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  • Question 1 - A 35-year-old woman who is 8 weeks pregnant visits the early pregnancy unit...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman who is 8 weeks pregnant visits the early pregnancy unit drop-in clinic complaining of dysuria and increased urinary frequency for the past 2 days. The results of her urine dipstick test are as follows: Leucocytes +++, Nitrites +, Protein -, pH 5.0, Blood +, Ketones -, Glucose -. What is the recommended treatment for her condition?

      Your Answer: 7-day course of nitrofurantoin

      Explanation:

      The recommended first-line treatment for lower UTI in pregnant women who are not at term is a 7-day course of nitrofurantoin. However, nitrofurantoin should be avoided in women who are close to term due to the risk of neonatal haemolysis. It is important to promptly and appropriately treat UTI in pregnancy as it is associated with pre-term delivery and low-birthweight. Amoxicillin and cefalexin are second-line options, but local guidelines may vary. It is important to note that a 3-day course of nitrofurantoin is not recommended according to NICE guidelines.

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. The management of UTIs depends on various factors such as the patient’s age, gender, and pregnancy status. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed if available. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. However, if the patient is aged over 65 years or has visible or non-visible haematuria, a urine culture should be sent. Pregnant women with UTIs should be treated with nitrofurantoin, amoxicillin, or cefalexin for seven days. Trimethoprim should be avoided during pregnancy as it is teratogenic in the first trimester. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated to prevent progression to acute pyelonephritis. Men with UTIs should be offered a seven-day course of trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin unless prostatitis is suspected. A urine culture should be sent before antibiotics are started. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given. Acute pyelonephritis requires hospital admission and treatment with a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or quinolone for 10-14 days. Referral to urology is not routinely required for men who have had one uncomplicated lower UTI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      32.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 16-year-old complains of left knee pain that has been present for the...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old complains of left knee pain that has been present for the last 4 weeks. No injury history is reported. The pain is located in the front of the joint and is aggravated when ascending or descending stairs. Physical examination reveals no significant findings. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Osgood-Schlatter disease

      Correct Answer: Chondromalacia patellae

      Explanation:

      Common Knee Problems in Children and Young Adults

      Knee problems are common in children and young adults, especially those who are active in sports.
      Chondromalacia patellae is a condition that is more common in teenage girls. It is characterized by the softening of the cartilage of the patella, which can cause anterior knee pain when walking up and down stairs or rising from prolonged sitting. This condition usually responds well to physiotherapy.

      Osgood-Schlatter disease, also known as tibial apophysitis, is often seen in sporty teenagers. It causes pain, tenderness, and swelling over the tibial tubercle.

      Osteochondritis dissecans can cause pain after exercise, as well as intermittent swelling and locking of the knee.

      Patellar subluxation can cause medial knee pain due to lateral subluxation of the patella. The knee may also give way.

      Patellar tendonitis is more common in athletic teenage boys. It causes chronic anterior knee pain that worsens after running. On examination, the area below the patella is tender. It is important to note that referred pain may come from hip problems such as slipped upper femoral epiphysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      13.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A nurse updates you on a 29-year-old woman who is 24 weeks pregnant....

    Incorrect

    • A nurse updates you on a 29-year-old woman who is 24 weeks pregnant. The nurse reports that her blood pressure reading is 155/90 mmHg, which has increased from her previous reading of 152/85 mmHg taken 2 days ago. The woman had no health issues before her pregnancy. What is the initial course of action in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Lifestyle interventions

      Correct Answer: Oral labetalol

      Explanation:

      Oral labetalol is the recommended initial treatment for this woman with moderate gestational hypertension, as per the current guidelines.

      Hypertension during pregnancy is a common occurrence that requires careful management. In normal pregnancies, blood pressure tends to decrease in the first trimester and then gradually increase to pre-pregnancy levels by term. However, in cases of hypertension during pregnancy, the systolic blood pressure is usually above 140 mmHg or the diastolic blood pressure is above 90 mmHg. Additionally, an increase of more than 30 mmHg systolic or 15 mmHg diastolic from the initial readings may also indicate hypertension.

      There are three categories of hypertension during pregnancy: pre-existing hypertension, pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), and pre-eclampsia. Pre-existing hypertension refers to a history of hypertension before pregnancy or elevated blood pressure before 20 weeks gestation. PIH occurs in the second half of pregnancy and resolves after birth. Pre-eclampsia is characterized by hypertension and proteinuria, and may also involve edema.

      The management of hypertension during pregnancy involves the use of antihypertensive medications such as labetalol, nifedipine, and hydralazine. In cases of pre-existing hypertension, ACE inhibitors and angiotensin II receptor blockers should be stopped immediately and alternative medications should be prescribed. Women who are at high risk of developing pre-eclampsia should take aspirin from 12 weeks until the birth of the baby. It is important to carefully monitor blood pressure and proteinuria levels during pregnancy to ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      19.9
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  • Question 4 - A 55-year-old man is seen in the clinic for a follow-up appointment. He...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man is seen in the clinic for a follow-up appointment. He was prescribed ramipril two months ago for stage 2 hypertension, which was diagnosed after ambulatory blood pressure monitoring. His clinic readings have improved from 164/96 mmHg to 142/84 mmHg. However, he has been experiencing a persistent, dry cough for the past four weeks. What would be the best course of action to take in this situation?

      Your Answer: Stop ramipril and start losartan

      Explanation:

      When ACE inhibitors are not well-tolerated, angiotensin-receptor blockers are recommended.

      NICE Guidelines for Managing Hypertension

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic in addition to an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.

      The guidelines also provide a flow chart for the diagnosis and management of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, such as reducing salt intake, caffeine intake, and alcohol consumption, as well as exercising more and losing weight, should not be forgotten and is frequently tested in exams. Treatment options depend on the patient’s age, ethnicity, and other factors, and may involve a combination of drugs.

      NICE recommends treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old if they have target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For patients with stage 2 hypertension, drug treatment should be offered regardless of age. The guidelines also provide step-by-step treatment options, including adding a third or fourth drug if necessary.

      New drugs, such as direct renin inhibitors like Aliskiren, may have a role in patients who are intolerant of more established antihypertensive drugs. However, trials have only investigated the fall in blood pressure and no mortality data is available yet. Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist. The guidelines also provide blood pressure targets for different age groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      25.8
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  • Question 5 - A 58-year-old man is recuperating on the ward after an emergency laparotomy and...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old man is recuperating on the ward after an emergency laparotomy and ileocolic resection for Crohn's disease. The nursing staff has raised concerns about his abdominal wound on the fifth day post-operation. Upon review, you observe a clear wound dehiscence in the central area of his laparotomy incision, with a small portion of the bowel visible.

      What are the initial steps that should be taken in this situation?

      Your Answer: Resuscitate the patient with fluids and antibiotics and arrange for him to be returned to theatre

      Correct Answer: Cover the wound with sterile saline-soaked gauze and administer antibiotics while awaiting a senior review

      Explanation:

      When an abdominal wound reopens after surgery, it is called wound dehiscence. This can happen for various reasons, including infection, poor surgical technique, and malnutrition. As a junior doctor, it is important to know how to manage this emergency situation. The initial steps involve administering broad-spectrum antibiotics intravenously, covering the wound with sterile gauze soaked in sterile saline to prevent the abdominal contents from drying out, and arranging for the patient to undergo wound repair in the operating theatre. It is not advisable to attempt to close the wound on the ward, as this can be unsafe and increase the risk of infection or bowel injury. A nasogastric tube is not necessary, and simply redressing the wound without moist gauze can lead to fluid loss from the abdominal contents. It is also not necessary to arrange a CT scan, as the problem is evident and requires immediate management. While antibiotics and surgery are necessary, leaving the wound open and uncovered can lead to fluid loss and infection.

      Abdominal wound dehiscence is a serious issue that surgeons who perform abdominal surgery frequently encounter. It occurs when all layers of an abdominal mass closure fail, resulting in the protrusion of the viscera externally. This condition is associated with a 30% mortality rate and can be classified as either superficial or complete, depending on the extent of the wound failure.

      Several factors increase the risk of abdominal wound dehiscence, including malnutrition, vitamin deficiencies, jaundice, steroid use, major wound contamination (such as faecal peritonitis), and poor surgical technique. To prevent this condition, the preferred method is the mass closure technique, also known as the Jenkins Rule.

      When sudden full dehiscence occurs, the wound should be covered with saline impregnated gauze, and the patient should receive IV broad-spectrum antibiotics, analgesia, and IV fluids. Arrangements should also be made for a return to the operating theatre.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      32.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 65-year-old woman is discharged following an uncomplicated renal transplant for end-stage renal...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman is discharged following an uncomplicated renal transplant for end-stage renal failure from hypertension. She received a kidney with 4 out of 6 mismatched human leukocyte antigen (HLA) and is taking the appropriate medications. Thirty days postoperatively, she developed watery loose stools, followed by a skin rash that is itchy, painful and red. On examination, she has a red-violet rash affecting her hands and feet.
      Investigations reveal the following:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 131 g/l 115–155 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 5.4 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
      Platelets (PLT) 280 ×109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 139 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.0 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Urea 15.1 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine (Cr) 170 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 54 IU/l 7–55 IU/l
      Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) 165 IU/l 30–130 IU/l
      Bilirubin 62 µmol/l 2–17 µmol/l
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Graft-versus-host disease

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Watery Diarrhea and Rash after Renal Transplantation

      Graft-versus-host disease (GVHD) is a potential complication of solid organ transplantation, with a mortality rate of 75%. It typically presents with watery diarrhea, a painful red-violet rash, and raised bilirubin. Diagnosis is obtained through biopsy, and treatment involves immunosuppressants such as tacrolimus and methylprednisolone.

      Acute viral hepatitis is another possible cause of diarrhea and jaundice, but the patient’s normal ALT and atypical symptoms make it unlikely. Azathioprine toxicity can cause bone marrow suppression, while Sjögren syndrome causes dry eyes and xerostomia, neither of which fit this patient’s presentation.

      Viral gastroenteritis is a consideration, but the presence of a painful/itchy rash and raised bilirubin suggests a need for further investigation. Given the recent renal transplant, a high degree of suspicion for GVHD and other potential complications is warranted.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      30.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 25-year-old man has recurrent, persistent, intrusive, distressing thoughts and images of his...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man has recurrent, persistent, intrusive, distressing thoughts and images of his friends getting hurt. He reports that these thoughts seem to originate from his own mind, but he considers them to be irrational.
      Which symptom is he reporting?

      Your Answer: Obsessions

      Explanation:

      Understanding Psychiatric Symptoms: Obsessions, Compulsions, Delusions, Hallucinations, and Thought Interference

      Psychiatric symptoms can be complex and difficult to understand. Here are some explanations of common symptoms:

      Obsessions are intrusive thoughts, images, or impulses that repetitively and stereotypically enter a person’s mind. They are often distressing and patients try unsuccessfully to resist them. Common themes include aggression, dirt and contamination, fear of causing harm, religion, and sex.

      Compulsions are repetitive and stereotyped acts or rituals that are often carried out as an attempt to neutralize distressing obsessional thoughts. Patients typically recognize these behaviors as pointless and ineffective, and try to resist them, often unsuccessfully.

      Delusions are false, fixed, and firmly held beliefs that are not in keeping with a person’s social, cultural, and religious background. Patients typically do not recognize them as false or irrational and do not try to resist them, even if they find them distressing.

      Hallucinations are sensory experiences that occur without an external stimulus that could produce such perception. They can be perceptions in any sensory modality, such as hearing a voice in the absence of anyone actually talking.

      Thought interference consists of a patient’s firm belief that an external entity is interfering with their thoughts, usually by introducing thoughts in their mind, stealing thoughts from them, or being able to access their thoughts. Patients usually lack insight into these pathological experiences.

      Understanding these symptoms can help individuals and their loved ones seek appropriate treatment and support.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 32-year-old man is diagnosed with a phaeochromocytoma.
    The urine levels of which of...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man is diagnosed with a phaeochromocytoma.
      The urine levels of which of the following is most likely to be elevated in this patient?

      Your Answer: 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid

      Correct Answer: Metanephrines

      Explanation:

      Urinary Metabolites as Diagnostic Markers for Adrenal Tumors and Disorders

      The urinary excretion of certain metabolites can serve as diagnostic markers for various adrenal tumors and disorders. For instance, metanephrines, vanillylmandelic acid (VMA), and homovanillic acid (HVA) are the principal metabolic products of adrenaline and noradrenaline. Normal individuals excrete only minimal amounts of these substances in the urine. However, in phaeochromocytoma and neuroblastoma, urinary excretion of adrenaline and noradrenaline, and their metabolic products, increases intermittently.

      Similarly, increased urinary excretion of the serotonin metabolite 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid is seen in functioning carcinoids. Free urinary cortisol levels are elevated in Cushing syndrome, which is characterized by weight gain, fatty tissue deposits, moon face, buffalo hump, striae, thin skin, and acne. Urinary dehydroepiandrosterone excretion is often increased in congenital adrenal hyperplasia, while urinary pregnanetriol excretion is often increased in congenital adrenal hyperplasia caused by 21-hydroxylase deficiency.

      It is important to note that elevated excretion of these compounds may also occur in other conditions such as coma, dehydration, extreme stress states, medication use, and ingestion of certain foods. Therefore, careful interpretation of urinary metabolite levels is necessary for accurate diagnosis of adrenal tumors and disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      4.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 19-year-old man's mother visits his General Practitioner with concerns about her son's...

    Correct

    • A 19-year-old man's mother visits his General Practitioner with concerns about her son's behavior. The young man has become isolated from his social circle, has developed an interest in the paranormal, and appears increasingly disheveled. He has been observed talking to himself and recently covered the TV screen with paper. His speech is erratic and jumps from one unrelated topic to another. He is not using any psychotropic drugs and has no history of health issues. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Schizophrenia

      Explanation:

      Differentiating between Schizophrenia and other Mental Disorders

      Schizophrenia is a mental disorder that is characterized by delusions, hallucinations, abnormal behavior, social withdrawal, blunted emotions, and breaks in thought processes. These symptoms are often accompanied by an irritable or depressed mood. When presented with a patient exhibiting these symptoms, schizophrenia is the most likely diagnosis.

      Dissociative identity disorder, on the other hand, is a complex psychological disorder where the individual appears to have two or more distinct personalities that alternate and dictate their behavior. This disorder is associated with severe childhood trauma, which is not present in the case of the patient in question.

      Bipolar disorder is characterized by extreme mood swings, ranging from mania to depression. While the patient exhibits some symptoms of depression, they are not displaying symptoms of mania, making bipolar disorder an unlikely diagnosis.

      Delirium is a serious disturbance in mental abilities that results in confused thinking and reduced awareness of the environment. While an underlying physical cause should be excluded, the patient’s symptoms are more consistent with a psychotic illness than delirium.

      Depression is characterized by continuous low mood, hopelessness, low self-esteem, tearfulness, and irritability. While patients with severe depression may suffer from psychotic episodes, the patient in question is exhibiting symptoms more consistent with schizophrenia, such as knights move thinking and responding to auditory hallucinations.

      In conclusion, differentiating between schizophrenia and other mental disorders requires a thorough understanding of the symptoms and their presentation. While some disorders may share similar symptoms, a careful evaluation of the patient’s history and behavior can help determine the correct diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      13.2
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  • Question 10 - A 65-year-old woman comes in for a check-up with her doctor. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman comes in for a check-up with her doctor. She has a history of hypothyroidism and is currently taking 100mcg of levothyroxine. She reports feeling well and has no notable symptoms. Her last TFTs were normal 6 months ago.
      Free T4 18.5 pmol/l
      TSH 0.1 mu/l
      What should be done next?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Decrease dose to levothyroxine 75mcg od

      Explanation:

      The latest TFTs reveal that the patient is experiencing over replacement, as evidenced by a suppressed TSH. Despite being asymptomatic, it is advisable to decrease the dosage to minimize the risk of osteoporosis and atrial fibrillation. According to the BNF, a 25mcg dose adjustment is recommended for individuals in this age bracket.

      Managing Hypothyroidism: Dosage, Monitoring, and Side-Effects

      Hypothyroidism is a condition where the thyroid gland does not produce enough thyroid hormone. The main treatment for hypothyroidism is levothyroxine, a synthetic form of thyroid hormone. When managing hypothyroidism, it is important to consider the patient’s age, cardiac history, and initial starting dose. Elderly patients and those with ischaemic heart disease should start with a lower dose of 25mcg od, while other patients can start with 50-100mcg od. After a change in dosage, thyroid function tests should be checked after 8-12 weeks to ensure the therapeutic goal of normalising the thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) level is achieved. The target TSH range is 0.5-2.5 mU/l.

      Women with hypothyroidism who become pregnant should have their dose increased by at least 25-50 micrograms levothyroxine due to the increased demands of pregnancy. The TSH should be monitored carefully, aiming for a low-normal value. It is important to note that there is no evidence to support combination therapy with levothyroxine and liothyronine.

      While levothyroxine is generally well-tolerated, there are some potential side-effects to be aware of. Over-treatment can lead to hyperthyroidism, while long-term use can reduce bone mineral density. In patients with cardiac disease, levothyroxine can worsen angina and lead to atrial fibrillation. It is also important to be aware of drug interactions, particularly with iron and calcium carbonate, which can reduce the absorption of levothyroxine. These medications should be given at least 4 hours apart.

      In summary, managing hypothyroidism involves careful consideration of dosage, monitoring of TSH levels, and awareness of potential side-effects and drug interactions. With appropriate management, patients with hypothyroidism can achieve normal thyroid function and improve their overall health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      0
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  • Question 11 - A 54-year-old man with a history of untreated hypertension had a heart attack...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man with a history of untreated hypertension had a heart attack and received coronary stenting. He was prescribed multiple medications and his blood test results showed:
      Na+ 140 mmol/l
      K+ 6.2 mmol/l
      Which of the following antihypertensive drugs could be causing this result?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Enalapril

      Explanation:

      Hyperkalaemia is caused by ACE inhibitor.

      Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. These inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and for secondary prevention of ischaemic heart disease. The mechanism of action of ACE inhibitors is to inhibit the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II. They are metabolized in the liver through phase 1 metabolism.

      ACE inhibitors may cause side effects such as cough, which occurs in around 15% of patients and may occur up to a year after starting treatment. This is thought to be due to increased bradykinin levels. Angioedema may also occur up to a year after starting treatment. Hyperkalaemia and first-dose hypotension are other potential side effects, especially in patients taking diuretics. ACE inhibitors should be avoided during pregnancy and breastfeeding, and caution should be exercised in patients with renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema.

      Patients receiving high-dose diuretic therapy (more than 80 mg of furosemide a day) are at an increased risk of hypotension when taking ACE inhibitors. Before initiating treatment, urea and electrolytes should be checked, and after increasing the dose, a rise in creatinine and potassium may be expected. Acceptable changes include an increase in serum creatinine up to 30% from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment. The current NICE guidelines provide a flow chart for the management of hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      0
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  • Question 12 - A 50-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a 24-hour history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a 24-hour history of worsening right knee pain and limited mobility. He reports falling off his bike a few days ago but did not experience any knee pain until yesterday. Upon examination, the right knee appears red and hot with only 20º of flexion and a small effusion. The patient has a history of a conservatively treated ACL rupture in the other knee.

      The patient's vital signs are as follows: heart rate 100 beats/min, respiratory rate 18/min, saturations 98% on room air, blood pressure 102/67 mmHg, and temperature 37.9ºC. Blood tests reveal a hemoglobin level of 145 g/L, platelets of 500 * 109/L, a white cell count of 13.6 * 109/L, a sodium level of 142 mmol/L, a potassium level of 5.0 mmol/L, a urea level of 4.0 mmol/L, a creatinine level of 110 µmol/L, and a CRP level of 130 mg/L. X-ray results show no obvious bony injury.

      What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urgent orthopaedic review

      Explanation:

      Septic arthritis is most commonly observed in adults’ knees, which presents as sudden joint pain and immobility, accompanied by fever and elevated inflammatory markers. Urgent orthopaedic evaluation is necessary for aspiration and potential washout, as untreated septic arthritis can lead to joint destruction within hours to days. Discharging the patient with oral antibiotics or physiotherapy is not recommended. Administering colchicine is not appropriate as there is no history of gout or pseudogout, and X-ray results do not indicate chondrocalcinosis. Ordering an MRI knee scan may delay appropriate treatment and will not impact management.

      Septic Arthritis in Adults: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Septic arthritis is a condition that occurs when bacteria infect a joint, leading to inflammation and pain. The most common organism that causes septic arthritis in adults is Staphylococcus aureus, but in young adults who are sexually active, Neisseria gonorrhoeae is the most common organism. The infection usually spreads through the bloodstream from a distant bacterial infection, such as an abscess. The knee is the most common location for septic arthritis in adults. Symptoms include an acute, swollen joint, restricted movement, warmth to the touch, and fever.

      To diagnose septic arthritis, synovial fluid sampling is necessary and should be done before administering antibiotics if necessary. Blood cultures may also be taken to identify the cause of the infection. Joint imaging may also be used to confirm the diagnosis.

      Treatment for septic arthritis involves intravenous antibiotics that cover Gram-positive cocci. Flucloxacillin or clindamycin is recommended if the patient is allergic to penicillin. Antibiotic treatment is typically given for several weeks, and patients are usually switched to oral antibiotics after two weeks. Needle aspiration may be used to decompress the joint, and arthroscopic lavage may be required in some cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      0
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  • Question 13 - A 20-year-old woman presents with a 4-day history of cough, headache, fever and...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old woman presents with a 4-day history of cough, headache, fever and joint pains. Blood tests show the presence of raised antibody titres and the presence of cold agglutinins. A diagnosis of Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection is made.
      Which of the following drugs would you prescribe as first-line treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clarithromycin

      Explanation:

      Treatment options for Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection

      Mycoplasma pneumoniae is a bacterium that causes atypical pneumonia and is transmitted through respiratory droplets. The symptoms vary but can include fever, malaise, myalgia, headache, and a rash. Diagnosis is usually confirmed with serology, and treatment typically involves a macrolide antibiotic such as clarithromycin for at least 10-14 days. Penicillin and other beta-lactam antibiotics are ineffective as Mycoplasma pneumoniae lacks a cell wall. Tetracycline can be used but macrolides are preferred due to a better side-effect profile. Rifampicin is mostly limited to the treatment of tuberculosis and leprosy, while co-trimoxazole is not indicated for Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection. Extrapulmonary involvement is possible and may suggest the diagnosis in a patient presenting with pneumonia. A chest radiograph is non-specific and typically shows a reticulonodular or patchy consolidation pattern.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      0
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  • Question 14 - A 54-year-old man with a history of alcoholic liver disease and cirrhosis is...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man with a history of alcoholic liver disease and cirrhosis is scheduled for an oesophago-gastro-duodenoscopy (OGD) to screen for oesophageal varices. The OGD reveals several high-risk varices, and medical prophylaxis is advised. What medication would be the best choice?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Propranolol

      Explanation:

      Propranolol, a non-selective beta-blocker, is utilized for the prevention of oesophageal bleeding. Bisoprolol and metoprolol, both cardio-selective beta-blockers, are not as effective as propranolol for the extended management of varices. Terlipressin, a vasopressin analogue, is recommended for the immediate treatment of variceal bleeding.

      Variceal haemorrhage is a serious condition that requires prompt management. The initial treatment involves resuscitation of the patient before endoscopy. Correcting clotting with FFP and vitamin K is important, as is the use of vasoactive agents such as terlipressin or octreotide. Prophylactic IV antibiotics are also recommended to reduce mortality in patients with liver cirrhosis. Endoscopic variceal band ligation is the preferred method of treatment, and the use of a Sengstaken-Blakemore tube or Transjugular Intrahepatic Portosystemic Shunt (TIPSS) may be necessary if bleeding cannot be controlled. Propranolol and EVL are effective in preventing rebleeding and mortality, and are recommended by NICE guidelines. Proton pump inhibitor cover is given to prevent EVL-induced ulceration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 4-year-old girl presents to the Emergency Department with haemarthrosis in the knee...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old girl presents to the Emergency Department with haemarthrosis in the knee and elbow after a trivial injury. She is otherwise fit and well. The patient’s mother suffers from Christmas disease.
      What investigation should be organised to confirm this diagnosis in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Factor IX activity level

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Haemophilia and Related Conditions

      Haemophilia is a genetic disorder that affects the blood’s ability to clot properly, leading to spontaneous or excessive bleeding. To diagnose haemophilia and related conditions, several diagnostic tests are available.

      Factor IX Activity Level: Lack of factor IX leads to Christmas disease, the second most common type of haemophilia. To diagnose haemophilia, the levels of clotting factor present in the blood must be measured.

      Platelet Count: The platelet count is usually normal in patients with haemophilia. Reduced platelets would suggest an alternative diagnosis. However, it is still important to check the platelet count to exclude thrombocytopenia as a cause of unexplained bleeding.

      Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT): Blood tests in haemophilia usually demonstrate a prolonged aPTT. However, patients with moderate disease can still have a normal aPTT if their factor activity level is > 15%.

      Urinalysis: Urinalysis in patients with haemophilia may demonstrate the presence of haematuria, but by itself is not diagnostic of the condition.

      von Willebrand Factor Antigen: The plasma von Willebrand factor antigen is normal in individuals with haemophilia. Reduced von Willebrand factor suggests the possibility of von Willebrand disease (VWD).

      In conclusion, a combination of these diagnostic tests is necessary to diagnose haemophilia and related conditions accurately.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      0
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  • Question 16 - A 68-year-old man is admitted to the gastroenterology ward with a 9-day history...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man is admitted to the gastroenterology ward with a 9-day history of cramping abdominal pain, fever and diarrhoea, opening his bowels up to 7 times per day. He has a past medical history of COPD and reports to have completed 2 courses of antibiotics to treat an exacerbation within the last 2 weeks.

      After being diagnosed with a likely infection, the patient is started on oral vancomycin but shows little improvement. The treatment is then switched to fidaxomicin, but he still reports ongoing pain and diarrhoea even after completing the course.

      What would be the most appropriate next step in managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral vancomycin and intravenous metronidazole

      Explanation:

      If the initial treatment of C. difficile with vancomycin or fidaxomicin is ineffective, the next step should be to administer oral vancomycin with or without intravenous metronidazole.

      Clostridioides difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It is a Gram positive rod that produces an exotoxin which can cause damage to the intestines, leading to a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is suppressed by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause of C. difficile. Other risk factors include proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale, which ranges from mild to life-threatening.

      To diagnose C. difficile, a stool sample is tested for the presence of C. difficile toxin (CDT). Treatment for a first episode of C. difficile infection typically involves oral vancomycin for 10 days, with fidaxomicin or a combination of oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole being used as second and third-line therapies. Recurrent infections occur in around 20% of patients, increasing to 50% after their second episode. In such cases, oral fidaxomicin is recommended within 12 weeks of symptom resolution, while oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin can be used after 12 weeks. For life-threatening C. difficile infections, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole are used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 17 - A 10-year-old girl is brought to the clinic by her parents due to...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl is brought to the clinic by her parents due to ongoing disobedience towards her parents and other authority figures for the past three years. At school, she has frequently been involved in physical altercations with her peers and was recently reprimanded for damaging school property.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Conduct disorder

      Explanation:

      Understanding Conduct Disorder and Differential Diagnoses

      Conduct disorder is a psychiatric condition characterized by persistent and severe antisocial behaviors that violate social norms and the rights of others. These behaviors may include excessive fighting, cruelty to people or animals, destruction of property, persistent disobedience, and repeated lying. However, conduct disorder can be easily confused with other psychiatric conditions that present with similar symptoms. Here are some differential diagnoses to consider:

      Depression: While depressive disorders can present with oppositional symptoms, they are usually accompanied by disturbances to appetite, sleep, and anhedonia, which are not seen in conduct disorder. However, depression can coexist with conduct disorder.

      Adjustment reaction: Conduct disturbance can also be a reaction to an external stressor, such as divorce, bereavement, abuse, or trauma. However, these symptoms usually occur within three months of the stressor and can last up to six months. If there is no mention of an external stressor, conduct disorder is more likely.

      Attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD): Children with ADHD exhibit symptoms of inattention associated with hyperactivity and impulsiveness, which can affect social and academic functioning. However, unlike conduct disorder, these behaviors do not usually violate societal norms or the rights of others. ADHD can also coexist with conduct disorder.

      Autism spectrum disorder: Children with autism spectrum disorder may present with emotional lability, aggressive outbursts, and destructive behavior, usually in response to an unexpected change in routine or sensory overload. However, there are typical features of autism, such as sensory hypersensitivity, that are not mentioned in conduct disorder. Autism can also coexist with conduct disorder.

      In conclusion, conduct disorder is a serious psychiatric condition that requires early identification and intervention. However, it is important to consider other differential diagnoses to ensure accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 18 - A 28-year-old pregnant woman presents at 34 weeks gestation with a blood pressure...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old pregnant woman presents at 34 weeks gestation with a blood pressure reading of 175/105 mmHg and 3+ proteinuria. She is started on magnesium sulphate and labetalol. The patient reports decreased foetal movements. Upon examination, a cardiotocogram reveals late decelerations and a foetal heart rate of 90 beats/minute. What is the next course of action in managing this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Emergency caesarian section

      Explanation:

      Pre-eclampsia can be diagnosed based on the presence of high levels of protein in the urine and hypertension. To prevent the development of eclampsia, magnesium sulphate is administered, while labetalol is used to manage high blood pressure. If a cardiotocography (CTG) shows late decelerations and foetal bradycardia, this is a concerning sign and may necessitate an emergency caesarean section. Induction would not be recommended if the CTG is abnormal.

      Cardiotocography (CTG) is a medical procedure that measures pressure changes in the uterus using either internal or external pressure transducers. It is used to monitor the fetal heart rate, which normally ranges between 100-160 beats per minute. There are several features that can be observed during a CTG, including baseline bradycardia (heart rate below 100 beats per minute), which can be caused by increased fetal vagal tone or maternal beta-blocker use. Baseline tachycardia (heart rate above 160 beats per minute) can be caused by maternal pyrexia, chorioamnionitis, hypoxia, or prematurity. Loss of baseline variability (less than 5 beats per minute) can be caused by prematurity or hypoxia. Early deceleration, which is a decrease in heart rate that starts with the onset of a contraction and returns to normal after the contraction, is usually harmless and indicates head compression. Late deceleration, on the other hand, is a decrease in heart rate that lags behind the onset of a contraction and does not return to normal until after 30 seconds following the end of the contraction. This can indicate fetal distress, such as asphyxia or placental insufficiency. Variable decelerations, which are independent of contractions, may indicate cord compression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 19 - A new phlebotomist, who has only received one dose of hepatitis B vaccine,...

    Incorrect

    • A new phlebotomist, who has only received one dose of hepatitis B vaccine, accidentally pricks herself with a needle while drawing blood from a patient known to have hepatitis B. What steps should she take to reduce her risk of contracting the virus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give an accelerated course of the hepatitis B vaccine + hepatitis B immune globulin

      Explanation:

      Post-Exposure Prophylaxis for Infectious Diseases

      Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) is a preventive treatment given to individuals who have been exposed to an infectious disease. The type of PEP given depends on the specific disease and the circumstances of the exposure. For hepatitis A, either human normal immunoglobulin (HNIG) or the hepatitis A vaccine may be used. For hepatitis B, if the source is HBsAg positive, a booster dose of the HBV vaccine should be given to known responders. Non-responders require hepatitis B immune globulin (HBIG) and a booster vaccine. If the source is unknown, known responders may receive a booster dose of the HBV vaccine, while known non-responders require HBIG and a vaccine. Those in the process of being vaccinated should have an accelerated course of the HBV vaccine. For hepatitis C, monthly PCR is recommended, and if seroconversion occurs, interferon +/- ribavirin may be given. For HIV, the risk of transmission depends on the incident and the current viral load of the patient. Low-risk incidents such as human bites generally do not require PEP. However, for high-risk incidents, a combination of oral antiretrovirals should be given as soon as possible for four weeks. For varicella zoster, VZIG is recommended for IgG negative pregnant women or immunosuppressed individuals. It is important to note that the risk of transmission varies depending on the virus, with hepatitis B having a higher risk than hepatitis C and HIV.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 20 - A 25-year-old man visits his general practice surgery, explaining that his depression has...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man visits his general practice surgery, explaining that his depression has been cured after four months taking sertraline. He says he is ready to stop taking the medication immediately and is looking forward to being 'normal again'.
      What is the most appropriate management advice you can give this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: He should be treated for at least six months

      Explanation:

      Duration of Antidepressant Treatment for Depression

      It is recommended that a single episode of depression should be treated for at least six months after recovery to prevent relapse. Recurrent episodes warrant at least 12 months of treatment after recovery. Stopping antidepressant treatment immediately on recovery puts patients at a high risk of relapse, with 50% of patients experiencing a relapse of their depressive symptoms. During the recovery phase, adults should receive the same dose used for the treatment of the acute phase. The medication should then be tapered off over a few weeks, according to the type of antidepressant used.

      Stopping medication prematurely, such as after one month or six weeks, would put the patient at a high risk of relapse. If the patient has been using antidepressants over a very short term and has found it maximally effective, they may be able to come off medication sooner than six months. However, this should be managed with caution and only recommended if there are other extenuating factors which would cause them to want to stop, such as side-effects or poor compliance. In this case, the patient has been using sertraline for four months already, has not indicated poor compliance, and there is no indication of issues with side-effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 21 - A 38-year-old woman presents to you with complaints of persistent fatigue that has...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman presents to you with complaints of persistent fatigue that has been ongoing for years. She reports that her fatigue has worsened in the past month and has prevented her from going to work. Despite conducting a thorough tiredness screen, all results have come back negative. The patient has been researching online and asks if you think she may have fibromyalgia or chronic fatigue syndrome. What is the minimum duration of symptoms required for a diagnosis of chronic fatigue syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 4 months

      Explanation:

      Before diagnosing chronic fatigue syndrome, other potential causes of fatigue must be ruled out through a comprehensive tiredness screen. This should include blood tests such as FBC, ESR/CRP, U&E, Cr, and eGFR, LFTs and Ca2+, TFTs, random blood glucose, anti-endomysial antibody test (to exclude coeliac disease), CK, and ferritin.

      Understanding Chronic Fatigue Syndrome

      Chronic fatigue syndrome is a condition that is diagnosed after at least four months of disabling fatigue that affects mental and physical function more than 50% of the time, in the absence of other diseases that may explain the symptoms. It is more common in females, and past psychiatric history has not been shown to be a risk factor. The central feature of chronic fatigue syndrome is fatigue, but other recognized features include sleep problems, muscle and joint pains, headaches, painful lymph nodes without enlargement, sore throat, cognitive dysfunction, physical or mental exertion that makes symptoms worse, general malaise or ‘flu-like’ symptoms, dizziness, nausea, and palpitations.

      To diagnose chronic fatigue syndrome, a large number of screening blood tests are carried out to exclude other pathology, such as FBC, U&E, LFT, glucose, TFT, ESR, CRP, calcium, CK, ferritin, coeliac screening, and urinalysis. The management of chronic fatigue syndrome includes cognitive behavior therapy, graded exercise therapy, pacing, low-dose amitriptyline for poor sleep, and referral to a pain management clinic if pain is a predominant feature. Cognitive behavior therapy is very effective, with a number needed to treat of 2. Graded exercise therapy is a formal supervised program, not advice to go to the gym. Pacing involves organizing activities to avoid tiring. Children and young people have a better prognosis than adults.

      In summary, chronic fatigue syndrome is a debilitating condition that affects both mental and physical function. It is more common in females and is diagnosed after at least four months of disabling fatigue. The management of chronic fatigue syndrome includes cognitive behavior therapy, graded exercise therapy, pacing, low-dose amitriptyline for poor sleep, and referral to a pain management clinic if pain is a predominant feature. Children and young people have a better prognosis than adults.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 22 - A 53-year-old male smoker presents to the emergency department with a sore throat...

    Incorrect

    • A 53-year-old male smoker presents to the emergency department with a sore throat that has been bothering him for a day. He reports feeling generally unwell and has a hoarse voice, but no cough. He has been unable to swallow for the past three hours and is spitting out saliva. During examination, he has a temperature of 38ºC and trismus. There are no obvious abnormalities in his oropharynx, and his tonsils appear normal. Additionally, he has bilateral cervical lymphadenopathy.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Immediate ENT evaluation

      Explanation:

      If a patient presents with acute sore throat but no visible signs in the oropharynx, and experiences severe symptoms such as difficulty swallowing, sepsis, or trismus, it is crucial to seek urgent evaluation from an ENT specialist. This is because these symptoms may indicate a deeper airway infection, such as supraglottitis, which can be life-threatening. Therefore, the patient should not be discharged without a thorough examination, including flexible nasendoscopy. If supraglottitis is diagnosed, treatment should involve IV antibiotics, IV dexamethasone, and adrenaline nebulizers. The patient should be closely monitored in an airway monitored bed, such as in an ENT ward or ICU if necessary.

      Sore throat is a term used to describe various conditions such as pharyngitis, tonsillitis, and laryngitis. According to Clinical Knowledge Summaries, throat swabs and rapid antigen tests should not be routinely carried out for patients with a sore throat. Pain relief can be managed with paracetamol or ibuprofen, and antibiotics are not typically necessary. However, in cases where there is marked systemic upset, unilateral peritonsillitis, a history of rheumatic fever, an increased risk from acute infection, or when three or more Centor criteria are present, antibiotics may be indicated. The Centor and FeverPAIN scoring systems can be used to determine the likelihood of isolating Streptococci. If antibiotics are necessary, phenoxymethylpenicillin or clarithromycin (for penicillin-allergic patients) can be given for a 7 or 10 day course. It is worth noting that a single dose of oral corticosteroid may reduce the severity and duration of pain, although this has not yet been incorporated into UK guidelines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
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  • Question 23 - A 47-year-old man is hospitalized for pneumonia and has a medical history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old man is hospitalized for pneumonia and has a medical history of Addison's disease, taking hydrocortisone (20 mg in the mornings and 10mg in the afternoon). What is the best course of action regarding his steroid dosage?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Double hydrocortisone to 40mg mornings and 20mg afternoon

      Explanation:

      Understanding Corticosteroids and Their Side-Effects

      Corticosteroids are commonly prescribed therapies used to replace or augment the natural activity of endogenous steroids. They can be administered systemically or locally, depending on the condition being treated. However, the usage of corticosteroids is limited due to their numerous side-effects, which are more common with prolonged and systemic therapy.

      Glucocorticoid side-effects include impaired glucose regulation, increased appetite and weight gain, hirsutism, hyperlipidaemia, Cushing’s syndrome, moon face, buffalo hump, striae, osteoporosis, proximal myopathy, avascular necrosis of the femoral head, immunosuppression, increased susceptibility to severe infection, reactivation of tuberculosis, insomnia, mania, depression, psychosis, peptic ulceration, acute pancreatitis, glaucoma, cataracts, suppression of growth in children, intracranial hypertension, and neutrophilia.

      On the other hand, mineralocorticoid side-effects include fluid retention and hypertension. It is important to note that patients on long-term steroids should have their doses doubled during intercurrent illness. Longer-term systemic corticosteroids suppress the natural production of endogenous steroids, so they should not be withdrawn abruptly as this may precipitate an Addisonian crisis. The British National Formulary suggests gradual withdrawal of systemic corticosteroids if patients have received more than 40mg prednisolone daily for more than one week, received more than three weeks of treatment, or recently received repeated courses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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  • Question 24 - An ambulance brings a 70-year-old man to the emergency department with suspected stroke....

    Incorrect

    • An ambulance brings a 70-year-old man to the emergency department with suspected stroke. Upon examination, the man's speech is non-fluent, but his comprehension is intact. He experiences difficulty repeating a phrase. What is the most probable location of the lesion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Frontal lobe

      Explanation:

      The patient in the scenario has non-fluent speech, normal comprehension, and impaired repetition, which is indicative of Broca’s dysphasia. This type of speech abnormality is associated with a lesion in the frontal lobe affecting Broca’s area. When responding to a conversation, the signal travels from the ear to Wernicke’s area for comprehension, then along the arcuate fasciculus to Broca’s area for speech coordination. A lesion in the cerebellum, occipital lobe, parietal lobe, or temporal lobe would not be associated with Broca’s dysphasia.

      Understanding the Different Types of Aphasia

      Aphasia is a language disorder that affects a person’s ability to communicate effectively. There are different types of aphasia, each with its own set of symptoms and causes. Wernicke’s aphasia is caused by a lesion in the superior temporal gyrus, which is responsible for forming speech before sending it to Broca’s area. This type of aphasia results in sentences that make no sense, word substitution, and neologisms, but speech remains fluent. On the other hand, Broca’s aphasia is caused by a lesion in the inferior frontal gyrus, resulting in non-fluent, laboured, and halting speech. Repetition is impaired, but comprehension is normal.

      Conduction aphasia is caused by a stroke affecting the arcuate fasiculus, the connection between Wernicke’s and Broca’s area. Speech is fluent, but repetition is poor, and the person is aware of the errors they are making. Comprehension is normal. Global aphasia is the most severe type, affecting all three areas and resulting in severe expressive and receptive aphasia. However, the person may still be able to communicate using gestures.

      Understanding the different types of aphasia is crucial in providing appropriate treatment and support for individuals with this language disorder. It is important to note that dysarthria is different from aphasia and refers to a motor speech disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 25 - A 47-year-old obese man complains of fatigue and excessive thirst. What is the...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old obese man complains of fatigue and excessive thirst. What is the lowest HbA1c level that can confirm the diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 6.5% (48 mmol/mol)

      Explanation:

      Type 2 diabetes mellitus can be diagnosed through a plasma glucose or HbA1c sample. The diagnostic criteria vary depending on whether the patient is experiencing symptoms or not. If the patient is symptomatic, a fasting glucose level of 7.0 mmol/l or higher or a random glucose level of 11.1 mmol/l or higher (or after a 75g oral glucose tolerance test) indicates diabetes. If the patient is asymptomatic, the same criteria apply but must be demonstrated on two separate occasions.

      In 2011, the World Health Organization released supplementary guidance on the use of HbA1c for diagnosing diabetes. A HbA1c level of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) or higher is diagnostic of diabetes mellitus. However, a HbA1c value of less than 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) does not exclude diabetes and may not be as sensitive as fasting samples for detecting diabetes. For patients without symptoms, the test must be repeated to confirm the diagnosis. It is important to note that increased red cell turnover can cause misleading HbA1c results.

      There are certain conditions where HbA1c cannot be used for diagnosis, such as haemoglobinopathies, haemolytic anaemia, untreated iron deficiency anaemia, suspected gestational diabetes, children, HIV, chronic kidney disease, and people taking medication that may cause hyperglycaemia (such as corticosteroids).

      Impaired fasting glucose (IFG) is defined as a fasting glucose level of 6.1 mmol/l or higher but less than 7.0 mmol/l. Impaired glucose tolerance (IGT) is defined as a fasting plasma glucose level less than 7.0 mmol/l and an OGTT 2-hour value of 7.8 mmol/l or higher but less than 11.1 mmol/l. People with IFG should be offered an oral glucose tolerance test to rule out a diagnosis of diabetes. A result below 11.1 mmol/l but above 7.8 mmol/l indicates that the person does not have diabetes but does have IGT.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 26 - A 50-year-old man has presented to the emergency department with a 2-day history...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man has presented to the emergency department with a 2-day history of bloody diarrhoea 10 times per day associated with colicky abdominal pain.

      Observations are as follows: blood pressure 100/60 mmHg, pulse 90/min, respiratory rate 15/min, temperature 37.8ºC, oxygen saturation 97% on air. The examination is unremarkable apart from diffuse abdominal tenderness.

      Stool analysis revealed Campylobacter jejuni.

      What is the first-line treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clarithromycin

      Explanation:

      If a patient experiences severe symptoms of Campylobacter infection such as bloody diarrhea and more than eight stools per day, treatment with clarithromycin may be necessary. While Campylobacter infection is typically self-limiting, the British National Formulary (BNF) recommends antibiotics for severe cases or for immunocompromised patients. NICE also advises antibiotic treatment for severe symptoms or if symptoms persist for more than one week. Supportive treatment may be sufficient for mild symptoms in immunocompetent patients. Ciprofloxacin is an alternative to clarithromycin, but strains with decreased sensitivity to ciprofloxacin are frequently isolated. Metronidazole and oral vancomycin are not recommended for Campylobacter treatment, but are first-line options for Clostridium difficile.

      Campylobacter: The Most Common Bacterial Cause of Intestinal Disease in the UK

      Campylobacter is a Gram-negative bacillus that is responsible for causing infectious intestinal disease in the UK. The bacteria is primarily spread through the faecal-oral route and has an incubation period of 1-6 days. Symptoms of Campylobacter infection include a prodrome of headache and malaise, diarrhoea (often bloody), and abdominal pain that may mimic appendicitis.

      In most cases, Campylobacter infection is self-limiting and does not require treatment. However, the British National Formulary (BNF) recommends treatment with antibiotics if the patient is immunocompromised or if symptoms are severe (high fever, bloody diarrhoea, or more than eight stools per day) and have lasted for more than one week. The first-line antibiotic for Campylobacter infection is clarithromycin, although ciprofloxacin is an alternative. It is important to note that strains with decreased sensitivity to ciprofloxacin are frequently isolated.

      Complications of Campylobacter infection may include Guillain-Barre syndrome, reactive arthritis, septicaemia, endocarditis, and arthritis. It is important to seek medical attention if symptoms are severe or persist for an extended period of time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 27 - A 32-year-old woman with a 9-month history of weight loss, intermittent bloody mucus...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman with a 9-month history of weight loss, intermittent bloody mucus stools and abdominal pain undergoes a colonoscopy, which shows a mucosal ‘cobblestone’ pattern and skip lesions. She drinks approximately four units of alcohol a week and has a smoking history of five pack years.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate lifestyle advice for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stop smoking

      Explanation:

      Lifestyle Advice for Patients with Inflammatory Bowel Disease

      Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) is a chronic inflammatory process that can affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract. Patients with IBD may experience symptoms such as diarrhoea, abdominal pain, and bleeding. Here are some lifestyle advice for patients with IBD:

      Stop smoking: Research suggests that smoking can make Crohn’s disease worse. Smokers with Crohn’s disease have more severe symptoms and complications, require more medication, and are more likely to need surgery.

      Eat a balanced diet: Patients with IBD may need to be careful about the amount and type of fibre in their diet. During flare-ups, it may be helpful to reduce the amount of insoluble fibre consumed, but, once the flare-up is over, it is important to increase fibre intake again.

      Avoid alcohol: Although there is no evidence that alcohol consumption worsens IBD symptoms, alcohol can affect the lining of the gastrointestinal tract and interact with certain medications.

      Quit smoking: Although smoking may delay or even prevent ulcerative colitis, the health risks of smoking outweigh any benefits seen in UC, and strongly discourage smoking in everyone, whether or not they have IBD.

      Consider probiotics: The role of probiotics in IBD is not fully understood, but their use can be discussed with a General Practitioner or dietitian. More research is needed on their general effectiveness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 28 - A 50-year-old woman presented to her GP with a 3-week history of fatigue,...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presented to her GP with a 3-week history of fatigue, fever and muscle aches. A new murmur was detected in the mitral area.
      Which of the following is the most suitable initial investigation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Blood culture

      Explanation:

      Investigations for Infective Endocarditis: Choosing the Most Appropriate Initial Test

      When a patient presents with fever and a new murmur, infective endocarditis is a likely diagnosis until proven otherwise. The most appropriate initial investigation is a blood culture, with three samples taken from different sites before starting antibiotics. Positive blood cultures are a major criterion for diagnosing infective endocarditis.

      While other investigations may be useful in aiding diagnosis, they are not as specific as blood cultures. An ECG may show evidence of an aortic root abscess and its possible sequelae, such as AV block. A 24-hour ECG is helpful in diagnosing paroxysmal arrhythmias.

      C-reactive protein (CRP) and erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) are non-specific markers that may be raised in infective endocarditis, but also in other conditions such as infection, malignancy, and pregnancy.

      In summary, when suspecting infective endocarditis, the most appropriate initial investigation is a blood culture. Other investigations may be useful in aiding diagnosis, but are not as specific as blood cultures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 29 - During a geriatrics ward round, you assess a 87-year-old woman who was admitted...

    Incorrect

    • During a geriatrics ward round, you assess a 87-year-old woman who was admitted with community acquired pneumonia and AKI requiring IV antibiotics and fluids. She was delirious on admission but has been improving. Her confusion screen bloods show abnormal thyroid function tests:
      Calcium 2.2 mmol/L (2.1 - 2.6)
      Phosphate 1.0 mmol/L (0.8 - 1.4)
      Magnesium 0.8 mmol/L (0.7 - 1.0)
      Vitamin B12 550 pg/ml (110 - 1500)
      Folate 5.6 µg/ml (2.5 - 20)
      TSH 4.6 mU/L (0.5 - 5.5)
      Free T4 6.0 pmol/L (9.0 - 18)
      Free T3 3.6 pmol/L (4 - 7.4)
      She is currently feeling much better on day 6 of her 7 day course of antibiotics and is asymptomatic. She takes bisoprolol, digoxin, ramipril, atorvastatin, and rivaroxaban regularly.
      What is the appropriate course of action for her abnormal thyroid function tests?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ask her GP to repeat thyroid function tests (TFTs) in 6 weeks

      Explanation:

      It is common for elderly patients who are unwell to have abnormal thyroid function tests, known as sick euthyroid. This is likely the case for the woman in question, as she has no history of thyroid disease and is not taking levothyroxine. It may be reasonable to consider starting levothyroxine, but it would be preferable to wait until her current illness has resolved. Discontinuing her antibiotics before completing her course is not appropriate, as they are unlikely to be causing the abnormal TFTs and she is currently asymptomatic. It is also unnecessary to perform a radio-isotope scan, as there is no suspicion of malignancy. Her thyroid function tests tomorrow are expected to be similar.

      Understanding Sick Euthyroid Syndrome

      Sick euthyroid syndrome, also known as non-thyroidal illness, is a condition where the levels of TSH, thyroxine, and T3 are low. However, it is important to note that in most cases, the TSH level is within the normal range, which is considered inappropriate given the low levels of thyroxine and T3. This condition is reversible and typically resolves upon recovery from the underlying systemic illness. As such, treatment is usually not necessary.

      In summary, sick euthyroid syndrome is a condition where the thyroid hormone levels are low, but the TSH level is within the normal range. It is a reversible condition that typically resolves upon recovery from the underlying illness. No treatment is usually required for this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 30 - A 65-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes, angina, and erectile...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes, angina, and erectile dysfunction presents with complaints of rectal pain. During a per rectum examination, the patient experiences discomfort and an anal ulceration is discovered. What is the most probable cause of this man's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nicorandil

      Explanation:

      Nicorandil, a medication used for angina, can lead to anal ulceration as a potential adverse effect. GTN spray may cause headaches, dizziness, and low blood pressure. Gastric discomfort is a possible side effect of both metformin and ibuprofen. Excessive use of paracetamol can result in liver damage.

      Nicorandil is a medication that is commonly used to treat angina. It works by activating potassium channels, which leads to vasodilation. This process is achieved by stimulating guanylyl cyclase, which increases the levels of cGMP in the body. However, there are some adverse effects associated with the use of nicorandil, including headaches, flushing, and the development of ulcers in the skin, mucous membranes, and eyes. Additionally, nicorandil can cause gastrointestinal ulcers, including anal ulceration. It is important to note that nicorandil should not be used in patients with left ventricular failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Renal Medicine/Urology (2/2) 100%
Paediatrics (0/1) 0%
Reproductive Medicine (0/1) 0%
Respiratory Medicine (1/1) 100%
Gastroenterology/Nutrition (0/1) 0%
Psychiatry (2/2) 100%
Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease (0/1) 0%
Passmed