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Question 1
Incorrect
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Which of the following is most commonly linked to elevated levels of CA 19-9?
Your Answer: Ovarian cancer
Correct Answer: Pancreatic cancer
Explanation:CA 19-9 and Pancreatic Cancer
Understanding Tumour Markers
Tumour markers are substances that can be found in the blood, urine, or tissues of people with cancer. They are often used to help diagnose and monitor cancer, as well as to determine the effectiveness of treatment. Tumour markers can be divided into different categories, including monoclonal antibodies against carbohydrate or glycoprotein tumour antigens, tumour antigens, enzymes, and hormones.
Monoclonal antibodies are used to target specific tumour antigens, which are proteins or other molecules that are found on the surface of cancer cells. Some common tumour markers include CA 125 for ovarian cancer, CA 19-9 for pancreatic cancer, and CA 15-3 for breast cancer. However, it is important to note that tumour markers usually have a low specificity, meaning that they can also be found in people without cancer.
Tumour antigens are proteins that are produced by cancer cells and can be detected in the blood or tissues of people with cancer. Some examples of tumour antigens include prostate specific antigen (PSA) for prostatic carcinoma, alpha-feto protein (AFP) for hepatocellular carcinoma and teratoma, and carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) for colorectal cancer.
Enzymes and hormones can also be used as tumour markers. For example, alkaline phosphatase and neurone specific enolase are enzymes that can be elevated in people with cancer, while hormones such as calcitonin and ADH can be used to detect certain types of cancer.
In summary, tumour markers are an important tool in the diagnosis and monitoring of cancer. However, they should be used in conjunction with other diagnostic tests and imaging studies, as they are not always specific to cancer and can also be elevated in people without cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man is being seen in the respiratory clinic after being discharged from the hospital two weeks ago following a COPD exacerbation. Despite having optimised medications, he has had three hospitalisations this year and five last year. He does not smoke or drink alcohol. The consultant has reviewed his recent investigations and imaging and is considering recommending additional medication to reduce exacerbations. What medication is most likely to be suggested for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Azithromycin
Explanation:Patients with COPD who have frequent exacerbations with sputum production, prolonged exacerbations with sputum production, or hospitalizations from exacerbations may be recommended prophylaxis with oral azithromycin if they are non-smokers and have optimized therapy. Before starting azithromycin, the patient should undergo CT thorax, ECG, liver function testing, and sputum cultures. Amoxicillin is not recommended for prophylaxis in COPD patients. Although doxycycline is one of the mainstay antibiotics used to treat acute exacerbations of COPD, it is not used in prophylactic management according to NICE guidelines. Ramipril is used in the management of pulmonary hypertension, which can occur secondary to COPD, but it is not indicated for a patient who experiences frequent exacerbations like the one in this vignette.
NICE guidelines recommend smoking cessation advice, annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccinations, and pulmonary rehabilitation for COPD patients. Bronchodilator therapy is first-line treatment, with the addition of LABA and LAMA for patients without asthmatic features and LABA, ICS, and LAMA for those with asthmatic features. Theophylline is recommended after trials of bronchodilators or for patients who cannot use inhaled therapy. Azithromycin prophylaxis is recommended in select patients. Mucolytics should be considered for patients with a chronic productive cough. Loop diuretics and long-term oxygen therapy may be used for cor pulmonale. Smoking cessation and long-term oxygen therapy may improve survival in stable COPD patients. Lung volume reduction surgery may be considered in selected patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old male patient visits his GP clinic with a complaint of painful blisters and ulcers on his glans, accompanied by pain during urination. He is sexually active and does not use protection during intercourse. His last unprotected sexual encounter was a week ago. What medication would be beneficial for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral aciclovir
Explanation:Male patients with gonorrhea typically experience urethral discharge and dysuria as symptoms, rather than painful ulcers.
Understanding Genital Herpes
Genital herpes is a viral infection caused by the herpes simplex virus (HSV). There are two strains of the virus, HSV-1 and HSV-2, which were previously thought to cause oral and genital lesions respectively. However, there is now considerable overlap between the two strains. The infection is characterized by painful genital ulceration, which may be accompanied by dysuria and pruritus. Primary infections are usually more severe than recurrent episodes and may present with systemic symptoms such as headache, fever, and malaise. Tender inguinal lymphadenopathy and urinary retention may also occur.
To diagnose genital herpes, nucleic acid amplification tests (NAAT) are the preferred investigation method as they are considered superior to viral culture. HSV serology may be useful in certain situations, such as recurrent genital ulceration of unknown cause. Management of the infection involves general measures such as saline bathing, analgesia, and topical anaesthetic agents like lidocaine. Oral aciclovir is also prescribed, and some patients with frequent exacerbations may benefit from longer-term aciclovir.
In pregnant women, a primary attack of herpes occurring after 28 weeks gestation may require an elective caesarean section at term. Women with recurrent herpes who are pregnant should be treated with suppressive therapy and advised that the risk of transmission to their baby is low. Understanding genital herpes and its management is crucial in preventing transmission and managing symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old is diagnosed with an ectopic pregnancy at 8 weeks gestation and undergoes a salpingectomy. She is also rhesus negative. What is the advice regarding anti-D?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anti-D should be given
Explanation:When managing an ectopic pregnancy through surgery, it is necessary to administer Anti-D immunoglobulin. However, if the ectopic pregnancy is being treated medically or if the location of the pregnancy is unknown, Anti-D is not needed. The Coombs test has two types: Direct Coombs, which is used to detect autoimmune haemolytic anaemia, and Indirect Coombs, which is used during pregnancy to identify antibodies in the mother’s blood that can cause haemolytic disease in the newborn.
Rhesus negative pregnancies can lead to the formation of anti-D IgG antibodies in the mother if she delivers a Rh +ve child, which can cause haemolysis in future pregnancies. Prevention involves testing for D antibodies and giving anti-D prophylaxis to non-sensitised Rh -ve mothers at 28 and 34 weeks. Anti-D immunoglobulin should be given within 72 hours in various situations. Tests should be done on all babies born to Rh -ve mothers, and affected fetuses may experience various complications and require treatment such as transfusions and UV phototherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 5
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding metformin is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Should be stopped in a patient admitted with a myocardial infarction
Explanation:After a heart attack, Metformin usage should be discontinued as it can increase the risk of lactic acidosis. However, it can be reintroduced at a later time. To manage diabetes, an insulin/dextrose infusion such as the DIGAMI regimen can be used.
Metformin is a medication commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus. It belongs to a class of drugs called biguanides and works by activating the AMP-activated protein kinase (AMPK), which increases insulin sensitivity and reduces hepatic gluconeogenesis. Additionally, it may decrease the absorption of carbohydrates in the gastrointestinal tract. Unlike other diabetes medications, such as sulphonylureas, metformin does not cause hypoglycemia or weight gain, making it a first-line treatment option, especially for overweight patients. It is also used to treat polycystic ovarian syndrome and non-alcoholic fatty liver disease.
While metformin is generally well-tolerated, gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea, anorexia, and diarrhea are common and can be intolerable for some patients. Reduced absorption of vitamin B12 is also a potential side effect, although it rarely causes clinical problems. In rare cases, metformin can cause lactic acidosis, particularly in patients with severe liver disease or renal failure. However, it is important to note that lactic acidosis is now recognized as a rare side effect of metformin.
There are several contraindications to using metformin, including chronic kidney disease, recent myocardial infarction, sepsis, acute kidney injury, severe dehydration, and alcohol abuse. Additionally, metformin should be discontinued before and after procedures involving iodine-containing x-ray contrast media to reduce the risk of contrast nephropathy.
When starting metformin, it is important to titrate the dose slowly to reduce the incidence of gastrointestinal side effects. If patients experience intolerable side effects, modified-release metformin may be considered as an alternative.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman has a history of excessive sweating, palpitations and weight loss for the past six months. She now has a headache.
On examination, her blood pressure is 230/130 mmHg, with a postural drop to 180/110 mmHg. Her pulse is bounding and 115 beats per minute and she has a tremor and looks pale. The rest of the examination is normal.
Excess production of which of the following hormones is most likely to be the cause of this woman’s signs and symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Catecholamines
Explanation:Explanation of Hypertension and Possible Causes
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, can have various underlying causes. In the case of this patient, their symptoms suggest a rare tumour called phaeochromocytoma, which secretes catecholamines and can lead to malignant hypertension. Hyperaldosteronism and excess cortisol production (Cushing’s syndrome) are other possible causes of hypertension, but they do not explain the patient’s symptoms. Abnormalities in renin, which regulates blood pressure, can also contribute to hypertension. Hyperthyroidism could explain most of the patient’s symptoms, but it is less likely to cause severe hypertension or headaches. Therefore, further investigation is needed to confirm the diagnosis and determine the appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old female patient contacts her GP seeking guidance on folic acid supplements. She and her partner are attempting to conceive, and she has never been pregnant before. She is in good health overall, with a history of asthma that she manages with a salbutamol inhaler as needed. Her BMI is 31 kg/m2, and she has no notable family medical history. What recommendations should she receive?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 5mg folic acid from now until the 12th week of pregnancy
Explanation:Pregnant women with obesity (BMI >30 kg/m2) are recommended to take a high dose of 5mg folic acid from before conception until the 12th week of pregnancy. This is because obesity puts them at a higher risk of neural tube defects. The suggestion of taking 400 micrograms would be for women who are not at a higher risk. Therefore, the other answers provided are incorrect.
Folic Acid: Importance, Deficiency, and Prevention
Folic acid is a vital nutrient that is converted to tetrahydrofolate (THF) in the body. It is found in green, leafy vegetables and plays a crucial role in the transfer of 1-carbon units to essential substrates involved in the synthesis of DNA and RNA. However, certain factors such as phenytoin, methotrexate, pregnancy, and alcohol excess can cause a deficiency in folic acid. This deficiency can lead to macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia and neural tube defects.
To prevent neural tube defects during pregnancy, it is recommended that all women take 400mcg of folic acid until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women at higher risk of conceiving a child with a neural tube defect should take 5mg of folic acid from before conception until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women are considered higher risk if they or their partner has a neural tube defect, they have had a previous pregnancy affected by a neural tube defect, or they have a family history of a neural tube defect. Additionally, women with certain medical conditions such as coeliac disease, diabetes, or thalassaemia trait, or those taking antiepileptic drugs, or who are obese (BMI of 30 kg/m2 or more) are also considered higher risk.
In summary, folic acid is an essential nutrient that plays a crucial role in DNA and RNA synthesis. Deficiency in folic acid can lead to serious health consequences, including neural tube defects. However, taking folic acid supplements during pregnancy can prevent these defects and ensure a healthy pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man experiences a sudden onset of migraine and is administered a subcutaneous injection of sumatriptan, resulting in the alleviation of his symptoms.
What is the mechanism of action of the drug?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Causing vasoconstriction of cranial arteries
Explanation:Understanding the Mechanisms of Sumatriptan: A Migraine and Cluster Headache Treatment
Sumatriptan is a medication commonly used to treat migraine and cluster headaches. It works by activating specific serotonin receptors (5-HT1D and 5-HT1B) found on cranial and basilar arteries, causing vasoconstriction of these blood vessels. This medication can be administered orally, by subcutaneous injection, or intranasally.
It is important to note that sumatriptan has no effect on adrenergic receptors or acetylcholinesterase receptors. It is also not a cyclooxygenase (COX) inhibitor or an opioid receptor agonist or antagonist.
In addition to its effects on blood vessels, sumatriptan has been shown to decrease the activity of the trigeminal nerve, which is responsible for its effectiveness in treating cluster headaches.
Overall, understanding the mechanisms of sumatriptan can help healthcare professionals and patients better understand how this medication works to alleviate the symptoms of migraine and cluster headaches.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old with a history of acne rosacea seeks guidance on treatment options. Which of the following interventions is least helpful in managing the condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Low-dose topical corticosteroids
Explanation:Understanding Rosacea: Symptoms and Management
Rosacea, also known as acne rosacea, is a chronic skin condition that has no known cause. It typically affects the nose, cheeks, and forehead, and the first symptom is often flushing. Over time, telangiectasia (visible blood vessels) may appear, followed by persistent redness with papules and pustules. In some cases, rhinophyma (enlarged nose) may develop, and there may be ocular involvement, such as blepharitis. Sunlight can exacerbate symptoms.
Mild cases of rosacea may be treated with topical metronidazole, while topical brimonidine gel may be used for patients with predominant flushing but limited telangiectasia. More severe cases may require systemic antibiotics like oxytetracycline. Patients are advised to apply high-factor sunscreen daily and use camouflage creams to conceal redness. Laser therapy may be appropriate for those with prominent telangiectasia, and patients with rhinophyma should be referred to a dermatologist.
Overall, understanding the symptoms and management of rosacea can help individuals manage their condition and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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What is the cause of scarlet fever?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Group A haemolytic streptococci
Explanation:Scarlet fever is a condition caused by erythrogenic toxins produced by Group A haemolytic streptococci, usually Streptococcus pyogenes. It is more prevalent in children aged 2-6 years, with the highest incidence at 4 years. The disease spreads through respiratory droplets or direct contact with nose and throat discharges, especially during sneezing and coughing. The incubation period is 2-4 days, and symptoms include fever, malaise, headache, nausea/vomiting, sore throat, ‘strawberry’ tongue, and a rash that appears first on the torso and spares the palms and soles. The rash has a rough ‘sandpaper’ texture and desquamination occurs later in the course of the illness, particularly around the fingers and toes.
To diagnose scarlet fever, a throat swab is usually taken, but antibiotic treatment should be initiated immediately, rather than waiting for the results. Management involves administering oral penicillin V for ten days, while patients with a penicillin allergy should be given azithromycin. Children can return to school 24 hours after commencing antibiotics, and scarlet fever is a notifiable disease. Although usually a mild illness, scarlet fever may be complicated by otitis media, rheumatic fever, acute glomerulonephritis, or rare invasive complications such as bacteraemia, meningitis, or necrotizing fasciitis, which may present acutely with life-threatening illness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man comes in for a check-up. He has just been diagnosed with dry age-related macular degeneration. What is the most efficient way to slow down the advancement of this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stop smoking
Explanation:Smoking has been identified as a risk factor for macular degeneration, while consuming a well-balanced diet rich in fresh fruits and vegetables may help to slow down its progression. Ongoing studies are exploring the potential benefits of additional antioxidants in this regard.
Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by the degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. It is more prevalent in females and is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, family history, and conditions that increase the risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD can be classified into two forms: dry and wet. Dry ARMD is more common and is characterized by drusen, while wet ARMD is characterized by choroidal neovascularisation and carries a worse prognosis. Clinical features of ARMD include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual disturbances such as photopsia and glare.
To diagnose ARMD, slit-lamp microscopy and color fundus photography are used to identify any pigmentary, exudative, or haemorrhagic changes affecting the retina. Fluorescein angiography and indocyanine green angiography may also be used to visualize changes in the choroidal circulation. Treatment for dry ARMD involves a combination of zinc with anti-oxidant vitamins A, C, and E, which has been shown to reduce disease progression by around one third. For wet ARMD, anti-VEGF agents such as ranibizumab, bevacizumab, and pegaptanib are used to limit disease progression and stabilize or reverse visual loss. Laser photocoagulation may also be used to slow progression, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred due to the risk of acute visual loss after treatment.
In summary, ARMD is a common cause of blindness in the UK that is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, and family history. It can be classified into dry and wet forms, with wet ARMD carrying a worse prognosis. Diagnosis involves the use of various imaging techniques, and treatment options include a combination of zinc and anti-oxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents or laser photocoagulation for wet ARMD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man who has been recently started on insulin for type I diabetes presents for a check-up at his local General Practice Surgery.
He admits to feeling a bit confused as to what he should be doing with his insulin since this was explained to him at the Diabetes Clinic while he was still in shock. He was provided with a blood glucose monitor but is unsure when he needs to use it.
How often should the patient be checking his blood glucose?
Select the SINGLE best option from the list below.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: At least four times a day, including before each meal and before bed, increase during periods of illness and before, during and after sport
Explanation:The Importance of Self-Monitoring Blood Glucose in Diabetes Management
Self-monitoring of blood glucose is a crucial aspect of diabetes management. According to the National Institute of Clinical Excellence (NICE) guidelines, blood glucose should be checked at least four times a day, including before each meal and before bed. More frequent monitoring is recommended during periods of illness and before, during, and after sport. Blood glucose targets should be 5-7 mmol/l on waking and 4-7 mmol/l before meals and at other times of the day. Additionally, glycosylated haemoglobin (HbA1c) levels should be checked every 3-6 months with a target of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) or lower. Checking blood glucose only during illness or once a day is not recommended as it can lead to complications such as hypoglycaemia and hyperglycaemia. Regular self-monitoring of blood glucose is essential for good diabetes management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 87-year-old woman presents with disorientation and restlessness. She has a history of hypertension, atrial fibrillation, polymyalgia rheumatica, osteoarthritis and a hiatus hernia. Her current medications include bisoprolol, digoxin, amlodipine, omeprazole, prednisolone and as required paracetamol. She lives independently and is usually mentally alert. She has been increasingly unwell for the past week, complaining of increased pain in her shoulders, so her GP has increased the dose of prednisolone from 5mg to 30mg daily and added codeine 30mg four times a day. Physical examination and blood tests are unremarkable.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Select the SINGLE most likely diagnosis from the list below. Select ONE option only.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Polypharmacy
Explanation:Understanding the Possible Causes of Delirium in the Elderly: A Case Study
This patient is most likely experiencing delirium, which is a common condition among the elderly. One of the leading causes of delirium in this population is polypharmacy, which refers to taking multiple medications. In this case, the patient’s unremarkable physical examination and blood tests suggest that polypharmacy is the most likely explanation for her symptoms. Steroids and opioids, which she recently started taking, are known to cause delirium, especially in older adults. Patients with dementia or mild cognitive impairment are particularly vulnerable to the effects of polypharmacy.
Accidental poisoning is also a possibility, but the patient’s usual independence and mental alertness make this less likely. Additionally, her symptoms have been present for a week, which suggests a longer process than accidental poisoning. A chest infection could also cause delirium, but the patient’s examination and blood tests do not support this diagnosis.
Alcohol withdrawal is another potential cause of disorientation and restlessness, but there is no indication in the patient’s history that she is misusing alcohol. Finally, Alzheimer’s disease is unlikely given the short duration of the patient’s symptoms and her usual mental alertness. Overall, polypharmacy is the most probable cause of this patient’s delirium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 14
Incorrect
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Which of the following causes of gastroenteritis has the lengthiest incubation period?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Giardiasis
Explanation:Gastroenteritis can occur either at home or while traveling, known as travelers’ diarrhea. This condition is characterized by at least three loose to watery stools in 24 hours, accompanied by abdominal cramps, fever, nausea, vomiting, or blood in the stool. The most common cause of travelers’ diarrhea is Escherichia coli. Acute food poisoning is another pattern of illness that results in sudden onset of nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea after ingesting a toxin. Staphylococcus aureus, Bacillus cereus, or Clostridium perfringens are typically responsible for acute food poisoning.
There are several types of infections that can cause gastroenteritis, each with its own typical presentation. Escherichia coli is common among travelers and causes watery stools, abdominal cramps, and nausea. Giardiasis results in prolonged, non-bloody diarrhea, while cholera causes profuse, watery diarrhea and severe dehydration leading to weight loss. Shigella causes bloody diarrhea, vomiting, and abdominal pain, while Staphylococcus aureus results in severe vomiting with a short incubation period. Campylobacter typically starts with a flu-like prodrome and progresses to crampy abdominal pains, fever, and diarrhea, which may be bloody and mimic appendicitis. Bacillus cereus can cause two types of illness, vomiting within six hours, typically due to rice, or diarrheal illness occurring after six hours. Amoebiasis has a gradual onset of bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain, and tenderness that may last for several weeks.
The incubation period for gastroenteritis varies depending on the type of infection. Staphylococcus aureus and Bacillus cereus have an incubation period of 1-6 hours, while Salmonella and Escherichia coli have an incubation period of 12-48 hours. Shigella and Campylobacter have an incubation period of 48-72 hours, while Giardiasis and Amoebiasis have an incubation period of more than seven days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 28-week premature infant is born after prolonged premature rupture of membranes (PROM). The neonate develops temperature instability, respiratory distress, and lethargy about 18 hours after birth. Blood cultures confirm sepsis. What is the probable causative organism?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Group B Streptococcus
Explanation:Sepsis in newborns can be difficult to diagnose as it often presents with non-specific symptoms. Therefore, it is important to have a high level of suspicion and to investigate promptly. There are two types of sepsis in newborns: early-onset (within 48 hours of birth) and late-onset (after 48 hours from birth). Early-onset sepsis is usually caused by microorganisms acquired from the mother’s birth canal, while late-onset sepsis is often caused by hospital-acquired pathogens such as Staphylococcus epidermidis and Staphylococcus aureus. In this case, the newborn is likely to have early-onset sepsis, which is commonly caused by Group B Strep, a bacteria that is normally found in the female genital tract.
Group B Streptococcus (GBS) is a common cause of severe infection in newborns. It is estimated that 20-40% of mothers carry GBS in their bowel flora, which can be passed on to their infants during labor and lead to serious infections. Prematurity, prolonged rupture of membranes, previous sibling GBS infection, and maternal pyrexia are all risk factors for GBS infection. The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) has published guidelines on GBS management, which include not offering universal screening for GBS to all women and not offering screening based on maternal request. Women who have had GBS detected in a previous pregnancy should be offered intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis (IAP) or testing in late pregnancy and antibiotics if still positive. IAP should also be offered to women with a previous baby with GBS disease, women in preterm labor, and women with a fever during labor. Benzylpenicillin is the preferred antibiotic for GBS prophylaxis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents with fatigue, fever, dry cough, headache, chest discomfort and worsening difficulty breathing. She works as a factory worker in a plant that produces air filters.
Which of the following pathogens is the most probable cause of this illness?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Legionella species
Explanation:Differentiating Between Possible Causes of Pneumonia
Pneumonia can be caused by a variety of pathogens, making it important to identify the specific cause in order to provide appropriate treatment. Legionella pneumophila is a common cause of community-acquired and nosocomial pneumonia in adults, often transmitted through contaminated water sources. Chlamydophila psittaci can cause pneumonia after exposure to infected birds, while Staphylococcus aureus can cause various infections when skin or mucosal barriers are breached. Mycoplasma pneumoniae typically causes mild respiratory tract infections, while different groups of Streptococci can cause a range of infections including pneumonia. In this clinical scenario, the patient’s occupation and symptoms suggest an atypical infection, making Legionella pneumophila the most probable cause.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man with no significant medical history presents with a lump in his right groin that he noticed while showering. The lump has been present for two weeks and disappears when he lies down. He does not experience any discomfort, and there are no other gastrointestinal symptoms. Upon examination, a small reducible swelling is observed in the right groin. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Routine referral for surgical repair
Explanation:Patient has an asymptomatic inguinal hernia and surgical repair is recommended as conservative management may not be effective.
Understanding Inguinal Hernias
Inguinal hernias are the most common type of abdominal wall hernias, with 75% of cases falling under this category. They are more prevalent in men, with a 25% lifetime risk of developing one. The main feature of an inguinal hernia is a lump in the groin area, which is located superior and medial to the pubic tubercle. This lump disappears when pressure is applied or when the patient lies down. Discomfort and aching are common symptoms, which can worsen with activity, but severe pain is rare. Strangulation, a serious complication, is uncommon.
The clinical management of inguinal hernias involves treating medically fit patients, even if they are asymptomatic. A hernia truss may be an option for patients who are not fit for surgery, but it has little role in other patients. Mesh repair is the preferred method of treatment, as it is associated with the lowest recurrence rate. Unilateral hernias are generally repaired with an open approach, while bilateral and recurrent hernias are repaired laparoscopically. Patients can return to non-manual work after 2-3 weeks following an open repair and after 1-2 weeks following laparoscopic repair, according to the Department for Work and Pensions.
Complications of inguinal hernias include early bruising and wound infection, as well as late chronic pain and recurrence. While traditional textbooks describe the anatomical differences between indirect and direct hernias, this is not relevant to clinical management. Overall, understanding the features, management, and complications of inguinal hernias is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Which one of the following can be utilized for monitoring patients with colorectal cancer?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Carcinoembryonic antigen
Explanation:Carcinoembryonic antigen can be utilized for post-operative recurrence monitoring in patients or evaluating the effectiveness of treatment in those with metastatic disease.
Colorectal Cancer Screening: Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT)
Colorectal cancer is often developed from adenomatous polyps. Screening for this type of cancer has been proven to reduce mortality by 16%. The NHS offers a home-based screening programme called Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT) to older adults. A one-off flexible sigmoidoscopy was trialled in England for people aged 55 years, but it was abandoned in 2021 due to the inability to recruit enough clinical endoscopists, which was exacerbated by the COVID-19 pandemic. The trial, partly funded by Cancer Research UK, showed promising early results, and it remains to be seen whether flexible sigmoidoscopy will be used as part of a future bowel screening programme.
Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT) Screening:
The NHS now has a national screening programme that offers screening every two years to all men and women aged 60 to 74 years in England and 50 to 74 years in Scotland. Patients aged over 74 years may request screening. Eligible patients are sent FIT tests through the post. FIT is a type of faecal occult blood (FOB) test that uses antibodies that specifically recognise human haemoglobin (Hb). It is used to detect and quantify the amount of human blood in a single stool sample. FIT has advantages over conventional FOB tests because it only detects human haemoglobin, as opposed to animal haemoglobin ingested through diet. Only one faecal sample is needed compared to the 2-3 for conventional FOB tests. While a numerical value is generated, this is not reported to the patient or GP. Instead, they will be informed if the test is normal or abnormal. Patients with abnormal results are offered a colonoscopy. At colonoscopy, approximately 5 out of 10 patients will have a normal exam, 4 out of 10 patients will be found to have polyps that may be removed due to their premalignant potential, and 1 out of 10 patients will be found to have cancer. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man presents to his GP clinic complaining of confusion and difficulty sleeping for the past 5 months. According to his wife, his confusion varies in severity from day to day, and he has been experiencing visual hallucinations of people and animals in their home. The patient is currently taking apixaban 5 mg, amlodipine 5mg, and atorvastatin 20 mg, and there is no recent history of infection. Physical examination reveals normal vital signs and no motor or speech impairment, but the patient struggles to draw a clock face and count down from 20 to 1 correctly. A urine dip test is unremarkable. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lewy body dementia
Explanation:Based on the information provided, Lewy body dementia is the most probable diagnosis. Unlike other forms of dementia, it is characterized by fluctuating cognitive abilities, particularly in attention and executive functioning. The patient may also experience sleep disturbances, visual hallucinations, and parkinsonism. To confirm the diagnosis, the patient will need to undergo cognitive testing, blood tests, and a CT head scan to rule out other conditions. SPECT imaging may also be considered if there is still uncertainty, as it is highly sensitive and specific for Lewy body dementia.
Alzheimer’s disease is less likely as memory impairment is typically the first cognitive domain affected, and confusion is not as fluctuating. Visual hallucinations are also less common than in Lewy body dementia.
Chronic subdural hematoma is unlikely as it typically presents with reduced consciousness or neurological deficits rather than cognitive deficits alone. Given the patient’s age and anticoagulation therapy, CT imaging should be performed to rule out any intracranial hemorrhage.
Frontotemporal dementia is unlikely as it typically presents before the age of 65 with personality changes and social conduct problems, while memory and visuospatial skills are relatively preserved.
Understanding Lewy Body Dementia
Lewy body dementia is a type of dementia that is becoming more recognized as a cause of cognitive impairment, accounting for up to 20% of cases. It is characterized by the presence of alpha-synuclein cytoplasmic inclusions, known as Lewy bodies, in certain areas of the brain. While there is a complicated relationship between Parkinson’s disease and Lewy body dementia, with dementia often seen in Parkinson’s disease, the two conditions are distinct. Additionally, up to 40% of patients with Alzheimer’s disease have Lewy bodies.
The features of Lewy body dementia include progressive cognitive impairment, which typically occurs before parkinsonism, but both features usually occur within a year of each other. Unlike other forms of dementia, cognition may fluctuate, and early impairments in attention and executive function are more common than memory loss. Other features include parkinsonism, visual hallucinations, and sometimes delusions and non-visual hallucinations.
Diagnosis of Lewy body dementia is usually clinical, but single-photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) can be used to confirm the diagnosis. Management of Lewy body dementia involves the use of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors and memantine, similar to Alzheimer’s disease. However, neuroleptics should be avoided as patients with Lewy body dementia are extremely sensitive and may develop irreversible parkinsonism. It is important to carefully consider the use of medication in these patients to avoid worsening their condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents to the Genitourinary Medicine Clinic with an 8-day history of dysuria and lower abdominal pain. She has had two sexual partners over the last three months and uses the combined oral contraceptive pill as contraception. She has noticed some spotting and post-coital bleeding since her last period and a foul-smelling vaginal discharge for the last few days. There is no past medical history of note and no known allergies.
On examination, she has lower abdominal tenderness but no guarding or palpable organomegaly. On examination, there is a thick yellow vaginal discharge and mildly tender palpable inguinal lymphadenopathy.
Given the likely diagnosis, what is the most appropriate management for this patient?
Select the SINGLE most appropriate management from the list below.
Select ONE option only.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Doxycycline
Explanation:Treatment Options for Sexually Transmitted Diseases
Sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) can present with a variety of symptoms and signs. The most common STD is Chlamydia trachomatis, which can be asymptomatic or present with dysuria, abdominal pain, and vaginal discharge. Endocervical and high vaginal swabs should be taken, and a urinalysis and pregnancy test should be completed. The first-line treatment for C. trachomatis is doxycycline.
Ceftriaxone is indicated for Neisseria gonorrhoeae infections, which can present similarly to chlamydia with discharge and dysuria. However, the most likely diagnosis for this patient is C. trachomatis, making doxycycline the correct answer.
Benzylpenicillin is used in patients with suspected syphilis infection secondary to the spirochaete Treponema pallidum. Syphilis has primary, secondary, and tertiary stages with primary syphilis presenting as a painless chancre with local, non-tender lymphadenopathy prior to secondary disease with fever and a rash. This is not seen here, making syphilis a less likely diagnosis.
Metronidazole is the recommended treatment for bacterial vaginosis and Trichomonas vaginalis. However, it is not used in the treatment of C. trachomatis.
Trimethoprim would be the recommended treatment if this patient was diagnosed with a urinary-tract infection (UTI). While the history of lower abdominal pain and dysuria are suggestive of a UTI, a foul-smelling vaginal discharge points towards an alternative diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man with a chronic history of back pain visits his GP with complaints of left eye pain and sensitivity to light. Upon examination, the pupil appears small and oval-shaped, accompanied by ciliary congestion. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anterior uveitis
Explanation:It is possible that his chronic back pain is related to HLA-B27, which is often associated with anterior uveitis. As for his red eye, it could be indicative of either glaucoma or uveitis. Glaucoma typically presents with severe pain, haloes, and a semi-dilated pupil, while uveitis is characterized by a small, fixed oval pupil and ciliary flush.
Understanding the Causes of Red Eye
Red eye is a common condition that can be caused by various factors. It is important to identify the underlying cause of red eye to determine the appropriate treatment. In some cases, urgent referral to an ophthalmologist may be necessary. Here are some of the key distinguishing features of the different causes of red eye:
Acute angle closure glaucoma is characterized by severe pain, decreased visual acuity, and haloes. The pupil may also be semi-dilated and the cornea hazy.
Anterior uveitis presents with acute onset, pain, blurred vision, and photophobia. The pupil is small and fixed, and there may be ciliary flush.
Scleritis is characterized by severe pain and tenderness, which may worsen with movement. It may also be associated with underlying autoimmune diseases such as rheumatoid arthritis.
Conjunctivitis may be bacterial or viral, with purulent or clear discharge, respectively.
Subconjunctival haemorrhage may be caused by trauma or coughing bouts.
Endophthalmitis typically occurs after intraocular surgery and presents with red eye, pain, and visual loss.
By understanding the different causes of red eye and their distinguishing features, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate management and referral when necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 79-year-old man with a medical history of prostate cancer, asthma, and COPD presents to the emergency department with complaints of abdominal pain, bone pain, and general weakness. During investigations, a shortened QT interval is noted on his ECG. What is the initial management approach for this complication in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: IV 0.9% N saline
Explanation:Understanding the Causes of Hypercalcaemia
Hypercalcaemia is a medical condition characterized by high levels of calcium in the blood. In most cases, two conditions account for 90% of hypercalcaemia cases. The first is primary hyperparathyroidism, which is the most common cause in non-hospitalized patients. The second is malignancy, which is the most common cause in hospitalized patients. Malignancy-related hypercalcaemia may be due to various processes, including PTHrP from the tumor, bone metastases, and myeloma. For this reason, measuring parathyroid hormone levels is crucial when investigating patients with hypercalcaemia.
Other causes of hypercalcaemia include sarcoidosis, tuberculosis, histoplasmosis, vitamin D intoxication, acromegaly, thyrotoxicosis, milk-alkali syndrome, drugs such as thiazides and calcium-containing antacids, dehydration, Addison’s disease, and Paget’s disease of the bone. It is important to note that hypercalcaemia may occur with prolonged immobilization in patients with Paget’s disease of the bone, although this condition is usually normal.
In summary, hypercalcaemia can be caused by various medical conditions, with primary hyperparathyroidism and malignancy being the most common. Measuring parathyroid hormone levels is essential in investigating patients with hypercalcaemia. Other causes of hypercalcaemia include sarcoidosis, tuberculosis, histoplasmosis, vitamin D intoxication, acromegaly, thyrotoxicosis, milk-alkali syndrome, drugs, dehydration, Addison’s disease, and Paget’s disease of the bone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man presents with persistent dyspepsia that is alleviated by omeprazole. He has been taking omeprazole 20 mg daily for the past 2 years. What is a drawback of using a proton-pump inhibitor (PPI) for an extended period of time?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increased risk of fractures
Explanation:According to the BNF, PPIs should be taken in the lowest effective dose for the shortest possible time, and their long-term use should be regularly evaluated. Prolonged use of PPIs can conceal the signs of stomach cancer and heighten the likelihood of osteoporosis and fractures by hindering the absorption of calcium and magnesium.
Understanding Proton Pump Inhibitors and Their Adverse Effects
Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) are medications that block the H+/K+ ATPase of the gastric parietal cell, leading to irreversible effects. Common examples of PPIs include omeprazole and lansoprazole. While these medications are effective in treating conditions such as gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) and peptic ulcers, they can also have adverse effects on the body.
One of the potential adverse effects of PPIs is hyponatremia, which is a condition characterized by low levels of sodium in the blood. PPIs can also lead to hypomagnesemia, which is a deficiency of magnesium in the blood. Additionally, long-term use of PPIs has been linked to an increased risk of osteoporosis and fractures. Another potential adverse effect is microscopic colitis, which is inflammation of the colon that can cause diarrhea and abdominal pain. Finally, PPIs have been associated with an increased risk of C. difficile infections, which can cause severe diarrhea and other gastrointestinal symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman who was diagnosed with HIV-1 three years ago is being seen in clinic. She is currently in good health and has not reported any symptoms. She only takes paracetamol occasionally for headaches. Her recent blood tests show:
CD4 325 * 106/l
What is the recommended course of action for antiretroviral therapy?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Start antiretroviral therapy now
Explanation:Antiretroviral therapy (ART) for HIV involves a combination of at least three drugs, typically two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTI) and either a protease inhibitor (PI) or a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NNRTI). Entry inhibitors, NRTIs, NNRTIs, PIs, and integrase inhibitors are all used to manage HIV. The 2015 BHIVA guidelines recommend starting ART as soon as a patient is diagnosed with HIV. Each drug has its own side effects, and some of the common ones include peripheral neuropathy, renal impairment, osteoporosis, diabetes, hyperlipidemia, and P450 enzyme interaction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 61-year-old man presents to the emergency department after experiencing syncope. Upon assessment, his respiratory rate is 20/min, heart rate is 170/min, and BP is 78/40 mmHg. An ECG reveals a regular tachycardia with a wide complex. The patient is given a peripheral venous line, blood is drawn, and an ECG monitor is attached. What is the next best course of action for managing this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: DC cardioversion
Explanation:Given the patient’s syncope, low BP, and regular wide complex tachycardia, which is likely to be ventricular tachycardia, the appropriate next step is DC cardioversion since the systolic BP is below 90 mmHg. Adenosine is not relevant in this scenario as it is used for managing narrow complex regular tachycardia with no adverse features. Amiodarone is an antiarrhythmic medication that could be used to treat ventricular tachycardia, but it is not appropriate in this case due to the patient’s syncope and low BP.
Management of Peri-Arrest Tachycardias
The Resuscitation Council (UK) guidelines for the management of peri-arrest tachycardias have been simplified in the 2015 update. The previous separate algorithms for broad-complex tachycardia, narrow complex tachycardia, and atrial fibrillation have been replaced by a unified treatment algorithm. After basic ABC assessment, patients are classified as stable or unstable based on the presence of adverse signs such as hypotension, pallor, sweating, confusion, or impaired consciousness. If any of these signs are present, synchronised DC shocks should be given, up to a maximum of three shocks.
The treatment following this is based on whether the QRS complex is narrow or broad and whether the rhythm is regular or irregular. For broad-complex tachycardia, a loading dose of amiodarone followed by a 24-hour infusion is given if the rhythm is regular. If the rhythm is irregular, expert help should be sought as it could be due to atrial fibrillation with bundle branch block, atrial fibrillation with ventricular pre-excitation, or torsade de pointes.
For narrow-complex tachycardia, vagal manoeuvres followed by IV adenosine are given if the rhythm is regular. If unsuccessful, atrial flutter is considered, and rate control is achieved with beta-blockers. If the rhythm is irregular, it is likely due to atrial fibrillation, and electrical or chemical cardioversion is considered if the onset is less than 48 hours. Beta-blockers are usually the first-line treatment for rate control unless contraindicated. The full treatment algorithm can be found on the Resuscitation Council website.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 74-year-old woman is being evaluated after taking oral flucloxacillin for cellulitis in her right lower limb. The local protocol recommends using oral clindamycin as the next line of treatment. What is the most crucial side effect of clindamycin that she should be cautioned about?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diarrhoea
Explanation:The use of clindamycin as a treatment is strongly linked to an increased likelihood of contracting C. difficile.
Clostridioides difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It is a Gram positive rod that produces an exotoxin which can cause damage to the intestines, leading to a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is suppressed by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause of C. difficile. Other risk factors include proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale, which ranges from mild to life-threatening.
To diagnose C. difficile, a stool sample is tested for the presence of C. difficile toxin (CDT). Treatment for a first episode of C. difficile infection typically involves oral vancomycin for 10 days, with fidaxomicin or a combination of oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole being used as second and third-line therapies. Recurrent infections occur in around 20% of patients, increasing to 50% after their second episode. In such cases, oral fidaxomicin is recommended within 12 weeks of symptom resolution, while oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin can be used after 12 weeks. For life-threatening C. difficile infections, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole are used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman visits her GP to inquire about preconception care as she is eager to conceive. She has a BMI of 36 kg/m2 and a family history of T2DM and epilepsy, but no other significant medical history. What is the primary complication her baby may be at risk of?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Neural tube defects
Explanation:Maternal obesity with a BMI of 30 kg/m2 or more increases the risk of neural tube defects in babies. There is no strong evidence linking obesity to hyper- or hypothyroidism in neonates, an increased risk of Down syndrome, or cystic fibrosis.
Folic Acid: Importance, Deficiency, and Prevention
Folic acid is a vital nutrient that is converted to tetrahydrofolate (THF) in the body. It is found in green, leafy vegetables and plays a crucial role in the transfer of 1-carbon units to essential substrates involved in the synthesis of DNA and RNA. However, certain factors such as phenytoin, methotrexate, pregnancy, and alcohol excess can cause a deficiency in folic acid. This deficiency can lead to macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia and neural tube defects.
To prevent neural tube defects during pregnancy, it is recommended that all women take 400mcg of folic acid until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women at higher risk of conceiving a child with a neural tube defect should take 5mg of folic acid from before conception until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women are considered higher risk if they or their partner has a neural tube defect, they have had a previous pregnancy affected by a neural tube defect, or they have a family history of a neural tube defect. Additionally, women with certain medical conditions such as coeliac disease, diabetes, or thalassaemia trait, or those taking antiepileptic drugs, or who are obese (BMI of 30 kg/m2 or more) are also considered higher risk.
In summary, folic acid is an essential nutrient that plays a crucial role in DNA and RNA synthesis. Deficiency in folic acid can lead to serious health consequences, including neural tube defects. However, taking folic acid supplements during pregnancy can prevent these defects and ensure a healthy pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man comes to your clinic complaining of feeling down. He reports experiencing anhedonia, fatigue, weight loss, insomnia, and agitation. His PHQ-9 score is 20. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Start citalopram and refer for CBT
Explanation:Based on the man’s PHQ-9 score and varied symptoms, it appears that he is suffering from severe depression. According to NICE guidelines, a combination of an antidepressant and psychological intervention is recommended for this level of depression, with an SSRI being the first choice antidepressant. Therefore, citalopram with CBT would be the appropriate treatment in this case. Referral to psychiatry is not necessary at this time. Venlafaxine would be considered as a later option if other antidepressants were ineffective. While fluoxetine is a good first-line antidepressant, it should be combined with a psychological intervention for severe depression. CBT alone is suitable for mild to moderate depression, but for severe depression, an antidepressant in combination with psychological intervention is recommended.
In 2022, NICE updated its guidelines on managing depression and now classifies it as either less severe or more severe based on a patient’s PHQ-9 score. For less severe depression, NICE recommends discussing treatment options with patients and considering the least intrusive and resource-intensive treatment first. Antidepressant medication should not be routinely offered as first-line treatment unless it is the patient’s preference. Treatment options for less severe depression include guided self-help, group cognitive behavioral therapy, group behavioral activation, individual CBT or BA, group exercise, group mindfulness and meditation, interpersonal psychotherapy, SSRIs, counseling, and short-term psychodynamic psychotherapy. For more severe depression, NICE recommends a shared decision-making approach and suggests a combination of individual CBT and an antidepressant as the preferred treatment option. Other treatment options for more severe depression include individual CBT or BA, antidepressant medication, individual problem-solving, counseling, short-term psychodynamic psychotherapy, interpersonal psychotherapy, guided self-help, and group exercise.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old male is admitted with acute severe asthma. The initial treatment of 100% oxygen, nebulised salbutamol and ipratropium bromide nebulisers and IV hydrocortisone is initiated. However, there is no improvement. What should be the next step in management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: IV magnesium sulphate
Explanation:The routine use of non-invasive ventilation in asthmatics is not supported by current guidelines.
Management of Acute Asthma
Acute asthma is classified by the British Thoracic Society (BTS) into three categories: moderate, severe, and life-threatening. Patients with any of the life-threatening features should be treated as having a life-threatening attack. A fourth category, Near-fatal asthma, is also recognized. Further assessment may include arterial blood gases for patients with oxygen saturation levels below 92%. A chest x-ray is not routinely recommended unless the patient has life-threatening asthma, suspected pneumothorax, or failure to respond to treatment.
Admission criteria include a previous near-fatal asthma attack, pregnancy, an attack occurring despite already using oral corticosteroid, and presentation at night. All patients with life-threatening asthma should be admitted to the hospital, and patients with features of severe acute asthma should also be admitted if they fail to respond to initial treatment. Oxygen therapy should be started for hypoxaemic patients. Bronchodilation with short-acting beta₂-agonists (SABA) is recommended, and all patients should be given 40-50mg of prednisolone orally daily. Ipratropium bromide and IV magnesium sulphate may also be considered for severe or life-threatening asthma. Patients who fail to respond require senior critical care support and should be treated in an appropriate ITU/HDU setting. Criteria for discharge include stability on discharge medication, checked and recorded inhaler technique, and PEF levels above 75% of best or predicted.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman experiences weekly migraines despite making lifestyle changes and avoiding triggers. Her doctor has agreed to prescribe medication for migraine prevention. She is in good health and does not take any regular medications. Her blood pressure measures 130/83 mmHg.
Which medication would be the most appropriate for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Propranolol
Explanation:For migraine treatment, the recommended acute options are a combination of triptan with NSAID or paracetamol. For prophylaxis, the recommended options are topiramate or propranolol. In a woman of childbearing age with no asthma history and requiring migraine prophylaxis, propranolol is the most appropriate option. Although it should be avoided during pregnancy, it does not carry the high risk of birth defects associated with topiramate. Carbamazepine is not recommended for migraine treatment but is licensed for trigeminal neuralgia. Gabapentin is not effective for migraine prophylaxis and is not recommended by NICE guidelines. Topiramate is an option for migraine prophylaxis, but it is not the most appropriate first-line option for a woman of childbearing age due to its teratogenic effects. Highly effective contraception is required if topiramate is used. The recommended safe options for contraception are the copper intrauterine device, levonorgestrel intrauterine system (Mirena), or Depo-Provera injections plus condoms, as per guidelines from the Faculty of Reproductive and Sexual Health (FSRH).
Managing Migraines: Guidelines and Treatment Options
Migraines can be debilitating and affect a significant portion of the population. To manage migraines, it is important to understand the different treatment options available. According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines, acute treatment for migraines involves a combination of an oral triptan and an NSAID or paracetamol. For young people aged 12-17 years, a nasal triptan may be preferred. If these measures are not effective, non-oral preparations of metoclopramide or prochlorperazine may be considered, along with a non-oral NSAID or triptan.
Prophylaxis should be given if patients are experiencing two or more attacks per month. NICE recommends topiramate or propranolol, depending on the patient’s preference, comorbidities, and risk of adverse events. Propranolol is preferred in women of childbearing age as topiramate may be teratogenic and reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives. Acupuncture and riboflavin may also be effective in reducing migraine frequency and intensity for some people. For women with predictable menstrual migraines, frovatriptan or zolmitriptan may be recommended as a type of mini-prophylaxis.
Specialists may consider other treatment options, such as candesartan or monoclonal antibodies directed against the calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP) receptor, like erenumab. However, pizotifen is no longer recommended due to common adverse effects like weight gain and drowsiness. It is important to exercise caution with young patients as acute dystonic reactions may develop. By following these guidelines and considering various treatment options, migraines can be effectively managed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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