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  • Question 1 - A 38-year-old man presents with a history of poor health for several months...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old man presents with a history of poor health for several months and is subsequently diagnosed with syphilis. During the physical examination, it is observed that he has small pupils on both sides that are able to accommodate but do not react to light. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Argyll-Robertson pupil

      Explanation:

      Argyll-Robertson Pupil: A Classic Pupillary Syndrome

      The Argyll-Robertson Pupil (ARP) is a classic pupillary syndrome that is sometimes observed in neurosyphilis. It is characterized by small, irregular pupils that do not respond to light but do respond to accommodation. A useful mnemonic for remembering this syndrome is Accommodation Reflex Present (ARP) but Pupillary Reflex Absent (PRA).

      The ARP can be caused by various factors, including diabetes mellitus and syphilis. It is important to note that the presence of an ARP may indicate underlying neurological or systemic disease and should prompt further evaluation and management. Proper diagnosis and treatment of the underlying condition can help prevent further complications and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      57.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 60-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of seeing a curtain moving...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of seeing a curtain moving from the right inferonasal side towards the centre for the past 3 days. She reports seeing flashes of lights at the right inferonasal side and an increase in the number of floaters in her right eye. Her central vision is not affected, and her vision is 6/6 in both eyes. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Superotemporal macula-on retinal detachment

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Types of Retinal Detachment Based on Symptoms

      Retinal detachment is a serious condition that can cause vision loss if not treated promptly. Differentiating between the types of retinal detachment based on symptoms is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.

      In the case of symptoms located at the inferonasal side, the detachment is likely located at the superotemporal side of the eye, which is the most common location of retinal tears and detachment. This is also most likely a macula-on detachment because the vision in the affected eye remained at 6/6. Therefore, the correct diagnosis is a superotemporal macula-on retinal detachment.

      An inferonasal macula-off retinal detachment is unlikely because the vision is still 6/6. Similarly, an inferior or inferotemporal macula-off retinal detachment can be ruled out based on the location of symptoms and intact vision.

      A superonasal macula-on retinal detachment is also unlikely because it would cause symptoms at the inferotemporal side. Therefore, understanding the location of symptoms and vision status can aid in differentiating between the types of retinal detachment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      24.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 32-year-old female complains of fatigue and frequent headaches. During the swinging light...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old female complains of fatigue and frequent headaches. During the swinging light test, an abnormality is noticed in her eyes. Both pupils appear to dilate as the light is moved from the left to the right eye. However, the pupillary response to accommodation is normal bilaterally. Fundoscopy also reveals normal findings bilaterally. The patient has a medical history of type one diabetes and hypertension. What is the probable cause of this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Marcus-Gunn Pupil (relative afferent pupillary defect) on the right

      Explanation:

      The swinging light test can diagnose Marcus Gunn pupil (also known as relative afferent pupillary defect). If there is damage to the afferent pathway (retina or optic nerve) of one eye, the affected eye’s pupil will abnormally dilate when a light is shone into it because the healthy eye’s consensual pupillary relaxation response will dominate. This condition can be found in patients with multiple sclerosis, so it should be ruled out in this patient based on the history. However, the history and examination findings do not suggest raised intracranial pressure, which typically presents with symptoms such as a headache, vomiting, bilateral blurred vision, and seizures, and often shows bilateral papilloedema on fundoscopy. Although the patient is diabetic, diabetic eye disease typically does not affect pupillary light responses, and some abnormality on fundoscopy would be expected. The information provided does not match Holmes-Aide’s pupil, which is a dilated pupil that poorly reacts to direct light but slowly reacts to accommodation. The history also does not suggest Argyll Robertson pupil, which is characterised by a constricted pupil that does not respond to light but responds to accommodation and is often associated with neurosyphilis.

      Understanding Relative Afferent Pupillary Defect

      A relative afferent pupillary defect, also known as the Marcus-Gunn pupil, is a condition that can be identified through the swinging light test. This condition is caused by a lesion that is located anterior to the optic chiasm, which can be found in the optic nerve or retina.

      When conducting the swinging light test, the affected eye will appear to dilate when light is shone on it, while the normal eye will not. This is due to the fact that the afferent pathway of the pupillary light reflex is disrupted. The pathway starts from the retina, then goes through the optic nerve, lateral geniculate body, and midbrain. The efferent pathway, on the other hand, starts from the Edinger-Westphal nucleus in the midbrain and goes through the oculomotor nerve.

      There are various causes of relative afferent pupillary defect, such as retina detachment and optic neuritis, which is commonly associated with multiple sclerosis. Understanding this condition is important in diagnosing and treating patients who may be experiencing vision problems.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      16.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 65-year-old man comes to the emergency department with a sudden onset of...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man comes to the emergency department with a sudden onset of vision loss in his right eye. He experienced flashes and floaters before the loss of vision, which began at the edges and progressed towards the centre. There was no history of trauma, headaches, or eye redness, but he has a medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus. He wears corrective glasses and sometimes contact lenses, but cannot recall his prescription. What factor raises the likelihood of this patient developing this condition?

      Your Answer: Type 2 diabetes mellitus

      Explanation:

      Retinal detachment should be considered as a potential cause of sudden vision loss in patients with diabetes mellitus, as they are at an increased risk. Symptoms of RD may include a gradual loss of peripheral vision that progresses towards the centre, often described as a veil or curtain descending over the visual field. Prior to detachment, patients may experience flashes and floaters due to vitreous humour pulling on the retina. Prompt medical attention is necessary to prevent permanent vision loss.

      Retinal detachment is a condition where the tissue at the back of the eye separates from the underlying pigment epithelium. This can cause vision loss, but if detected and treated early, it can be reversible. Risk factors for retinal detachment include diabetes, myopia, age, previous cataract surgery, and eye trauma. Symptoms may include new onset floaters or flashes, sudden painless visual field loss, and reduced peripheral and central vision. If the macula is involved, visual outcomes can be much worse. Diagnosis is made through fundoscopy, which may show retinal folds or a lost red reflex. Urgent referral to an ophthalmologist is necessary for assessment and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      49.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 50-year-old male visits his GP complaining of bilateral sore eyes that feel...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old male visits his GP complaining of bilateral sore eyes that feel gritty. He has tried using over-the-counter eye drops, but the symptoms returned the next day. During the examination, the doctor notices erythematosus eyelid margins and a small stye on the right side. The patient has no known allergies. What is the initial management that should be taken?

      Your Answer: Hot compress and mechanical removal of debris

      Explanation:

      The patient is displaying symptoms that are typical of blepharitis, such as bilateral grittiness. This condition is caused by inflammation of the eyelid margins due to meibomian gland dysfunction, seborrhoeic dermatitis, or infection. Common symptoms include sticky eyes, erythematosus eyelid margins, and an increased risk of styes, chalazions, and secondary conjunctivitis.

      To manage blepharitis, hot compresses should be applied to soften the eyelid margin, and debris should be removed with cotton buds dipped in cooled boiled water. Artificial tears may also be used if the patient reports dry eyes.

      If the patient were suffering from allergic conjunctivitis, topical sodium cromoglycate would be appropriate. This condition would present with bilateral red eyes, itchiness, swelling, rhinitis, and clear discharge. On the other hand, if the patient had anterior uveitis, topical steroids would be indicated. This condition would present with rapid onset blurred vision, photosensitivity, floaters, eye pain, and redness in one or both eyes.

      Blepharitis is a condition where the eyelid margins become inflamed. This can be caused by dysfunction of the meibomian glands (posterior blepharitis) or seborrhoeic dermatitis/staphylococcal infection (anterior blepharitis). It is more common in patients with rosacea. The meibomian glands secrete oil to prevent rapid evaporation of the tear film, so any problem affecting these glands can cause dryness and irritation of the eyes. Symptoms of blepharitis are usually bilateral and include grittiness, discomfort around the eyelid margins, sticky eyes in the morning, and redness of the eyelid margins. Styes and chalazions are also more common in patients with blepharitis, and secondary conjunctivitis may occur.

      Management of blepharitis involves softening the lid margin with hot compresses twice a day and practicing lid hygiene to remove debris from the lid margins. This can be done using cotton wool buds dipped in a mixture of cooled boiled water and baby shampoo or sodium bicarbonate in cooled boiled water. Artificial tears may also be given for symptom relief in people with dry eyes or an abnormal tear film.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      21.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 29-year-old individual arrives at the emergency department complaining of sensitivity to light...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old individual arrives at the emergency department complaining of sensitivity to light and a red right eye that began an hour ago. Upon examination, the right eye is painful, red, and has an irregularly-shaped pupil, while the left eye appears normal. The patient is referred to ophthalmology for further evaluation. What is the probable medical treatment that the patient received?

      Your Answer: Steroid and cycloplegic drops

      Explanation:

      The most common treatment for anterior uveitis involves using a combination of steroid and cycloplegic (mydriatic) drops. This is because the symptoms of photophobia and a small, irregularly-shaped pupil are indicative of anterior uveitis. Steroids are administered to reduce inflammation, while cycloplegics such as atropine or cyclopentolate are used to dilate the pupil and alleviate pain and sensitivity to light. Chloramphenicol is an antibiotic that is typically used to treat bacterial conjunctivitis without the need for steroids. Acetazolamide, on the other hand, is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor that is used to manage acute angle-closure glaucoma. Pilocarpine, a muscarinic receptor agonist, is used to treat primary open-angle glaucoma and acute closed angle glaucoma.

      Anterior uveitis, also known as iritis, is a type of inflammation that affects the iris and ciliary body in the front part of the uvea. It is a common cause of red eye and is associated with HLA-B27, which may also be linked to other conditions. Symptoms of anterior uveitis include sudden onset of eye discomfort and pain, small or irregular pupils, intense sensitivity to light, blurred vision, redness, tearing, and the presence of pus and inflammatory cells in the front part of the eye. This condition may be associated with ankylosing spondylitis, reactive arthritis, ulcerative colitis, Crohn’s disease, Behcet’s disease, and sarcoidosis. Urgent review by an ophthalmologist is necessary, and treatment may involve the use of cycloplegics and steroid eye drops.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      72.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 53-year-old male presents to the acute medical admissions unit with a one-day...

    Incorrect

    • A 53-year-old male presents to the acute medical admissions unit with a one-day history of left-sided headache, retro-orbital pain, and dull facial pain on the left side. He has a medical history of hypertension and migraine and is currently taking ramipril 2.5mg. Upon examination, he displays partial ptosis and enophthalmos of the left eye, with anisocoria and miosis of the same eye. His visual acuity is 6/6 in both eyes, and the rest of his neurological exam is unremarkable, with normal sweating bilaterally. What is the most likely cause of these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Stroke

      Correct Answer: Carotid artery dissection

      Explanation:

      Horner’s syndrome is a condition that typically presents with ptosis, miosis, and anhidrosis on the same side of the body. The degree of anhidrosis can help determine the location of the lesion along the sympathetic pathway. In cases where anhidrosis is absent, it may indicate a postganglionic lesion, such as in the case of carotid artery dissection. This condition can cause a partial Horner’s syndrome with ptosis and miosis, but without anhidrosis. While this is a rare presentation of carotid artery dissection, it is important to recognize to prevent further neurological complications, such as an ischemic stroke. Preganglionic lesions, such as a cervical rib or Pancoast tumor, can cause anhidrosis of just the face, while central lesions, such as a stroke or syringomyelia, can cause anhidrosis of the head, arm, and trunk in addition to ptosis and miosis.

      Horner’s syndrome is a medical condition that is characterized by a set of symptoms including a small pupil (miosis), drooping of the upper eyelid (ptosis), sunken eye (enophthalmos), and loss of sweating on one side of the face (anhidrosis). The presence of heterochromia, or a difference in iris color, is often seen in cases of congenital Horner’s syndrome. Anhidrosis is also a distinguishing feature that can help differentiate between central, Preganglionic, and postganglionic lesions. Pharmacologic tests, such as the use of apraclonidine drops, can be helpful in confirming the diagnosis of Horner’s syndrome and localizing the lesion.

      Central lesions, Preganglionic lesions, and postganglionic lesions can all cause Horner’s syndrome, with each type of lesion presenting with different symptoms. Central lesions can result in anhidrosis of the face, arm, and trunk, while Preganglionic lesions can cause anhidrosis of the face only. postganglionic lesions, on the other hand, do not typically result in anhidrosis.

      There are many potential causes of Horner’s syndrome, including stroke, syringomyelia, multiple sclerosis, tumors, encephalitis, thyroidectomy, trauma, cervical rib, carotid artery dissection, carotid aneurysm, cavernous sinus thrombosis, and cluster headache. It is important to identify the underlying cause of Horner’s syndrome in order to determine the appropriate treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      78.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 63-year-old woman comes to the emergency department with sudden vision loss, redness,...

    Correct

    • A 63-year-old woman comes to the emergency department with sudden vision loss, redness, and pain in her left eye. She reports experiencing some discomfort and redness earlier in the day, which worsened over the next two hours. She has no history of trauma or other visual problems. Her medical history includes osteoarthritis, left eye cataract surgery three days ago, and no significant family history.

      Upon examination, the left eye appears hyperemic with hypopyon, and eye movements are painful. Visual acuity is severely impaired, while the right eye appears normal. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Endophthalmitis

      Explanation:

      Post-operative endophthalmitis is a rare but serious complication that can occur after cataract surgery and requires immediate treatment.

      If a patient experiences sudden pain, redness, and vision loss shortly after eye surgery, it may indicate post-operative endophthalmitis. This infection affects the aqueous and vitreous humor of the eye and is a rare complication of any eye surgery.

      While anterior uveitis can also cause a painful red eye, it is less likely in this case due to the patient’s history of cataract surgery. Additionally, there is no mention of an irregularly-shaped pupil or any systemic disease associated with anterior uveitis.

      A corneal ulcer is another possibility, but it typically presents with a sensation of a foreign body in the eye and discharge. It is also more common in contact lens wearers who have been exposed to water.

      Retinal detachment is less likely because it usually causes visual disturbances such as floaters, flashes of light, and a curtain descending over the peripheral visual field. Although ocular surgery is a risk factor for retinal detachment, it would not cause the intense redness and hypopyon seen in post-operative endophthalmitis.

      Understanding Cataracts: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      A cataract is a common eye condition that affects the lens of the eye, causing it to become cloudy and reducing the amount of light that reaches the retina. This can lead to blurred or reduced vision, making it difficult to see clearly. Cataracts are more common in women and tend to increase in incidence with age. While the normal ageing process is the most common cause, other factors such as smoking, alcohol consumption, trauma, diabetes, and long-term corticosteroid use can also contribute to the development of cataracts.

      Symptoms of cataracts include reduced vision, faded colour vision, glare, and halos around lights. A defect in the red reflex is also a sign of cataracts. Diagnosis is typically made through ophthalmoscopy and slit-lamp examination, which can reveal the presence of a visible cataract.

      In the early stages, age-related cataracts can be managed conservatively with stronger glasses or contact lenses and brighter lighting. However, surgery is the only effective treatment for cataracts and involves removing the cloudy lens and replacing it with an artificial one. Referral for surgery should be based on the presence of visual impairment, impact on quality of life, and patient choice. Complications following surgery can include posterior capsule opacification, retinal detachment, posterior capsule rupture, and endophthalmitis.

      Overall, cataracts are a common and treatable eye condition that can significantly impact a person’s vision. Understanding the causes, symptoms, and management options can help individuals make informed decisions about their eye health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      54.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 28-year-old woman comes to the Eye Casualty complaining of a painful decrease...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman comes to the Eye Casualty complaining of a painful decrease in vision in her left eye that has been occurring over the past six hours. She reports no other symptoms.
      During the examination, her right eye has a visual acuity of 6/6, while her left eye has a visual acuity of 6/36. The left eye has reduced color vision. Eye movements do not show any double vision, but the pain intensifies. The swinging torch test is performed, and it is discovered that the left pupil dilates when the torch light is moved from the right eye to the left. Dilated fundoscopy reveals a swollen optic disc and exudates that align like a star at the macula in the left eye.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Neuroretinitis

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Subtypes of Optic Neuritis

      Optic neuritis is a condition that involves inflammation of the optic nerve, which can cause vision loss and other symptoms. However, there are several subtypes of optic neuritis that can present differently.

      Neuroretinitis is a subtype of optic neuritis that involves both the retina and optic disc. A macular star pattern of lipid exudates may be present in the macula.

      Papillitis is another subtype of optic neuritis that is characterized by swelling of the optic disc.

      Papilloedema, on the other hand, is optic disc swelling that is typically caused by increased intracranial pressure.

      Post-viral demyelination is a subtype of optic neuritis that can occur after a viral illness.

      Retrobulbar neuritis is a subtype of optic neuritis where the optic disc is not affected.

      It is important to differentiate between these subtypes of optic neuritis in order to determine the appropriate treatment and management plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      65.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 22-year-old woman, a known type 1 diabetic, visited the GP clinic with...

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old woman, a known type 1 diabetic, visited the GP clinic with a complaint of decreased vision. Her left eye has a vision of 6/6, while her right eye has a vision of 6/18.
      Your GP placement supervisor requested you to conduct a dilated direct fundoscopy on her eyes. During the examination, you observed exudates forming a ring around a dot haemorrhage near the fovea.
      What is the probable diagnosis of the patient's eye condition?

      Your Answer: Diabetic maculopathy

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Different Stages of Diabetic Retinopathy

      Diabetic retinopathy is a condition that affects the eyes of people with diabetes. It is caused by damage to the blood vessels in the retina, which can lead to vision loss if left untreated. There are different stages of diabetic retinopathy, each with its own set of features.

      The first stage is background diabetic retinopathy, which is characterized by microaneurysms, small blot haemorrhages, hard exudates, and occasional cotton-wool spots. The next stage is pre-proliferative diabetic retinopathy, which includes intraretinal microvascular abnormalities (IRMA), venous beading or loops, clusters of large blot haemorrhages, and multiple cotton-wool spots.

      Proliferative diabetic retinopathy is the most advanced stage and includes all the features of pre-proliferative retinopathy, as well as new vessels at the disc or elsewhere in the retina. Finally, proliferative diabetic retinopathy with maculopathy is when there are any features of diabetic retinopathy but existing at the macula, such as a ring of exudates and a dot haemorrhage near the fovea.

      It is important for people with diabetes to have regular eye exams to detect and treat diabetic retinopathy early on. With proper management, vision loss can be prevented or minimized.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      60.1
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 25-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner (GP) with a 1-day history...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner (GP) with a 1-day history of itching and watery discharge from both eyes.
      On examination, the vision is 6/9 in both eyes. Both pupils are equally reactive to light. The conjunctivae are both chemosed with mild diffuse injection. The eyelids are slightly oedematous.
      Her past medical history includes eczema. Her vital observations are as follows:
      Blood pressure 110/70 mmHg
      Heart rate 65 bpm
      Respiratory rate 12
      Temperature 36.7 °C
      Oxygen saturation 99% on air
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Allergic conjunctivitis

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Different Types of Eye Infections: A Case Study

      Upon examination of a patient with eye symptoms, it was determined that the presentation pointed towards the diagnosis of allergic conjunctivitis. This was due to the patient’s history of itchiness, watery discharge, slightly swollen eyelids, and atopy. It was ruled out that the patient had bacterial conjunctivitis, as it typically presents with more purulent discharges bilaterally. Orbital cellulitis was also ruled out, as the eyelids and orbit would be very swollen and red with restriction and pain in eye movements, and the vital observations were normal. Preseptal cellulitis can present with oedematous eyelids, but the eye itself should be quiet and white. While viral conjunctivitis can present with watery discharges, the patient’s history of atopy and itchiness made allergic conjunctivitis the more likely diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      47.7
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 63-year-old man visits his optician for routine screening and is discovered to...

    Correct

    • A 63-year-old man visits his optician for routine screening and is discovered to have elevated intraocular pressure without any symptoms. The diagnosis of primary open-angle glaucoma is confirmed. He has no significant medical history and is not taking any medications. Can you identify a potential treatment and its mode of action?

      Your Answer: Topical timolol - reduces aqueous production

      Explanation:

      Timolol eye drops are effective in treating primary open-angle glaucoma by reducing the production of aqueous fluid in the anterior chamber. This helps to lower the intraocular pressure and prevent further fluid buildup. Other medications, such as acetazolamide, latanoprost, brimonidine, and pilocarpine, work by different mechanisms such as reducing aqueous production or increasing uveoscleral outflow. However, timolol is specifically known for its ability to reduce aqueous production and is commonly used as a first-line treatment for primary open-angle glaucoma.

      Glaucoma is a condition where the optic nerve is damaged due to increased pressure in the eye. Primary open-angle glaucoma is a type where the iris is clear of the trabecular meshwork, which is responsible for draining aqueous humour from the eye. This results in increased resistance to outflow and raised intraocular pressure. The condition affects 0.5% of people over 40 years old and increases with age. Genetics also play a role, with first-degree relatives having a 16% chance of developing the disease. Symptoms are usually absent, and diagnosis is made through routine eye examinations. Investigations include visual field tests, tonometry, and slit lamp examinations. Treatment involves eye drops to lower intraocular pressure, with prostaglandin analogues being the first line of treatment. Surgery may be considered in refractory cases. Regular reassessment is necessary to monitor progression and prevent visual field loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      20.2
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A mother brings her 4-year-old son to her General Practitioner. She has noticed...

    Correct

    • A mother brings her 4-year-old son to her General Practitioner. She has noticed that when her son gets tired, his left eye appears to deviate to the left. The child is referred to an ophthalmologist for further tests.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate initial test to assess strabismus?

      Your Answer: Cover test

      Explanation:

      Assessing Strabismus: Tests and Procedures

      Strabismus, commonly known as a squint, is a condition where the visual axis is misaligned, causing one eye to deviate from the object being viewed. The cover test is a useful tool in assessing strabismus, where one eye is covered while the other is observed for a shift in fixation. If this is positive, it is a manifest squint. Another test is the cover/uncover test, where one eye is covered and then uncovered to observe for movement of that eye, indicating a latent squint.

      The Ishihara test is used to assess colour vision and is not an initial test for evaluating strabismus. An MRI brain may be requested if an underlying neurological cause is suspected, but it is not an initial test. Retinal photography is not a first-line test for children presenting with possible strabismus, but the red reflex should be tested to exclude leukocoria, which may suggest a serious cause for the squint such as retinoblastoma. Tonometry is used to measure intraocular pressure and diagnose glaucoma, but it is not used in the assessment of strabismus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      16.8
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 68-year-old man visits his GP with a complaint of a droopy eyelid...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man visits his GP with a complaint of a droopy eyelid that started yesterday and has not improved. He has a medical history of poorly controlled type two diabetes mellitus and hypertension, which cause him recurrent foot ulcers. Additionally, he has been a smoker for his entire life.

      During the eye examination, the doctor observes ptosis of the left palpebra with a constricted pupil. However, the patient's visual acuity is 6/6 in both eyes, and he has normal colour vision, intact central and peripheral fields. The patient had a similar episode after a motorbike accident, which was diagnosed as a nerve palsy and later resolved.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Oculomotor nerve palsy

      Correct Answer: Horner's syndrome

      Explanation:

      The correct diagnosis is Horner’s syndrome, which is characterized by ptosis and a constricted pupil. This syndrome is caused by a loss of sympathetic innervation and is likely due to a Pancoast tumor in this patient, who has a history of smoking. Other features of Horner’s syndrome include anhidrosis.

      An abducens nerve palsy would cause horizontal diplopia and defective eye abduction. Lateral medullary syndrome, caused by a stroke, can also cause Horner’s syndrome but would present with additional symptoms such as ataxia and dysphagia.

      An oculomotor nerve palsy would cause ptosis, a ‘down and out’ eye, and a dilated pupil. This patient only has ptosis and a constricted pupil, making oculomotor nerve palsy an incorrect diagnosis. A trochlear nerve palsy would cause vertical diplopia and limitations in eye movement.

      Horner’s syndrome is a medical condition that is characterized by a set of symptoms including a small pupil (miosis), drooping of the upper eyelid (ptosis), sunken eye (enophthalmos), and loss of sweating on one side of the face (anhidrosis). The presence of heterochromia, or a difference in iris color, is often seen in cases of congenital Horner’s syndrome. Anhidrosis is also a distinguishing feature that can help differentiate between central, Preganglionic, and postganglionic lesions. Pharmacologic tests, such as the use of apraclonidine drops, can be helpful in confirming the diagnosis of Horner’s syndrome and localizing the lesion.

      Central lesions, Preganglionic lesions, and postganglionic lesions can all cause Horner’s syndrome, with each type of lesion presenting with different symptoms. Central lesions can result in anhidrosis of the face, arm, and trunk, while Preganglionic lesions can cause anhidrosis of the face only. postganglionic lesions, on the other hand, do not typically result in anhidrosis.

      There are many potential causes of Horner’s syndrome, including stroke, syringomyelia, multiple sclerosis, tumors, encephalitis, thyroidectomy, trauma, cervical rib, carotid artery dissection, carotid aneurysm, cavernous sinus thrombosis, and cluster headache. It is important to identify the underlying cause of Horner’s syndrome in order to determine the appropriate treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      25
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 40-year-old male comes to his GP complaining of experiencing dull pain in...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old male comes to his GP complaining of experiencing dull pain in the orbital area, redness in the eye, tearing, and sensitivity to light for the past 4 days. During the examination, the doctor notices that the patient has an irregular, constricted pupil. What would be the best course of action for managing this condition?

      Your Answer: Steroid + cycloplegic eye drops

      Explanation:

      Anterior uveitis, also known as iritis, is a type of inflammation that affects the iris and ciliary body in the front part of the uvea. It is a common cause of red eye and is associated with HLA-B27, which may also be linked to other conditions. Symptoms of anterior uveitis include sudden onset of eye discomfort and pain, small or irregular pupils, intense sensitivity to light, blurred vision, redness, tearing, and the presence of pus and inflammatory cells in the front part of the eye. This condition may be associated with ankylosing spondylitis, reactive arthritis, ulcerative colitis, Crohn’s disease, Behcet’s disease, and sarcoidosis. Urgent review by an ophthalmologist is necessary, and treatment may involve the use of cycloplegics and steroid eye drops.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      164.1
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - An 8-year-old boy comes to the clinic 2 days after injuring his right...

    Correct

    • An 8-year-old boy comes to the clinic 2 days after injuring his right upper eyelid. He has a fever and feels generally sick. Upon examination, the eyelid is visibly swollen, red, and tender to the touch. The boy also has ptosis, but no pain when moving his eyes or visual impairment. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Periorbital cellulitis

      Explanation:

      Periorbital (preseptal) cellulitis can be distinguished from orbital cellulitis by the absence of painful eye movements, double vision, and visual impairment. These symptoms are indicative of orbital cellulitis, which is more severe and involves infection of the orbit. Children are more susceptible to both types of cellulitis. Dry eyes, or keratoconjunctivitis sicca, typically presents as a painful, gritty feeling in the eye with redness of the conjunctiva, similar to viral conjunctivitis.

      Understanding Preseptal Cellulitis

      Preseptal cellulitis, also known as periorbital cellulitis, is an infection that affects the soft tissues in front of the orbital septum. This includes the skin, eyelids, and subcutaneous tissue of the face, but not the contents of the orbit. Unlike orbital cellulitis, which is a more severe infection that affects the soft tissues behind the orbital septum, preseptal cellulitis is less serious. The infection typically spreads from nearby sites, such as breaks in the skin or local infections like sinusitis or respiratory tract infections. Common causative organisms include Staph. aureus, Staph. epidermidis, streptococci, and anaerobic bacteria.

      Preseptal cellulitis is most commonly seen in children, with 80% of patients under the age of 10 and a median age of presentation at 21 months. It is more prevalent in the winter due to the increased incidence of respiratory tract infections. Symptoms of preseptal cellulitis include a sudden onset of a red, swollen, and painful eye, often accompanied by fever.

      Clinical signs of preseptal cellulitis include erythema and edema of the eyelids, which can spread to the surrounding skin, as well as partial or complete ptosis of the eye due to swelling. It is important to note that orbital signs, such as pain on eye movement, restriction of eye movements, proptosis, visual disturbance, chemosis, and relative afferent pupillary defect (RAPD), should be absent in preseptal cellulitis. If these signs are present, it may indicate orbital cellulitis.

      Diagnosis of preseptal cellulitis is typically made based on clinical presentation and blood tests showing raised inflammatory markers. A swab of any discharge present may also be taken. A contrast CT of the orbit may be performed to differentiate between preseptal and orbital cellulitis.

      Management of preseptal cellulitis involves referral to secondary care for assessment. Oral antibiotics, such as co-amoxiclav, are often sufficient for treatment. Children may require admission for observation. If left untreated, bacterial infection may spread into the orbit and evolve into orbital cellulitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 17 - A 67-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a complaint of gradual deterioration...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a complaint of gradual deterioration of her vision. She has been experiencing difficulty recognizing faces and distinguishing colors for several months. The patient also reports that her central vision appears somewhat blurry. She is a smoker and consumes 10 cigarettes per day. Her blood pressure is 124/76 mmHg, and recent blood tests, including HbA1c of 38 mmol/mol, are unremarkable. What is the expected finding on fundoscopy when examining the patient's macula, given the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Drusen

      Explanation:

      Dry macular degeneration, also known as drusen, is a common cause of visual loss in individuals over the age of 50. The accumulation of lipid and protein debris around the macula is a strong indication of this condition. Wet macular degeneration, on the other hand, is characterized by choroidal neovascularization. Hypertensive retinopathy is typically associated with blot hemorrhages and cotton wool spots, while microaneurysms can indicate either hypertensive retinopathy or diabetic retinopathy. However, given the patient’s normal blood pressure and HbA1c levels, it is less likely that these findings are present.

      Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by the degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. It is more prevalent in females and is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, family history, and conditions that increase the risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD can be classified into two forms: dry and wet. Dry ARMD is more common and is characterized by drusen, while wet ARMD is characterized by choroidal neovascularisation and carries a worse prognosis. Clinical features of ARMD include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual disturbances such as photopsia and glare.

      To diagnose ARMD, slit-lamp microscopy and color fundus photography are used to identify any pigmentary, exudative, or haemorrhagic changes affecting the retina. Fluorescein angiography and indocyanine green angiography may also be used to visualize changes in the choroidal circulation. Treatment for dry ARMD involves a combination of zinc with antioxidant vitamins A, C, and E, which has been shown to reduce disease progression by around one third. For wet ARMD, anti-VEGF agents such as ranibizumab, bevacizumab, and pegaptanib are used to limit disease progression and stabilize or reverse visual loss. Laser photocoagulation may also be used to slow progression, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred due to the risk of acute visual loss after treatment.

      In summary, ARMD is a common cause of blindness in the UK that is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, and family history. It can be classified into dry and wet forms, with wet ARMD carrying a worse prognosis. Diagnosis involves the use of various imaging techniques, and treatment options include a combination of zinc and antioxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents or laser photocoagulation for wet ARMD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 18 - A 55-year-old man visits his optometrist for a check-up. He has hyperopia and...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man visits his optometrist for a check-up. He has hyperopia and his current prescription is +3/+3.25 without any astigmatism or myopia. What is the primary eye condition that this patient is susceptible to with his present eye condition?

      Your Answer: Acute angle-closure glaucoma

      Explanation:

      Hypermetropia is linked to acute angle-closure glaucoma, while myopia is associated with primary open-angle glaucoma. This is because those with hypermetropia have smaller eyes, shallower anterior chambers, and narrower angles. The connection between myopia and primary open-angle glaucoma is not as clear, but it may be due to the optic nerve head being more vulnerable to damage from increased intraocular pressure. Cataracts are commonly linked to aging and severe short-sightedness, while central retinal artery occlusion is associated with aneurysms, arterial disease, and emboli.

      Glaucoma is a condition where the optic nerve is damaged due to increased pressure in the eye. Primary open-angle glaucoma (POAG) is a type of glaucoma where the peripheral iris is clear of the trabecular meshwork, which is important in draining aqueous humour from the eye. POAG is more common in older individuals and those with a family history of the condition. It may present insidiously with symptoms such as peripheral visual field loss, decreased visual acuity, and optic disc cupping. Diagnosis is made through a series of investigations including automated perimetry, slit lamp examination, applanation tonometry, central corneal thickness measurement, and gonioscopy. It is important to assess the risk of future visual impairment based on factors such as IOP, CCT, family history, and life expectancy. Referral to an ophthalmologist is typically done through a GP.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      165.4
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 68-year-old male with dry age-related macular degeneration is evaluated. Regrettably, his vision...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old male with dry age-related macular degeneration is evaluated. Regrettably, his vision has worsened in the last six months. He has never smoked and is currently using antioxidant supplements. What would be the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Explain no other medical therapies currently available

      Explanation:

      Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by the degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. It is more prevalent in females and is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, family history, and conditions that increase the risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD can be classified into two forms: dry and wet. Dry ARMD is more common and is characterized by drusen, while wet ARMD is characterized by choroidal neovascularisation and carries a worse prognosis. Clinical features of ARMD include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual disturbances such as photopsia and glare.

      To diagnose ARMD, slit-lamp microscopy and color fundus photography are used to identify any pigmentary, exudative, or haemorrhagic changes affecting the retina. Fluorescein angiography and indocyanine green angiography may also be used to visualize changes in the choroidal circulation. Treatment for dry ARMD involves a combination of zinc with antioxidant vitamins A, C, and E, which has been shown to reduce disease progression by around one third. For wet ARMD, anti-VEGF agents such as ranibizumab, bevacizumab, and pegaptanib are used to limit disease progression and stabilize or reverse visual loss. Laser photocoagulation may also be used to slow progression, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred due to the risk of acute visual loss after treatment.

      In summary, ARMD is a common cause of blindness in the UK that is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, and family history. It can be classified into dry and wet forms, with wet ARMD carrying a worse prognosis. Diagnosis involves the use of various imaging techniques, and treatment options include a combination of zinc and antioxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents or laser photocoagulation for wet ARMD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      34.9
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  • Question 20 - A 45-year-old woman with a history of rheumatoid arthritis complains of a painful,...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman with a history of rheumatoid arthritis complains of a painful, red eye with excessive tearing and blurred vision that has been ongoing for a few days. She has a family history of glaucoma and is also nearsighted. Upon examination, you diagnose her with scleritis. What potential complication should you be concerned about?

      Your Answer: Perforation of the globe

      Explanation:

      Scleritis is a serious condition that requires urgent ophthalmology attention within 24 hours to prevent complications such as perforation of the globe. Other potential complications of scleritis include glaucoma, cataracts, raised intraocular pressure, retinal detachment, and uveitis. It is important to note that scleritis can lead to raised intraocular pressure, not decreased, and that entropion and episcleritis are not complications of this condition.

      Understanding Scleritis: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Scleritis is a condition that involves inflammation of the sclera, which is the white outer layer of the eye. This condition is typically non-infectious and can cause a red, painful eye. The most common risk factor associated with scleritis is rheumatoid arthritis, but it can also be linked to other conditions such as systemic lupus erythematosus, sarcoidosis, and granulomatosis with polyangiitis.

      Symptoms of scleritis include a red eye, which is often accompanied by pain and discomfort. Patients may also experience watering and photophobia, as well as a gradual decrease in vision.

      Treatment for scleritis typically involves the use of oral NSAIDs as a first-line treatment. In more severe cases, oral glucocorticoids may be used. For resistant cases, immunosuppressive drugs may be necessary, especially if there is an underlying associated disease. With proper treatment, most patients with scleritis can achieve relief from their symptoms and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      17.5
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  • Question 21 - A 29-year-old woman presents to an ophthalmologist with complaints of vision problems. She...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old woman presents to an ophthalmologist with complaints of vision problems. She reports experiencing blackouts in her peripheral vision and severe headaches. Upon examination, the ophthalmologist notes bitemporal hemianopia in her visual fields. Where is the likely site of the lesion in her optic pathway?

      Your Answer: Optic chiasm

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Effects of Lesions in the Visual Pathway

      The visual pathway is a complex system that allows us to perceive and interpret visual information. However, lesions in different parts of this pathway can result in various visual field defects. Here is a breakdown of the effects of lesions in different parts of the visual pathway:

      Optic Chiasm: Lesions in the optic chiasm can cause bitemporal hemianopia or tunnel vision. This is due to damage to the fibers that receive visual stimuli from the temporal visual fields.

      Optic Nerve: Lesions in the optic nerve can result in monocular blindness of the ipsilateral eye. If only one eye has a visual field defect, then the lesion cannot be further back than the optic nerve.

      Optic Tract: Lesions in the optic tract can cause homonymous hemianopia of the contralateral visual field. This means that a lesion of the left optic tract causes loss of the right visual field in both eyes.

      Lateral Geniculate Nucleus: Any lesions after the optic chiasm will result in a homonymous hemianopia.

      Primary Visual Cortex: Lesions in the primary visual cortex can also result in homonymous hemianopia, but with cortical lesions, there is usually macular sparing because of the relatively large cortical representation of the macula. Less extensive lesions are associated with scotoma and quadrantic field loss.

      Understanding the effects of lesions in the visual pathway is crucial in diagnosing and treating visual field defects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 54-year-old female with a history of rheumatoid arthritis visited her GP complaining...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old female with a history of rheumatoid arthritis visited her GP complaining of redness in her right eye. She mentioned experiencing mild discomfort and irritation with occasional watering of the eye. However, she denied any dryness or significant pain. The examination of her pupils revealed no abnormalities, and she did not experience any discomfort when exposed to light. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Episcleritis

      Explanation:

      Rheumatoid Arthritis and Its Effects on the Eyes

      Rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic autoimmune disease that affects various parts of the body, including the eyes. In fact, ocular manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis are quite common, with approximately 25% of patients experiencing eye problems. These eye problems can range from mild to severe and can significantly impact a patient’s quality of life.

      The most common ocular manifestation of rheumatoid arthritis is keratoconjunctivitis sicca, also known as dry eye syndrome. This condition occurs when the eyes do not produce enough tears, leading to discomfort, redness, and irritation. Other ocular manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis include episcleritis, scleritis, corneal ulceration, and keratitis. Episcleritis and scleritis both cause redness in the eyes, with scleritis also causing pain. Corneal ulceration and keratitis both affect the cornea, with corneal ulceration being a more severe condition that can lead to vision loss.

      In addition to these conditions, patients with rheumatoid arthritis may also experience iatrogenic ocular manifestations. These are side effects of medications used to treat the disease. For example, steroid use can lead to cataracts, while the use of chloroquine can cause retinopathy.

      Overall, it is important for patients with rheumatoid arthritis to be aware of the potential ocular manifestations of the disease and to seek prompt medical attention if they experience any eye-related symptoms. Early diagnosis and treatment can help prevent vision loss and improve overall quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 23 - A 35-year-old man has arrived at the eye emergency department following a blow...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man has arrived at the eye emergency department following a blow to the face with a baseball bat. During the examination, it was observed that there is blood in the anterior chamber of his left eye. What is the primary risk associated with the presence of blood in the anterior chamber?

      Your Answer: Glaucoma

      Explanation:

      Blunt trauma to the eye that results in hyphema can lead to increased intraocular pressure, which is a high-risk situation for the patient.

      The blockage of aqueous humour drainage caused by the presence of blood can result in glaucoma, which is a serious complication that requires close monitoring of intraocular pressure. While cataracts and ectopia lentis can be associated with blunt trauma, they are not typically associated with hyphema. Endophthalmitis, on the other hand, is usually caused by infection, post-surgery, or penetrating ocular trauma.

      Ocular Trauma and Hyphema

      Ocular trauma can lead to hyphema, which is the presence of blood in the anterior chamber of the eye. This condition requires immediate referral to an ophthalmic specialist for assessment and management. The main concern is the risk of raised intraocular pressure due to the blockage of the angle and trabecular meshwork with erythrocytes. Patients with high-risk cases are often admitted and require strict bed rest to prevent the disbursement of blood. Even isolated hyphema requires daily ophthalmic review and pressure checks initially as an outpatient.

      In addition to hyphema, an assessment should also be made for orbital compartment syndrome, which can occur secondary to retrobulbar hemorrhage. This is a true ophthalmic emergency and requires urgent management. Symptoms of orbital compartment syndrome include eye pain and swelling, proptosis, ‘rock hard’ eyelids, and a relevant afferent pupillary defect.

      To manage orbital compartment syndrome, urgent lateral canthotomy is necessary to decompress the orbit. This should be done before diagnostic imaging to prevent further damage. Proper management and prompt referral to an ophthalmic specialist can help prevent vision loss and other complications associated with ocular trauma and hyphema.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      23.6
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  • Question 24 - A 30-year-old man visits his GP with complaints of a painful and red...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old man visits his GP with complaints of a painful and red eye. He has been experiencing a gritty sensation and watery discharge in his left eye since yesterday morning. The patient usually wears contact lenses daily but has been unable to use them due to the pain.

      During fundoscopy, the GP observes a hypopyon in the left eye and no foreign body is visible. The right eye appears normal, and both pupils are round, equal, and reactive to light. The patient's visual acuity is normal when wearing glasses, but he experiences marked photophobia in the left eye.

      What is the most probable cause of these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Pseudomonas aeruginosa

      Explanation:

      The statement that herpes simplex virus is not a serious cause of keratitis is incorrect. In fact, it is the most common cause of corneal blindness and can present with a dendritic ulcer on slit-lamp examination. However, it would not typically show a hypopyon.

      Understanding Keratitis: Inflammation of the Cornea

      Keratitis is a condition that refers to the inflammation of the cornea. While conjunctivitis is a common eye infection that is not usually serious, microbial keratitis can be sight-threatening and requires urgent evaluation and treatment. The causes of keratitis can vary, with bacterial infections typically caused by Staphylococcus aureus and Pseudomonas aeruginosa commonly seen in contact lens wearers. Fungal and amoebic infections can also cause keratitis, with acanthamoebic keratitis accounting for around 5% of cases. Parasitic infections such as onchocercal keratitis can also cause inflammation of the cornea.

      Other factors that can cause keratitis include viral infections such as herpes simplex keratitis, environmental factors like photokeratitis (e.g. welder’s arc eye), and exposure keratitis. Clinical features of keratitis include a red eye with pain and erythema, photophobia, a foreign body sensation, and the presence of hypopyon. Referral is necessary for contact lens wearers who present with a painful red eye, as an accurate diagnosis can only be made with a slit-lamp examination.

      Management of keratitis involves stopping the use of contact lenses until symptoms have fully resolved, as well as the use of topical antibiotics such as quinolones. Cycloplegic agents like cyclopentolate can also be used for pain relief. Complications of keratitis can include corneal scarring, perforation, endophthalmitis, and visual loss. Understanding the causes and symptoms of keratitis is important for prompt diagnosis and treatment to prevent serious complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      41.7
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  • Question 25 - Mrs Green is a 58-year-old woman who comes to eye casualty with sudden...

    Incorrect

    • Mrs Green is a 58-year-old woman who comes to eye casualty with sudden vision loss in her left eye. She reports having observed some dark spots in her vision over the past few days. She is not in any pain and has a medical history of diet-controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension. What is the most probable cause of her visual impairment?

      Your Answer: Age-related macular degeneration

      Correct Answer: Vitreous haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      Understanding Vitreous Haemorrhage

      Vitreous haemorrhage is a condition where there is bleeding into the vitreous humour, which can cause sudden painless loss of vision. This disruption to vision can range from floaters to complete visual loss. The bleeding can come from any vessel in the retina or extend through the retina from other areas. Once the bleeding stops, the blood is typically cleared from the retina at a rate of approximately 1% per day.

      The incidence of spontaneous vitreous haemorrhage is around 7 cases per 100,000 patient-years. The incidence by age and sex varies according to the underlying causes. The most common causes, which collectively account for 90% of cases, include proliferative diabetic retinopathy, posterior vitreous detachment, and ocular trauma (which is the most common cause in children and young adults).

      Patients with vitreous haemorrhage typically present with an acute or subacute onset of painless visual loss or haze, a red hue in the vision, or floaters or shadows/dark spots in the vision. Signs of the condition include decreased visual acuity (depending on the location, size, and degree of vitreous haemorrhage) and visual field defects if the haemorrhage is severe.

      Investigations for vitreous haemorrhage include dilated fundoscopy, slit-lamp examination, ultrasound (useful to rule out retinal tear/detachment and if haemorrhage obscures the retina), fluorescein angiography (to identify neovascularization), and orbital CT (used if open globe injury is suspected).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 26 - An older woman presents with an intermittent frontal headache associated with pain around...

    Correct

    • An older woman presents with an intermittent frontal headache associated with pain around her right eye which looks slightly red. She describes episodes occurring while she watches television in the evening, during which she sees halos around lights in the room. On examination, there is no tenderness around her temporal artery and her eye appears normal. She has normal visual acuity.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Closed angle glaucoma

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Painful Red Eye with Headache and Visual Symptoms

      When a patient presents with a painful red eye, headache, and visual symptoms, several conditions should be considered. One possible diagnosis is primary closed angle glaucoma, which can present as latent, subacute, or acute. Subacute closed angle glaucoma causes intermittent attacks with blurring of vision and halos around light sources, while acute glaucoma is more severe and requires urgent reduction in intraocular pressure. Another possible diagnosis is anterior uveitis, which presents with a persistent painful red eye and photophobia but does not cause headaches or halos in the vision.

      Migraine is also an important differential, as its symptoms can be mistaken for acute glaucoma. Tension headaches are less likely, as they are not associated with visual symptoms. Finally, giant cell arthritis should be considered, especially if the patient has symptoms of claudication such as temporal headache and jaw pain when chewing food, as well as scalp tenderness and pulseless beaded temporal arteries on examination.

      In summary, a painful red eye with headache and visual symptoms can have several possible causes, and a thorough differential diagnosis is necessary to determine the appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      58.5
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  • Question 27 - A 30-year-old female patient visits her GP complaining of a severe throbbing headache...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old female patient visits her GP complaining of a severe throbbing headache that is most intense in the morning. Despite taking paracetamol, the symptoms have persisted for several weeks. She also experiences vomiting in the mornings and has noticed blurry vision. Upon examination, her pupils are equal and reactive, and there are no abnormalities in her systemic examination. What would you anticipate observing during fundoscopy?

      Your Answer: Blurring of optic disc margin

      Explanation:

      Papilloedema is characterized by a blurry appearance of the optic disc margin during fundoscopy.

      The patient in question is experiencing elevated intracranial pressure, the cause of which is uncertain. Their symptoms, including a morning headache, vision impairment, and vomiting, are indicative of papilloedema. As such, it is expected that their fundoscopy would reveal signs of this condition, such as a blurred optic disc margin.

      Other potential indicators of papilloedema include a loss of optic cup and venous pulsation. However, increased arterial reflex is more commonly associated with hypertensive retinopathy, while retinal pigmentation is a hallmark of retinitis pigmentosa.

      Understanding Papilloedema: Optic Disc Swelling Caused by Increased Intracranial Pressure

      Papilloedema is a condition characterized by swelling of the optic disc due to increased pressure within the skull. This condition is typically bilateral and can be identified through fundoscopy. During this examination, venous engorgement is usually the first sign observed, followed by loss of venous pulsation, blurring of the optic disc margin, elevation of the optic disc, loss of the optic cup, and the presence of Paton’s lines, which are concentric or radial retinal lines cascading from the optic disc.

      There are several potential causes of papilloedema, including space-occupying lesions such as tumors or vascular abnormalities, malignant hypertension, idiopathic intracranial hypertension, hydrocephalus, and hypercapnia. In rare cases, papilloedema may also be caused by hypoparathyroidism and hypocalcaemia, or vitamin A toxicity.

      Overall, understanding papilloedema is important for identifying potential underlying conditions and providing appropriate treatment to prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 28 - A 10-year-old boy with Down syndrome visits his General Practitioner, accompanied by his...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy with Down syndrome visits his General Practitioner, accompanied by his father. He has been experiencing blurred vision for the past few months, along with headaches and eye fatigue. The blurred vision is more noticeable when looking at distant objects but can also be a problem when looking at closer objects.
      What is the most suitable initial investigation to perform?

      Your Answer: Anterior segment optical coherence tomography

      Correct Answer: Retinoscopy

      Explanation:

      Investigating Astigmatism: Different Techniques and Their Uses

      When a young girl with Down syndrome presents with symptoms of blurred vision and eye strain, the first investigation that should be done is retinoscopy. This simple procedure can determine refractive errors such as astigmatism, which is a risk factor in this case. Any irregularities in the width of the retinal reflex can indicate astigmatism.

      Other techniques that can be used to investigate astigmatism include anterior segment optical coherence tomography, corneal topography, keratometry, and wavefront analysis technology. Anterior segment optical coherence tomography produces images of the cornea using optical light reflection and is useful for astigmatism caused by eye surgery. Corneal topography uses software to gather data about the dimensions of the cornea to develop colored maps that can display the axes of the cornea. Keratometry may be used to assess astigmatism, but it is less useful in cases of irregular astigmatism or when the corneal powers are too small or too big. Wavefront analysis technology is an emerging technology that can graphically present astigmatism on a map, but it is not widely used at present.

      In conclusion, the choice of investigation for astigmatism depends on the individual case and the specific needs of the patient. Retinoscopy is usually the first-line investigation, but other techniques may be used depending on the circumstances.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      41
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  • Question 29 - A 56-year-old male visits his general practitioner complaining of a painless red left...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old male visits his general practitioner complaining of a painless red left eye accompanied by tearing for the past three days. He reports no changes in his vision. The patient has a medical history of rheumatoid arthritis. Upon examination, the doctor notes a red left eye but finds nothing else unusual. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Anterior uveitis

      Correct Answer: Episcleritis

      Explanation:

      Episcleritis is the likely diagnosis for this patient’s painless red left eye of acute onset, which is associated with lacrimation. The absence of pain, visual impairment, or significant examination findings distinguishes it from scleritis. Episcleritis is an inflammation of the episclera that typically resolves within 2-3 weeks.

      Anterior uveitis is not the correct diagnosis as it presents with an acutely painful red eye associated with photophobia and reduced visual acuity, and requires urgent referral to ophthalmology.

      Bacterial conjunctivitis is also unlikely as it is characterized by a sore, red-eye with a purulent discharge, which is not present in this case.

      Scleritis is not the correct diagnosis as it presents with a subacute onset of red-eye associated with pain that is exacerbated by eye movement, and may also have scleral thinning.

      Understanding Scleritis: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Scleritis is a condition that involves inflammation of the sclera, which is the white outer layer of the eye. This condition is typically non-infectious and can cause a red, painful eye. The most common risk factor associated with scleritis is rheumatoid arthritis, but it can also be linked to other conditions such as systemic lupus erythematosus, sarcoidosis, and granulomatosis with polyangiitis.

      Symptoms of scleritis include a red eye, which is often accompanied by pain and discomfort. Patients may also experience watering and photophobia, as well as a gradual decrease in vision.

      Treatment for scleritis typically involves the use of oral NSAIDs as a first-line treatment. In more severe cases, oral glucocorticoids may be used. For resistant cases, immunosuppressive drugs may be necessary, especially if there is an underlying associated disease. With proper treatment, most patients with scleritis can achieve relief from their symptoms and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      33.2
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  • Question 30 - A 24-year-old woman is attending her first appointment with her GP. She reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old woman is attending her first appointment with her GP. She reports feeling healthy and has no current health concerns. However, when asked about her family medical history, she mentions that her mother and grandfather have both been diagnosed with glaucoma.

      As her GP, what advice would you give her regarding glaucoma?

      Your Answer: He should have an annual screening commencing now

      Correct Answer: He should get annual screening from age 40 years

      Explanation:

      Individuals who have a positive family history of glaucoma are recommended to undergo annual screening from the age of 40. This is because glaucoma has a strong genetic component, and having a first-degree relative with the condition increases one’s risk. The NHS offers free examinations for those who meet this criteria. It is important to note that glaucoma often has no symptoms in its early stages, making regular screening crucial in detecting and treating the condition before it causes significant visual impairment. Opticians can typically perform these screenings.

      Glaucoma is a condition where the optic nerve is damaged due to increased pressure in the eye. Primary open-angle glaucoma (POAG) is a type of glaucoma where the peripheral iris is clear of the trabecular meshwork, which is important in draining aqueous humour from the eye. POAG is more common in older individuals and those with a family history of the condition. It may present insidiously with symptoms such as peripheral visual field loss, decreased visual acuity, and optic disc cupping. Diagnosis is made through a series of investigations including automated perimetry, slit lamp examination, applanation tonometry, central corneal thickness measurement, and gonioscopy. It is important to assess the risk of future visual impairment based on factors such as IOP, CCT, family history, and life expectancy. Referral to an ophthalmologist is typically done through a GP.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      20.6
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Ophthalmology (24/30) 80%
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