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  • Question 1 - A 28-year-old woman complains of a yellowish-green vaginal discharge that began two weeks...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman complains of a yellowish-green vaginal discharge that began two weeks ago. During examination, her vagina appears swollen and red.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Trichomoniasis

      Explanation:

      Common Genitourinary Infections: Symptoms and Diagnosis

      Trichomoniasis, Candidiasis, AIDS, HPV, and Lactobacilli infection are some of the most common genitourinary infections. Trichomoniasis is caused by Trichomonas vaginalis and presents with abnormal vaginal discharge, odour, itching, burning, soreness, and dyspareunia. Candidiasis is a fungal infection caused by yeasts from the genus Candida and presents with pruritus, vaginal discharge, dysuria, and dyspareunia. AIDS is a viral infection that has a hyperacute onset and is unlikely in patients with no past medical history or risk factors. HPV infection is common and often goes unnoticed, but can manifest as warty lesions on the genital or anal area. Lactobacilli infection is not associated with causing infection. Diagnosis of these infections depends on laboratory testing, with culture being the current criterion standard for trichomoniasis and physical examination for candidiasis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      3571.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - You are evaluating a patient who is experiencing double vision. While gazing straight...

    Correct

    • You are evaluating a patient who is experiencing double vision. While gazing straight ahead, the patient's left eye deviates inward. When looking to the right, there is no apparent squint. However, when looking to the left, the patient cannot move the left eye outward, and double vision becomes more severe. What is the probable underlying issue?

      Your Answer: Left 6th nerve palsy

      Explanation:

      Understanding the 12 Cranial Nerves and their Functions

      The human body has 12 pairs of cranial nerves that originate from the brainstem and control various functions such as movement, sensation, and reflexes. Each nerve has a specific function and pathway, and damage to any of these nerves can result in various clinical symptoms.

      Some of the important functions of these nerves include smell (olfactory nerve), sight (optic nerve), eye movement (oculomotor, trochlear, and abducens nerves), facial sensation and mastication (trigeminal nerve), facial movement and taste (facial nerve), hearing and balance (vestibulocochlear nerve), taste and swallowing (glossopharyngeal nerve), phonation and innervation of viscera (vagus nerve), head and shoulder movement (accessory nerve), and tongue movement (hypoglossal nerve).

      In addition to their primary functions, some of these nerves also play a role in various reflexes such as the corneal reflex, jaw jerk reflex, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and pathways of these cranial nerves is essential for diagnosing and treating various neurological conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      14.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following is less frequent in women who use the combined...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is less frequent in women who use the combined oral contraceptive pill?

      Your Answer: Stroke

      Correct Answer: Endometrial cancer

      Explanation:

      The combined oral contraceptive pill is associated with a higher likelihood of developing breast and cervical cancer, but it can also provide protection against ovarian and endometrial cancer.

      Pros and Cons of the Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill

      The combined oral contraceptive pill is a highly effective method of birth control with a failure rate of less than 1 per 100 woman years. It does not interfere with sexual activity and its contraceptive effects are reversible upon stopping. Additionally, it can make periods regular, lighter, and less painful, and may reduce the risk of ovarian, endometrial, and colorectal cancer. It may also protect against pelvic inflammatory disease, ovarian cysts, benign breast disease, and acne vulgaris.

      However, there are also some disadvantages to the combined oral contraceptive pill. One of the main issues is that people may forget to take it, which can reduce its effectiveness. It also offers no protection against sexually transmitted infections. There is an increased risk of venous thromboembolic disease, breast and cervical cancer, stroke, and ischaemic heart disease, especially in smokers. Temporary side-effects such as headache, nausea, and breast tenderness may also be experienced.

      It is important to weigh the pros and cons of the combined oral contraceptive pill before deciding if it is the right method of birth control for you. While some users report weight gain while taking the pill, a Cochrane review did not support a causal relationship. Overall, the combined oral contraceptive pill can be an effective and convenient method of birth control, but it is important to discuss any concerns or potential risks with a healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which of the following outcomes confirms a diagnosis of diabetes mellitus? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following outcomes confirms a diagnosis of diabetes mellitus?

      Your Answer: Asymptomatic patient with random glucose 22.0 mmol/L on one occasion

      Correct Answer: Symptomatic patient with random glucose 12.0 mmol/L on one occasion

      Explanation:

      To diagnose diabetes mellitus, fasting blood glucose levels should be above 7.0 or random blood glucose levels should be above 11.1. If the patient is asymptomatic, two readings are required for confirmation.

      Type 2 diabetes mellitus can be diagnosed through a plasma glucose or HbA1c sample. The diagnostic criteria vary depending on whether the patient is experiencing symptoms or not. If the patient is symptomatic, a fasting glucose level of 7.0 mmol/l or higher or a random glucose level of 11.1 mmol/l or higher (or after a 75g oral glucose tolerance test) indicates diabetes. If the patient is asymptomatic, the same criteria apply but must be demonstrated on two separate occasions.

      In 2011, the World Health Organization released supplementary guidance on the use of HbA1c for diagnosing diabetes. A HbA1c level of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) or higher is diagnostic of diabetes mellitus. However, a HbA1c value of less than 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) does not exclude diabetes and may not be as sensitive as fasting samples for detecting diabetes. For patients without symptoms, the test must be repeated to confirm the diagnosis. It is important to note that increased red cell turnover can cause misleading HbA1c results.

      There are certain conditions where HbA1c cannot be used for diagnosis, such as haemoglobinopathies, haemolytic anaemia, untreated iron deficiency anaemia, suspected gestational diabetes, children, HIV, chronic kidney disease, and people taking medication that may cause hyperglycaemia (such as corticosteroids).

      Impaired fasting glucose (IFG) is defined as a fasting glucose level of 6.1 mmol/l or higher but less than 7.0 mmol/l. Impaired glucose tolerance (IGT) is defined as a fasting plasma glucose level less than 7.0 mmol/l and an OGTT 2-hour value of 7.8 mmol/l or higher but less than 11.1 mmol/l. People with IFG should be offered an oral glucose tolerance test to rule out a diagnosis of diabetes. A result below 11.1 mmol/l but above 7.8 mmol/l indicates that the person does not have diabetes but does have IGT.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      115.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A middle-aged business executive presents with a red hot, swollen and very painful...

    Correct

    • A middle-aged business executive presents with a red hot, swollen and very painful right big toe. Joint aspiration reveals no organisms, but there are numerous neutrophils containing long needle-shaped crystals.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Gouty arthritis

      Explanation:

      Gout is a crystal arthropathy caused by hyperuricaemia, most commonly affecting middle-aged men. Diagnosis is confirmed by aspiration and examination of joint fluid. Treatment is with high-dose NSAIDs or coxibs initially, followed by allopurinol in the long term. RA presents as an acute monoarticular arthritis in only 10% of cases, and is more common in women between the ages of 35 and 55. Septic arthritis and gonococcal arthritis are bacterial infections that present with a hot, red, swollen joint and constitutional symptoms. Reactive arthritis is a sterile arthritis occurring following an infection, usually presenting as an acute, asymmetrical lower limb arthritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      7.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - You and your consultant are examining a CT head of a middle-aged patient...

    Incorrect

    • You and your consultant are examining a CT head of a middle-aged patient who arrived at the emergency department with decreased consciousness following a fall and hitting the side of their head. Your consultant notes a crescent-shaped lesion on the right frontoparietal region. Which blood vessel is likely to have been affected?

      Your Answer: Anterior circulating artery

      Correct Answer: Bridging vein

      Explanation:

      The bleeding of damaged bridging veins between the cortex and venous sinuses is the cause of subdural haemorrhage. This condition is the most probable reason for the reduced consciousness in this case. A crescent-shaped lesion is typically seen on CT scans, and it occurs in the subdural space, crossing sutures. Unlike subdural haemorrhage, epidural haemorrhage is linked to the middle meningeal artery, while subarachnoid haemorrhages are associated with vessels of the circle of Willis, such as basilar and anterior circulating arteries.

      Understanding Subdural Haemorrhage

      A subdural haemorrhage is a condition where blood collects deep to the dural layer of the meninges. This collection of blood is not within the brain substance and is referred to as an ‘extra-axial’ or ‘extrinsic’ lesion. Subdural haematomas can be classified based on their age, which includes acute, subacute, and chronic. Although they occur within the same anatomical compartment, acute and chronic subdurals have significant differences in terms of their mechanisms, associated clinical features, and management.

      An acute subdural haematoma is a collection of fresh blood within the subdural space and is commonly caused by high-impact trauma. This type of haematoma is associated with high-impact injuries, and there is often other underlying brain injuries. Symptoms and presentation vary depending on the size of the compressive acute subdural haematoma and the associated injuries. CT imaging is the first-line investigation, and surgical options include monitoring of intracranial pressure and decompressive craniectomy.

      On the other hand, a chronic subdural haematoma is a collection of blood within the subdural space that has been present for weeks to months. Elderly and alcoholic patients are particularly at risk of subdural haematomas since they have brain atrophy and therefore fragile or taut bridging veins. Infants also have fragile bridging veins and can rupture in shaken baby syndrome. If the chronic subdural is an incidental finding or if it is small in size with no associated neurological deficit, it can be managed conservatively. However, if the patient is confused, has an associated neurological deficit, or has severe imaging findings, surgical decompression with burr holes is required.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      15.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 5-year-old girl presents with a sore throat that has been bothering her...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl presents with a sore throat that has been bothering her for 3 days. She has no cough or runny nose. Her mother has kept her home from preschool. Upon examination, she has a fever and swollen tonsils with white patches. She also has tender lymph nodes in her neck.

      What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient? Choose ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: Phenoxymethylpenicillin for 7 days

      Correct Answer: Phenoxymethylpenicillin for 10 days

      Explanation:

      Antibiotic Treatment for Tonsillitis Based on Centor Score

      Tonsillitis is a common condition that can be caused by a bacterial or viral infection. Antibiotics are not always necessary for a sore throat, but in cases where the patient has a high probability of a bacterial infection-induced sore throat, antibiotic therapy may be beneficial. The Centor score is a tool used to predict bacterial infection in people with a sore throat. A score of 3 or 4 means that the patient has a high probability of having a bacterial infection-induced sore throat and may benefit from antibiotics.

      The first-line antibiotic therapy for tonsillitis is 10 days of phenoxymethylpenicillin. However, it is important to check the patient’s allergy status before prescribing penicillin. If the patient is allergic to penicillin, 5 days of erythromycin or clarithromycin can be used. Amoxicillin and other broad-spectrum antibiotics should be avoided in the blind treatment of throat infections.

      In cases where the Centor score is 2, a bacterial infection is less likely, and antibiotic therapy is unlikely to be required. In such cases, conservative management such as mouth rinses can be used to alleviate discomfort and swelling.

      It is important to note that antibiotic therapy should only be prescribed when necessary, and a delayed prescription may be considered in some cases. A delayed prescription should only be considered if it is safe not to treat immediately.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      14.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 45-year-old woman is referred to Rheumatology Outpatients by her General Practitioner with...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman is referred to Rheumatology Outpatients by her General Practitioner with a history of symptoms that highly resemble rheumatoid arthritis.
      Which one of the following X-ray findings would indicate a diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis?

      Your Answer: Juxta-articular osteoporosis

      Explanation:

      Common X-Ray Findings in Arthritis

      Arthritis is a condition that affects the joints, causing pain, stiffness, and inflammation. X-rays are often used to diagnose and monitor arthritis, as they can reveal changes in the bones and joints. Here are some common X-ray findings in arthritis:

      Juxta-articular osteoporosis/osteopenia: This is an early X-ray feature of rheumatoid arthritis, characterized by a loss of bone density around the joints.

      Loss of joint space: Both osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis can cause joint space narrowing, which occurs when the cartilage no longer keeps the bones a normal distance apart. This can be painful, as the bones rub or put too much pressure on each other.

      Osteophytes: These are bony lumps (bone spurs) that grow on the bones of the spine or around the joints. They often form next to joints affected by osteoarthritis.

      Subchondral cysts: This is a feature of a degenerative process (osteoarthritis). A subchondral cyst is a fluid-filled space inside a joint that extends from one of the bones that form the joint.

      Subchondral sclerosis: This is a thickening of bone that happens in joints affected by osteoarthritis.

      Overall, X-rays can provide valuable information about the progression of arthritis and help guide treatment decisions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 21-year-old man who wears contact lenses comes to the Emergency Department complaining...

    Correct

    • A 21-year-old man who wears contact lenses comes to the Emergency Department complaining of eye pain. He reports experiencing severe pain, watery eyes, and sensitivity to light in his left eye. Upon examination, his left eye is red and his pupil appears normal. What is the most suitable investigation to confirm the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Fluorescein dye-and-slit-lamp exam

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Techniques for Corneal Ulcers

      Corneal ulcers can cause severe eye pain, photophobia, and watery eyes. Early diagnosis is crucial for effective treatment. One diagnostic technique is the fluorescein dye-and-slit-lamp exam, where an orange dye is applied to the ocular surface and observed under a blue light. If the dye is taken up by the corneal epithelium, it fluoresces green/yellow, indicating corneal ulceration.

      Tonometry is another diagnostic technique used to measure intraocular pressure and diagnose glaucoma, but it is not appropriate for corneal ulcers. Computed tomography (CT) head scans are also not useful as they do not show soft-tissue abnormalities in the corneas.

      Orbital magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is used to look for vascular lesions in the orbit, optic-nerve-sheath meningioma, optic-nerve neuritis, optic-nerve glioma, and orbital abscess. Retinoscopy, on the other hand, is used to measure refractive error and is not appropriate for diagnosing corneal ulcers.

      In summary, the fluorescein dye-and-slit-lamp exam is a valuable diagnostic technique for corneal ulcers, while other techniques such as tonometry, CT head scans, and retinoscopy are not appropriate. Orbital MRI may be useful in certain cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      13.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 38-year-old woman comes to you with a sudden onset of right-sided facial...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman comes to you with a sudden onset of right-sided facial weakness, which appears to be a lower motor neuron palsy. There are no other neurological symptoms on examination, and her ears appear normal. You diagnose her with Bell's palsy and prescribe prednisolone. What is the crucial next step in managing her condition?

      Your Answer: Prescribe aciclovir

      Correct Answer: Prescribe artifical tears and advise eye taping at night

      Explanation:

      Understanding Bell’s Palsy

      Bell’s palsy is a sudden, one-sided facial nerve paralysis of unknown cause. It is more common in individuals aged 20-40 years and pregnant women. The condition is characterized by lower motor neuron facial nerve palsy, which affects the forehead. Unlike upper motor neuron lesions, the upper face is spared. Patients may also experience post-auricular pain, altered taste, dry eyes, and hyperacusis.

      The management of Bell’s palsy has been a subject of debate. However, it is now widely accepted that all patients should receive oral prednisolone within 72 hours of onset. The addition of antiviral medications is still a matter of discussion, but it may be beneficial for severe facial palsy. Eye care is also crucial to prevent exposure keratopathy, and patients should be prescribed artificial tears and eye lubricants. If they are unable to close their eyes at bedtime, they should tape them closed using microporous tape.

      If the paralysis shows no sign of improvement after three weeks, an urgent referral to ENT is necessary. Patients with long-standing weakness may require a referral to plastic surgery. The prognosis for Bell’s palsy is generally good, with most patients making a full recovery within 3-4 months. However, untreated patients may experience permanent moderate to severe weakness in around 15% of cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      13.4
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - An 80-year-old man with a known history of mixed type dementia (Alzheimer's and...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man with a known history of mixed type dementia (Alzheimer's and vascular) is evaluated in memory clinic due to a recent decline in his memory and cognition. His mini-mental state score is 12 and he is started on memantine. What is the mechanism of action of memantine?

      Your Answer: NMDA antagonist

      Explanation:

      Memantine is an NMDA receptor antagonist and is not a cholinesterase inhibitor like donepezil and rivastigmine. While memantine does act at the serotonin and dopamine receptors, it acts as an antagonist and agonist respectively, rather than the options given.

      Managing Alzheimer’s Disease: Non-Pharmacological and Pharmacological Approaches

      Alzheimer’s disease is a type of dementia that progressively affects the brain and is the most common form of dementia in the UK. To manage this condition, there are both non-pharmacological and pharmacological approaches available.

      Non-pharmacological management involves offering a range of activities that promote wellbeing and are tailored to the patient’s preferences. Group cognitive stimulation therapy is recommended for patients with mild to moderate dementia, while group reminiscence therapy and cognitive rehabilitation are also options to consider.

      Pharmacological management involves the use of medications. The three acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (donepezil, galantamine, and rivastigmine) are options for managing mild to moderate Alzheimer’s disease. Memantine, an NMDA receptor antagonist, is considered a second-line treatment and is recommended for patients with moderate Alzheimer’s who are intolerant of or have a contraindication to acetylcholinesterase inhibitors. It can also be used as an add-on drug to acetylcholinesterase inhibitors for patients with moderate or severe Alzheimer’s or as monotherapy in severe Alzheimer’s.

      When managing non-cognitive symptoms, NICE does not recommend antidepressants for mild to moderate depression in patients with dementia. Antipsychotics should only be used for patients at risk of harming themselves or others or when the agitation, hallucinations, or delusions are causing them severe distress.

      It is important to note that donepezil is relatively contraindicated in patients with bradycardia, and adverse effects may include insomnia. By utilizing both non-pharmacological and pharmacological approaches, patients with Alzheimer’s disease can receive comprehensive care and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      30.5
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 25-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of diarrhoea and vomiting after spending...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of diarrhoea and vomiting after spending Christmas with her family. Her sister has just informed her that she too is experiencing the same symptoms. The doctor suspects norovirus. What is the best way to prevent the spread of this virus?

      Your Answer: Wash hands with soap and water

      Explanation:

      Handwashing is more effective than alcohol gels in preventing the spread of norovirus.

      Norovirus, also known as the winter vomiting bug, is a common cause of gastroenteritis in the UK. It is a type of RNA virus that can cause symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea, as well as headaches, low-grade fevers, and myalgia. The virus is highly contagious and can be transmitted through the fecal-oral route, as well as through aerosolized particles from vomit or contaminated bodily fluids. Good hand hygiene and isolation of infected individuals are important measures to limit transmission. Diagnosis is typically made through clinical history and stool culture viral PCR. While the infection is self-limiting in most cases, dehydration and electrolyte imbalances can occur and require supportive management.

      Norovirus is a genus of non-encapsulated RNA virus species that can cause gastroenteritis. The CDC estimates that 1 in 5 cases of infectious gastroenteritis are caused by norovirus, with 685 million cases per year worldwide. Symptoms typically develop within 15-50 hours of infection and can include vomiting, diarrhea, headaches, low-grade fevers, and myalgia. The virus is highly contagious and can be transmitted through direct physical contact, contact with contaminated food, or through aerosolized particles from vomit or contaminated bodily fluids. Good hand hygiene and isolation of infected individuals are important measures to limit transmission. Diagnosis is typically made through clinical history and stool culture viral PCR. While the infection is self-limiting in most cases, dehydration and electrolyte imbalances can occur and require supportive management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      56.9
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - An 80-year-old man complains of lower back pain and right hip pain. Upon...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man complains of lower back pain and right hip pain. Upon conducting blood tests, the following results were obtained:
      Calcium 2.20 mmol/l
      Phosphate 0.8 mmol/l
      ALP 890 u/L
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Paget's disease

      Explanation:

      Understanding Paget’s Disease of the Bone

      Paget’s disease of the bone is a condition characterized by increased and uncontrolled bone turnover. It is believed to be caused by excessive osteoclastic resorption followed by increased osteoblastic activity. Although it is a common condition, affecting 5% of the UK population, only 1 in 20 patients experience symptoms. The most commonly affected areas are the skull, spine/pelvis, and long bones of the lower extremities. Predisposing factors include increasing age, male sex, northern latitude, and family history.

      Symptoms of Paget’s disease include bone pain, particularly in the pelvis, lumbar spine, and femur. The stereotypical presentation is an older male with bone pain and an isolated raised alkaline phosphatase (ALP). Classical, untreated features include bowing of the tibia and bossing of the skull. Diagnosis is made through blood tests, which show raised ALP, and x-rays, which reveal osteolysis in early disease and mixed lytic/sclerotic lesions later.

      Treatment is indicated for patients experiencing bone pain, skull or long bone deformity, fracture, or periarticular Paget’s. Bisphosphonates, either oral risedronate or IV zoledronate, are the preferred treatment. Calcitonin is less commonly used now. Complications of Paget’s disease include deafness, bone sarcoma (1% if affected for > 10 years), fractures, skull thickening, and high-output cardiac failure.

      Overall, understanding Paget’s disease of the bone is important for early diagnosis and management of symptoms and complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      7
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  • Question 14 - A 42-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of a persistent tremor....

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of a persistent tremor. During examination, it is observed that there is a symmetrical bilateral tremor of his arms which worsens when they are outstretched. His father also had a similar problem. What is the most appropriate initial treatment?

      Your Answer: Propranolol

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Essential Tremor: Understanding the Differences from Parkinson’s Disease

      Essential tremor is a neurological disorder that causes involuntary shaking, typically in the hands, head, and voice. It is important to differentiate between essential tremor and Parkinson’s disease (PD) as the treatment options differ. Propranolol is considered the first-line treatment for essential tremor, while levodopa is used for PD.

      To distinguish between the two conditions, it is important to note that essential tremor worsens with movement and is often symmetrical, while PD tremors occur mostly at rest and are asymmetrical. Additionally, essential tremor often has a family history component.

      Other medications, such as diazepam, fluoxetine, and gabapentin, are not typically used for essential tremor. Diazepam is used for acute muscle spasms and anxiety, fluoxetine is used for depression and other mental health conditions, and gabapentin is used for seizure disorders and neuropathic pain.

      In summary, understanding the differences between essential tremor and PD is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment options. Propranolol is the preferred medication for essential tremor, while levodopa is used for PD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 67-year-old man presents for a review of his chronic obstructive pulmonary disease....

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man presents for a review of his chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. He reports experiencing constant shortness of breath during physical activity, which has remained stable over the past year. He has a history of asbestos exposure and is currently under the care of a respiratory physician. During the examination, no abnormalities are detected, but a chest X-ray reveals the presence of pleural plaques. The patient expresses concern that these plaques may develop into cancer. What advice do you offer this patient regarding his test results?

      Your Answer: Malignant and require immediate specialist referral

      Correct Answer: Benign and do not require follow-up

      Explanation:

      Pleural plaques are benign and do not develop into cancerous growths, so there is no need for any follow-up. These plaques are the most common form of lung disease caused by asbestos exposure, but they do not increase the risk of lung cancer or mesothelioma. While ongoing monitoring of the patient’s lung disease is recommended, there is no need to specifically monitor the pleural plaques. It is important to note that pleural plaques are a sign of past asbestos exposure, which could increase the risk of mesothelioma, but the plaques themselves are not a cause for concern. Therefore, the patient does not require a specialist referral for the pleural plaques alone. However, if the patient experiences worsening shortness of breath or frequent exacerbations, a specialist referral may be necessary to assess for disease progression or malignancy.

      Asbestos-Related Lung Diseases

      Asbestos exposure can lead to various lung diseases, ranging from benign pleural plaques to malignant mesothelioma. Pleural plaques are non-cancerous and do not require any follow-up, but they are the most common form of asbestos-related lung disease and typically appear after a latent period of 20-40 years. Asbestos exposure may also cause diffuse pleural thickening, which is similar to the pattern seen after an empyema or haemothorax, but the underlying pathophysiology is not fully understood.

      Asbestosis is a lung disease that is related to the length of exposure to asbestos. It causes lower lobe fibrosis and is typically characterized by dyspnea, reduced exercise tolerance, clubbing, bilateral end-inspiratory crackles, and a restrictive pattern with reduced gas transfer on lung function tests. Asbestosis is treated conservatively, as no interventions offer significant benefits. The latent period for asbestosis is typically 15-30 years.

      Mesothelioma is a malignant disease of the pleura that is caused by asbestos exposure, with crocidolite (blue) asbestos being the most dangerous form. Possible features of mesothelioma include progressive shortness-of-breath, chest pain, and pleural effusion. Patients are usually offered palliative chemotherapy, and there is a limited role for surgery and radiotherapy. Unfortunately, the prognosis for mesothelioma is very poor, with a median survival from diagnosis of 8-14 months.

      Although mesothelioma is often associated with asbestos exposure, lung cancer is actually the most common form of cancer related to asbestos exposure. It has a synergistic effect with cigarette smoke, which increases the risk of developing lung cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      19.2
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 63-year-old woman with peripheral arterial disease is prescribed simvastatin. What blood test...

    Correct

    • A 63-year-old woman with peripheral arterial disease is prescribed simvastatin. What blood test monitoring is most suitable?

      Your Answer: LFTs at baseline, 3 months and 12 months

      Explanation:

      To evaluate the effectiveness of treatment, a fasting lipid profile may be examined as part of the monitoring process.

      Statins are drugs that inhibit the action of an enzyme called HMG-CoA reductase, which is responsible for producing cholesterol in the liver. However, they can cause some adverse effects such as myopathy, which includes muscle pain, weakness, and damage, and liver impairment. Myopathy is more common in lipophilic statins than in hydrophilic ones. Statins may also increase the risk of intracerebral hemorrhage in patients who have had a stroke before. Therefore, they should be avoided in these patients. Statins should not be taken during pregnancy and should be stopped if the patient is taking macrolides.

      Statins are recommended for people with established cardiovascular disease, those with a 10-year cardiovascular risk of 10% or more, and patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Patients with type 1 diabetes mellitus who were diagnosed more than 10 years ago, are over 40 years old, or have established nephropathy should also take statins. It is recommended to take statins at night as this is when cholesterol synthesis takes place. Atorvastatin 20mg is recommended for primary prevention, and the dose should be increased if non-HDL has not reduced for 40% or more. Atorvastatin 80 mg is recommended for secondary prevention. The graphic shows the different types of statins available.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      10.7
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 50-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of palpitations that started about...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of palpitations that started about 30 minutes ago. He mentions having a stressful day at work, but there doesn't seem to be any other obvious trigger. He denies experiencing any chest pain or difficulty breathing. Upon conducting an ECG, a regular tachycardia of 180 bpm with a QRS duration of 0.10s is observed. His blood pressure is 106/70 mmHg, and his oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Despite performing the Valsalva manoeuvre, there is no effect on the rhythm. What is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Re-attempt Valsava manoeuvre in 5 minutes

      Correct Answer: Intravenous adenosine

      Explanation:

      In cases of haemodynamically stable patients with SVT who do not respond to vagal manoeuvres, the recommended course of action is to administer adenosine.

      Understanding Supraventricular Tachycardia

      Supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) is a type of tachycardia that originates above the ventricles. It is commonly associated with paroxysmal SVT, which is characterized by sudden onset of a narrow complex tachycardia, usually an atrioventricular nodal re-entry tachycardia (AVNRT). Other causes include atrioventricular re-entry tachycardias (AVRT) and junctional tachycardias.

      When it comes to acute management, vagal maneuvers such as the Valsalva maneuver or carotid sinus massage can be used. Intravenous adenosine is also an option, with a rapid IV bolus of 6mg given initially, followed by 12mg and then 18mg if necessary. However, adenosine is contraindicated in asthmatics, and verapamil may be a better option for them. Electrical cardioversion is another option.

      To prevent episodes of SVT, beta-blockers can be used. Radio-frequency ablation is also an option. It is important to work with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of treatment for each individual case.

      Overall, understanding SVT and its management options can help individuals with this condition better manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      183.9
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 2-year-old child has been referred by the pediatrician to the clinic as...

    Correct

    • A 2-year-old child has been referred by the pediatrician to the clinic as they are concerned about the child's appearance. Upon examination, you observe that the child has upslanting palpebral fissures, prominent epicanthic folds, low-set ears, and a flat face. You proceed to conduct a neurological assessment.
      What are the expected findings?

      Your Answer: Hypotonia

      Explanation:

      Hypotonia in neonates can be caused by Down’s syndrome, but it is not the only cause. Down’s syndrome does not typically present with hyperreflexia or hypertonia, and it is not associated with spina bifida. While hyporeflexia may occur in some cases of Down’s syndrome, it is not the most common neurological presentation.

      Understanding Hypotonia: Causes and Symptoms

      Hypotonia, also known as floppiness, is a condition that can be caused by central nervous system disorders or nerve and muscle problems. It is characterized by a decrease in muscle tone, resulting in a lack of resistance to passive movement. In some cases, an acutely ill child may exhibit hypotonia during examination, while in others, it may be associated with encephalopathy in the newborn period, which is most likely caused by hypoxic ischaemic encephalopathy.

      Central causes of hypotonia include Down’s syndrome, Prader-Willi syndrome, hypothyroidism, and cerebral palsy, which may precede the development of spasticity. On the other hand, neurological and muscular problems such as spinal muscular atrophy, spina bifida, Guillain-Barre syndrome, myasthenia gravis, muscular dystrophy, and myotonic dystrophy can also cause hypotonia.

      It is important to note that hypotonia can be a symptom of an underlying condition and should be evaluated by a healthcare professional. Early diagnosis and treatment can help manage the symptoms and improve the quality of life for those affected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 19 - A 32-year-old woman who is 8 weeks pregnant comes in with symptoms of...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman who is 8 weeks pregnant comes in with symptoms of 'cystitis'. She reports experiencing dysuria, suprapubic pains, and frequency for the past two days. She denies any vaginal bleeding. Upon urine dipstick testing, leucocytes and nitrites are present. Her temperature is 37.6ºC. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Oral nitrofurantoin

      Explanation:

      This expectant woman displays indications that align with a urinary tract infection. According to the BNF, trimethoprim should not be used during the initial trimester as it can hinder folate. Ciprofloxacin is not recommended for use during pregnancy. Since the patient is clearly experiencing a UTI and has a fever, prompt treatment is necessary instead of waiting for the MSU.

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. The management of UTIs depends on various factors such as the patient’s age, gender, and pregnancy status. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed if available. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. However, if the patient is aged over 65 years or has visible or non-visible haematuria, a urine culture should be sent. Pregnant women with UTIs should be treated with nitrofurantoin, amoxicillin, or cefalexin for seven days. Trimethoprim should be avoided during pregnancy as it is teratogenic in the first trimester. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated to prevent progression to acute pyelonephritis. Men with UTIs should be offered a seven-day course of trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin unless prostatitis is suspected. A urine culture should be sent before antibiotics are started. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given. Acute pyelonephritis requires hospital admission and treatment with a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or quinolone for 10-14 days. Referral to urology is not routinely required for men who have had one uncomplicated lower UTI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      11.6
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  • Question 20 - A 60-year-old man presents with a sudden onset of vision loss in his...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man presents with a sudden onset of vision loss in his left eye upon waking up this morning. He reports no pain in his eye. His medical history includes diabetes mellitus and hypertension. Upon fundoscopic examination, the right eye appears normal, but the left eye shows multiple retinal haemorrhages. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Central retinal vein occlusion

      Explanation:

      The sudden painless loss of vision and severe retinal haemorrhages observed on fundoscopy in this patient are indicative of central retinal vein occlusion. Amaurosis fugax, which is caused by atheroembolism from the carotid arteries, results in temporary vision loss that resolves within a few minutes. In contrast, this patient’s vision loss is persistent. While central retinal artery occlusion also causes acute painless vision loss, it is characterized by a loss of relative afferent pupillary defect, a cherry-red macula, and a white/pale retina on fundoscopy. Hypertensive retinopathy may cause flame-shaped haemorrhages and cotton wool spots on the retina, but it does not result in sudden vision loss.

      Understanding Central Retinal Vein Occlusion

      Central retinal vein occlusion (CRVO) is a possible cause of sudden, painless loss of vision. It is more common in older individuals and those with hypertension, cardiovascular disease, glaucoma, or polycythemia. The condition is characterized by a sudden reduction or loss of visual acuity, usually affecting only one eye. Fundoscopy reveals widespread hyperemia and severe retinal hemorrhages, which are often described as a stormy sunset.

      Branch retinal vein occlusion (BRVO) is a similar condition that affects a smaller area of the fundus. It occurs when a vein in the distal retinal venous system is blocked, usually at arteriovenous crossings.

      Most patients with CRVO are managed conservatively, but treatment may be necessary in some cases. For instance, intravitreal anti-vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) agents may be used to manage macular edema, while laser photocoagulation may be necessary to treat retinal neovascularization.

      Overall, understanding the risk factors, features, and management options for CRVO is essential for prompt diagnosis and appropriate treatment. Proper management can help prevent further vision loss and improve the patient’s quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      26.4
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  • Question 21 - A 52-year-old woman with a body mass index (BMI) of 32 was diagnosed...

    Correct

    • A 52-year-old woman with a body mass index (BMI) of 32 was diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus during a routine check-up six months ago. Despite being advised about a low-energy, weight-reducing diet and exercise, she has not followed through with these recommendations and her postprandial blood glucose concentration is 13.8 mmol/l (reference range <11.1 mmol/l). What would be the drug of choice in this case?

      Your Answer: Metformin

      Explanation:

      Medications for Type 2 Diabetes

      Metformin: The Initial Drug Treatment of Choice
      For adults with type 2 diabetes, standard-release metformin is the recommended initial drug treatment. The dose should be gradually increased to avoid gastrointestinal side effects. If significant GI side effects occur, modified-release metformin can be tried. Metformin reduces hepatic gluconeogenesis and increases insulin sensitivity, leading to an increase in peripheral glucose uptake. However, caution should be exercised when using metformin in patients with renal failure, and it should be stopped if the estimated glomerular filtration rate is less than 30 ml/min per 1.73m2.

      Tolbutamide and Chlorpropamide: First-Generation Sulfonylureas
      Tolbutamide and chlorpropamide are first-generation sulfonylureas that are no longer routinely used in the treatment of type 2 diabetes due to a higher incidence of side effects compared to newer, second-generation sulfonylureas. Chlorpropamide is not available in the UK.

      Insulin: Considered for Dual Therapy
      Insulin-based treatment should be considered in type 2 diabetes patients who have not achieved optimal glycated haemoglobin control with dual therapy using metformin and another oral drug. Metformin should continue to be offered to patients without contraindications or intolerance.

      Pioglitazone: An Alternative Second-Line Agent
      Pioglitazone can be considered as an alternative second-line agent for patients with type 2 diabetes who cannot take metformin or have not tolerated it well. It can also be used in dual therapy for first intensification of treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 22 - A 57-year-old woman with a long history of sun exposure presents to the...

    Correct

    • A 57-year-old woman with a long history of sun exposure presents to the accident and emergency department after a fracture of her right femur associated with a minor fall. On reviewing the films with the on-call radiographer you are concerned about a lytic lesion possibly being related to the fracture.
      Which of the following primary tumours most commonly metastasises to bone?

      Your Answer: Bronchial carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Metastasis Patterns of Common Carcinomas

      Carcinomas are malignant tumors that can spread to other parts of the body through a process called metastasis. The patterns of metastasis vary depending on the type of carcinoma. Here are some common carcinomas and their typical metastasis patterns:

      Bronchial Carcinoma: This type of carcinoma often spreads to the bone or brain. Symptoms may include difficulty breathing, coughing, chest pain, weight loss, and fatigue.

      Brain Carcinoma: Primary malignant brain tumors rarely spread to other parts of the body, but they can spread to surrounding areas of the brain and spinal cord.

      Renal Carcinoma: Renal cancers commonly metastasize to the lungs, producing lesions that appear like cannonballs on a chest X-ray. They can also spread to the bone, causing osteolytic lesions.

      Gastric Carcinoma: Gastric cancers tend to spread to the liver, lung, and peritoneum. Tumors that have a preference for bone metastasis include those of the lung, prostate, breast, kidney, and thyroid.

      Colorectal Carcinoma: Colorectal cancers commonly metastasize to the liver, lung, and peritoneum. Tumors that have a preference for bone metastasis include those of the lung, prostate, breast, kidney, and thyroid.

      Understanding the patterns of metastasis for different types of carcinomas can help with early detection and treatment. If you experience any symptoms or have concerns, it’s important to speak with your healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
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  • Question 23 - You review a 56-year-old man with a history of type II diabetes. He...

    Correct

    • You review a 56-year-old man with a history of type II diabetes. He was diagnosed one year ago and is currently managed with diet and exercise. His additional medication includes ramipril 10 mg once daily, atorvastatin 10 mg and aspirin 75 mg/day.
      On examination, his blood pressure (BP) is measured at 129/75 mmHg. His low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol is 2.1 mmol/l (normal range: < 2.6 mmol/l), while his haemoglobin A1c (HbA1c) is 62 mmol/mol (normal range: < 48 mmol/mol). and creatinine (Cr) is 110 μmol/l (normal range: 50–120 μmol/l).
      Which of the following is the most appropriate next treatment step in this case?

      Your Answer: Commence metformin

      Explanation:

      Medication Recommendations for a Patient with Diabetes and High Blood Pressure

      Based on the patient’s HbA1c level, it is recommended to start first-line treatment with metformin. If the patient experiences poor tolerance or side-effects from metformin, gliclazide may be considered as a second-line option. Pioglitazone may also be used in conjunction with metformin if HbA1c is poorly controlled on monotherapy. However, the patient’s blood pressure is adequately controlled, so an additional antihypertensive is not necessary. Lastly, the patient’s LDL cholesterol level suggests adequate control, and therefore, there is no need to increase the dosage of atorvastatin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      16.7
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  • Question 24 - A 32-year-old man presents to the neurology clinic with primary generalised epilepsy and...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man presents to the neurology clinic with primary generalised epilepsy and is currently taking sodium valproate. Despite being on a therapeutic dose, he is still experiencing seizures and has also noticed weight gain since starting the medication. He expresses a desire to discontinue the current drug and try an alternative. What would be the most suitable second-line treatment option?

      Your Answer: Lamotrigine

      Explanation:

      Before starting combination therapy, it is advisable to first try monotherapy with a different drug. When combining sodium valproate and lamotrigine, it is important to be cautious as it may lead to the development of severe skin rashes like Steven-Johnson’s syndrome.

      Treatment for Epilepsy

      Epilepsy is a neurological disorder that affects millions of people worldwide. The condition is characterized by recurrent seizures, which can be debilitating and life-threatening. Treatment for epilepsy typically involves the use of antiepileptic drugs (AEDs) to control seizures and improve quality of life.

      According to NICE guidelines, AEDs should be started after the second epileptic seizure. However, if a patient has a neurological deficit, brain imaging shows a structural abnormality, the EEG shows unequivocal epileptic activity, or the patient or their family considers the risk of having a further seizure unacceptable, AEDs may be started after the first seizure. It is important to note that sodium valproate should not be used during pregnancy and in women of childbearing age unless clearly necessary due to the risk of neurodevelopmental delay in children.

      The choice of AEDs depends on the type of epilepsy. For generalized tonic-clonic seizures, males are typically prescribed sodium valproate, while females are prescribed lamotrigine or levetiracetam. For focal seizures, lamotrigine or levetiracetam are the first-line treatments, with carbamazepine, oxcarbazepine, or zonisamide as second-line options. Ethosuximide is the first-line treatment for absence seizures, with sodium valproate or lamotrigine/levetiracetam as second-line options. For myoclonic seizures, males are prescribed sodium valproate, while females are prescribed levetiracetam. Finally, for tonic or atonic seizures, males are prescribed sodium valproate, while females are prescribed lamotrigine.

      In summary, treatment for epilepsy involves the use of AEDs to control seizures and improve quality of life. The choice of AEDs depends on the type of epilepsy, and sodium valproate should be used with caution in women of childbearing age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      7.6
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  • Question 25 - A 40-year-old inpatient experienced an episode of acute psychosis. He was given a...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old inpatient experienced an episode of acute psychosis. He was given a medication on the ward and later developed severe torticollis.
      What is the most probable drug that was administered to the patient?

      Your Answer: Haloperidol

      Explanation:

      Common Psychiatric Medications and Their Side-Effects

      Haloperidol: A typical antipsychotic drug that can cause extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSEs), including acute dystonic reactions. Treatment is with anticholinergic drugs or benzodiazepines.

      Clozapine: An atypical antipsychotic mainly used in treatment-resistant schizophrenia. Common side-effects include sedation, constipation, hypersalivation, weight gain, and metabolic syndrome. Rare but important side-effects include agranulocytosis, arrhythmias, and myocarditis. EPSEs are possible but rare.

      Diazepam: A benzodiazepine used in anxiety, insomnia, seizures, and muscle spasms. Side-effects include sedation, muscle weakness, drowsiness, and confusion. EPSEs are not a recognised side-effect and may improve with the use of benzodiazepines.

      Lithium: A mood stabiliser used in the treatment of mania, depression, and bipolar disorder. Side-effects include gastrointestinal disturbances, tremor, polydipsia, polyuria, and electrolyte disturbances. Lithium-induced hypothyroidism is common. EPSEs are not a side-effect of lithium.

      Olanzapine: An atypical antipsychotic used in the treatment of schizophrenia and acute mania. Common side-effects include sedation, weight gain, and metabolic symptoms. EPSEs can occur but are not a typical side-effect of olanzapine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      4.7
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  • Question 26 - A 25-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a 1-week history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a 1-week history of an itchy rash on the inner aspect of his elbows on either side. He states that this came on suddenly and that he has had similar episodes in the past, the first of which occurred when he was around seven years old. He claims to only suffer from generally dry skin and asthma, which he controls with emollient creams and inhalers, respectively.
      Given the likely diagnosis, which of the following is the best next step?

      Your Answer: Radioallergosorbent test (RAST) before starting treatment

      Correct Answer: No further testing required; start treatment

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Testing for Atopic Eczema

      Atopic eczema is a common skin condition that can cause significant physical and psychological distress to patients. Diagnosis is usually made based on clinical presentation and history, with no further testing required. The UK Working Party Diagnostic Criteria can be used to aid in diagnosis. Treatment options include emollients, topical steroids, and other medications in severe cases.

      Radioallergosorbent testing (RAST) and skin patch testing are not useful in diagnosing atopic eczema, as they are mainly used for other types of hypersensitivity reactions. Skin prick testing may be used to diagnose allergies that could be exacerbating the eczema. However, it is important to note that atopic eczema is a clinical diagnosis and testing is not always necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 27 - A 45-year-old woman with permanent atrial fibrillation is taking warfarin. She has experienced...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman with permanent atrial fibrillation is taking warfarin. She has experienced two unprovoked tonic-clonic seizures witnessed by her husband. CT scan of the brain reveals diffuse ischaemic changes in the white matter. The specialist recommends starting her on an anti-epileptic medication.
      What would be the most suitable anti-epileptic drug to prescribe for this patient who is also on warfarin therapy?

      Your Answer: Carbamazepine

      Correct Answer: Lamotrigine

      Explanation:

      Considerations for Anti-Epileptic Drugs and Warfarin Interaction

      When prescribing anti-epileptic drugs to patients taking warfarin, it is important to consider potential drug interactions. Lamotrigine is a safe option as it has no effect on liver enzymes and does not interact significantly with warfarin. However, other anti-epileptic drugs such as phenytoin, carbamazepine, primidone, and phenobarbital can affect warfarin metabolism and effectiveness. Phenytoin and warfarin have a complex interaction that may initially increase the anticoagulant effect of warfarin, then decrease it with continued phenytoin use. Warfarin also increases the level of phenytoin. Carbamazepine is a P450 enzyme inducer, which decreases the level and effect of warfarin. Phenobarbital and primidone are also enzyme inducers that decrease warfarin effectiveness. Sodium valproate, on the other hand, is a liver enzyme inhibitor. Therefore, when considering anti-epileptic drugs for patients taking warfarin, it is important to weigh the potential drug interactions and choose the appropriate medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      71.6
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  • Question 28 - A 57-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of a painful, red left thigh....

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of a painful, red left thigh. She denies feeling unwell and reports no shortness of breath or haemoptysis. Her medical history includes obesity (BMI 32 kg/m2) and no past surgeries. She takes no regular medications. On examination, she appears healthy, and all her vital signs are normal. She has erythema on the medial aspect of her left thigh. Palpation of the left long saphenous vein reveals tenderness and hardening over a 6 cm length, starting 10cm distal to the sapheno-femoral junction. The Wells score for DVT is 1. What is the most appropriate next step in investigation?

      Your Answer: Serum D-dimer level

      Correct Answer: Venous ultrasound of the legs

      Explanation:

      Patients diagnosed with superficial thrombophlebitis in the long saphenous vein should undergo an ultrasound scan to rule out the possibility of an underlying DVT. While this condition is typically harmless and can be treated with NSAIDs and compression, it carries a risk of DVT and subsequent PE. Therefore, it is recommended that patients with proximal long saphenous vein thrombophlebitis undergo an ultrasound to exclude DVT.

      In this case, there are no indications of PE or respiratory symptoms, so a CTPA or chest X-ray is not necessary. While a D-dimer test is typically used to diagnose DVT, it is not useful in the presence of superficial thrombophlebitis. As a result, the guideline is to proceed directly to venous ultrasound.

      The risk factors for superficial thrombophlebitis are the same as those for DVT/PE, such as female sex, prolonged immobility, obesity, and cancer. While checking blood lipid levels may be relevant, it is not a primary concern as this is a thrombotic rather than an atherosclerotic process.

      Superficial thrombophlebitis is inflammation associated with thrombosis of a superficial vein, usually the long saphenous vein of the leg. Around 20% of cases have an underlying deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and 3-4% may progress to a DVT if untreated. Treatment options include NSAIDs, topical heparinoids, compression stockings, and low-molecular weight heparin. Patients with clinical signs of superficial thrombophlebitis affecting the proximal long saphenous vein should have an ultrasound scan to exclude concurrent DVT. Patients with superficial thrombophlebitis at, or extending towards, the sapheno-femoral junction can be considered for therapeutic anticoagulation for 6-12 weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      24.8
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  • Question 29 - A mother brings her 8-month-old son to your clinic with concerns about his...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings her 8-month-old son to your clinic with concerns about his left eye. She reports that his left eye is constantly watering and occasionally becomes sticky, but there is no yellow or green discharge. The child has been treated twice with chloramphenicol drops, but there was no improvement. A negative eye swab was obtained last month. The child is healthy and has no issues with visual development. What would be your approach to managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Urgent ophthalmology referral

      Correct Answer: Reassurance and advice to continue conservative treatment unless symptoms persist beyond 1 year of age

      Explanation:

      Recurrent watery or sticky eyes in neonates may be caused by congenital tear duct obstruction, which typically resolves on its own by the age of 1. This condition can often be mistaken for conjunctivitis, leading to multiple appointments and unsuccessful treatment with chloramphenicol drops and negative swabs. Parents should be reassured that most cases will resolve on their own, but if symptoms persist beyond 1 year, a referral to an ophthalmologist is recommended.

      Understanding Nasolacrimal Duct Obstruction in Infants

      Nasolacrimal duct obstruction is a common condition that affects around 10% of infants at one month of age. It is characterized by a persistent watery eye caused by an imperforate membrane, usually located at the lower end of the lacrimal duct. Fortunately, symptoms usually resolve on their own by the age of one year in 95% of cases.

      To manage this condition, parents can be taught to massage the lacrimal duct to help clear any blockages. However, if symptoms persist beyond one year, it is recommended to seek the advice of an ophthalmologist. In such cases, probing may be considered, which is a procedure done under a light general anaesthetic. By understanding the causes and management of nasolacrimal duct obstruction, parents can take the necessary steps to ensure their child’s eye health and comfort.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 30 - A 50-year-old obese man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old obese man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus presents at the clinic for a review. He is currently asymptomatic but his recent annual blood tests have shown slightly abnormal liver function tests. The results are as follows:
      - Bilirubin: 20 µmol/L (3 - 17)
      - ALP: 104 u/L (30 - 100)
      - ALT: 53 u/L (3 - 40)
      - γGT: 58 u/L (8 - 60)
      - Albumin: 38 g/L (35 - 50)

      A liver ultrasound was conducted and reported fatty changes. All other standard liver screen bloods, including viral serology, are normal. The patient's alcoholic intake is within recommended limits. What is the most appropriate next test to perform?

      Your Answer: Repeat liver ultrasound after calorific restricted diet for 1 month

      Correct Answer: Enhanced liver fibrosis blood test

      Explanation:

      For patients with non-alcoholic fatty liver disease who exhibit characteristics such as obesity and type 2 diabetes mellitus, it is recommended to conduct an enhanced liver fibrosis (ELF) test to aid in the diagnosis of liver fibrosis. According to NICE guidelines, if NAFLD is discovered incidentally, an ELF blood test should be conducted to evaluate for the presence of more advanced liver disease.

      Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease: Causes, Features, and Management

      Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) is a prevalent liver disease in developed countries, primarily caused by obesity. It encompasses a range of conditions, from simple steatosis (fat accumulation in the liver) to steatohepatitis (fat with inflammation) and may progress to fibrosis and liver cirrhosis. Insulin resistance is believed to be the primary mechanism leading to steatosis, making NAFLD a hepatic manifestation of metabolic syndrome. Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH) is a type of liver damage similar to alcoholic hepatitis but occurs in the absence of alcohol abuse. It affects around 3-4% of the general population and may be responsible for some cases of cryptogenic cirrhosis.

      NAFLD is usually asymptomatic, but hepatomegaly, increased echogenicity on ultrasound, and elevated ALT levels are common features. The enhanced liver fibrosis (ELF) blood test is recommended by NICE to check for advanced fibrosis in patients with incidental NAFLD. If the ELF blood test is not available, non-invasive tests such as the FIB4 score or NAFLD fibrosis score, in combination with a FibroScan, may be used to assess the severity of fibrosis. Patients with advanced fibrosis should be referred to a liver specialist for further evaluation, which may include a liver biopsy to stage the disease more accurately.

      The mainstay of NAFLD treatment is lifestyle changes, particularly weight loss, and monitoring. Research is ongoing into the role of gastric banding and insulin-sensitizing drugs such as metformin and pioglitazone. While there is no evidence to support screening for NAFLD in adults, NICE guidelines recommend the management of incidental NAFLD findings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 31 - A 58-year-old man contacts his General Practitioner to request a repeat prescription of...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old man contacts his General Practitioner to request a repeat prescription of xylometazoline hydrochloride nasal spray. He has been using this for the past four weeks to 'clear up his sinuses.'
      What is the most likely side effect this patient will develop based on his current management?

      Your Answer: Rebound nasal congestion

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Side Effects of Long-Term Nasal Decongestant Use

      Nasal decongestants are a common treatment for nasal congestion, but long-term use can lead to adverse effects. One of the most significant risks is rebound nasal congestion, which can encourage further use and hypertrophy of the nasal mucosa. It is recommended to use nasal decongestants for a maximum of seven days to avoid this risk. Other adverse effects of long-term use include nasal burning, irritation, and dryness, but chronic rhinitis is not a recognized side effect. While cardiovascular effects like tachycardia and hypertension are possible, they are more common with oral decongestants. Septal perforation is a rare side effect of intranasal corticosteroids, not nasal decongestants. It is essential to understand the potential risks of long-term nasal decongestant use and to use them only as directed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
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  • Question 32 - A 12-year-old boy comes to the clinic with a history of headaches for...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old boy comes to the clinic with a history of headaches for the past 6 months. He reports experiencing these headaches once every few weeks, with each episode lasting for a day. Prior to the onset of the headache, he sees zig-zag lines. The headaches are typically on the right side of his head, accompanied by nausea and occasional vomiting. He finds some relief by sleeping in a dark, quiet room. Apart from this, he is healthy.
      What is the initial approach to managing his condition?

      Your Answer: Sumatriptan nasal spray

      Correct Answer: Oral ibuprofen

      Explanation:

      The recommended initial treatment for paediatric migraines is ibuprofen. Sumatriptan nasal spray is only approved for use in children over the age of 12, and oral sumatriptan is not approved for those under 18. Codeine and oramorph are not recommended for treating migraines in children. Indomethacin is also not typically used for paediatric migraines.

      Understanding Headaches in Children

      Headaches are a common occurrence in children, with up to 50% of 7-year-olds and 80% of 15-year-olds experiencing at least one headache. Migraine without aura is the most common cause of primary headache in children, with a strong female preponderance after puberty. The International Headache Society has produced criteria for diagnosing pediatric migraine without aura, which includes headache attacks lasting 4-72 hours, with at least two of four specific features and accompanying symptoms such as nausea and vomiting.

      When it comes to acute management, ibuprofen is considered more effective than paracetamol for pediatric migraine. Triptans may be used in children over 12 years old, but follow-up is required, and only sumatriptan nasal spray is licensed for use in young people. However, oral triptans are not currently licensed for those under 18 years old, and side effects may include tingling, heat, and pressure sensations.

      Prophylaxis for pediatric migraine is limited, with no clear consensus guidelines. Pizotifen and propranolol are recommended as first-line preventatives, while valproate, topiramate, and amitriptyline are considered second-line preventatives. Tension-type headache is the second most common cause of headache in children, with diagnostic criteria including at least 10 previous headache episodes lasting from 30 minutes to 7 days, with specific pain characteristics and the absence of nausea or vomiting.

      In summary, headaches in children are common, and migraine without aura is the most common primary headache. Acute management includes ibuprofen and triptans, while prophylaxis is limited. Tension-type headache is also a common cause of headache in children. It is important to seek medical advice if headaches are frequent or severe, or if there are any concerning symptoms such as neurological deficits or changes in behavior.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 33 - A 14-year-old adolescent complains of recurring reactions to his nose ring. He remembers...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old adolescent complains of recurring reactions to his nose ring. He remembers experiencing a similar reaction on his wrist when wearing a nickel bracelet. What test is used to confirm a nickel allergy?

      Your Answer: Patch test

      Explanation:

      Medical Testing Techniques

      Patch Test, Flow Cytometry, HLA Typing, Polymerase Chain Reaction, and Skin Prick Testing are all medical testing techniques used for different purposes.

      Patch Test is used to diagnose delayed type IV hypersensitivity reactions. It involves applying various test substances to the skin and examining it for any inflammatory response.

      Flow Cytometry is used to differentiate between cell populations and count the number of cells in a given sample. It works by channelling cells through a laser beam one at a time and identifying the size and granularity of the cell.

      HLA Typing is used to match patients and donors for cord blood or bone marrow transplants. It tests for proteins or markers used by the immune system to differentiate ‘self’ from ‘non-self’.

      Polymerase Chain Reaction is used to amplify a single or multiple copies of a DNA segment. It has medical uses such as functional analysis of genes, diagnosis of hereditary diseases, and detection of infectious diseases.

      Skin Prick Testing is used to diagnose type I hypersensitivity reactions, which are mediated by immunoglobulin E. It involves immediate degranulation of mast cells and the release of histamine. Examples of type I hypersensitivity reactions include allergic rhinitis, systemic anaphylaxis, and allergic asthma.

      Medical Testing Techniques for Different Purposes

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology/Allergy
      109.2
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  • Question 34 - A 62-year-old man is referred to Ophthalmology with bilateral cataracts. He reports a...

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old man is referred to Ophthalmology with bilateral cataracts. He reports a gradual decline in his vision over the past few years and has difficulty reading small print. He is placed on the surgical waiting list.
      Which eye structure is most likely to be impacted by this ailment?

      Your Answer: Lens

      Explanation:

      Anatomy of the Eye: Understanding the Different Parts and Their Disorders

      The eye is a complex organ that allows us to see the world around us. It is made up of several parts, each with its own function. Understanding the anatomy of the eye and the disorders that can affect it is important for maintaining good eye health.

      Lens: The lens is a transparent structure located behind the pupil and iris. It helps to focus light onto the retina. Cataracts occur when the lens becomes cloudy or opaque, causing vision problems.

      Cornea: The cornea is the clear dome-shaped surface of the eye that sits over the iris. It plays a role in refracting light. Damage to the cornea can cause pain and light sensitivity.

      Iris: The iris is the colored part of the eye. It can be affected by disorders such as uveitis, which causes inflammation of the uvea (iris, ciliary body, and choroid).

      Retina: The retina is located at the back of the eye and contains rods and cones that process incoming light. Disorders of the retina include retinitis pigmentosa, diabetic retinopathy, and retinal detachment.

      Sclera: The sclera is the white part of the eye. Disorders of the sclera include scleritis, which causes redness, pain, and reduced visual acuity. It can be associated with rheumatoid arthritis.

      Understanding the different parts of the eye and their functions can help you identify potential problems and seek treatment early. Regular eye exams are important for maintaining good eye health and preventing vision loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      8.2
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  • Question 35 - A 13-year-old girl comes to her doctor with a 5-month history of aching...

    Correct

    • A 13-year-old girl comes to her doctor with a 5-month history of aching pain and swelling in the distal part of her left thigh. She has a family history of retinoblastoma and is in good health otherwise. A radiograph of her knee reveals a sunburst pattern and a triangular area of new subperiosteal bone in the metaphyseal region of the femur. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Osteosarcoma

      Explanation:

      Types of Bone Tumours

      Bone tumours can be classified into two categories: benign and malignant. Benign tumours are non-cancerous and do not spread to other parts of the body. Osteoma is a common benign tumour that occurs on the skull and is associated with Gardner’s syndrome. Osteochondroma, on the other hand, is the most common benign bone tumour and is usually diagnosed in patients aged less than 20 years. It is characterized by a cartilage-capped bony projection on the external surface of a bone. Giant cell tumour is a tumour of multinucleated giant cells within a fibrous stroma and is most commonly seen in the epiphyses of long bones.

      Malignant tumours, on the other hand, are cancerous and can spread to other parts of the body. Osteosarcoma is the most common primary malignant bone tumour and is mainly seen in children and adolescents. It occurs most frequently in the metaphyseal region of long bones prior to epiphyseal closure. Ewing’s sarcoma is a small round blue cell tumour that is also seen mainly in children and adolescents. It occurs most frequently in the pelvis and long bones and tends to cause severe pain. Chondrosarcoma is a malignant tumour of cartilage that most commonly affects the axial skeleton and is more common in middle-age. It is important to diagnose and treat bone tumours early to prevent complications and improve outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      15.2
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - A 62-year-old man is undergoing a drug therapy evaluation following a myocardial infarction...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old man is undergoing a drug therapy evaluation following a myocardial infarction (MI).
      Which of the following options has not been shown to have a beneficial effect on mortality after an MI?

      Your Answer: Timolol

      Correct Answer: Isosorbide mononitrate

      Explanation:

      Medications for Post-Myocardial Infarction (MI) Care

      After a myocardial infarction (MI), certain medications are recommended to reduce mortality and manage symptoms. Nitrates, such as isosorbide mononitrate, offer no mortality benefit but can be used for angina symptoms. β-blockers, like timolol, provide both mortality and anti-anginal benefits and should be continued for at least 12 months post-MI. Statins, specifically atorvastatin 80 mg, are recommended for secondary prevention to reduce mortality. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors, such as ramipril, offer good mortality benefit, but angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs) can be used if the patient cannot tolerate ACE inhibitors. Aspirin, in combination with another antiplatelet therapy, is recommended for 12 months post-MI. Studies have shown that tirofiban, timolol, and ramipril reduce mortality after an MI, while isosorbide mononitrate showed no benefit. The MIRACL study found that atorvastatin reduced cardiovascular events by 17% when given for 3 months post-MI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - An infant is born with ambiguous genitalia, following an uneventful pregnancy and delivery....

    Incorrect

    • An infant is born with ambiguous genitalia, following an uneventful pregnancy and delivery. Upon further investigation, it is discovered that the child has congenital adrenal hyperplasia caused by 21-hydroxylase deficiency.
      What is a characteristic of 21-hydroxylase deficiency-related congenital adrenal hyperplasia?

      Your Answer: Acromegaly

      Correct Answer: Adrenocortical insufficiency

      Explanation:

      Medical Conditions Associated with 21-Hydroxylase Deficiency

      21-hydroxylase deficiency is a medical condition that results in decreased cortisol synthesis and commonly reduces aldosterone synthesis. This condition can lead to adrenal insufficiency, causing salt wasting and hypoglycemia. However, it is not associated with diabetes insipidus, which is characterized by low ADH levels. Patients with 21-hydroxylase deficiency may also experience stunted growth and elevated androgens, but hypogonadism is not a feature. Treatment may involve the use of gonadotrophin-releasing hormone (GnRH).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      15.3
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - A 27-year-old man visits his doctor with worries about his increased risk of...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man visits his doctor with worries about his increased risk of breast cancer due to his sister's recent diagnosis at the age of 30 years with a BRCA2 mutation. He is considering getting tested for the mutation. If he were to test positive for BRCA2, what other type of cancer would he be at a higher risk for?

      Your Answer: Testicular

      Correct Answer: Prostate

      Explanation:

      Men with BRCA2 mutation are at a higher risk of developing prostate cancer, while both men and women with this mutation have a significantly increased risk of developing breast cancer. Additionally, women with BRCA2 mutation are more likely to develop ovarian cancer. Although young-onset colorectal cancer is linked to BRCA1 mutation, there is no such association observed in individuals with BRCA2 mutation.

      Li-Fraumeni Syndrome is caused by mutations in the p53 gene and increases the risk of developing sarcomas and leukemias. BRCA 1 and 2 mutations increase the risk of breast and ovarian cancer, and BRCA 2 is also associated with prostate cancer in men. Lynch Syndrome increases the risk of colon and endometrial cancer, and can be identified using the Amsterdam criteria. Gardner’s Syndrome is a familial colorectal polyposis that can lead to colectomy to reduce the risk of colorectal cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      125.4
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - A 43-year-old patient presents to the emergency department with complaints of feeling generally...

    Correct

    • A 43-year-old patient presents to the emergency department with complaints of feeling generally unwell. He reports experiencing body aches and waking up in a cold sweat at night. Upon examination, you observe injection marks on the antecubital fossa. His vital signs reveal a temperature of 38.1ºC, heart rate of 122 bpm, blood pressure of 110/90 mmHg, respiratory rate of 18/min, and oxygen saturation of 98%. You urgently order blood cultures and an echocardiogram. Based on the diagnosis, which site is most likely affected?

      Your Answer: Tricuspid valve

      Explanation:

      The tricuspid valve is the valve most commonly affected by infective endocarditis in intravenous drug users.

      Aetiology of Infective Endocarditis

      Infective endocarditis is a condition that affects patients with previously normal valves, rheumatic valve disease, prosthetic valves, congenital heart defects, intravenous drug users, and those who have recently undergone piercings. The strongest risk factor for developing infective endocarditis is a previous episode of the condition. The mitral valve is the most commonly affected valve.

      The most common cause of infective endocarditis is Staphylococcus aureus, particularly in acute presentations and intravenous drug users. Historically, Streptococcus viridans was the most common cause, but this is no longer the case except in developing countries. Streptococcus mitis and Streptococcus sanguinis are the two most notable viridans streptococci, commonly found in the mouth and dental plaque. Coagulase-negative Staphylococci such as Staphylococcus epidermidis are the most common cause of endocarditis in patients following prosthetic valve surgery.

      Streptococcus bovis is associated with colorectal cancer, with the subtype Streptococcus gallolyticus being most linked to the condition. Non-infective causes of endocarditis include systemic lupus erythematosus and malignancy. Culture negative causes may be due to prior antibiotic therapy or infections caused by Coxiella burnetii, Bartonella, Brucella, or HACEK organisms (Haemophilus, Actinobacillus, Cardiobacterium, Eikenella, Kingella).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      69.9
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - An 18-year-old woman presents to her GP with painful lumps in her neck...

    Incorrect

    • An 18-year-old woman presents to her GP with painful lumps in her neck that appeared two days ago. She also reports a sore throat and fever. Upon examination, she has tender, enlarged, smooth masses on both sides. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Goitre

      Correct Answer: Reactive lymphadenopathy

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Neck Lumps: Causes and Characteristics

      When a patient presents with a neck lump, it is important to consider the possible causes and characteristics to determine the appropriate course of action. In this case, the patient’s sore throat and fever suggest a throat infection, which has resulted in reactive lymphadenopathy. This is a common cause of neck lump presentations in primary care.

      Other possible causes of neck lumps include goitre, which is a painless mass in the midline of the throat that is not associated with fever and may be functional if accompanied by hyperthyroidism. An abscess could also present as a painful neck lump, but the history of a sore throat and bilateral swelling make this less likely.

      Branchial cysts are smooth, soft masses in the lateral neck that are usually benign and congenital in origin. Lipomas, on the other hand, are lumps caused by the accumulation of soft, fatty deposits under the skin and do not typically present with systemic features.

      In summary, understanding the characteristics and possible causes of neck lumps can aid in the diagnosis and management of patients presenting with this symptom.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      129.9
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  • Question 41 - You see a 61-year-old man with backache.
    Which ONE of the following may indicate...

    Correct

    • You see a 61-year-old man with backache.
      Which ONE of the following may indicate a potentially serious pathology and hence requires referral as an emergency?

      Your Answer: Perineal anaesthesia

      Explanation:

      Back pain can have various causes, some of which may require urgent medical attention. Perineal anaesthesia, which involves numbness in the perineal, buttock, and inner thigh areas, is a red flag for back pain and may indicate cauda equina syndrome. This condition involves compression or damage to the tail of the spinal cord and requires urgent magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) for diagnosis. Other symptoms of cauda equina syndrome include severe or progressive back pain, new urinary or fecal incontinence, and lower limb weakness. Unilateral leg pain that is worse than low back pain may suggest sciatica, which can be managed conservatively without red flags. Pain radiating to the buttock on one side may also indicate nerve root irritation and can be managed in primary care if there are no red flags. However, new back pain in patients under 20 or over 55 years old should be taken seriously and may require urgent referral for further investigation. Localized neurological signs may indicate nerve root irritation, but do not necessarily require emergency referral. Red flags for back pain, such as constant, non-mechanical pain, thoracic pain, past history of malignant tumor, prolonged use of corticosteroids, and unexplained weight loss, require thorough work-up and consideration of imaging and specialist referral.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - A 35-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a cat bite on...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a cat bite on her hand while house-sitting for her neighbor. She complains of mild pain and swelling around the bite but denies having a fever. Upon examination, there is a small puncture wound on the palm of her left hand with mild erythema around it, but no visible purulent discharge. What is the best course of treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Co-amoxiclav

      Explanation:

      When a patient suffers an animal bite, it is likely that the wound will be infected with multiple types of bacteria. The most frequently identified bacteria in cultures from animal bites is Pasteurella multocida. To prevent infection, it is important to clean the wound thoroughly and provide the patient with tetanus and antibiotics. According to NICE guidelines, co-amoxiclav is the preferred antibiotic as it effectively targets the bacteria commonly found in animal bites.

      Animal and Human Bites: Causes and Management

      Animal and human bites are common injuries that can lead to infections caused by various microorganisms. Dogs and cats are the most common animals involved in bites, with Pasteurella multocida being the most commonly isolated organism. On the other hand, human bites can cause infections from both aerobic and anaerobic bacteria, including Streptococci spp., Staphylococcus aureus, Eikenella, Fusobacterium, and Prevotella.

      To manage animal and human bites, it is important to cleanse the wound thoroughly. Puncture wounds should not be sutured closed unless there is a risk of cosmesis. The current recommendation for treatment is co-amoxiclav, but if the patient is allergic to penicillin, doxycycline and metronidazole are recommended. It is also important to consider the risk of viral infections such as HIV and hepatitis C in human bites.

      In summary, animal and human bites can lead to infections caused by various microorganisms. Proper wound cleansing and appropriate antibiotic treatment are essential in managing these injuries. Additionally, healthcare providers should consider the risk of viral infections in human bites.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - A 65-year-old woman has a significant anterior non-ST-elevation myocardial infarction (MI) but recovers...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman has a significant anterior non-ST-elevation myocardial infarction (MI) but recovers well in hospital. Her predischarge echocardiogram shows her to have an ejection fraction of 40%. She is otherwise asymptomatic.
      Which of the following should her medications on discharge include?

      Your Answer: Aspirin, bisoprolol, ramipril, losartan and a statin

      Correct Answer: Aspirin, ticagrelor, bisoprolol, ramipril and a statin

      Explanation:

      Medication Options for Post-Myocardial Infarction Patients

      After a myocardial infarction (MI), it is important for patients to receive appropriate medication to prevent further cardiovascular events. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines recommend the use of aspirin, ticagrelor, bisoprolol, ramipril, and a statin for dual antiplatelet therapy, β-blocker, ACE inhibitor, and cholesterol-lowering medication. The β-blocker and ACE inhibitor should be increased to the maximum tolerated dose.

      While isosorbide mononitrate (ISMN) is a useful anti-anginal medication, it is not indicated for post-MI patients. Instead, aspirin, bisoprolol, ramipril, losartan, and a statin may be prescribed. However, the use of an ACE inhibitor alongside an angiotensin receptor blocker (ARB) is not recommended due to their similar mechanism of action. Nitrates, such as ISMN, are also used as anti-anginals, but ACE inhibitors are preferred over ARBs.

      For patients on aspirin, bisoprolol, ramipril, and a statin, a second antiplatelet medication, such as clopidogrel, may be added for the first 12 months following an MI, unless there is a contraindication such as concomitant use of warfarin. It is important for healthcare providers to carefully consider the appropriate medication regimen for each post-MI patient to optimize their cardiovascular health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      7.9
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  • Question 44 - An 88-year-old woman visits her doctor with her daughter. She was diagnosed with...

    Correct

    • An 88-year-old woman visits her doctor with her daughter. She was diagnosed with Alzheimer's dementia two years ago and has recently moved in with her daughter for care. Lately, she has become increasingly isolated and has reported seeing animals in the house that are not actually there. She denies any other symptoms. All vital signs are normal and physical examination is unremarkable.

      What is the probable cause of her current symptoms?

      Your Answer: Delirium

      Explanation:

      Cognitively impaired patients can experience delirium when placed in new surroundings. Even minor changes in environment can trigger delirium in individuals with dementia, leading to visual hallucinations. While community-acquired pneumonia and urinary tract infections are common causes of delirium in the elderly, they seem unlikely in this case as there are no other clues in the history or examination. Depression is a common differential for dementia in the elderly, but the acute onset of symptoms in this woman suggests delirium. It is important to note that symptoms of depression in the elderly can be non-specific. While psychosis could explain the visual hallucinations, the absence of other symptoms and the acute onset of the condition suggest delirium.

      Acute confusional state, also known as delirium or acute organic brain syndrome, is a condition that affects up to 30% of elderly patients admitted to hospital. It is more common in patients over the age of 65, those with a background of dementia, significant injury, frailty or multimorbidity, and those taking multiple medications. The condition is often triggered by a combination of factors, such as infection, metabolic imbalances, change of environment, and underlying medical conditions.

      The symptoms of acute confusional state can vary widely, but may include memory disturbances, agitation or withdrawal, disorientation, mood changes, visual hallucinations, disturbed sleep, and poor attention. Treatment involves identifying and addressing the underlying cause, modifying the patient’s environment, and using sedatives such as haloperidol or olanzapine. However, managing the condition can be challenging in patients with Parkinson’s disease, as antipsychotics can worsen Parkinsonian symptoms. In such cases, careful reduction of Parkinson medication may be helpful, and atypical antipsychotics such as quetiapine and clozapine may be preferred for urgent treatment.

      Overall, acute confusional state is a complex condition that requires careful management and individualized treatment. By addressing the underlying causes and providing appropriate sedation, healthcare professionals can help patients recover from this condition and improve their overall quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      23.5
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - At what age should a woman be offered her initial cervical smear as...

    Incorrect

    • At what age should a woman be offered her initial cervical smear as a part of the cervical cancer screening program in the United Kingdom?

      Your Answer: 45

      Correct Answer: 25

      Explanation:

      Screening for cervical cancer

      Cervical Cancer Screening in the UK

      Cervical cancer screening is a well-established program in the UK that aims to detect pre-malignant changes in the cervix. This program is estimated to prevent 1,000-4,000 deaths per year. However, it should be noted that around 15% of cervical adenocarcinomas are frequently undetected by screening.

      The screening program has evolved significantly in recent years. Initially, smears were examined for signs of dyskaryosis, which may indicate cervical intraepithelial neoplasia. However, the introduction of HPV testing allowed for further risk stratification, and the NHS has now moved to an HPV first system. This means that a sample is tested for high-risk strains of human papillomavirus (hrHPV) first, and cytological examination is only performed if this is positive.

      All women between the ages of 25-64 years are offered a smear test. Women aged 25-49 years are screened every three years, while those aged 50-64 years are screened every five years. However, cervical screening cannot be offered to women over 64. In Scotland, screening is offered from 25-64 every five years.

      In special situations, cervical screening in pregnancy is usually delayed until three months post-partum, unless there are missed screenings or previous abnormal smears. Women who have never been sexually active have a very low risk of developing cervical cancer and may wish to opt-out of screening.

      It is recommended to take a cervical smear around mid-cycle, although there is limited evidence to support this advice. Overall, the UK’s cervical cancer screening program is an essential tool in preventing cervical cancer and promoting women’s health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      8.8
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  • Question 46 - A 50-year-old female patient visits the clinic complaining of an itchy rash. During...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old female patient visits the clinic complaining of an itchy rash. During the examination, the doctor observes several purple papular rashes on the flexural surface of her wrists. Additionally, a similar rash is present at the edges of a laceration wound she suffered a week ago. What is the recommended initial treatment for this condition?

      Your Answer: Oral prednisolone

      Correct Answer: Hydrocortisone cream

      Explanation:

      Lichen planus is present in this woman, but it appears to be limited in scope. The initial treatment for lichen planus is potent topical steroids. Oral azathioprine or prednisolone is only prescribed if the condition is widespread. Coal tar cream and calcitriol ointment are not effective treatments for lichen planus.

      Understanding Lichen Planus

      Lichen planus is a skin condition that is believed to be caused by an immune response, although the exact cause is unknown. It is characterized by an itchy, papular rash that typically appears on the palms, soles, genitalia, and flexor surfaces of the arms. The rash often has a polygonal shape and a distinctive white-lines pattern on the surface, known as Wickham’s striae. In some cases, new skin lesions may appear at the site of trauma, a phenomenon known as the Koebner phenomenon.

      Oral involvement is common in around 50% of patients, with a white-lace pattern often appearing on the buccal mucosa. Nail changes may also occur, including thinning of the nail plate and longitudinal ridging. Lichenoid drug eruptions can be caused by certain medications, such as gold, quinine, and thiazides.

      The main treatment for lichen planus is potent topical steroids. For oral lichen planus, benzydamine mouthwash or spray is recommended. In more extensive cases, oral steroids or immunosuppression may be necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      11.7
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  • Question 47 - A 25-year-old female complains of ankle pain after twisting it during a game...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old female complains of ankle pain after twisting it during a game of basketball. What is the least significant factor to consider when determining if an x-ray is necessary?

      Your Answer: Swelling immediately after the injury and now

      Explanation:

      Ottawa Rules for Ankle Injuries

      The Ottawa Rules provide a guideline for determining whether an ankle x-ray is necessary after an injury. These rules have a sensitivity approaching 100%, meaning they are highly accurate. An ankle x-ray is only required if there is pain in the malleolar zone and one of the following findings: bony tenderness at the lateral malleolar zone or medial malleolar zone, or inability to walk four weight-bearing steps immediately after the injury and in the emergency department.

      The lateral malleolar zone is from the tip of the lateral malleolus to include the lower 6 cm of the posterior border of the fibular, while the medial malleolar zone is from the tip of the medial malleolus to the lower 6 cm of the posterior border of the tibia. These rules help healthcare professionals determine whether an ankle x-ray is necessary, which can save time and resources. It is important to note that there are also Ottawa rules available for foot and knee injuries. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can provide efficient and effective care for ankle injuries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      7.3
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  • Question 48 - A mother who refused regular prenatal check-ups delivers a male infant. During delivery,...

    Correct

    • A mother who refused regular prenatal check-ups delivers a male infant. During delivery, a defect is observed on the side of the belly button, revealing the intestines.
      What could be the possible diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Gastroschisis

      Explanation:

      Gastroschisis is a bowel condition where the intestines are exposed and not encased by a sac. It is not associated with cardiac and kidney diseases, unlike exomphalos. It can be diagnosed through routine ultrasound, but may be missed if the mother does not engage in antenatal care. It is not a normal variant and is not necessarily associated with prematurity.

      Gastroschisis and exomphalos are both types of congenital visceral malformations. Gastroschisis refers to a defect in the anterior abdominal wall located just beside the umbilical cord. In contrast, exomphalos, also known as omphalocoele, involves the protrusion of abdominal contents through the anterior abdominal wall, which are covered by an amniotic sac formed by amniotic membrane and peritoneum.

      When it comes to managing gastroschisis, vaginal delivery may be attempted, but newborns should be taken to the operating theatre as soon as possible after delivery, ideally within four hours. As for exomphalos, a caesarean section is recommended to reduce the risk of sac rupture. In cases where primary closure is difficult due to lack of space or high intra-abdominal pressure, a staged repair may be undertaken. This involves allowing the sac to granulate and epithelialise over several weeks or months, forming a shell. As the infant grows, the sac contents will eventually fit within the abdominal cavity, at which point the shell can be removed and the abdomen closed.

      Overall, both gastroschisis and exomphalos require careful management to ensure the best possible outcome for the newborn. By understanding the differences between these two conditions and the appropriate steps to take, healthcare professionals can provide effective care and support to both the infant and their family.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      17.2
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  • Question 49 - A 50-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes mellitus is seen in the diabetes...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes mellitus is seen in the diabetes clinic. Her blood tests from three months ago showed:
      K+ 4.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 116 µmol/l
      eGFR 47 ml/min
      She was started on lisinopril to manage hypertension and protect her kidneys. The medication was titrated up to the treatment dose. Her current blood results are:
      K+ 4.9 mmol/l
      Creatinine 123 µmol/l
      eGFR 44 ml/min
      What is the most appropriate action to take in this situation?

      Your Answer: Switch to a angiotensin 2 receptor blocker

      Correct Answer: No action

      Explanation:

      The slight alterations in creatinine and eGFR are within acceptable limits and do not warrant discontinuation of ACE inhibitors.

      Hypertension Management in Chronic Kidney Disease

      Chronic kidney disease (CKD) patients often require more than two drugs to manage hypertension. The first-line treatment is ACE inhibitors, which are particularly effective in proteinuric renal disease such as diabetic nephropathy. However, these drugs may cause a small decrease in glomerular filtration pressure (GFR) and a rise in creatinine. According to NICE guidelines, a decrease in eGFR of up to 25% or a rise in creatinine of up to 30% is acceptable, but any increase should prompt careful monitoring and exclusion of other causes such as NSAIDs. A rise greater than this may indicate underlying renovascular disease.

      Furosemide is a useful antihypertensive drug in CKD patients, especially when the GFR falls below 45 ml/min. It also helps to lower serum potassium levels. However, high doses are usually required, and if the patient becomes dehydrated due to conditions such as gastroenteritis, the drug should be temporarily stopped. The NKF K/DOQI guidelines suggest a lower cut-off of less than 30 ml/min. Overall, hypertension management in CKD patients requires careful monitoring and individualized treatment plans.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      276.6
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - Cataracts are usually not associated with which of the following conditions? Please select...

    Incorrect

    • Cataracts are usually not associated with which of the following conditions? Please select only one option from the list below.

      Your Answer: Hypoparathyroidism

      Correct Answer: Thyrotoxicosis

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Cataracts and Their Associated Symptoms

      Cataracts are a common eye condition that can cause visual impairment. While ageing is the most common cause, there are several other factors that can contribute to cataract development. Here are some of the common causes of cataracts and their associated symptoms:

      1. Thyrotoxicosis: This condition involves excess synthesis and secretion of thyroid hormones, leading to the hypermetabolic condition of thyrotoxicosis. Symptoms include sympathetic activation in younger patients and cardiovascular symptoms and unexplained weight loss in older patients. Approximately 50% of patients with Graves-thyrotoxicosis have mild thyroid ophthalmopathy, which can cause periorbital edema, conjunctival edema, poor lid closure, extraocular muscle dysfunction, and proptosis.

      2. Diabetes mellitus: Patients with diabetes are at risk of developing several ophthalmic complications, including cataracts. Epidemiological studies have shown that cataracts are the most common cause of visual impairment in patients with older-onset diabetes. Hyperglycemia is associated with loss of lens transparency, and rapid decline of serum glucose levels in patients with marked hyperglycemia may induce temporary lens opacification and swelling.

      3. Myotonic dystrophy: This chronic genetic disorder affects muscle function and can cause gradually worsening muscle atrophy and weakness. Other symptoms include cataracts, intellectual disability, and heart conduction abnormalities. Myotonic dystrophy may cause a cortical cataract with a blue dot appearance or a posterior subcapsular cataract.

      4. Rubella: Congenital cataracts are usually diagnosed at birth and can be associated with ocular abnormalities, trauma, or intrauterine infection, particularly rubella. Congenital rubella infection may result in growth delay, learning disability, hearing loss, congenital heart disease, and eye, endocrinological, and neurological abnormalities.

      5. Hypoparathyroidism: This condition is characterized by hypocalcemia, hyperphosphatemia, and low or inappropriately normal levels of parathyroid hormone. Patients may present with hypocalcemia, mental changes, and neuromuscular excitability or tetany. Anatomical abnormalities, although not readily apparent, include deposition of calcium in soft tissues, including intracranial calcifications and cataract formation.

      In addition to these causes, cataracts can also be caused by trauma

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      8.5
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  • Question 51 - A 42-year-old woman requests a referral to the Ear, Nose and Throat Clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman requests a referral to the Ear, Nose and Throat Clinic from her General Practitioner. She wishes to discuss the potential removal of unilateral nasal polyps which have failed to respond to a steroid nasal spray.
      Which of the following conditions is most likely associated with this patient’s pathology?

      Your Answer: Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia

      Correct Answer: Kartagener syndrome

      Explanation:

      Medical Conditions and Their Association with Nasal Polyps

      Nasal polyps are abnormal growths that develop in the lining of the nasal passages or sinuses. While they can occur in anyone, certain medical conditions may increase the likelihood of their development. Here are some medical conditions and their association with nasal polyps:

      Kartagener Syndrome: This rare autosomal recessive condition is characterized by primary ciliary dyskinesia and situs inversus. Patients with this condition tend to develop chronic sinusitis, bronchiectasis, recurrent chest and ENT infections, and nasal polyps.

      Autoimmune Haemolytic Anaemia: This condition is characterized by fatigue, shortness of breath, palpitations, and jaundice as a consequence of haemolysis driving high levels of bilirubin. However, it does not affect the nose and is not linked to nasal polyps.

      Crohn’s Disease: This inflammatory bowel disease can affect any part of the gastrointestinal (GI) tract and can also cause extraintestinal manifestations such as arthritis, iritis, and rashes. However, nasal polyps are not associated with this condition.

      Diabetes Mellitus: While nasal polyps are not associated with diabetes mellitus, other conditions including coeliac disease, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and thyroid dysfunction can all develop in affected individuals.

      Hereditary Spherocytosis: This condition is characterized by abnormally shaped erythrocytes and symptoms such as fatigue and shortness of breath. Clinical signs include pallor, jaundice, and splenomegaly. However, nasal polyps are not associated with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      212.7
      Seconds
  • Question 52 - A 65-year-old female presents to her GP with a 4-week history of bilateral...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old female presents to her GP with a 4-week history of bilateral shoulder pain. She also experiences stiffness in her shoulders in the morning which improves throughout the day. She reports feeling generally fatigued. No other joints are affected. The patient has a history of osteoarthritis in her left knee.

      During examination, the patient's observations are normal. There is no swelling or redness in the shoulders, and she has a full range of motion bilaterally. Upper limb power is 5/5 bilaterally with normal sensation.

      Based on the patient's history and examination, what is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Adhesive capsulitis

      Correct Answer: Polymyalgia rheumatica

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms are suggestive of polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR), which is a common inflammatory condition in older adults. The sudden onset of pain and stiffness in the shoulders and hips, along with systemic symptoms such as fatigue and anorexia, are typical of PMR. Osteoarthritis, fibromyalgia, hypothyroidism, and adhesive capsulitis are less likely diagnoses, as they do not typically present with acute onset of symptoms or systemic involvement. However, it is important to rule out hypothyroidism by checking thyroid function. Frozen shoulder may cause shoulder pain and stiffness, but it is usually associated with restricted range of motion and does not typically cause systemic symptoms.

      Polymyalgia Rheumatica: A Condition of Muscle Stiffness in Older People

      Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) is a common condition that affects older people. It is characterized by muscle stiffness and elevated inflammatory markers. Although it is closely related to temporal arteritis, the underlying cause is not fully understood, and it does not appear to be a vasculitic process. PMR typically affects patients over the age of 60 and has a rapid onset, usually within a month. Patients experience aching and morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, along with mild polyarthralgia, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats.

      To diagnose PMR, doctors look for raised inflammatory markers, such as an ESR of over 40 mm/hr. Creatine kinase and EMG are normal. Treatment for PMR involves prednisolone, usually at a dose of 15mg/od. Patients typically respond dramatically to steroids, and failure to do so should prompt consideration of an alternative diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      22
      Seconds
  • Question 53 - A 58-year-old man with a history of diabetes mellitus presents to his General...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old man with a history of diabetes mellitus presents to his General Practitioner with a heavy feeling in his chest for the past two hours. An electrocardiogram (ECG) is taken, which shows 1.4 mm ST-segment elevations in leads II III and aVF.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Inferior MI

      Explanation:

      Based on the electrocardiogram (ECG) findings, the most likely diagnosis for this patient is an inferior myocardial infarction (MI), which occurs in the territory of the right coronary artery. This is indicated by ST-segment elevations in leads I, II, and aVF. Other ECG changes, such as complete heart block and bradycardia, may also be present due to the arterial supply the RCA gives to the atrioventricular and sinoatrial nodes. It is important to note that a new left bundle branch block (LBBB) may suggest acute coronary syndrome.

      Acute pericarditis is unlikely as it presents with sharp retrosternal chest pain and a pericardial friction rub on auscultation, with different ECG findings such as widespread concave ST-segment elevations and PR segment depression.

      An anterolateral MI would show ST-segment elevations in the anterolateral leads, while a posterior MI would show ST-segment depressions in the anterior leads with tall R waves.

      In a pulmonary embolism (PE), ECG changes may include a large S wave in lead I, a large Q wave in lead III, and an inverted T wave in lead III – S1Q3T3, but this is only seen in a minority of patients. Most patients with a PE would have a normal ECG or sinus tachycardia, with signs of right-heart strain sometimes present. The clinical presentation of a PE would also differ from that of an MI, with symptoms such as tachypnea, tachycardia, lung crackles, fever, pleuritic chest pain, dyspnea, and hemoptysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      17
      Seconds
  • Question 54 - A 62-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner complaining of a 3-day history...

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner complaining of a 3-day history of acute left-sided abdominal pain, diarrhoea and fever. She has a history of chronic constipation. On examination she is tachycardic and there is localised peritonism in the left iliac fossa.
      What would be the next most appropriate step in this patient’s management?

      Your Answer: Admit to hospital under the surgical team for investigation and management

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Appropriate Management Strategies for Diverticulitis: A Guide for Healthcare Professionals

      Diverticulitis is a common condition that can lead to serious complications if not managed appropriately. As a healthcare professional, it is important to understand the different management strategies available and when they are appropriate. Here are some scenarios and the recommended management strategies:

      1. Admit to hospital under the surgical team for investigation and management: This is the recommended management strategy for a patient with peritonitis secondary to diverticulitis. The surgical team may choose to use imaging investigations first or proceed straight to surgery for operative management.

      2. Admit to hospital for urgent magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) enterography: MRI enterography is not usually used in diverticular disease. A CT scan would be quicker and would provide the required information needed to evaluate whether or not the patient needs emergency surgery.

      3. Analgesia and fluids and review in 24 hours: This management strategy is not appropriate for a patient with severe diverticulitis and peritonism. Urgent intravenous antibiotics and fluid management in the hospital are needed.

      4. Arrange a stool sample and commence antibiotics in the community: A stool sample is unlikely to provide any additional information in this scenario. Urgent admission to the hospital for further management is needed.

      5. Admit to hospital for urgent colonoscopy: Performing a colonoscopy on an inflamed bowel would be inappropriate since the risk of perforation would be high. A colonoscopy is sometimes used to evaluate the patient after the diverticulitis is present, to exclude other intramural pathology.

      In conclusion, appropriate management strategies for diverticulitis depend on the severity of the condition and the presence of complications. Healthcare professionals should be aware of the different options available and choose the most appropriate one for each patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      567.8
      Seconds
  • Question 55 - A 52-year-old male presents to his GP with a complaint of weakness in...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old male presents to his GP with a complaint of weakness in his ankles, followed by his knees and hips over the past 3 days. He has no known medical history.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Polymyositis

      Correct Answer: Guillain-Barré syndrome

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms suggest Guillain-Barré syndrome, an acute inflammatory polyneuropathy that often occurs after a viral or bacterial infection. This condition is characterized by progressive, bilateral, ascending weakness that typically starts in the legs and spreads to the arms, respiratory muscles, and bulbar muscles. Areflexia is also present. Treatment may involve respiratory support, intravenous immunoglobulins, and plasma exchange. Most patients recover completely or almost completely, but the mortality rate is around 10%.

      Mononeuritis multiplex is a rare condition that affects multiple peripheral and/or cranial nerves. Symptoms are usually asymmetrical and evolve at different times and with different degrees of severity. Diabetes is a common cause, but other systemic disorders can also be implicated. The patient’s symmetrical weakness affecting both legs at the same time is more consistent with a polyneuropathy than mononeuritis multiplex.

      The patient’s symptoms do not fit with a diagnosis of multiple sclerosis, which typically presents with relapsing-remitting disease characterized by acute flairs and some improvement between flairs. MS is more common in females and onset peaks between 20 and 40 years. The patient’s symmetrical distribution of symptoms and rapid progression to affect knees and hips make MS unlikely.

      Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder associated with antibodies to acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction. Patients typically display weakness of the periocular, facial, bulbar, and girdle muscles, with symptoms worsening with prolonged use. The patient’s symmetrical distal weakness is atypical for myasthenia gravis, which tends to affect proximal muscles first.

      Polymyositis is a connective tissue disease that affects striated muscle, with symmetrical proximal muscle/limb girdle weakness being a prominent feature. Muscle tenderness and atrophy may also be present. The patient’s distal muscle weakness is not consistent with polymyositis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      450
      Seconds
  • Question 56 - A 38-year-old woman presents with menorrhagia and is diagnosed with a 1.5 cm...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman presents with menorrhagia and is diagnosed with a 1.5 cm uterine fibroid that is not distorting the uterine cavity. She has two children and desires ongoing contraception, but is currently relying solely on condoms. What is the recommended initial treatment for her menorrhagia?

      Your Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pill

      Correct Answer: Intrauterine system

      Explanation:

      Medical treatment can be attempted for uterine fibroids that are smaller than 3 cm and do not distort the uterine cavity. This may include options such as an intrauterine system, tranexamic acid, or COCP. The NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries suggest starting with an intrauterine system, which can also serve as a form of contraception.

      Understanding Uterine Fibroids

      Uterine fibroids are non-cancerous growths that develop in the uterus. They are more common in black women and are thought to occur in around 20% of white women in their later reproductive years. Fibroids are usually asymptomatic, but they can cause menorrhagia, which can lead to iron-deficiency anaemia. Other symptoms include lower abdominal pain, bloating, and urinary symptoms. Fibroids may also cause subfertility.

      Diagnosis is usually made through transvaginal ultrasound. Asymptomatic fibroids do not require treatment, but periodic monitoring is recommended. Menorrhagia secondary to fibroids can be managed with various treatments, including the levonorgestrel intrauterine system, NSAIDs, tranexamic acid, and hormonal therapies.

      Medical treatment to shrink or remove fibroids may include GnRH agonists or ulipristal acetate, although the latter is not currently recommended due to concerns about liver toxicity. Surgical options include myomectomy, hysteroscopic endometrial ablation, hysterectomy, and uterine artery embolization.

      Fibroids generally regress after menopause, but complications such as subfertility and iron-deficiency anaemia can occur. Red degeneration, which is haemorrhage into the tumour, is a common complication during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      13.3
      Seconds
  • Question 57 - A 32-year-old woman with a history of primary generalised epilepsy visits her GP...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman with a history of primary generalised epilepsy visits her GP as she intends to conceive. She is currently on lamotrigine as a single therapy. What guidance should be provided to prevent neural tube defects?

      Your Answer: Folic acid 400 mcg per day once pregnancy has been confirmed

      Correct Answer: Folic acid 5 mg per day starting now

      Explanation:

      During pregnancy, women with epilepsy should take 5mg of folic acid. Additionally, due to the potential harm of antiepileptic drugs to the fetus, they should receive specialized medical care.

      Pregnancy and breastfeeding can be a concern for women with epilepsy. It is generally recommended that women continue taking their medication during pregnancy, as the risks of uncontrolled seizures outweigh the potential risks to the fetus. However, it is important for women to take folic acid before pregnancy to reduce the risk of neural tube defects. The use of antiepileptic medication during pregnancy can increase the risk of congenital defects, but this risk is still relatively low. It is recommended to aim for monotherapy and there is no need to monitor drug levels. Sodium valproate is associated with neural tube defects, while carbamazepine is considered the least teratogenic of the older antiepileptics. Phenytoin is associated with cleft palate, and lamotrigine may require a dose increase during pregnancy. Breastfeeding is generally safe for mothers taking antiepileptics, except for barbiturates. Pregnant women taking phenytoin should be given vitamin K in the last month of pregnancy to prevent clotting disorders in the newborn.

      A warning has been issued about the use of sodium valproate during pregnancy and in women of childbearing age. New evidence suggests a significant risk of neurodevelopmental delay in children following maternal use of this medication. Therefore, it should only be used if clearly necessary and under specialist neurological or psychiatric advice. It is important for women with epilepsy to discuss their options with their healthcare provider and make informed decisions about their treatment during pregnancy and breastfeeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      11.2
      Seconds
  • Question 58 - An 80-year-old male presents to the low-risk chest pain clinic with intermittent substernal...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old male presents to the low-risk chest pain clinic with intermittent substernal chest pains. The pain typically comes on with exertion and improves with rest. A trial of GTN has been given by his GP which helps with his pain. He is a known ex-smoker of 35 pack-years. He has no diabetes, hyperlipidaemia, hypertension, and no family history of coronary artery disease.

      During examination, his observations are stable. On auscultations of his chest, his first and second heart sounds are audible with no added sounds and his lungs are clear.

      What investigation should be prioritized given his risk for coronary artery disease?

      Your Answer: No further investigations

      Correct Answer: Contrast-enhanced coronary CT angiography

      Explanation:

      The preferred initial diagnostic test for individuals with stable chest pain suspected to be caused by coronary artery disease is a CT coronary angiogram with contrast enhancement.

      Assessment of Patients with Suspected Cardiac Chest Pain

      When it comes to assessing patients with suspected cardiac chest pain, NICE has updated its guidelines in 2016. For patients presenting with acute chest pain, immediate management of suspected acute coronary syndrome (ACS) is crucial. This includes administering glyceryl trinitrate and aspirin 300 mg, but not other antiplatelet agents like Clopidogrel outside of the hospital. Oxygen therapy should not be routinely given, but only if sats are less than 94%. Referral depends on the timing of chest pain and ECG results. For patients presenting with stable chest pain, NICE defines anginal pain as constricting discomfort in the front of the chest, neck, shoulders, jaw, or arms, precipitated by physical exertion, and relieved by rest or GTN in about 5 minutes. Non-invasive functional imaging is recommended for patients in whom stable angina cannot be excluded by clinical assessment alone. Examples of non-invasive functional imaging include myocardial perfusion scintigraphy with single photon emission computed tomography (MPS with SPECT), stress echocardiography, first-pass contrast-enhanced magnetic resonance (MR) perfusion, or MR imaging for stress-induced wall motion abnormalities.

      In summary, assessing patients with suspected cardiac chest pain requires immediate management for acute chest pain and referral based on timing and ECG results. For stable chest pain, NICE defines anginal pain and recommends non-invasive functional imaging for patients in whom stable angina cannot be excluded by clinical assessment alone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      49.5
      Seconds
  • Question 59 - A 16-year-old young woman is completing a summer internship at a daycare center...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old young woman is completing a summer internship at a daycare center before applying to study medicine. She has received a full schedule of childhood vaccinations. Her primary complaints are difficulty swallowing, a sore throat, malaise, and a fever. Upon examination, she has 5-10 gray ulcers on her buccal mucosa. Additionally, she has a vesicular rash on her hands and feet.
      What is the most probable cause of this clinical presentation?

      Your Answer: Coxsackie virus infection

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis: Hand-Foot-and-Mouth Disease

      Hand-foot-and-mouth disease is a viral illness caused by Coxsackie virus A type 16. It presents as a vesicular eruption in the mouth and can also involve the hands, feet, buttocks, and/or genitalia. Macular lesions on the buccal mucosa, tongue, and/or hard palate rapidly progress to vesicles that erode and become surrounded by an erythematous halo. Skin lesions, which present as tender macules or vesicles on an erythematous base, develop in approximately 75% of patients. Treatment is supportive, and there is no antiviral agent specific for the aetiological agents. Adequate fluid intake, preferably with cold drinks, is essential to prevent dehydration.

      Other conditions that may present with similar symptoms include erythema multiforme, herpes simplex infection, gonorrhoea, and pemphigus erythematosus. However, the clinical presentation and causative agent of hand-foot-and-mouth disease distinguish it from these other conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      17.5
      Seconds
  • Question 60 - A 38-year-old man presents to the emergency department with chest pain that started...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old man presents to the emergency department with chest pain that started 2 hours ago. He describes the pain as radiating to his left arm and jaw. He has no significant past medical history; he drinks alcohol occasionally and admits to sometimes using illegal drugs.

      On examination, he appears sweaty and agitated. His limbs are mildly hypertonic and hyper-reflexive, and his pupils are dilated. His blood pressure is 175/82 mmHg. An ECG shows some QRS widening and QT prolongation, as well as ST depression and T wave inversion in several leads.

      What should be given as part of the acute management?

      Your Answer: Ramipril

      Correct Answer: Diazepam

      Explanation:

      In the case of a suspected myocardial infarction (MI) caused by cocaine use, the recommended first-line treatment is intravenous benzodiazepines, such as diazepam, to alleviate coronary artery vasospasm. Nitrates can also be administered to relieve chest pain. Atorvastatin, which is used to lower cholesterol levels and prevent future MIs, is not appropriate for immediate treatment. While beta-blockers like bisoprolol are typically used to manage MIs, their use in cocaine-related MIs is controversial due to the potential to worsen coronary vasospasm. Naloxone, which reverses opioid overdose symptoms like respiratory depression and constricted pupils, is not indicated in this case as the patient is intoxicated with cocaine, not opioids.

      Understanding Cocaine Toxicity

      Cocaine is a popular recreational stimulant derived from the coca plant. However, its widespread use has resulted in an increase in cocaine toxicity cases. The drug works by blocking the uptake of dopamine, noradrenaline, and serotonin, leading to a variety of adverse effects.

      Cardiovascular effects of cocaine include coronary artery spasm, tachycardia, bradycardia, hypertension, QRS widening, QT prolongation, and aortic dissection. Neurological effects may include seizures, mydriasis, hypertonia, and hyperreflexia. Psychiatric effects such as agitation, psychosis, and hallucinations may also occur. Other complications include ischaemic colitis, hyperthermia, metabolic acidosis, and rhabdomyolysis.

      Managing cocaine toxicity involves using benzodiazepines as a first-line treatment for most cocaine-related problems. For chest pain, benzodiazepines and glyceryl trinitrate may be used, and primary percutaneous coronary intervention may be necessary if myocardial infarction develops. Hypertension can be treated with benzodiazepines and sodium nitroprusside. The use of beta-blockers in cocaine-induced cardiovascular problems is controversial, with some experts warning against it due to the risk of unopposed alpha-mediated coronary vasospasm.

      In summary, cocaine toxicity can lead to a range of adverse effects, and managing it requires careful consideration of the patient’s symptoms and medical history.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      26.1
      Seconds
  • Question 61 - A 7-year-old girl is seen in clinic for nocturnal enuresis. Despite her mother's...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old girl is seen in clinic for nocturnal enuresis. Despite her mother's attempts at using a reward system, there has been no improvement. What is the best initial approach to management?

      Your Answer: Enuresis alarm

      Explanation:

      If general advice has not been effective, an enuresis alarm is typically the initial treatment for nocturnal enuresis. It is not advisable to limit fluid intake. According to Clinical Knowledge Summaries, children should consume approximately eight drinks per day, evenly distributed throughout the day, with the last one consumed approximately one hour before bedtime.

      Nocturnal enuresis, or bedwetting, is when a child involuntarily urinates during the night. Most children achieve continence by the age of 3 or 4, so enuresis is defined as the involuntary discharge of urine in a child aged 5 or older without any underlying medical conditions. Enuresis can be primary, meaning the child has never achieved continence, or secondary, meaning the child has been dry for at least 6 months before.

      When managing bedwetting, it’s important to look for any underlying causes or triggers, such as constipation, diabetes mellitus, or recent onset UTIs. General advice includes monitoring fluid intake and encouraging regular toileting patterns, such as emptying the bladder before sleep. Reward systems, like star charts, can also be helpful, but should be given for agreed behavior rather than dry nights.

      The first-line treatment for bedwetting is an enuresis alarm, which has a high success rate. These alarms have sensor pads that detect wetness and wake the child up to use the toilet. If short-term control is needed, such as for sleepovers, or if the alarm is ineffective or not acceptable to the family, desmopressin may be prescribed. Overall, managing bedwetting involves identifying any underlying causes and implementing strategies to promote continence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      5.7
      Seconds
  • Question 62 - You assess a 27-year-old female patient who experiences intense, one-sided, pulsating headaches. These...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 27-year-old female patient who experiences intense, one-sided, pulsating headaches. These occur approximately once a month and are not associated with her menstrual cycle. Prior to the onset of the headache, she occasionally experiences momentary 'zig-zags' in her vision. She has no specific preference for treatment and seeks your guidance on the most effective approach to managing acute episodes. Which of the following options would be the most suitable initial treatment?

      Your Answer: Oral NSAID

      Correct Answer: Oral triptan + oral NSAID

      Explanation:

      Managing Migraines: Guidelines and Treatment Options

      Migraines can be debilitating and affect a significant portion of the population. To manage migraines, it is important to understand the different treatment options available. According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines, acute treatment for migraines involves a combination of an oral triptan and an NSAID or paracetamol. For young people aged 12-17 years, a nasal triptan may be preferred. If these measures are not effective, non-oral preparations of metoclopramide or prochlorperazine may be considered, along with a non-oral NSAID or triptan.

      Prophylaxis should be given if patients are experiencing two or more attacks per month. NICE recommends topiramate or propranolol, depending on the patient’s preference, comorbidities, and risk of adverse events. Propranolol is preferred in women of childbearing age as topiramate may be teratogenic and reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives. Acupuncture and riboflavin may also be effective in reducing migraine frequency and intensity for some people. For women with predictable menstrual migraines, frovatriptan or zolmitriptan may be recommended as a type of mini-prophylaxis.

      Specialists may consider other treatment options, such as candesartan or monoclonal antibodies directed against the calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP) receptor, like erenumab. However, pizotifen is no longer recommended due to common adverse effects like weight gain and drowsiness. It is important to exercise caution with young patients as acute dystonic reactions may develop. By following these guidelines and considering various treatment options, migraines can be effectively managed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      15.5
      Seconds
  • Question 63 - A 3-day-old infant is presented to the Emergency Department due to increased irritability,...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-day-old infant is presented to the Emergency Department due to increased irritability, poor feeding, and decreased muscle tone as observed by the mother in the last 24 hours. Meningitis is confirmed through lumbar puncture. What is the probable causative agent in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Haemophilus influenzae type b

      Correct Answer: Group B streptococcus

      Explanation:

      Meningitis poses a higher risk to neonates, particularly those with low birth weight, prematurity, traumatic delivery, fetal hypoxia, and maternal peripartum infection. The initial symptoms are usually vague and may include elevated body temperature, respiratory distress, apnea, episodes of bradycardia, low blood pressure, difficulty feeding, irritability, and decreased activity.

      Organisms causing meningitis in children

      Meningitis is a serious condition that can affect children of all ages. The organisms that cause meningitis vary depending on the age of the child. In neonates up to 3 months old, Group B Streptococcus is the most common cause, which is usually acquired from the mother during birth. E. coli and other Gram-negative organisms, as well as Listeria monocytogenes, can also cause meningitis in this age group.

      From 1 month to 6 years old, Neisseria meningitidis (meningococcus), Streptococcus pneumoniae (pneumococcus), and Haemophilus influenzae are the most common organisms that cause meningitis. In children over 6 years old, Neisseria meningitidis and Streptococcus pneumoniae are the most common causes.

      It is important for parents to be aware of the signs and symptoms of meningitis, such as fever, headache, stiff neck, and sensitivity to light. If a child is showing these symptoms, they should be taken to a doctor immediately for evaluation and treatment. Early diagnosis and treatment can help prevent serious complications and improve outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      8.3
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  • Question 64 - A 7-year-old girl is referred to the Paediatric Emergency Department by her General...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old girl is referred to the Paediatric Emergency Department by her General Practitioner with a 4-day history of fever.
      On examination, the patient has bilateral conjunctival injection, a maculopapular rash across her trunk, and erythematous extremities. Her chest is clear and heart sounds are normal. The abdomen is soft and nontender. Her lips look cracked, and her tongue looks erythematous. She has no palpable lymphadenopathy.
      Which of the following blood test results would support the likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Elevated C-reactive protein (CRP), normal erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

      Correct Answer: Thrombocytosis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Kawasaki Disease: Diagnosis and Blood Test Results

      Kawasaki disease is a clinical diagnosis that presents with a persistent fever and at least four of the following five criteria: bilateral conjunctival injection, polymorphous rash, oral changes, oedema and erythema in hands/feet, and cervical lymphadenopathy. Thrombocytosis is a common non-specific change seen in Kawasaki disease, and blood tests such as full blood count, urea and electrolytes, liver function, lipid profile, C-reactive protein (CRP), and erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) can support the diagnosis, assess severity, and monitor disease and treatment. Neutropenia is not usually associated with Kawasaki disease, and a raised white cell count with a relative neutrophilia is commonly seen. An elevated CRP with a normal ESR or an elevated ESR with a normal CRP would not be expected in Kawasaki disease, as both markers reflect acute inflammation. Kawasaki disease is associated with normocytic anaemia, but not macrocytic anaemia. It is important to arrange an echocardiogram as soon as possible to look for any initial evidence of coronary artery aneurysm, a common complication of Kawasaki disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 65 - A 63-year-old patient presents for follow-up. He underwent aortic valve replacement with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old patient presents for follow-up. He underwent aortic valve replacement with a prosthetic valve five years ago and is currently on warfarin therapy. He has been experiencing fatigue for the past three months and a recent full blood count revealed the following results: Hb 10.3 g/dl, MCV 68 fl, Plt 356 * 109/l, and WBC 5.2 * 109/l. The blood film showed hypochromia and his INR was 3.0. An upper GI endoscopy was performed and was reported as normal. What would be the most appropriate next step in investigating this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Transthoracic echocardiogram

      Correct Answer: Colonoscopy

      Explanation:

      Lower gastrointestinal tract investigation should be conducted on any patient in this age group who has an unexplained microcytic anaemia to rule out the possibility of colorectal cancer.

      Referral Guidelines for Colorectal Cancer

      Colorectal cancer is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. In 2015, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their referral guidelines for patients suspected of having colorectal cancer. According to these guidelines, patients who are 40 years or older with unexplained weight loss and abdominal pain, 50 years or older with unexplained rectal bleeding, or 60 years or older with iron deficiency anemia or change in bowel habit should be referred urgently to colorectal services for investigation. Additionally, patients who test positive for occult blood in their feces should also be referred urgently.

      An urgent referral should also be considered for patients who have a rectal or abdominal mass, unexplained anal mass or anal ulceration, or are under 50 years old with rectal bleeding and any of the following unexplained symptoms/findings: abdominal pain, change in bowel habit, weight loss, or iron deficiency anemia.

      The NHS offers a national screening program for colorectal cancer, which involves sending eligible patients aged 60 to 74 years in England and 50 to 74 years in Scotland FIT tests through the post. FIT is a type of fecal occult blood test that uses antibodies to detect and quantify the amount of human blood in a single stool sample. Patients with abnormal results are offered a colonoscopy.

      The FIT test is also recommended for patients with new symptoms who do not meet the 2-week criteria listed above. For example, patients who are 50 years or older with unexplained abdominal pain or weight loss, under 60 years old with changes in their bowel habit or iron deficiency anemia, or 60 years or older who have anemia even in the absence of iron deficiency. Early detection and treatment of colorectal cancer can significantly improve patient outcomes, making it important to follow these referral guidelines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      16.6
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  • Question 66 - A 49-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician complaining of severe hot...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician complaining of severe hot flashes and vaginal dryness that have been ongoing for 6 weeks. She suspects that she may be experiencing menopause. The patient has a medical history of hypothyroidism and psoriasis and is currently taking levothyroxine and has a Mirena intrauterine system in place.

      What would be the most suitable course of action to address the patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Combined hormone replacement therapy

      Correct Answer: Estradiol

      Explanation:

      The Mirena intrauterine system is approved for use as the progesterone component of hormone replacement therapy for a duration of 4 years. In a woman with a uterus, hormone replacement therapy aims to replace oestrogen to alleviate menopausal symptoms, but an additional source of progesterone is required to counteract the effects of unopposed oestrogen on the uterus, which increases the risk of endometrial hyperplasia and malignancy. As this patient already has the Mirena coil in place, which releases progesterone locally to act on the uterus, the only necessary treatment is oestrogen. Estradiol is the only option that provides only oestrogen therapy and can be administered topically or transdermally. Combined HRT, which includes both oestrogen and progesterone, would be inappropriate as the patient is already receiving progesterone from the Mirena coil. Levonorgestrel and medroxyprogesterone are both progesterones and would not provide oestrogen supplementation to the patient, which is necessary to alleviate her menopausal symptoms.

      Managing Menopause: Lifestyle Modifications, Hormone Replacement Therapy, and Non-Hormone Replacement Therapy

      Menopause is a natural biological process that marks the end of a woman’s reproductive years. It is diagnosed when a woman has not had a period for 12 consecutive months. Menopausal symptoms are common and can last for up to 7 years, with varying degrees of severity and duration. The management of menopause can be divided into three categories: lifestyle modifications, hormone replacement therapy (HRT), and non-hormone replacement therapy.

      Lifestyle modifications can help manage menopausal symptoms such as hot flushes, sleep disturbance, mood changes, and cognitive symptoms. Regular exercise, weight loss, stress reduction, and good sleep hygiene are recommended. For women who cannot or do not want to take HRT, non-hormonal treatments such as fluoxetine, citalopram, or venlafaxine for vasomotor symptoms, vaginal lubricants or moisturizers for vaginal dryness, and cognitive behavior therapy or antidepressants for psychological symptoms can be prescribed.

      HRT is a treatment option for women with moderate to severe menopausal symptoms. However, it is contraindicated in women with current or past breast cancer, any estrogen-sensitive cancer, undiagnosed vaginal bleeding, or untreated endometrial hyperplasia. HRT brings certain risks, including venous thromboembolism, stroke, coronary heart disease, breast cancer, and ovarian cancer. Women should be advised of these risks and the fact that symptoms typically last for 2-5 years.

      When stopping HRT, it is important to gradually reduce the dosage to limit recurrence of symptoms in the short term. However, in the long term, there is no difference in symptom control. Women who experience ineffective treatment, ongoing side effects, or unexplained bleeding should be referred to secondary care. Overall, managing menopause requires a personalized approach that takes into account a woman’s medical history, preferences, and individual symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      187
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  • Question 67 - Sarah, a 5-year-old child visits the allergy clinic with her parents. She has...

    Incorrect

    • Sarah, a 5-year-old child visits the allergy clinic with her parents. She has a confirmed milk protein allergy and her parents are interested in using the milk ladder to manage it. Which food item would be suitable to gradually introduce?

      Your Answer: Yoghurt

      Correct Answer: Malted milk biscuits

      Explanation:

      Children with cows milk protein allergy can use the milk ladder to reintroduce milk protein after they turn 6 months old.

      To gradually introduce milk, the milk ladder starts with cooked or baked milk. The process begins with malted milk biscuits and then progresses in a step-by-step manner towards pasteurised milk.

      Understanding Cow’s Milk Protein Intolerance/Allergy

      Cow’s milk protein intolerance/allergy (CMPI/CMPA) is a condition that affects around 3-6% of children, typically presenting in the first 3 months of life in formula-fed infants. Both immediate and delayed reactions can occur, with CMPA used for immediate reactions and CMPI for mild-moderate delayed reactions. Symptoms include regurgitation, vomiting, diarrhea, urticaria, atopic eczema, colic symptoms, wheeze, chronic cough, and rarely, angioedema and anaphylaxis. Diagnosis is often clinical, with investigations including skin prick/patch testing and total IgE and specific IgE (RAST) for cow’s milk protein.

      Management for formula-fed infants includes using extensive hydrolyzed formula (eHF) milk as the first-line replacement formula for mild-moderate symptoms and amino acid-based formula (AAF) for severe CMPA or if no response to eHF. Around 10% of infants are also intolerant to soya milk. For breastfed infants, mothers should eliminate cow’s milk protein from their diet and consider prescribing calcium supplements to prevent deficiency. eHF milk can be used when breastfeeding stops until at least 6 months and up to 12 months of age.

      The prognosis for CMPI is usually good, with most children becoming milk tolerant by the age of 3-5 years. However, a challenge is often performed in a hospital setting as anaphylaxis can occur. It is important to refer infants with severe symptoms to a pediatrician for management. Understanding CMPI/CMPA and its management can help parents and healthcare providers provide appropriate care for affected children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 68 - A 56-year-old HIV positive man presents to your clinic with complaints of haemoptysis...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old HIV positive man presents to your clinic with complaints of haemoptysis and worsening shortness of breath after completing treatment for pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia. A chest x-ray shows an apical mass in the right lung lobe. He responds well to treatment with itraconazole and steroids. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Aspergilloma

      Explanation:

      Aspergilloma is a type of fungal growth that typically affects individuals with weakened immune systems or those who have pre-existing lung conditions like tuberculosis or emphysema. Common symptoms include coughing, fever, and coughing up blood. Treatment typically involves the use of antifungal medications like itraconazole.

      Haemoptysis, or coughing up blood, can be caused by a variety of conditions. Lung cancer is a common cause, especially in individuals with a history of smoking. Symptoms of malignancy, such as weight loss and anorexia, may also be present. Pulmonary oedema, which is the accumulation of fluid in the lungs, can cause dyspnoea (shortness of breath) and is often accompanied by bibasal crackles and an S3 heart sound. Tuberculosis, a bacterial infection that primarily affects the lungs, can cause fever, night sweats, anorexia, and weight loss. Pulmonary embolism, a blockage in the pulmonary artery, can cause pleuritic chest pain, tachycardia (rapid heart rate), and tachypnoea (rapid breathing). Lower respiratory tract infections, such as pneumonia, typically have an acute onset and are characterized by a purulent cough. Bronchiectasis, a chronic lung condition, is often associated with a long history of cough and daily production of purulent sputum. Mitral stenosis, a narrowing of the mitral valve in the heart, can cause dyspnoea, atrial fibrillation, and a malar flush on the cheeks. Aspergilloma, a fungal infection that often occurs in individuals with a past history of tuberculosis, can cause severe haemoptysis and is characterized by a rounded opacity on chest x-ray. Granulomatosis with polyangiitis, an autoimmune disease, can affect both the upper and lower respiratory tracts and is associated with symptoms such as epistaxis (nosebleeds), sinusitis, dyspnoea, and haemoptysis. Goodpasture’s syndrome, another autoimmune disease, can cause haemoptysis and systemic symptoms such as fever and nausea, as well as glomerulonephritis (inflammation of the kidney’s filtering units).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      193.8
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  • Question 69 - A 70-year-old female presents with hypothenar eminence wasting and sensory loss in the...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old female presents with hypothenar eminence wasting and sensory loss in the little finger. What is the probable location of the lesion?

      Your Answer: Ulnar nerve

      Explanation:

      The Ulnar Nerve: Overview, Branches, and Patterns of Damage

      The ulnar nerve is a nerve that arises from the medial cord of the brachial plexus, specifically from the C8 and T1 spinal nerves. It provides motor innervation to several muscles in the hand, including the medial two lumbricals, adductor pollicis, interossei, hypothenar muscles (abductor digiti minimi, flexor digiti minimi), and flexor carpi ulnaris. It also provides sensory innervation to the medial 1 1/2 fingers on both the palmar and dorsal aspects.

      The ulnar nerve travels through the posteromedial aspect of the upper arm before entering the palm of the hand via the Guyon’s canal, which is located superficial to the flexor retinaculum and lateral to the pisiform bone. The nerve has several branches, including the muscular branch, palmar cutaneous branch, dorsal cutaneous branch, superficial branch, and deep branch. These branches supply various muscles and skin areas in the hand.

      Damage to the ulnar nerve can occur at the wrist or elbow. When damaged at the wrist, it can result in a claw hand deformity, which involves hyperextension of the metacarpophalangeal joints and flexion at the distal and proximal interphalangeal joints of the 4th and 5th digits. There may also be wasting and paralysis of intrinsic hand muscles (except lateral two lumbricals) and hypothenar muscles, as well as sensory loss to the medial 1 1/2 fingers. When damaged at the elbow, the same symptoms may occur, but with the addition of radial deviation of the wrist. It is important to note that in distal lesions, the clawing may be more severe, which is known as the ulnar paradox.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 70 - A 49 year old man complains of experiencing dyspepsia on and off for...

    Correct

    • A 49 year old man complains of experiencing dyspepsia on and off for the past few months. He reports no signs of bleeding, dysphagia or weight loss, abstains from alcohol and is generally healthy. He is not taking any regular medication and has been using over-the-counter antacids which provide some relief. Physical examination reveals no abnormalities. What is your recommended plan for continued management?

      Your Answer: Proton pump inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Management of Dyspepsia and Referral for Possible Cancer

      Dyspepsia is a common symptom that can be caused by various factors, including medication and lifestyle choices. However, it can also be a sign of underlying conditions such as stomach or oesophageal cancer. The 2015 NICE guidelines provide updated advice on when urgent referral for endoscopy is necessary. Patients with dysphagia or an upper abdominal mass consistent with stomach cancer should be referred urgently. Patients aged 55 years or older with weight loss and upper abdominal pain, reflux, or dyspepsia should also be referred urgently. Non-urgent referrals include patients with haematemesis or those with treatment-resistant dyspepsia, upper abdominal pain with low haemoglobin levels, or raised platelet count with other symptoms.

      For patients with undiagnosed dyspepsia, a step-wise approach is recommended. First, medications should be reviewed for possible causes. Lifestyle advice should also be given. If symptoms persist, a trial of full-dose proton pump inhibitor for one month or a ‘test and treat’ approach for H. pylori can be tried. If symptoms persist after either approach, the alternative should be attempted. Testing for H. pylori infection can be done using a carbon-13 urea breath test, stool antigen test, or laboratory-based serology. If symptoms resolve following test and treat, there is no need to check for H. pylori eradication. However, if repeat testing is required, a carbon-13 urea breath test should be used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 71 - A 25-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by his friends. Around...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by his friends. Around 2 hours ago he was allegedly assaulted outside of a bar. He was repeatedly punched in the head and has sustained some bruising around his eyes. His friends report that he is 'concussed' and say that he is confused. On examination his GCS is 14 (M6 V4 E4) and he has trouble explaining where he is. There are no focal neurological features. There is no past medical history of note. Tonight he has drunk around four pints of lager. What is the most appropriate management with regards to a possible head injury?

      Your Answer: CT head scan within 1 hour

      Explanation:

      According to the latest NICE guidelines, a CT head scan is necessary for this patient as their GCS remains below 15 after 2 hours.

      NICE Guidelines for Investigating Head Injuries in Adults

      Head injuries can be serious and require prompt medical attention. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided clear guidelines for healthcare professionals to determine which adult patients need further investigation with a CT head scan. Patients who require immediate CT head scans include those with a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of less than 13 on initial assessment, suspected open or depressed skull fractures, signs of basal skull fractures, post-traumatic seizures, focal neurological deficits, and more than one episode of vomiting.

      For patients with any loss of consciousness or amnesia since the injury, a CT head scan within 8 hours is recommended for those who are 65 years or older, have a history of bleeding or clotting disorders, experienced a dangerous mechanism of injury, or have more than 30 minutes of retrograde amnesia of events immediately before the head injury. Additionally, patients on warfarin who have sustained a head injury with no other indications for a CT head scan should also receive a scan within 8 hours of the injury.

      It is important for healthcare professionals to follow these guidelines to ensure that patients receive appropriate and timely care for their head injuries. By identifying those who require further investigation, healthcare professionals can provide the necessary treatment and support to prevent further complications and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 72 - A 35-year-old man with psoriatic arthritis presents with a severely painful red eye....

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man with psoriatic arthritis presents with a severely painful red eye. The pain has been affecting his sleep for a few days. On examination, his visual acuity is normal but there is inflammation of the scleral, episcleral and conjunctival vessels. Both pupils are equal and react normally to light. There is no blanching of the episcleral vessels when 2.5% phenylephrine is applied to the eye.
      Which of the following is this patient most likely to be suffering from?

      Your Answer: Episcleritis

      Correct Answer: Scleritis

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Ocular Inflammatory Conditions: Symptoms and Treatment

      Scleritis: A severe inflammation of the sclera, often associated with underlying inflammatory conditions such as rheumatoid arthritis. Symptoms include severe eye pain, watering, photophobia, and affected visual acuity. Treatment requires systemic medication such as non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, corticosteroids, or immunosuppressants.

      Sjögren Syndrome: An association of dry eye and/or dry mouth with rheumatoid arthritis or other connective-tissue disorders. Pain is not a feature, but conjunctival hyperemia may be present.

      Anterior Uveitis: Inflammation of the iris with or without ciliary body involvement, often seen in patients with inflammatory bowel disease or ankylosing spondylitis. Symptoms include an acutely painful red eye with photophobia and a small, irregular, poorly reactive pupil.

      Conjunctivitis: Inflammation of the conjunctival vessels, causing sore red eyes with a sticky discharge. Pain is not a feature, and scleral and episcleral vessels are not affected. Often caused by bacterial or viral infections or irritants/allergens, it is usually self-limiting but may require topical antibiotics.

      Episcleritis: A mild inflammation of the episclera, often seen as an extra-articular manifestation of rheumatoid arthritis. Symptoms include mild eye irritation, redness, and sometimes photophobia. Application of 2.5% phenylephrine causes episcleral vessels to blanch, distinguishing it from scleritis. Visual acuity is unaffected, and it is usually self-limiting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      24.9
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  • Question 73 - A 25-year-old woman seeks guidance on the Mirena (intrauterine system). What impact is...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman seeks guidance on the Mirena (intrauterine system). What impact is expected on her menstrual cycle?

      Your Answer: Initially irregular bleeding later followed by light menses or amenorrhoea

      Explanation:

      Intrauterine contraceptive devices include copper IUDs and levonorgestrel-releasing IUS. Both are over 99% effective. The IUD prevents fertilization by decreasing sperm motility, while the IUS prevents endometrial proliferation and thickens cervical mucus. Potential problems include heavier periods with IUDs and initial bleeding with the IUS. There is a small risk of uterine perforation, ectopic pregnancy, and infection. New IUS systems, such as Jaydess® and Kyleena®, have smaller frames and less levonorgestrel, resulting in lower serum levels and different rates of amenorrhea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      63.9
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  • Question 74 - A 30-year-old woman who delivered a baby 3 days ago comes for evaluation...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman who delivered a baby 3 days ago comes for evaluation due to her mood concerns. She is experiencing trouble sleeping and feels generally anxious and weepy. Additionally, she has noticed that she is becoming irritable with her spouse. This is her initial pregnancy, she is not nursing, and there is no previous history of mental health disorders. What is the best course of action for her management?

      Your Answer: Explanation and reassurance

      Explanation:

      This woman is experiencing the common postpartum mood disorder known as baby-blues, which affects approximately two-thirds of women. Although lack of sleep can be a symptom of depression, it is a normal occurrence for new mothers.

      Understanding Postpartum Mental Health Problems

      Postpartum mental health problems can range from mild ‘baby-blues’ to severe puerperal psychosis. To screen for depression, healthcare professionals may use the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale, which is a 10-item questionnaire that indicates how the mother has felt over the previous week. A score of more than 13 indicates a ‘depressive illness of varying severity’, with sensitivity and specificity of more than 90%. The questionnaire also includes a question about self-harm.

      ‘Baby-blues’ is seen in around 60-70% of women and typically occurs 3-7 days following birth. It is more common in primips, and mothers are characteristically anxious, tearful, and irritable. Reassurance and support from healthcare professionals, particularly health visitors, play a key role in managing this condition. Most women with the baby blues will not require specific treatment other than reassurance.

      Postnatal depression affects around 10% of women, with most cases starting within a month and typically peaking at 3 months. The features are similar to depression seen in other circumstances, and cognitive behavioural therapy may be beneficial. Certain SSRIs such as sertraline and paroxetine may be used if symptoms are severe. Although these medications are secreted in breast milk, they are not thought to be harmful to the infant.

      Puerperal psychosis affects approximately 0.2% of women and requires admission to hospital, ideally in a Mother & Baby Unit. Onset usually occurs within the first 2-3 weeks following birth, and features include severe swings in mood (similar to bipolar disorder) and disordered perception (e.g. auditory hallucinations). There is around a 25-50% risk of recurrence following future pregnancies. Paroxetine is recommended by SIGN because of the low milk/plasma ratio, while fluoxetine is best avoided due to a long half-life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      9.5
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  • Question 75 - A 26-year-old man presents to the emergency department with complaints of left eye...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old man presents to the emergency department with complaints of left eye pain. He has been unable to wear his contact lenses for the past day due to the severity of the pain. He describes the pain as intense and wonders if there is something lodged in his eye. Upon examination, diffuse hyperemia is observed in the left eye. The left cornea appears hazy, and there is a hypopyon present. Pupillary reaction is normal, but visual acuity is reduced on the left side, and the patient experiences some photophobia. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Keratitis

      Explanation:

      A hypopyon in anterior uveitis can be seen, but a normal pupillary reaction and contact lens use suggest a diagnosis of keratitis.

      Understanding Keratitis: Inflammation of the Cornea

      Keratitis is a condition that refers to the inflammation of the cornea. While conjunctivitis is a common eye infection that is not usually serious, microbial keratitis can be sight-threatening and requires urgent evaluation and treatment. The causes of keratitis can vary, with bacterial infections typically caused by Staphylococcus aureus and Pseudomonas aeruginosa commonly seen in contact lens wearers. Fungal and amoebic infections can also cause keratitis, with acanthamoebic keratitis accounting for around 5% of cases. Parasitic infections such as onchocercal keratitis can also cause inflammation of the cornea.

      Other factors that can cause keratitis include viral infections such as herpes simplex keratitis, environmental factors like photokeratitis (e.g. welder’s arc eye), and exposure keratitis. Clinical features of keratitis include a red eye with pain and erythema, photophobia, a foreign body sensation, and the presence of hypopyon. Referral is necessary for contact lens wearers who present with a painful red eye, as an accurate diagnosis can only be made with a slit-lamp examination.

      Management of keratitis involves stopping the use of contact lenses until symptoms have fully resolved, as well as the use of topical antibiotics such as quinolones. Cycloplegic agents like cyclopentolate can also be used for pain relief. Complications of keratitis can include corneal scarring, perforation, endophthalmitis, and visual loss. Understanding the causes and symptoms of keratitis is important for prompt diagnosis and treatment to prevent serious complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 76 - A 38-year-old man visits his General Practitioner complaining of a sore throat. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old man visits his General Practitioner complaining of a sore throat. He has a Centor score of 4 due to the presence of a fever, cervical lymphadenopathy, absence of cough, and white exudate on his tonsils. He is allergic to penicillin and takes simvastatin as his only medication. What is the most suitable antibiotic to prescribe for his sore throat?

      Your Answer: Phenoxymethylpenicillin

      Correct Answer: Doxycycline

      Explanation:

      A patient with a Centor score of 4 likely has acute group A streptococcal tonsillitis and requires antibiotics. However, the patient is allergic to penicillins and takes simvastatin, which is metabolized by the cytochrome P450 enzymes. Phenoxymethylpenicillin, the usual first-line treatment, cannot be used due to the allergy. Macrolides such as clarithromycin and erythromycin should also be avoided as they inhibit the cytochrome P450 enzymes and can increase the risk of statin-induced myopathy. Co-amoxiclav is not an option either. Therefore, doxycycline is the best choice as it is not a penicillin and does not affect the cytochrome P450 enzymes, allowing for concurrent use with simvastatin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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  • Question 77 - What is the most frequent cause of hypothyroidism in children in the United...

    Correct

    • What is the most frequent cause of hypothyroidism in children in the United Kingdom?

      Your Answer: Autoimmune thyroiditis

      Explanation:

      Causes of Hypothyroidism in Children

      Hypothyroidism in children, also known as juvenile hypothyroidism, is most commonly caused by autoimmune thyroiditis. This occurs when the body’s immune system attacks the thyroid gland, leading to decreased production of thyroid hormones. However, there are other causes of hypothyroidism in children as well. For example, children who have undergone total-body irradiation as part of treatment for acute lymphoblastic leukemia may develop hypothyroidism as a side effect. Additionally, iodine deficiency is a common cause of hypothyroidism in children in developing countries. It is important for parents and healthcare providers to be aware of these potential causes in order to properly diagnose and treat hypothyroidism in children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      6.2
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  • Question 78 - Each one of the following is typical of optic neuritis, except for: ...

    Incorrect

    • Each one of the following is typical of optic neuritis, except for:

      Your Answer: Eye pain worse on movement

      Correct Answer: Sudden onset of visual loss

      Explanation:

      It is rare for optic neuritis to cause sudden visual loss, as the typical progression of visual loss occurs over a period of days rather than hours.

      Optic neuritis is a condition that can be caused by multiple sclerosis, diabetes, or syphilis. It is characterized by a decrease in visual acuity in one eye over a period of hours or days, as well as poor color discrimination and pain that worsens with eye movement. Other symptoms include a relative afferent pupillary defect and a central scotoma. The condition can be diagnosed through an MRI of the brain and orbits with gadolinium contrast. Treatment typically involves high-dose steroids, and recovery usually takes 4-6 weeks. If an MRI shows more than three white-matter lesions, the risk of developing multiple sclerosis within five years is approximately 50%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 79 - A 52-year-old man has recently been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. He...

    Correct

    • A 52-year-old man has recently been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. He was prescribed medication but a few days later he complained of stomach cramps and loose stools.
      Which of the following medications is most likely responsible for these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Metformin

      Explanation:

      Side Effects of Common Oral Diabetic Medications

      Managing diabetes often involves the use of oral medications to help control blood sugar levels. However, these medications can come with side effects that need to be considered when choosing a treatment plan. Here are some common side effects of four oral diabetic medications:

      Metformin: The most common side effects of metformin are abdominal pain, anorexia, diarrhea, nausea, taste disturbance, and vomiting. There is also a risk of developing lactic acidosis, particularly in patients with a history of heart failure and concomitant use of drugs that can acutely impair renal function.

      Furosemide: Furosemide is a less likely option due to its potential to exacerbate diabetes and cause hypokalemia, which can be dangerous in certain patients. It can also cause urinary retention in patients with enlarged prostates.

      Gliclazide: Gliclazide can encourage weight gain and may cause hypoglycemia if the dosage is excessive.

      Pioglitazone: Pioglitazone should be used with caution in patients with cardiovascular disease or in combination with insulin due to an increased risk of heart failure, particularly in elderly people.

      It is important to be familiar with these side effects to ensure patient compliance with medication and to choose the most appropriate treatment plan for each individual.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      7
      Seconds
  • Question 80 - A 35-year-old woman, who has a history of type 1 diabetes mellitus, visits...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman, who has a history of type 1 diabetes mellitus, visits your GP clinic complaining of sudden vision loss in her right eye. During direct ophthalmoscopy, you observe no discernible features of the retina or disc. However, you do notice redness in the vitreous. What is the probable reason for this presentation?

      Your Answer: Pre-proliferative diabetic retinopathy

      Correct Answer: Proliferative diabetic retinopathy

      Explanation:

      Vitreous hemorrhage caused by proliferative retinopathy is more frequently observed in individuals with T1DM compared to T2DM. This is due to the presence of retinal neovascularization, which results in fragile blood vessels that are susceptible to bleeding. Conversely, vitreous hemorrhage is not typically associated with background, pre-proliferative diabetic retinopathy, or diabetic maculopathy as these conditions do not involve retinal neovascularization.

      Understanding Diabetic Retinopathy

      Diabetic retinopathy is a leading cause of blindness among adults aged 35-65 years old. The condition is caused by hyperglycemia, which leads to abnormal metabolism in the retinal vessel walls and damage to endothelial cells and pericytes. This damage causes increased vascular permeability, resulting in exudates seen on fundoscopy. Pericyte dysfunction predisposes to the formation of microaneurysms, while neovascularization is caused by the production of growth factors in response to retinal ischemia.

      Patients with diabetic retinopathy are classified into those with non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy (NPDR), proliferative retinopathy (PDR), and maculopathy. NPDR is further classified into mild, moderate, and severe, depending on the presence of microaneurysms, blot hemorrhages, hard exudates, cotton wool spots, venous beading/looping, and intraretinal microvascular abnormalities. PDR is characterized by retinal neovascularization, which may lead to vitreous hemorrhage, and fibrous tissue forming anterior to the retinal disc. Maculopathy is based on location rather than severity and is more common in Type II DM.

      Management of diabetic retinopathy involves optimizing glycaemic control, blood pressure, and hyperlipidemia, as well as regular review by ophthalmology. Treatment options include intravitreal vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) inhibitors for maculopathy, regular observation for non-proliferative retinopathy, and panretinal laser photocoagulation and intravitreal VEGF inhibitors for proliferative retinopathy. Vitreoretinal surgery may be necessary in cases of severe or vitreous hemorrhage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 81 - A 42-year-old female is admitted to the psychiatric ward and experiences an acute...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old female is admitted to the psychiatric ward and experiences an acute episode of psychosis. The on-call doctor is consulted and prescribes medication, but the patient subsequently develops severe acute agitation and torticollis.
      What is the most suitable course of treatment?

      Your Answer: Procyclidine

      Explanation:

      Common Drugs and Their Roles in Treating Extra-Pyramidal Side Effects

      Extra-pyramidal side effects (EPSE) are a common occurrence in patients taking antipsychotic medications. Procyclidine is an antimuscarinic drug that is the first line treatment for EPSE, including torticollis. It can be administered orally or parenterally and is usually very effective.

      Naloxone, on the other hand, is an opioid antagonist used in the emergency treatment of opioid overdose. It has no role in the treatment of EPSE, including torticollis. Flumazenil, a benzodiazepine antagonist, is used to reverse central sedative effects of benzodiazepines during anaesthesia or diagnostic, surgical or dental procedures. It has no role in the treatment of torticollis or other EPSE.

      N-acetylcysteine (NAC) is mainly used in the treatment of paracetamol overdose and has no role in the treatment of EPSE, including torticollis. Sodium thiosulphate, used as an antidote to cyanide poisoning, also has no role in the treatment of EPSE, including torticollis. Understanding the roles of these common drugs can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate treatment for patients experiencing EPSE.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      32.7
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  • Question 82 - Which one of the following statements regarding croup is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding croup is true?

      Your Answer: Most common in children under the age of 6 months

      Correct Answer: Most commonly caused by parainfluenza viruses

      Explanation:

      The majority of croup cases are caused by parainfluenza virus, and it is recommended to avoid throat examination as it may lead to airway obstruction.

      Understanding Croup: A Respiratory Infection in Infants and Toddlers

      Croup is a type of upper respiratory tract infection that commonly affects infants and toddlers. It is characterized by a barking cough, fever, and coryzal symptoms, and is caused by a combination of laryngeal oedema and secretions. Parainfluenza viruses are the most common cause of croup. The condition typically peaks between 6 months and 3 years of age, and is more prevalent during the autumn season.

      The severity of croup can be graded based on the presence of symptoms such as stridor, cough, and respiratory distress. Mild cases may only have occasional barking cough and no audible stridor at rest, while severe cases may have frequent barking cough, prominent inspiratory stridor at rest, and marked sternal wall retractions. Children with moderate or severe croup, those under 6 months of age, or those with known upper airway abnormalities should be admitted to the hospital.

      Diagnosis of croup is usually made based on clinical presentation, but a chest x-ray may show subglottic narrowing, commonly referred to as the steeple sign. Treatment for croup typically involves a single dose of oral dexamethasone or prednisolone, regardless of severity. In emergency situations, high-flow oxygen and nebulized adrenaline may be necessary.

      Understanding croup is important for parents and healthcare providers alike, as prompt recognition and treatment can help prevent complications and improve outcomes for affected children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 83 - A 27 year old pregnant woman is currently experiencing a prolonged second stage...

    Correct

    • A 27 year old pregnant woman is currently experiencing a prolonged second stage of labour due to cephalopelvic disproportion. The midwife is aware of the potential risks to both the mother and foetus and calls for an obstetrician. The obstetrician performs a perineal incision in a mediolateral direction. What is the name of this procedure?

      Your Answer: Episiotomy

      Explanation:

      The procedure being performed is called an episiotomy, which can be done using various techniques. In this case, the medio-lateral approach is being used, which involves making a cut at either the 7 o’clock or 5 o’clock positions. The main reasons for performing this procedure are twofold. Firstly, it helps to prevent the vagina from tearing during childbirth, particularly in cases where the baby’s head is too large for the mother’s pelvis. By making a controlled incision, the risk of the tear extending towards the anus and surrounding muscles is reduced, which could lead to long-term problems such as fecal incontinence. Secondly, the episiotomy creates more space for the baby to pass through, making delivery easier and safer for both the mother and child.

      Understanding Episiotomy

      Episiotomy is a surgical procedure that involves making an incision in the posterior wall of the vagina and perineum during the second stage of labor. This procedure is done to make it easier for the baby to pass through the birth canal. The incision is made in the area between the vagina and anus, and it can be either midline or mediolateral.

      Episiotomy is usually performed when the baby is in distress, and there is a need to speed up the delivery process. It can also be done to prevent tearing of the perineum, which can be more difficult to repair than an episiotomy. However, the procedure is not without risks, and it can lead to complications such as pain, infection, and bleeding.

      In recent years, there has been a decline in the use of episiotomy, as studies have shown that it does not necessarily reduce the risk of tearing or improve healing time. Many healthcare providers now only perform episiotomy when it is medically necessary. It is important for expectant mothers to discuss the use of episiotomy with their healthcare provider and understand the risks and benefits before making a decision.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 84 - A 45-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner (GP) four weeks after suffering...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner (GP) four weeks after suffering from a vomiting illness. She complains of numbness and tingling in her lower limbs which has developed over the past three days. On examination, she has weakness of ankle and knee flexion and extension, diminished knee and ankle reflexes and sensory loss below the knee. The GP arranges urgent hospital admission and she is started on treatment as soon as she arrives at the hospital.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
      Select the SINGLE most appropriate treatment from the list below.

      Your Answer: Intravenous prednisolone

      Correct Answer: Intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG)

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Guillain-Barré Syndrome

      Guillain–Barré syndrome (GBS) is an autoimmune disorder that affects the peripheral nerves, resulting in symmetrical weakness, hyporeflexia, and paraesthesia. The condition often occurs after an infection, usually involving the respiratory or gastrointestinal tract. The most commonly used treatment for GBS is intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG), which helps to reduce the severity and duration of symptoms. Plasmapheresis (plasma exchange) is another option that filters antibodies from the patient’s plasma.

      However, corticosteroids such as intravenous prednisolone have not been shown to improve GBS symptoms and may even prolong recovery. Haemodialysis is not necessary unless the patient has concurrent renal failure. Antivirals such as intravenous acyclovir have no role in managing GBS as it is not a viral illness. Although a bacterial infection may precede GBS, antibiotics such as intravenous ceftriaxone are not used to treat the autoimmune process causing the neurological symptoms. In some cases, patients with GBS may require invasive ventilation, which may cause pneumonia and require treatment with antibiotics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 85 - A 6-year-old girl is presented with a worsening of her asthma symptoms. Upon...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl is presented with a worsening of her asthma symptoms. Upon examination, she exhibits bilateral expiratory wheezing, but there are no indications of respiratory distress. Her respiratory rate is 24 breaths per minute, and her PEF is approximately 50% of normal. What is the best course of action regarding steroid treatment?

      Your Answer: Admit for intravenous steroids

      Correct Answer: Oral prednisolone for 3 days

      Explanation:

      According to the 2016 guidelines of the British Thoracic Society, children should be given a specific dose of steroids based on their age. For children under 2 years, the dose should be 10 mg of prednisolone, for those aged 2-5 years, it should be 20 mg, and for those over 5 years, it should be 30-40 mg. Children who are already taking maintenance steroid tablets should receive a maximum dose of 60 mg or 2 mg/kg of prednisolone. If a child vomits after taking the medication, the dose should be repeated, and if they are unable to retain the medication orally, intravenous steroids should be considered. The duration of treatment should be tailored to the number of days required for recovery, and a course of steroids exceeding 14 days does not require tapering.

      Managing Acute Asthma Attacks in Children

      When it comes to managing acute asthma attacks in children, it is important to assess the severity of the attack and take appropriate action. For children between the ages of 2 and 5, those with severe or life-threatening asthma should be immediately transferred to the hospital. For moderate attacks, children should have a SpO2 level above 92% and no clinical features of severe asthma. However, for severe attacks, children may have a SpO2 level below 92%, be too breathless to talk or feed, have a heart rate above 140/min, and use accessory neck muscles. For life-threatening attacks, children may have a SpO2 level below 92%, a silent chest, poor respiratory effort, agitation, altered consciousness, and cyanosis.

      For children over the age of 5, it is recommended to attempt to measure PEF in all cases. For moderate attacks, children should have a SpO2 level above 92%, a PEF level above 50% best or predicted, and no clinical features of severe asthma. For severe attacks, children may have a SpO2 level below 92%, a PEF level between 33-50% best or predicted, and be unable to complete sentences in one breath or too breathless to talk or feed. For life-threatening attacks, children may have a SpO2 level below 92%, a PEF level below 33% best or predicted, a silent chest, poor respiratory effort, altered consciousness, and cyanosis.

      For children with mild to moderate acute asthma, bronchodilator therapy should be given via a beta-2 agonist and spacer (or close-fitting mask for children under 3 years old). One puff should be given every 30-60 seconds up to a maximum of 10 puffs. If symptoms are not controlled, the beta-2 agonist should be repeated and the child should be referred to the hospital. Steroid therapy should also be given to all children with an asthma exacerbation for 3-5 days, with the usual prednisolone dose varying based on age and weight.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 86 - You assess a 50-year-old woman who has developed a dependence on temazepam, which...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 50-year-old woman who has developed a dependence on temazepam, which was initially prescribed as a sleep aid. She expresses a desire to overcome her addiction to temazepam and seeks assistance. Her current dosage is 20 mg per day. What would be the most suitable approach?

      Your Answer: Switch to the equivalent zopiclone dose then slowly withdraw over the next 2 weeks

      Correct Answer: Switch to the equivalent diazepam dose then slowly withdraw over the next 2 months

      Explanation:

      Benzodiazepines are drugs that enhance the effect of the neurotransmitter GABA, which inhibits brain activity. They are used for various purposes, including sedation, anxiety relief, muscle relaxation, and seizure prevention. However, patients can develop a tolerance and dependence on these drugs, so they should only be prescribed for a short period of time. When withdrawing from benzodiazepines, it is important to do so gradually to avoid withdrawal symptoms, which can include insomnia, anxiety, and seizures. Barbiturates are another type of drug that affect GABA, but they work differently than benzodiazepines by increasing the duration of chloride channel opening.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 87 - What is the most frequent reason for recurrent spontaneous miscarriage in the first...

    Correct

    • What is the most frequent reason for recurrent spontaneous miscarriage in the first trimester?

      Your Answer: Antiphospholipid syndrome

      Explanation:

      The prevalence of aPL is significantly higher in women with recurrent miscarriage compared to those with a low risk obstetric history, with the former having a much higher incidence rate. In fact, the prevalence of aPL in the latter group is less than 2%.

      Understanding Recurrent Miscarriage

      Recurrent miscarriage is a condition that affects approximately 1% of women and is characterized by three or more consecutive spontaneous abortions. There are several potential causes of recurrent miscarriage, including antiphospholipid syndrome, endocrine disorders such as poorly controlled diabetes mellitus or thyroid disorders, polycystic ovarian syndrome, uterine abnormalities like a uterine septum, parental chromosomal abnormalities, and smoking.

      It is important to note that while these factors may increase the risk of recurrent miscarriage, they do not necessarily guarantee that a woman will experience this condition. Additionally, there may be other underlying causes that have yet to be identified.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      160.3
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  • Question 88 - As the medical doctor on call, a 23-year-old woman presents to the emergency...

    Incorrect

    • As the medical doctor on call, a 23-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 4-day history of loose stools, abdominal pain, and fatigue. She reports having bowel movements an average of 8 times a day, and in the last 24 hours, she has noticed blood mixed in with the stools. The patient has a medical history of ulcerative colitis, which is typically well controlled with rectal mesalazine. She has no allergies or other medical conditions.

      Upon examination, the patient's blood pressure is 100/60 mmHg, heart rate is 95 beats per minute, respiratory rate is 16/min, oxygen saturation is 96%, and temperature is 37.9 ºC. Heart sounds are normal, chest is clear, and the abdomen is soft with localized tenderness in the left iliac fossa. There is no guarding or peritonism, and bowel sounds are audible.

      The patient's Hb is 102 g/L (normal range for females: 115-160), platelets are 398 * 109/L (normal range: 150-400), WBC is 13.2 * 109/L (normal range: 4.0-11.0), Na is 140 mmol/L (normal range: 135-145), K is 3.8 mmol/L (normal range: 3.5-5.0), urea is 4.6 mmol/L (normal range: 2.0-7.0), creatinine is 95 µmol/L (normal range: 55-120), and CRP is 35 mg/L (normal range: <5). Based on these findings, a flare of ulcerative colitis is suspected.

      What is the appropriate management plan for this patient?

      Your Answer: Admit + IV mesalazine

      Correct Answer: Admit + IV hydrocortisone

      Explanation:

      Ulcerative colitis can be managed through inducing and maintaining remission. The severity of the condition is classified as mild, moderate, or severe based on the number of stools and presence of systemic upset. Treatment for mild-to-moderate cases of proctitis involves using topical aminosalicylate, while proctosigmoiditis and left-sided ulcerative colitis may require a combination of oral and topical medications. Extensive disease may require a high-dose oral aminosalicylate and topical treatment. Severe colitis should be treated in a hospital with intravenous steroids or ciclosporin. Maintaining remission can involve using a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate or oral azathioprine/mercaptopurine. Methotrexate is not recommended, but probiotics may prevent relapse in mild to moderate cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      52
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  • Question 89 - A 3-year-old child with a history of atopic eczema presents to the clinic....

    Correct

    • A 3-year-old child with a history of atopic eczema presents to the clinic. The child's eczema is typically managed well with emollients, but the parents are worried as the facial eczema has worsened significantly overnight. The child now has painful blisters clustered on both cheeks, around the mouth, and on the neck. The child's temperature is 37.9ºC. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Admit to hospital

      Explanation:

      IV antivirals are necessary for the treatment of eczema herpeticum, which is a severe condition.

      Understanding Eczema Herpeticum

      Eczema herpeticum is a serious skin infection caused by herpes simplex virus 1 or 2. It is commonly observed in children with atopic eczema and is characterized by a rapidly progressing painful rash. The infection can be life-threatening, which is why it is important to seek medical attention immediately.

      During examination, doctors typically observe monomorphic punched-out erosions, which are circular, depressed, and ulcerated lesions that are usually 1-3 mm in diameter. Due to the severity of the infection, children with eczema herpeticum should be admitted to the hospital for intravenous aciclovir treatment. It is important to understand the symptoms and seek medical attention promptly to prevent any complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 90 - A 55-year-old man is seen in the clinic for a follow-up appointment. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man is seen in the clinic for a follow-up appointment. He was prescribed ramipril two months ago for stage 2 hypertension, which was diagnosed after ambulatory blood pressure monitoring. His clinic readings have improved from 164/96 mmHg to 142/84 mmHg. However, he has been experiencing a persistent, dry cough for the past four weeks. What would be the best course of action to take in this situation?

      Your Answer: Stop ramipril and start amlodipine

      Correct Answer: Stop ramipril and start losartan

      Explanation:

      When ACE inhibitors are not well-tolerated, angiotensin-receptor blockers are recommended.

      NICE Guidelines for Managing Hypertension

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic in addition to an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.

      The guidelines also provide a flow chart for the diagnosis and management of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, such as reducing salt intake, caffeine intake, and alcohol consumption, as well as exercising more and losing weight, should not be forgotten and is frequently tested in exams. Treatment options depend on the patient’s age, ethnicity, and other factors, and may involve a combination of drugs.

      NICE recommends treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old if they have target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For patients with stage 2 hypertension, drug treatment should be offered regardless of age. The guidelines also provide step-by-step treatment options, including adding a third or fourth drug if necessary.

      New drugs, such as direct renin inhibitors like Aliskiren, may have a role in patients who are intolerant of more established antihypertensive drugs. However, trials have only investigated the fall in blood pressure and no mortality data is available yet. Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist. The guidelines also provide blood pressure targets for different age groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      16.4
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  • Question 91 - A 38-year-old woman with systemic lupus erythematosus presents to her General Practitioner with...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old woman with systemic lupus erythematosus presents to her General Practitioner with concerns about her current medication. She is currently taking azathioprine 130 mg/day, in divided doses. Yesterday she took a home pregnancy test which was positive.
      What is the best course of management for her medication?

      Your Answer: Continue azathioprine

      Explanation:

      Managing Treatment for Pregnant Patients with Autoimmune Diseases

      When treating pregnant patients with autoimmune diseases, it is important to consider the potential risks and benefits of different medications. In the case of a patient already on an established dose of azathioprine, it is generally recommended to continue this medication during pregnancy, as stopping or reducing the dose could put the patient at risk of disease progression. Methotrexate should never be used during pregnancy due to its teratogenic effects. High-dose corticosteroids may also pose risks to the developing fetus if used for prolonged periods. Stopping all treatment could trigger disease worsening, so it is important to carefully weigh the risks and benefits of any changes to medication. In some cases, infliximab may be necessary during pregnancy, but this should be carefully considered and discussed with a specialist. Overall, managing treatment for pregnant patients with autoimmune diseases requires careful consideration of the potential risks and benefits of different medications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 92 - A 65-year-old woman comes to see her GP for a skin condition that...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman comes to see her GP for a skin condition that has been slowly progressing over the years. She has had dry patches of skin that eventually turned into plaques, which have been treated as psoriasis. However, the lesions have continued to worsen and now have nodules. Some of these nodules have become painful and have discharged fluid. A biopsy is taken to further assess the lesions, and the pathology report shows lymphocytic and atypical T-cell infiltrates in the dermis and epidermis, with some Pautrier microabscesses. Based on this information, what is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Mycosis fungoides

      Explanation:

      Mycosis fungoides, a severe form of T-cell lymphoma that mimics eczema or psoriasis, is a rare but concerning skin condition. The patient’s atypical medical history, previous diagnostic uncertainty, and laboratory results suggest that they may have cutaneous T-cell lymphoma. Biopsy results showing Pautrier microabscesses are a common feature of mycosis fungoides. Harlequin ichthyosis is a genetic disorder that manifests from birth, making it an unlikely diagnosis. Although syphilis can cause various skin symptoms, the biopsy findings do not support this diagnosis. Discoid eczema, also known as nummular dermatitis, has a different clinical course than the patient’s condition, and the biopsy results do not indicate it.

      Understanding Mycosis Fungoides

      Mycosis fungoides is a rare type of T-cell lymphoma that primarily affects the skin. It is characterized by the presence of itchy, red patches that may appear in different colors, unlike eczema or psoriasis where the lesions are more uniform in color. These patches may progress to form plaques, which can be seen in the later stages of the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      13.2
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  • Question 93 - As a foundation doctor on the neonatal ward, you conduct a newborn examination...

    Incorrect

    • As a foundation doctor on the neonatal ward, you conduct a newborn examination on a six hour old infant. The baby was delivered vaginally at 38 weeks with no risk factors for sepsis and no maternal concerns. The baby was born in a healthy condition, with good tone. However, you observe cyanosis in the peripheries, while the rest of the examination appears normal. Pre and post ductal oxygen saturations are at 97%. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hypothermia

      Correct Answer: Acrocyanosis

      Explanation:

      Cyanosis, a bluish discoloration of the skin, is a common occurrence in newborns. Peripheral cyanosis, which affects the hands and feet, is often seen in the first 24 hours of life and can be caused by crying or illness. Central cyanosis, on the other hand, is a more serious condition that occurs when the concentration of reduced hemoglobin in the blood exceeds 5g/dl. To differentiate between cardiac and non-cardiac causes of central cyanosis, doctors may use the nitrogen washout test, which involves giving the infant 100% oxygen for ten minutes and then measuring arterial blood gases. A pO2 of less than 15 kPa indicates cyanotic congenital heart disease, which can be caused by conditions such as tetralogy of Fallot, transposition of the great arteries, and tricuspid atresia.

      If cyanotic congenital heart disease is suspected, initial management involves supportive care and the use of prostaglandin E1, such as alprostadil, to maintain a patent ductus arteriosus in ductal-dependent congenital heart defects. This can serve as a temporary measure until a definitive diagnosis is made and surgical correction is performed.

      Acrocyanosis, a type of peripheral cyanosis, is a benign condition that is often seen in healthy newborns. It is characterized by bluish discoloration around the mouth and extremities, such as the hands and feet, and is caused by vasomotor changes that result in peripheral vasoconstriction and increased tissue oxygen extraction. Unlike other causes of peripheral cyanosis that may indicate significant pathology, such as septic shock, acrocyanosis occurs immediately after birth in healthy infants and typically resolves within 24 to 48 hours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 94 - A 35-year-old man presents with haematuria and severe left flank pain. He is...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man presents with haematuria and severe left flank pain. He is agitated and unable to find a position that relieves the pain. On examination, his abdomen is soft with tenderness over the left lumbar region. He has no fever.
      What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Renal calculi

      Explanation:

      Common Renal Conditions: Symptoms and Characteristics

      Renal tract calculi, autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD), acute pyelonephritis, renal cell carcinoma (RCC), and acute glomerulonephritis (GN) are common renal conditions that can cause various symptoms and have distinct characteristics.

      Renal Calculi: Sudden onset of severe pain in the flank, nausea, vomiting, and costovertebral angle tenderness.

      ADPKD: Pain in the abdomen, flank or back, hypertension, and palpable, bilateral flank masses.

      Acute Pyelonephritis: Fever, costovertebral angle pain, nausea, vomiting, and gross haematuria.

      RCC: Usually mild flank pain, haematuria, palpable flank mass, and hypercalcaemia manifestations.

      Acute GN: Sudden onset of haematuria, proteinuria, red blood cell casts in the urine, hypertension, and oedema.

      Timely diagnosis and management are crucial for these conditions to prevent further complications and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
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  • Question 95 - You assess a 23-year-old man who has recently been released from the local...

    Correct

    • You assess a 23-year-old man who has recently been released from the local hospital after having a pneumothorax drained. This is his second admission in two years for the same issue. Upon examination today, his chest is clear with good air entry in all fields. However, you observe that he has pectus excavatum. He is 1.83m tall and weighs 72 kg. The only other relevant medical history is joint hypermobility, for which he was referred to a physiotherapist last year. What is the most probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Marfan's syndrome

      Explanation:

      The presence of recurrent pneumothoraces and joint hypermobility suggests the possibility of Marfan’s syndrome.

      Understanding Marfan’s Syndrome

      Marfan’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects the connective tissue in the body. It is caused by a defect in the FBN1 gene on chromosome 15, which codes for the protein fibrillin-1. This disorder is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern, meaning that a person only needs to inherit one copy of the defective gene from one parent to develop the condition. Marfan’s syndrome affects approximately 1 in 3,000 people.

      The features of Marfan’s syndrome include a tall stature with an arm span to height ratio greater than 1.05, a high-arched palate, arachnodactyly (long, slender fingers), pectus excavatum (sunken chest), pes planus (flat feet), and scoliosis (curvature of the spine). In addition, individuals with Marfan’s syndrome may experience cardiovascular problems such as dilation of the aortic sinuses, mitral valve prolapse, and aortic aneurysm. They may also have lung issues such as repeated pneumothoraces. Eye problems are also common, including upwards lens dislocation, blue sclera, and myopia. Finally, dural ectasia, or ballooning of the dural sac at the lumbosacral level, may also occur.

      In the past, the life expectancy of individuals with Marfan’s syndrome was around 40-50 years. However, with regular echocardiography monitoring and the use of beta-blockers and ACE inhibitors, this has improved significantly in recent years. Despite these improvements, aortic dissection and other cardiovascular problems remain the leading cause of death in individuals with Marfan’s syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      8.4
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  • Question 96 - A 6-year-old boy presents to his General Practitioner with his mother three weeks...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old boy presents to his General Practitioner with his mother three weeks following his recent admission to the Paediatric Ward where he was treated for Kawasaki disease. He responded well to his treatment in the hospital.
      His mother asks if her son still needs to be taking the treatment prescribed by the Paediatric Team.
      Which of the following treatments is the patient likely to still be taking?

      Your Answer: Oral aspirin daily

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Kawasaki Disease: Understanding the Use of Aspirin

      Kawasaki disease is a condition that affects children and causes inflammation in the blood vessels throughout the body. When diagnosed, treatment typically involves intravenous immunoglobulin and aspirin. In this article, we will discuss the use of aspirin in the treatment of Kawasaki disease and why it is important.

      Oral aspirin is given to patients with Kawasaki disease due to its anti-inflammatory and antiplatelet properties. It helps to reduce the chances of blood clots if there are developing problems in the heart, such as coronary artery aneurysms that can occur in Kawasaki disease. The dosage of aspirin is usually higher (30 mg/kg per day) for up to two weeks and then continued at lower doses (3-5 mg/kg per day) until a review of echocardiogram, which is usually 6-8 weeks after the onset of illness.

      If the review echocardiogram at 6-8 weeks shows no evidence of any coronary artery aneurysms, then aspirin is usually stopped. However, until that time, patients with Kawasaki disease will continue to take oral aspirin daily.

      It is important to note that other non-steroidal anti-inflammatory medications such as ibuprofen should be avoided while taking aspirin. Additionally, oral steroids are a second-line treatment that are considered when there is failure to respond to initial intravenous immunoglobulin therapy.

      In conclusion, aspirin is an important part of the treatment for Kawasaki disease due to its anti-inflammatory and antiplatelet properties. Patients with Kawasaki disease will continue to take oral aspirin daily until a review echocardiogram shows no evidence of any coronary artery aneurysms. It is important to follow the treatment plan prescribed by a specialist to ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 97 - A 42-year-old woman is admitted to the gastroenterology ward with persistent bloody diarrhoea,...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman is admitted to the gastroenterology ward with persistent bloody diarrhoea, abdominal pain and fever. She has a history of Crohn's disease and is suspected to be experiencing an acute flare. Methotrexate is prescribed as part of her treatment. What potential side-effect should be monitored for?

      Your Answer: Pneumonitis

      Explanation:

      Methotrexate has the potential to cause pneumonitis, which is characterized by symptoms such as cough, fever, and difficulty breathing. Failure to promptly identify and treat pneumonitis can result in permanent lung damage. Therefore, the British National Formulary advises patients to seek medical attention if they experience any of these symptoms, and physicians should monitor for signs of pneumonitis during each visit and discontinue the medication if it is suspected. It should be noted that acute respiratory distress syndrome is not a known side effect of methotrexate.

      Methotrexate: An Antimetabolite with Potentially Life-Threatening Side Effects

      Methotrexate is an antimetabolite drug that inhibits the enzyme dihydrofolate reductase, which is essential for the synthesis of purines and pyrimidines. It is commonly used to treat inflammatory arthritis, psoriasis, and some types of leukemia. However, it is considered an important drug due to its potential for life-threatening side effects. Careful prescribing and close monitoring are essential to ensure patient safety.

      The adverse effects of methotrexate include mucositis, myelosuppression, pneumonitis, pulmonary fibrosis, and liver fibrosis. The most common pulmonary manifestation is pneumonitis, which typically develops within a year of starting treatment and presents with non-productive cough, dyspnea, malaise, and fever. Women should avoid pregnancy for at least 6 months after treatment has stopped, and men using methotrexate need to use effective contraception for at least 6 months after treatment.

      When prescribing methotrexate, it is important to follow guidelines and monitor patients regularly. Methotrexate is taken weekly, and FBC, U&E, and LFTs need to be regularly monitored. The starting dose is 7.5 mg weekly, and folic acid 5mg once weekly should be co-prescribed, taken more than 24 hours after the methotrexate dose. Only one strength of methotrexate tablet should be prescribed, usually 2.5 mg. It is also important to avoid prescribing trimethoprim or co-trimoxazole concurrently, as it increases the risk of marrow aplasia, and high-dose aspirin increases the risk of methotrexate toxicity.

      In case of methotrexate toxicity, the treatment of choice is folinic acid. Methotrexate is a drug with a high potential for patient harm, and it is crucial to be familiar with guidelines relating to its use to ensure patient safety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      12
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  • Question 98 - A 39-year-old female has been diagnosed with Trichomonas vaginalis. What is the best...

    Correct

    • A 39-year-old female has been diagnosed with Trichomonas vaginalis. What is the best course of action for treatment?

      Your Answer: Oral metronidazole

      Explanation:

      Oral metronidazole is the recommended treatment for Trichomonas vaginalis.

      Understanding Trichomonas vaginalis and its Comparison to Bacterial Vaginosis

      Trichomonas vaginalis is a type of protozoan parasite that is highly motile and flagellated. It is known to cause trichomoniasis, which is a sexually transmitted infection. The infection is characterized by symptoms such as offensive, yellow/green, frothy vaginal discharge, vulvovaginitis, and strawberry cervix. The pH level is usually above 4.5, and in men, it may cause urethritis.

      To diagnose trichomoniasis, a wet mount microscopy is conducted to observe the motile trophozoites. The treatment for trichomoniasis involves oral metronidazole for 5-7 days, although a one-off dose of 2g metronidazole may also be used.

      When compared to bacterial vaginosis, trichomoniasis has distinct differences. Bacterial vaginosis is caused by an overgrowth of bacteria in the vagina, while trichomoniasis is caused by a protozoan parasite. The symptoms of bacterial vaginosis include a thin, grayish-white vaginal discharge with a fishy odor, and a pH level above 4.5. Unlike trichomoniasis, bacterial vaginosis is not considered a sexually transmitted infection.

      In conclusion, understanding the differences between trichomoniasis and bacterial vaginosis is crucial in diagnosing and treating these conditions effectively. Proper diagnosis and treatment can help prevent complications and improve overall health and well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 99 - A 75-year-old man came to the clinic with painless, blurry vision in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man came to the clinic with painless, blurry vision in his right eye. He reported no other ocular symptoms and had a history of bilateral cataract surgery five years ago. What is the most probable reason for his vision impairment?

      Your Answer: Recurrence of cataract

      Correct Answer: Posterior capsule opacification

      Explanation:

      Blurred vision years after cataract surgery may be caused by posterior capsule opacification, which can occur even after the cataract has been removed and an artificial lens has been implanted.

      Understanding Cataracts: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      A cataract is a common eye condition that affects the lens of the eye, causing it to become cloudy and reducing the amount of light that reaches the retina. This can lead to blurred or reduced vision, making it difficult to see clearly. Cataracts are more common in women and tend to increase in incidence with age. While the normal ageing process is the most common cause, other factors such as smoking, alcohol consumption, trauma, diabetes, and long-term corticosteroid use can also contribute to the development of cataracts.

      Symptoms of cataracts include reduced vision, faded colour vision, glare, and halos around lights. A defect in the red reflex is also a sign of cataracts. Diagnosis is typically made through ophthalmoscopy and slit-lamp examination, which can reveal the presence of a visible cataract.

      In the early stages, age-related cataracts can be managed conservatively with stronger glasses or contact lenses and brighter lighting. However, surgery is the only effective treatment for cataracts and involves removing the cloudy lens and replacing it with an artificial one. Referral for surgery should be based on the presence of visual impairment, impact on quality of life, and patient choice. Complications following surgery can include posterior capsule opacification, retinal detachment, posterior capsule rupture, and endophthalmitis.

      Overall, cataracts are a common and treatable eye condition that can significantly impact a person’s vision. Understanding the causes, symptoms, and management options can help individuals make informed decisions about their eye health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 100 - You are reviewing an elderly patient with difficult-to-treat angina and consider that a...

    Incorrect

    • You are reviewing an elderly patient with difficult-to-treat angina and consider that a trial of treatment with nicorandil may be appropriate.
      Which of the following statements is true about the anti-anginal drug nicorandil?

      Your Answer: Its hypotensive effect is not potentiated by sildenafil

      Correct Answer: Oral ulceration is an unwanted effect

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Effects and Side Effects of Nicorandil

      Nicorandil is a medication that is commonly used to treat angina pectoris, a condition characterized by chest pain or discomfort caused by reduced blood flow to the heart. While it is generally well-tolerated, there are some potential side effects that patients should be aware of.

      One of the less common side effects of nicorandil is stomatitis and oral ulceration. This can be uncomfortable and may require medical attention. However, most patients do not experience this side effect.

      Nicorandil works by relaxing vascular smooth muscle, which reduces ventricular filling pressure and myocardial workload. This can be beneficial for patients with angina, but it can also cause hypotension (low blood pressure) in some cases.

      Another mechanism of action for nicorandil is its ability to activate ATP-dependent potassium channels in the mitochondria of the myocardium. This can help to improve cardiac function and reduce the risk of ischemia (lack of oxygen to the heart).

      The most common side effect of nicorandil therapy is headache, which affects up to 48% of patients. This side effect is usually transient and can be managed by starting with a lower initial dose. Patients who are susceptible to headaches should be monitored closely.

      Finally, it is important to note that concomitant use of sildenafil (Viagra) with nicorandil should be avoided. This is because sildenafil can significantly enhance the hypotensive effect of nicorandil, which can be dangerous for some patients.

      In summary, nicorandil is a useful medication for treating angina, but patients should be aware of its potential side effects and should always follow their doctor’s instructions for use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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