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  • Question 1 - A 14-year-old boy presents to his family physician complaining of headaches, delayed puberty,...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old boy presents to his family physician complaining of headaches, delayed puberty, growth retardation, and difficulty with spatial awareness. Upon visual field testing, a bitemporal hemianopia is observed. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pituitary adenoma

      Correct Answer: Craniopharyngioma

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis for an adolescent with growth hormone deficiency and an intracranial mass

      Craniopharyngioma, suprasellar meningioma, pituitary adenoma, and multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) are among the possible diagnoses for an adolescent with growth hormone deficiency and an intracranial mass. Craniopharyngioma is the most common cause of growth hormone deficiency in children, while suprasellar meningioma is rare in adolescents and may present with gradual-onset headache and visual field defects. Pituitary adenoma is more common in adults, but can also occur in adolescents. MEN typically involves multiple endocrine organs and may present with a variety of endocrine manifestations, but the pattern of symptoms in this case does not fit with MEN. Constitutional delay is a common cause of delayed puberty, but the presence of visual field deficits suggests a need for further evaluation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosurgery
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  • Question 2 - A 64-year-old computer programmer reported experiencing frequent headaches to his GP. Upon examination,...

    Incorrect

    • A 64-year-old computer programmer reported experiencing frequent headaches to his GP. Upon examination, the GP observed papilloedema and pupillary dilation and referred the patient for further radiological studies and to a neurologist. The results of the radiological studies revealed a mass causing non-communicating hydrocephalus. Where is the most likely location of the tumour?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pineal gland

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Possible Causes of Non-Communicating Hydrocephalus

      Non-communicating hydrocephalus can be caused by various factors, including a pinealoma, which is a slow-growing tumor of the pineal gland. This type of tumor can compress the midbrain cerebral aqueduct, leading to a blockage in the flow of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) from the lateral and third ventricles to the fourth ventricle and subarachnoid space. To address this issue, surgical placement of a shunt may be necessary.

      Another possible cause of non-communicating hydrocephalus is a midbrain tumor, such as a pinealoma, which can compress the Edinger-Westphal nuclei. This can result in mydriasis or dilation of the pupil due to the lack of parasympathetic input from the Edinger-Westphal nuclei to the oculomotor muscles.

      It is important to note that a cerebellar lesion is unlikely to cause non-communicating hydrocephalus, as it is associated with defects in coordination and changes in gait. Similarly, an optic nerve lesion is also unlikely to cause this condition, as afferent fibers from the retina pass through the optic nerve to the hypothalamic lateral geniculate nucleus. A lesion in the lateral geniculate nucleus is more likely to cause visual symptoms rather than non-communicating hydrocephalus.

      In summary, understanding the possible causes of non-communicating hydrocephalus can help in identifying and addressing the underlying issue. A thorough evaluation and diagnosis by a medical professional is necessary for proper treatment and management of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosurgery
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  • Question 3 - A 68-year-old man came to the Emergency Department following a seizure at home,...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man came to the Emergency Department following a seizure at home, which he had never experienced before. He experienced moderate weakness on his left side during the initial postictal period, which quickly subsided. He is disoriented, and his wife reports that he has been experiencing dull, throbbing headaches that he can feel throughout his head. He has a medical history of hypertension and type II diabetes, which he manages with an ACE inhibitor and metformin. Upon neurological examination, the patient exhibits reduced strength in his right upper limb.

      What is the definitive diagnostic test for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) brain

      Explanation:

      Choosing the Right Investigation for Neurological Symptoms: A Comparison of Imaging Techniques

      When a patient presents with neurological symptoms, it is important to choose the right investigation to identify any underlying pathology. In this article, we compare four common imaging techniques and a neurological examination to determine their usefulness in different scenarios.

      Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) brain is the gold standard investigation for identifying space-occupying lesions of the brain. It offers the greatest quality image and is particularly useful for patients with chronic neurological symptoms, reduced power on one side of the body, confusion, and new onset seizures.

      Computed tomography (CT) brain is an appropriate investigation for patients with new onset seizures and focal neurological findings. However, an MRI brain provides greater clarity and resolution in identifying underlying pathology, making it the preferred investigation for space-occupying brain lesions.

      Computed tomography (CT) brain with contrast is helpful in identifying central nervous system tumours or infections. However, an MRI brain is still the more detailed investigation for significant brain pathology.

      A neurological examination is an important and sensitive test that can point to a region or type of pathology. However, its specificity in identifying different pathologies is fairly low, making it necessary to follow up with more advanced imaging techniques.

      X-ray head and neck is appropriate for suspected fractures or dislocations in the cervical spine, but not for identifying neurological symptoms.

      In conclusion, choosing the right investigation for neurological symptoms depends on the specific symptoms and suspected underlying pathology. MRI brain is the gold standard for identifying space-occupying lesions, while CT brain with contrast is helpful for identifying tumours or infections. A neurological examination is a useful initial test, but more advanced imaging techniques are often necessary for a definitive diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosurgery
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  • Question 4 - A 65-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with back pain. The pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with back pain. The pain has come on gradually over several weeks and is getting worse. He denies any shooting pain down his legs. He has a past medical history of diabetes mellitus and hypertension. He was also diagnosed with localised prostate cancer five years ago and was treated with radiotherapy as he declined surgery. The prostate showed a significant reduction in size following the radiotherapy. On examination, there is a mild reduction in power in his legs and reduced anal tone on digital rectal examination.
      Which imaging modality would be most useful to perform for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urgent magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) spine

      Explanation:

      Importance of Appropriate Imaging in Spinal Cord Compression

      Spinal cord compression is a medical emergency that requires urgent investigation and appropriate management. The choice of imaging modality is crucial in determining the cause and extent of the compression.

      For a patient with a history of malignancy who develops gradual-onset back pain, an urgent MRI spine is required to investigate the possibility of metastatic cancer to the spine. Failure to diagnose this condition promptly could result in severe paralysis.

      In cases of spinal cord compression, a non-urgent (routine) CT scan would be inadequate as it does not allow for detailed soft tissue viewing. Similarly, an X-ray of the spine would only show the vertebrae and not the extent of the compression.

      Delaying investigation of spinal cord compression could result in permanent spinal cord damage. Therefore, appropriate imaging, such as an urgent MRI spine, is crucial in guiding further management and preventing irreversible damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosurgery
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  • Question 5 - A 35-year-old man presents with complaints of numbness in his lower extremities. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents with complaints of numbness in his lower extremities. He has no significant medical history. Upon physical examination, there is a loss of proprioception on his left side below the umbilical line, and complete loss of sensation at the umbilical line. Furthermore, there is a loss of thermal and pain sensation in the groin area and below, on the right side. Radiological imaging reveals a mass on the spine. What is the most likely location of the mass?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thoracic level 10 on the right side

      Explanation:

      Understanding Sensory Loss in Spinal Lesions at Different Levels

      Spinal lesions can cause a range of sensory deficits depending on the level of the injury. For example, a lesion at the right tenth thoracic level can result in Brown-Séquard syndrome, with loss of tactile discrimination and vibratory and proprioceptive sensations on the ipsilateral side below the lesion, and loss of pain and temperature sensation on the contralateral side 2-3 levels below the lesion. However, a lesion at lumbar level 1 on the left side would cause sensory loss on the opposite side, around the level of the anterior superior iliac spines. It’s important to note that the umbilical line is innervated by T10, so a lesion at T11 on either side would spare sensation at this level. Understanding these patterns of sensory loss can aid in diagnosing and treating spinal lesions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosurgery
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  • Question 6 - A 32-year-old man presents with sudden-onset severe occipital headache and neck stiffness. His...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man presents with sudden-onset severe occipital headache and neck stiffness. His wife helped him into bed but had to call an ambulance after he became increasingly confused and drowsy. He is currently under investigation for chronic renal failure. On examination, his Glasgow Coma Score (GCS) is 6 and his blood pressure is elevated at 192/100 mmHg. There are bilateral ballotable renal masses on abdominal palpation.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 131 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 9.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 189 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 139 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.9 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 195 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Subarachnoid haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease is suggested by the presence of chronic renal failure and bilateral renal masses on abdominal examination. This disease is associated with cerebral ‘berry’ aneurysms, which may rupture and cause subarachnoid hemorrhage. A CT head can confirm the presence of subarachnoid blood, but if negative, a lumbar puncture should be performed to look for evidence of hemoglobin breakdown products. Focal neurology, absence of neck stiffness, and increased age are more indicative of an embolic stroke. Extradural hemorrhage is associated with significant head trauma, while subdural hemorrhage is more common in the elderly, particularly those on anticoagulation. Pituitary apoplexy, which is bleeding or impaired blood supply to the pituitary gland, can cause sudden-onset headache and subsequent adrenal crises due to pituitary failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosurgery
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  • Question 7 - Which region of the brain is most likely affected in a child displaying...

    Incorrect

    • Which region of the brain is most likely affected in a child displaying hyperactivity, elation, inappropriate conduct, superficial emotional response, juvenile humor with puns and word games (witzelsucht)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Orbital, medial prefrontal cortex (magnocellular projections of the medial dorsal thalamus)

      Explanation:

      The Effects of Brain Damage on Specific Regions: A Brief Overview

      Different regions of the brain are responsible for various functions, and damage to these regions can result in specific symptoms. Here are some examples:

      Orbital, medial prefrontal cortex: Damage to this area can cause euphoria, shallow emotions, disinhibition of sexual and aggressive impulses, peculiar verbal humor, and distractibility.

      Dominant parietal lobe: Damage to this area can lead to Gerstmann syndrome, which includes agraphia, acalculia, right-left disorientation, and finger agnosia.

      Posterior frontal cortex (Broca area): Damage to this area can affect language comprehension and production, resulting in fluent aphasia.

      Superior and inferior occipital gyri: Damage to these areas can cause problems with visual recognition, including cortical blindness, prosopagnosia, color agnosia, and alexia.

      Dorsolateral prefrontal cortex: Damage to this area can result in apathy, poverty of speech, hypokinesis, decreased drive or initiative, and diminished capacity to abstract. This syndrome resembles the deficit state of schizophrenia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosurgery
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  • Question 8 - A 76-year-old man is brought unconscious to the Emergency Department by the paramedics....

    Incorrect

    • A 76-year-old man is brought unconscious to the Emergency Department by the paramedics. His daughter reported that her father had been having slurred speech since he woke up and that he had fallen out of bed 2 days previously. Upon radiological examination, it was determined that the patient suffered from a subdural haematoma.
      If untreated, which of the following will most likely be a complication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Recurrent haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      Complications of Subdural Hematoma: Recurrent Hemorrhage and Axonal Tearing

      Subdural hematoma is a type of intracranial bleed that can lead to various complications. One common complication is recurrent hemorrhage, which occurs due to the breakdown and organization of the hematoma. As the hematoma becomes organized, it can retract and leave behind a thin layer of reactive connective tissue. Bleeding can then occur from the vessels of the granulation tissue.

      Another complication of subdural hematoma is axonal tearing, which typically happens when there is rapid displacement of the head and brain, such as during a high-velocity road traffic collision or a significant fall from height.

      It is important to note that epidural hemorrhage, berry aneurysm, and subarachnoid hemorrhage are not complications of subdural hematoma. Epidural hemorrhage is caused by disruption of the middle meningeal artery and requires urgent neurosurgical intervention. Berry aneurysm is a primary vascular malformation that can lead to subarachnoid hemorrhage, but it is not related to subdural hematoma. Finally, subdural hematoma is unlikely to cause a subsequent subarachnoid bleed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosurgery
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  • Question 9 - A 38-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner with new lower back pain....

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner with new lower back pain. The pain started yesterday when she was lifting a heavy item at her workplace. She is otherwise fit and well, and not on any regular medications.
      Which of the following features would suggest an urgent hospital admission should be arranged?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Loss of perineal sensation

      Explanation:

      Assessing Symptoms of Lower Back Pain: Red Flags and Reassuring Signs

      Lower back pain is a common complaint, but it can sometimes be a sign of a more serious condition. Here are some symptoms to look out for:

      – Loss of perineal sensation: This is a red flag symptom for cauda equina syndrome, a surgical emergency. Urgent admission should be arranged if suspected.
      – Shooting pain down the leg: This is a common symptom of sciatica, which is typically not alarming unless accompanied by red flag symptoms.
      – Back pain worsened by coughing or sneezing: This is a common feature of back pain and is not alarming unless accompanied by red flag symptoms.
      – Downgoing plantar reflexes: This is a reassuring finding and indicates normal plantar reflexes.
      – Pain remaining after 1 week: Acute lower back pain typically improves over 4-6 weeks, so it is not unusual for pain to remain after 1 week. Referral to physiotherapy may be warranted if the patient is not resuming their normal activities.

      It is important to be aware of these symptoms and seek medical attention if necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosurgery
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  • Question 10 - An 80-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department with a progressive decline in...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department with a progressive decline in mental status and a past medical history of worsening gait and frequent falls. An MRI scan shows enlargement of the ventricular system, suggesting hydrocephalus. What other symptom would indicate a diagnosis of normal pressure hydrocephalus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urinary incontinence

      Explanation:

      Understanding Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus: Symptoms and Diagnosis

      Normal pressure hydrocephalus (NPH) is a condition characterized by the enlargement of cerebral ventricles, which can lead to a classical triad of symptoms including dementia, urinary incontinence, and gait apraxia. While it is typically seen in the elderly, it is a gradual and progressive disorder that can be potentially reversible. However, it is important to note that symptoms such as loss of inhibitions and inappropriate behavior are more likely to lead to a diagnosis of frontotemporal dementia rather than NPH. Resting tremors, seizures, and hallucinations are also not typically associated with NPH. Diagnosis involves testing mental status before and after a lumbar puncture, and treatment may involve therapeutic drainage of cerebrospinal fluid or placement of a ventriculoperitoneal shunt.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosurgery
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  • Question 11 - An 82-year-old man is brought to see his general practitioner by his daughter,...

    Incorrect

    • An 82-year-old man is brought to see his general practitioner by his daughter, who reports a 3- to 4- month history of falls, intermittent confusion and worsening urinary incontinence. On examination, the man has an abbreviated mental test score (AMTS) of 4/10 but is otherwise well. There is no focal neurological deficit, but he is unable to walk without the assistance of his daughter. Routine investigations, including FBC, U&Es, RBG, LFTs, TFTs, Ca2+ and ESR, are all within normal limits. The diagnosis is later confirmed by serial lumbar puncture studies.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Normal pressure hydrocephalus

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis of a Patient with Gait Dyspraxia, Confusion, and Urinary Incontinence

      The presenting symptoms of gait dyspraxia, fluctuating confusion, and urinary incontinence can be indicative of various conditions in the elderly population. However, the classical triad of normal pressure hydrocephalus (NPH) is a possible diagnosis that requires clinical expertise and imaging studies, such as a CT or MRI scan, to confirm the presence of hydrocephalus with relatively well-preserved sulci. Lumbar puncture studies can also aid in the diagnosis of NPH, and the insertion of a ventriculo-peritoneal shunt may be curative.

      Idiopathic intracranial hypertension is a disease that primarily affects young women and can lead to devastating neurological effects, including blindness. Wernicke’s encephalopathy, caused by thiamine deficiency, is characterized by a progressive confusional state, ataxia, and ophthalmoplegia. Herpes encephalitis is a rapidly fatal cause of encephalitis that presents with severe headache, confusion, or reduced level of consciousness. However, the absence of a severe headache and the need for serial lumbar punctures to confirm the diagnosis make NPH a more likely diagnosis in this case.

      A colloid cyst of the third ventricle is a benign tumor that is usually discovered incidentally on a brain scan. While it may cause fluctuating confusion and symptoms of raised intracranial pressure, including headaches, it would not require serial lumbar punctures to confirm the diagnosis. In rare cases, it may also cause weakness of the lower limbs and episodes of collapse.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosurgery
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  • Question 12 - A 32-year-old man is currently in the Neurosurgical Intensive Care Unit (ICU) following...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man is currently in the Neurosurgical Intensive Care Unit (ICU) following a subarachnoid haemorrhage. He had surgery to manage occlusive hydrocephalus that arose as a result of his bleed. He has an intraventricular pressure monitor in place to monitor his intracranial pressure.
      What is a true statement about intracranial pressure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intravenous mannitol is used to decrease intracranial pressure

      Explanation:

      Understanding Intracranial Pressure and the Use of Mannitol

      Intracranial pressure refers to the pressure within the skull and is determined by the brain parenchyma, cerebrospinal fluid, and blood. Mannitol, a sugar alcohol, is used intravenously to decrease intracranial pressure by drawing water out of the CSF and reducing its volume. Other methods include hypertonic saline, hyperventilation, and positioning the patient’s head at a 30-degree angle. In extreme cases, a decompressive craniectomy may be necessary. Normal intracranial pressure is <15 mmHg in healthy adults and relatively lower in children. Lateral rectus palsy, a weakness in eye movement, can be a sign of raised intracranial pressure but is not always present. Understanding intracranial pressure and the use of mannitol can aid in the treatment of neurological conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosurgery
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  • Question 13 - A 70-year-old woman with a long history of arthritis presents with worsening difficulty...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old woman with a long history of arthritis presents with worsening difficulty walking. Upon examination, she displays several neurological abnormalities in her lower limbs. However, her upper limbs and cranial nerves appear normal. An MRI scan reveals a ruptured intervertebral disc at the L3-4 level. The diagnosis is cauda equina syndrome.
      What is a characteristic of this syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urinary incontinence

      Explanation:

      Understanding Cauda Equina Syndrome: Symptoms and Signs

      Cauda equina syndrome is a condition that affects the bundle of nerves at the lower end of the spinal cord. It is important to recognize the symptoms and signs of this syndrome to ensure prompt diagnosis and treatment.

      One of the key features of cauda equina syndrome is bladder and bowel dysfunction due to autonomic nerve involvement. This can result in urinary incontinence, which is often one of the first symptoms to appear. However, it is important to note that a lesion at the L3-4 level would not be associated with upper motor neuron signs.

      Another potential symptom of cauda equina syndrome is bradycardia, which is a slow heart rate. This is typically only seen in cases where the spinal cord injury is located in the cervical or high thoracic region.

      While cauda equina syndrome can cause weakness and sensory loss in the lower limbs, it is important to note that this is due to a lower motor neuron lesion, not an upper motor neuron lesion. Similarly, a lesion in the upper limbs would have to be higher to cause neurological symptoms and signs.

      Finally, it is worth noting that a positive Babinski reflex is not typically associated with cauda equina syndrome. This reflex is a sign of an upper motor neuron lesion, which is not typically seen in this condition.

      Overall, recognizing the symptoms and signs of cauda equina syndrome is crucial for prompt diagnosis and treatment. If you or someone you know is experiencing bladder or bowel dysfunction, weakness or sensory loss in the lower limbs, or other potential symptoms of this condition, it is important to seek medical attention right away.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosurgery
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  • Question 14 - A patient has returned to the ward, following a neurosurgical procedure to remove...

    Incorrect

    • A patient has returned to the ward, following a neurosurgical procedure to remove a large benign cyst. Over the next few hours, she becomes less alert and the neurosurgeon is recalled. The patient is unable to deviate her right eye medially. At rest, her eye appears to point downwards and laterally and the right pupil appears to be dilated.
      Which nerve has been affected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oculomotor

      Explanation:

      Cranial Nerves Involved in Eye Movement and Vision

      The movement of the eye is controlled by seven extraocular muscles, each with a specific function. The levator palpebrae superioris elevates the upper eyelid, while the superior rectus elevates the eyeball and the inferior rectus depresses it. The medial rectus adducts the eyeball, while the lateral rectus abducts it. The superior oblique depresses, abducts, and medially rotates the eyeball, and the inferior oblique elevates, abducts, and laterally rotates it. These muscles are innervated by the oculomotor nerve, except for the superior oblique and lateral rectus, which are supplied by the trochlear and abducens nerve, respectively.

      The trochlear nerve is responsible for the motor function of the superior oblique muscle, while the optic nerve is associated with vision. The abducens nerve controls the lateral rectus muscle, and damage to this nerve results in the inability to laterally gaze. The ciliary nerve contains sensory and sympathetic fibers that innervate the dilator pupillae muscle, triggering its contraction and causing pupillary dilation. However, it is not involved in the movement of the eye.

      Injury to the oculomotor nerve can lead to a down and out eyeball, externally rotated and depressed, due to the unopposed actions of the lateral rectus and superior oblique. Diseases like diabetes or stroke affect the somatic fibers preferentially and do not affect the pupil, while direct compression or injury of the nerve affects parasympathetic fibers and leads to pupil dilation. A trochlear nerve palsy causes the eye to be adducted, elevated, and externally rotated, while optic nerve injury results in partial or complete visual loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosurgery
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  • Question 15 - A 42-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department (ED) after being involved...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department (ED) after being involved in a motor vehicle accident, in which he was thrown from a motorcycle. In the ED, the patient is unresponsive. Neurological examination shows intact pupillary and corneal reflexes, but the rest of the examination cannot be completed. Thirty minutes later, computerised tomography (CT) reveals uncal herniation of the right temporal lobe, and the patient is rushed to surgery.
      What physical examination finding change is most consistent with this patient's presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Right pupillary dilation

      Explanation:

      Understanding Pupillary Dilation in Head Trauma Patients

      Head trauma patients are at risk of decompensating quickly due to cerebral edema causing intracranial pressure to rise. This can lead to herniation of the temporal lobe towards the tentorium cerebelli, resulting in pressure being transmitted to the brainstem. One of the consequences of uncal herniation of the temporal lobe is the compression of the ipsilateral oculomotor nerve, which contains both somatic efferent and visceral efferent components. Dysfunction of the visceral efferent component can cause pupillary dilation, or a ‘blown pupil’, on the affected side.

      It is important to note that left pupillary dilation is unlikely in this scenario as it would only occur if pressure was transmitted to the contralateral midbrain. Similarly, right pupillary constriction would only occur with activation, not compromise, of the visceral efferent component. Deviation of the pupil medially would be caused by injury to cranial nerve VI, while injury to the left oculomotor nerve would cause a ‘down and out’ injury, resulting in depression and abduction of the left pupil. However, these scenarios are less likely in the case of a right-sided temporal lobe herniation.

      In summary, understanding pupillary dilation in head trauma patients can provide valuable insights into the severity and location of the injury, allowing for prompt and appropriate medical intervention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosurgery
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  • Question 16 - A 75-year-old man with a long history of back pain complains of severe...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man with a long history of back pain complains of severe pain in the thoracic spine. When the patient was 40-years-old, he underwent spinal fusion surgery where the T5 and T6 vertebrae were fused together with metal rods. His consultant decides to order a diagnostic imaging study of the thoracic spine.
      Which of the following imaging modalities would be the MOST appropriate to order, based on the patient’s past surgical history?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Computed tomography

      Explanation:

      Choosing the Right Imaging Test for Thoracic Spine Assessment After Surgery

      When assessing a patient with a history of spinal fusion surgery, it is important to choose the appropriate imaging test to avoid potential harm. In this case, computed tomography (CT) of the thoracic spine would be the most useful investigation, as magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is contraindicated due to the metal rods used in the surgery. Conventional radiography may be useful for initial assessment, but CT provides more detailed information. Ultrasonography is not useful in this context, and fluoroscopy is more appropriate for interventional radiology. It is crucial to consider the patient’s surgical history when selecting the appropriate imaging test.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosurgery
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  • Question 17 - A 38-year-old male patient presents with sudden-onset severe headache and vomiting. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old male patient presents with sudden-onset severe headache and vomiting. He has a family history of subarachnoid haemorrhage.
      Which of the following statements is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bradycardia with high blood pressure suggests increased intracranial pressure

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Subarachnoid Hemorrhage: Importance of Bradycardia and Lumbar Puncture

      Subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH) is a medical emergency that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. One important clue to the presence of SAH is the combination of bradycardia and hypertension, known as the Cushing’s reflex. This suggests increased intracranial pressure, which is common in SAH.

      When SAH is suspected, a CT scan of the head is often the first diagnostic test. However, it is important to note that CT can be normal in up to 10% of cases. Therefore, a lumbar puncture should be performed in those with a suspected SAH and a normal CT scan.

      To ensure accurate diagnosis, the lumbar puncture should be delayed for 4-12 hours to detect the presence of xanthochromia, a yellow discoloration of the cerebrospinal fluid that indicates bleeding. Microscopy of the CSF may be unreliable due to the presence of red blood cells from a traumatic lumbar puncture.

      It is also important to note that the location of the aneurysm causing the SAH can vary. Rupture of an anterior circulation aneurysm is more likely than a posterior circulation aneurysm.

      In summary, the combination of bradycardia and hypertension should raise suspicion for SAH. A normal CT scan does not rule out SAH, and a lumbar puncture with delayed testing for xanthochromia is necessary for accurate diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosurgery
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  • Question 18 - A 52-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner for recent onset of acute...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner for recent onset of acute back pain. For the last three months, she has been having a burning sensation and tingling of the hands and feet. Her past medical history includes hypertension, diabetes, coronary artery disease and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). She is on medication for her hypertension and diabetes which are well controlled. X-ray of thoracic vertebrae demonstrates punched-out lytic lesions.
      Her laboratory investigation report shows the following abnormalities:
      Investigations Results Normal values
      Calcium 3.2 mmol/l 2.2–2.6 mmol/l
      Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 15 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 130 μmol/l 50–120 μmol/l
      Haemoglobin 98 g/dl 115–155 g/l
      What is the most appropriate next investigation in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urine analysis

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Peripheral Neuropathy in a Patient with Multiple Myeloma

      Multiple myeloma is a neoplastic clonal expansion of plasma cells that produce monoclonal immunoglobulins. It can cause extensive skeletal damage by osteopenia and inducing osteolytic bone lesions. Peripheral neuropathy symptoms (both sensory and motor involvement can be seen) are present in this patient at the same time of the onset of bone pain. Here are some diagnostic tests that can help identify the cause of peripheral neuropathy in a patient with multiple myeloma:

      24-hour urine electrophoresis test: This test could confirm the diagnosis of multiple myeloma through the identification of Bence-Jones protein, a characteristic finding in multiple myeloma.

      Autoimmune antibodies: Autoimmune conditions like Sjögren syndrome, lupus and rheumatoid arthritis can give rise to symptoms of peripheral neuropathy. However, the patient’s history and clinical findings do not correlate with these conditions.

      Glycosylated haemoglobin: Peripheral neuropathy is a complication of uncontrolled diabetes mellitus. However, given that it is well controlled in this patient, it is highly unlikely to be a cause of her symptoms.

      Serum vitamin B12 estimation: Vitamin B12 deficiency causes peripheral neuropathy. However, it does not cause osteolytic lesions in the vertebrae, as in this patient’s case.

      Thyroid function tests: Hypothyroidism, which is long-standing and often untreated, can lead to complications of peripheral neuropathy. However, hypercalcaemia found in this patient would go against this diagnosis and performing thyroid function tests would not be a correct option.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosurgery
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  • Question 19 - A 36-year-old man is brought in by ambulance to the Emergency Department resuscitation...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old man is brought in by ambulance to the Emergency Department resuscitation area. As the driver of a car, he has been involved in a head-on collision with a lorry. He suffered a 5-min episode of loss of consciousness and now complains of a severe right temporal headache. His right pupil is slightly larger than his left pupil. You notice that his eyes open to speech, he is able to localise pain, and he can talk properly after mildly irritating him, but he appears disorientated. What is his Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 12

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Glasgow Coma Scale

      The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a standardized tool used to assess a patient’s level of consciousness following a head injury. It measures the best eye, verbal, and motor responses and assigns a total score. A fully conscious patient will score 15/15, while the lowest possible score is 3/15 (a score of 0 is not possible).

      The GCS score is calculated based on the patient’s eye, verbal, and motor responses. The eyes can open spontaneously (4 points), in response to speech (3 points), in response to pain (2 points), or not at all (1 point). The verbal response is assessed based on orientation (5 points), confusion (4 points), inappropriate words (3 points), inappropriate sounds (2 points), or no response (1 point). The motor response is evaluated based on the patient’s ability to obey commands (6 points), localize pain (5 points), withdraw from pain (4 points), exhibit abnormal flexion (3 points), exhibit abnormal extension (2 points), or show no response (1 point).

      The appropriate GCS score is determined based on the examination findings, and any other score would be incorrect. If the GCS score is 8 or below, the patient will require airway protection as they will be unable to protect their own airway, which usually means intubation. The GCS provides a common language between clinicians when discussing a patient’s condition and helps to objectively measure their conscious state.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosurgery
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  • Question 20 - A 29-year-old soccer player hits the side of his head on a goal...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old soccer player hits the side of his head on a goal post while attempting to make a save. Initially, he seems disoriented but quickly recovers and walks off the field without assistance. However, after the game ends, approximately 60 minutes later, he experiences confusion and complains of a severe headache. He stumbles and falls before becoming drowsy and starting to lose consciousness. Emergency services are contacted.
      Which artery is most likely to have been affected by the impact to this individual's head?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Middle meningeal artery

      Explanation:

      Arteries of the Head: Middle Meningeal, Temporal, Occipital, Supraorbital, and Posterior Auricular Arteries

      The head is supplied by various arteries, each with its own unique course and function. One of these arteries is the middle meningeal artery, which arises from the maxillary artery and enters the middle cranial fossa via the foramen spinosum. It supplies the dura and calvaria and can be injured by a direct blow to the side of the head, resulting in an extradural hematoma.

      Another important artery is the temporal artery, which originates from the external carotid artery and supplies various parts of the scalp and face. It is commonly biopsied to aid in the diagnosis of temporal arthritis.

      The occipital artery, on the other hand, arises from the external carotid artery at the level of the digastric muscle and supplies the neck and auricular structures. It is not involved in blunt trauma to the side of the head.

      The supraorbital artery, a branch of the ophthalmic artery, supplies the extraocular muscles and exits the orbit via the supraorbital notch. It is not damaged in blunt injuries to the side of the head as it runs in the frontal area.

      Lastly, the posterior auricular artery, a branch of the external carotid artery, supplies the auricle and the scalp posterior to it. It ascends posteriorly to the parotid gland, between the auricular cartilage and mastoid process of the temporal bone.

      Understanding the different arteries of the head is crucial in diagnosing and treating injuries and conditions that affect these structures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosurgery
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