back pain as the reason for his inability to work, but the physician notes discrepancies in his physical examination and suspects a non-organic etiology. Upon further questioning, the man confesses to intentionally exaggerating his symptoms to avoid his bullying boss. What is the most appropriate diagnosis in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Body integrity dysphoria

      Correct Answer: Malingering

      Explanation:

      Both factitious disorder and malingering involve the deliberate manifestation of symptoms, but the latter is characterized by the presence of a motive for personal gain, while the former is not.

      Somatoform and dissociative disorders are two groups of psychiatric disorders that are characterized by physical symptoms and disruptions in the normal integration of identity, sensations, perceptions, affects, thoughts, memories, control over bodily movements, of behavior. Somatoform disorders are characterized by physical symptoms that are presumed to have a psychiatric origin, while dissociative disorders are characterized by the loss of integration between memories, identity, immediate sensations, and control of bodily movements. The ICD-11 lists two main types of somatoform disorders: bodily distress disorder and body integrity dysphoria. Dissociative disorders include dissociative neurological symptom disorder, dissociative amnesia, trance disorder, possession trance disorder, dissociative identity disorder, partial dissociative identity disorder, depersonalization-derealization disorder, and other specified dissociative disorders. The symptoms of these disorders result in significant impairment in personal, family, social, educational, occupational, of other important areas of functioning. Diagnosis of these disorders involves a thorough evaluation of the individual’s symptoms and medical history, as well as ruling out other possible causes of the symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 149 - A team of scientists aims to prevent bias in their study on the...

    Incorrect

    • A team of scientists aims to prevent bias in their study on the effectiveness of a new medication for elderly patients with hypertension. They randomly assign 80 patients to the treatment group, of which 60 complete the 12-week trial. Another 80 patients are assigned to the placebo group, with 75 completing the trial. The researchers agree to conduct an intention-to-treat (ITT) analysis using the LOCF method. What type of bias are they attempting to eliminate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Attrition bias

      Explanation:

      To address the issue of drop-outs in a study, an intention to treat (ITT) analysis can be employed. Drop-outs can lead to attrition bias, which creates systematic differences in attrition across treatment groups. In an ITT analysis, all patients are included in the groups they were initially assigned to through random allocation. To handle missing data, two common methods are last observation carried forward and worst case scenario analysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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  • Question 150 - What is the defining characteristic of delirium? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the defining characteristic of delirium?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Impairment of consciousness

      Explanation:

      Delirium is primarily characterized by a disturbance in consciousness, often accompanied by a widespread decline in cognitive abilities. Other common symptoms include changes in mood, perception, behavior, and motor function, such as tremors and nystagmus. This information is based on Kaplan and Sadock’s concise textbook of psychiatry, 10th edition, published in 2008.

      Delirium (also known as acute confusional state) is a condition characterized by a sudden decline in consciousness and cognition, with a particular impairment in attention. It often involves perceptual disturbances, abnormal psychomotor activity, and sleep-wake cycle impairment. Delirium typically develops over a few days and has a fluctuating course. The causes of delirium are varied, ranging from metabolic disturbances to medications. It is important to differentiate delirium from dementia, as delirium has a brief onset, early disorientation, clouding of consciousness, fluctuating course, and early psychomotor changes. Delirium can be classified into three subtypes: hypoactive, hyperactive, and mixed. Patients with hyperactive delirium demonstrate restlessness, agitation, and hyper vigilance, while those with hypoactive delirium present with lethargy and sedation. Mixed delirium demonstrates both hyperactive and hypoactive features. The hypoactive form is most common in elderly patients and is often misdiagnosed as depression of dementia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

General Adult Psychiatry (39/49) 80%
Psychotherapy (10/13) 77%
Child And Adolescent Psychiatry (14/19) 74%
Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice (14/17) 82%
Substance Misuse/Addictions (12/16) 75%
Forensic Psychiatry (10/11) 91%
Old Age Psychiatry (14/16) 88%
Organisation And Delivery Of Psychiatric Services (5/6) 83%
Learning Disability (1/1) 100%
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