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  • Question 1 - A 7-month-old infant is presented to the surgical clinic due to undescended testicles....

    Correct

    • A 7-month-old infant is presented to the surgical clinic due to undescended testicles. What is the primary structure that determines the descent route of the testis?

      Your Answer: Gubernaculum

      Explanation:

      The gubernaculum is a strip of mesenchymal tissue that links the testis to the lower part of the scrotum. In the initial stages of embryonic development, the gubernaculum is lengthy and the testis are situated on the back abdominal wall. As the fetus grows, the body expands in proportion to the gubernaculum, causing the testis to descend.

      The Development of Testicles in Foetal Life

      During foetal life, the testicles are situated within the abdominal cavity. They are initially found on the posterior abdominal wall, at the same level as the upper lumbar vertebrae. The gubernaculum testis, which is attached to the inferior aspect of the testis, extends downwards to the inguinal region and through the canal to the superficial skin. Both the testis and the gubernaculum are located outside the peritoneum.

      As the foetus grows, the gubernaculum becomes progressively shorter. It carries the peritoneum of the anterior abdominal wall, known as the processus vaginalis. The testis is guided by the gubernaculum down the posterior abdominal wall and the back of the processus vaginalis into the scrotum. By the third month of foetal life, the testes are located in the iliac fossae, and by the seventh month, they lie at the level of the deep inguinal ring.

      After birth, the processus vaginalis usually closes, but it may persist and become the site of indirect hernias. Partial closure may also lead to the development of cysts on the cord.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 2 - Which of the following breast tumors is most commonly linked to the risk...

    Correct

    • Which of the following breast tumors is most commonly linked to the risk of spreading to the opposite breast?

      Your Answer: Invasive lobular carcinoma

      Explanation:

      A classic characteristic of invasive lobular carcinoma is the possibility of metastasis to the opposite breast.

      Understanding Lobular Carcinoma of the Breast

      Lobular carcinoma of the breast is a less common type of breast cancer that presents differently from ductal carcinoma. The mass is usually more diffuse and less obvious on imaging tests like ultrasound and mammography, which can result in inadequate treatment if the disease is understaged. For women with invasive lobular carcinoma, an MRI scan of the breast is usually recommended before breast conserving surgery is performed to ensure the safest approach.

      Lobular carcinomas are also more likely to be multifocal and metastasize to the opposite breast. In some cases, lobular carcinoma in situ may be diagnosed incidentally on core biopsies. Unlike ductal carcinoma in situ, lobular carcinoma in situ is less strongly associated with foci of invasion and is usually managed through close monitoring. Understanding the differences between lobular and ductal carcinoma can help healthcare professionals provide the best possible care for patients with breast cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 3 - A 32-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of headaches and abdominal...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of headaches and abdominal pain for the past few weeks. She reports experiencing blurry vision over the last week. During the examination, the physician observes a slight yellow tint to the patient's sclera and an elevated blood pressure of 170/106 mmHg. The urine dip reveals proteinuria. Based on these symptoms, what is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: HELLP syndrome

      Explanation:

      The patient is exhibiting symptoms that are indicative of pre-eclampsia, such as headache, abdominal pain, and blurred vision. However, the presence of jaundice suggests that the patient is actually suffering from HELLP syndrome, which is a complication during pregnancy that involves haemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets. This condition often occurs in conjunction with pregnancy-induced hypertension or pre-eclampsia.

      Pre-eclampsia is a pregnancy-related disorder that is characterized by high blood pressure and damage to another organ system, typically the kidneys, which is evidenced by proteinuria. This condition typically develops after the 20th week of pregnancy in women who previously had normal blood pressure.

      Jaundice During Pregnancy

      During pregnancy, jaundice can occur due to various reasons. One of the most common liver diseases during pregnancy is intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, which affects around 1% of pregnancies and is usually seen in the third trimester. Symptoms include itching, especially in the palms and soles, and raised bilirubin levels. Ursodeoxycholic acid is used for symptomatic relief, and women are typically induced at 37 weeks. However, this condition can increase the risk of stillbirth.

      Acute fatty liver of pregnancy is a rare complication that can occur in the third trimester or immediately after delivery. Symptoms include abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, headache, jaundice, and hypoglycemia. ALT levels are typically elevated. Supportive care is the initial management, and delivery is the definitive management once the patient is stabilized.

      Gilbert’s and Dubin-Johnson syndrome may also be exacerbated during pregnancy. Additionally, HELLP syndrome, which stands for Haemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, Low Platelets, can also cause jaundice during pregnancy. It is important to monitor liver function tests and seek medical attention if any symptoms of jaundice occur during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 4 - The emergency buzzer is activated for a 32-year-old woman in labour. Despite gentle...

    Correct

    • The emergency buzzer is activated for a 32-year-old woman in labour. Despite gentle traction, the midwife is unable to deliver the foetal shoulders after the head is delivered during a vaginal cephalic delivery. What is the most probable risk factor for this labour complication?

      Your Answer: Foetal macrosomia

      Explanation:

      Shoulder dystocia is the labour complication discussed in this case, and it is more likely to occur in cases of foetal macrosomia. This is because larger babies have a greater shoulder diameter, making it more difficult for the shoulders to pass through the pelvic outlet.

      Maternal pre-eclampsia is a risk factor for small for gestational age (SGA) pregnancies, but it is not directly linked to shoulder dystocia.

      Obstetric cholestasis is a liver disorder that can occur during pregnancy, but it does not increase the risk of shoulder dystocia.

      While a previous caesarean section may increase the likelihood of placenta praevia, placenta accreta, or uterine rupture, it is not a direct risk factor for shoulder dystocia.

      A previous post-term delivery may increase the likelihood of future post-term deliveries, but it does not directly increase the risk of shoulder dystocia.

      Shoulder dystocia is a complication that can occur during vaginal delivery when the body of the fetus cannot be delivered after the head has already been delivered. This is usually due to the anterior shoulder of the fetus becoming stuck on the mother’s pubic bone. Shoulder dystocia can cause harm to both the mother and the baby.

      There are several risk factors that increase the likelihood of shoulder dystocia, including fetal macrosomia (large baby), high maternal body mass index, diabetes mellitus, and prolonged labor.

      If shoulder dystocia is identified, it is important to call for senior medical assistance immediately. The McRoberts’ maneuver is often used to help deliver the baby. This involves flexing and abducting the mother’s hips to increase the angle of the pelvis and facilitate delivery. An episiotomy may be performed to provide better access for internal maneuvers, but it will not relieve the bony obstruction. Symphysiotomy and the Zavanelli maneuver are not recommended as they can cause significant harm to the mother. Oxytocin administration is not effective in treating shoulder dystocia.

      Complications of shoulder dystocia can include postpartum hemorrhage and perineal tears for the mother, and brachial plexus injury or neonatal death for the baby. It is important to manage shoulder dystocia promptly and effectively to minimize these risks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 5 - At what age should a girl be investigated if her mother is concerned...

    Correct

    • At what age should a girl be investigated if her mother is concerned about her not starting her menstrual cycle and demands tests to determine the cause?

      Your Answer: 13 with no budding breasts or pubic hair development

      Explanation:

      Primary amenorrhoea is when a girl has not started menstruating by the age of 15, despite having normal secondary sexual characteristics, or by the age of 13 with no secondary sexual characteristics such as breast development or pubic hair growth. If a girl has not developed any secondary sexual characteristics by the age of 13, this could indicate primary amenorrhoea and should be investigated further with blood tests to rule out any hormonal issues such as Turner’s syndrome. However, if a girl is 8 years old and has not yet developed any secondary sexual characteristics, this is not a concern for primary amenorrhoea but may indicate precocious puberty, which requires treatment. On the other hand, if a 10-year-old girl has not yet developed any secondary sexual characteristics, this is a normal presentation and does not require investigation. Finally, if a 12-year-old girl has normal breast and pubic hair growth, she would need to have three more years of amenorrhoea before it is considered pathological.

      Understanding Amenorrhoea: Causes, Investigations, and Management

      Amenorrhoea is a condition characterized by the absence of menstrual periods. It can be classified into two types: primary and secondary. Primary amenorrhoea occurs when menstruation fails to start by the age of 15 in girls with normal secondary sexual characteristics or by the age of 13 in girls with no secondary sexual characteristics. On the other hand, secondary amenorrhoea is the cessation of menstruation for 3-6 months in women with previously normal and regular menses or 6-12 months in women with previous oligomenorrhoea.

      The causes of amenorrhoea vary depending on the type. Primary amenorrhoea may be caused by gonadal dysgenesis, testicular feminization, congenital malformations of the genital tract, functional hypothalamic amenorrhoea, congenital adrenal hyperplasia, imperforate hymen, hypothalamic amenorrhoea, polycystic ovarian syndrome, hyperprolactinemia, premature ovarian failure, and thyrotoxicosis. Meanwhile, secondary amenorrhoea may be caused by stress, excessive exercise, PCOS, Sheehan’s syndrome, Asherman’s syndrome, and other underlying medical conditions.

      To diagnose amenorrhoea, initial investigations may include pregnancy tests, full blood count, urea & electrolytes, coeliac screen, thyroid function tests, gonadotrophins, prolactin, and androgen levels. Management of amenorrhoea involves treating the underlying cause. For primary amenorrhoea, it is important to investigate and treat any underlying cause. For secondary amenorrhoea, it is important to exclude pregnancy, lactation, and menopause and treat the underlying cause accordingly. Women with primary ovarian insufficiency due to gonadal dysgenesis may benefit from hormone replacement therapy to prevent osteoporosis and other complications.

      In conclusion, amenorrhoea is a condition that requires proper diagnosis and management. Understanding the causes and appropriate investigations can help in providing the necessary treatment and care for women experiencing this condition.

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      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 6 - A pregnant woman in her mid-thirties complains of chronic pelvic pain, dyspareunia, dysuria,...

    Correct

    • A pregnant woman in her mid-thirties complains of chronic pelvic pain, dyspareunia, dysuria, and foul-smelling green vaginal discharge. Additionally, she experiences pain in the upper right quadrant. What could be the probable reason for this upper right quadrant pain?

      Your Answer: Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome

      Explanation:

      Upper right quadrant pain can be caused by various conditions, but in this case, the woman is suffering from pelvic inflammatory disease, which is often associated with Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome (adhesions of liver to peritoneum).

      It is important to note that cholecystitis, pulmonary embolisms, pleurisy, and viral hepatitis do not typically present with symptoms such as dyspareunia, dysuria, or vaginal discharge.

      Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a condition where the female pelvic organs, including the uterus, fallopian tubes, ovaries, and surrounding peritoneum, become infected and inflamed. It is typically caused by an infection that spreads from the endocervix. The most common causative organism is Chlamydia trachomatis, followed by Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Mycoplasma genitalium, and Mycoplasma hominis. Symptoms of PID include lower abdominal pain, fever, dyspareunia, dysuria, menstrual irregularities, vaginal or cervical discharge, and cervical excitation.

      To diagnose PID, a pregnancy test should be done to rule out an ectopic pregnancy, and a high vaginal swab should be taken to screen for Chlamydia and gonorrhoeae. However, these tests may often be negative, so consensus guidelines recommend having a low threshold for treatment due to the potential complications of untreated PID. Management typically involves oral ofloxacin and oral metronidazole or intramuscular ceftriaxone, oral doxycycline, and oral metronidazole. In mild cases of PID, intrauterine contraceptive devices may be left in, but the evidence is limited, and removal of the IUD may be associated with better short-term clinical outcomes according to recent guidelines.

      Complications of PID include perihepatitis (Fitz-Hugh Curtis Syndrome), which occurs in around 10% of cases and is characterized by right upper quadrant pain that may be confused with cholecystitis, infertility (with a risk as high as 10-20% after a single episode), chronic pelvic pain, and ectopic pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 7 - A 25-year-old G1P0 woman, who missed all previous antenatal appointments, presents to the...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old G1P0 woman, who missed all previous antenatal appointments, presents to the obstetrics clinic at 34 weeks' gestation for her first antenatal visit. The mother has no significant medical history and is in good health. She is up to date with all her immunisations.

      During the examination, the symphyseal-fundal height measures 30cm. An ultrasound scan is conducted, which reveals that the fetus has an abdominal circumference below the 3rd percentile for age, femur length below the 3rd percentile, and head circumference along the 90th percentile. The estimated weight of the baby is below the 10th percentile.

      What is the most probable cause of the abnormality observed in this fetus?

      Your Answer: Maternal smoking

      Explanation:

      Smoking while pregnant has been linked to the birth of a Small for Gestational Age baby. This is indicated by the baby’s birth weight being below the 10th percentile and fetal measurements suggesting asymmetrical intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR), with the head circumference being significantly higher than the abdominal circumference and femur length. Maternal smoking is a possible cause of the baby’s small size, as it has been associated with reduced birth weight and asymmetrical IUGR. Multiple gestation is a known risk factor for fetal growth restriction, but singleton gestation is not. Maternal rubella infection and advanced maternal age may also cause small for gestational age babies, but these are less likely causes in this case as the mother’s immunisations are up to date and she is only 23 years old.

      Small for Gestational Age (SGA) is a statistical definition used to describe babies who are smaller than expected for their gestational age. Although there is no universally agreed percentile, the 10th percentile is often used, meaning that 10% of normal babies will be below this threshold. SGA can be determined either antenatally or postnatally. There are two types of SGA: symmetrical and asymmetrical. Symmetrical SGA occurs when the fetal head circumference and abdominal circumference are equally small, while asymmetrical SGA occurs when the abdominal circumference slows relative to the increase in head circumference.

      There are various causes of SGA, including incorrect dating, constitutionally small (normal) babies, and abnormal fetuses. Symmetrical SGA is more common and can be caused by idiopathic factors, race, sex, placental insufficiency, pre-eclampsia, chromosomal and congenital abnormalities, toxins such as smoking and heroin, and infections such as CMV, parvovirus, rubella, syphilis, and toxoplasmosis. Asymmetrical SGA is less common and can be caused by toxins such as alcohol, cigarettes, and heroin, chromosomal and congenital abnormalities, and infections.

      The management of SGA depends on the type and cause. For symmetrical SGA, most cases represent the lower limits of the normal range and require fortnightly ultrasound growth assessments to demonstrate normal growth rates. Pathological causes should be ruled out by checking maternal blood for infections and searching the fetus carefully with ultrasound for markers of chromosomal abnormality. Asymmetrical SGA also requires fortnightly ultrasound growth assessments, as well as biophysical profiles and Doppler waveforms from umbilical circulation to look for absent end-diastolic flow. If results are sub-optimal, delivery may be considered.

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      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 8 - A 16-year-old girl arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of dizziness and pain...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old girl arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of dizziness and pain in her right iliac fossa. She had taken a home pregnancy test the day before, which came back positive. After a diagnosis of ectopic pregnancy, the patient's condition worsens, and she undergoes an emergency salpingectomy. What is the most common site of fertilization in the excised structure?

      Your Answer: Ampulla

      Explanation:

      Fertilisation typically takes place in the ampulla of the fallopian tube. Salpingectomy involves removing the fallopian tube and is often performed in cases of a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. It is rare for fertilisation to occur in the uterus, which is not removed during salpingectomy. The infundibulum, located closest to the ovary, is the third most common site of fertilisation, while the isthmus, the narrowest part of the fallopian tube, is the second most common site. The myometrium refers to the muscular wall of the uterus.

      Anatomy of the Uterus

      The uterus is a female reproductive organ that is located within the pelvis and is covered by the peritoneum. It is supplied with blood by the uterine artery, which runs alongside the uterus and anastomoses with the ovarian artery. The uterus is supported by various ligaments, including the central perineal tendon, lateral cervical, round, and uterosacral ligaments. The ureter is located close to the uterus, and injuries to the ureter can occur when there is pathology in the area.

      The uterus is typically anteverted and anteflexed in most women. Its topography can be visualized through imaging techniques such as ultrasound or MRI. Understanding the anatomy of the uterus is important for diagnosing and treating various gynecological conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 9 - A 35-year-old woman visits her doctor suspecting that she might be pregnant as...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman visits her doctor suspecting that she might be pregnant as she has missed her last two menstrual cycles. What hormone is expected to be present in the highest amount if her suspicion is true?

      Your Answer: Human Chorionic Gonadotropin

      Explanation:

      It is important to be aware of the role that hormones play during pregnancy.

      Endocrine Changes During Pregnancy

      During pregnancy, there are several physiological changes that occur in the body, including endocrine changes. Progesterone, which is produced by the fallopian tubes during the first two weeks of pregnancy, stimulates the secretion of nutrients required by the zygote/blastocyst. At six weeks, the placenta takes over the production of progesterone, which inhibits uterine contractions by decreasing sensitivity to oxytocin and inhibiting the production of prostaglandins. Progesterone also stimulates the development of lobules and alveoli.

      Oestrogen, specifically oestriol, is another major hormone produced during pregnancy. It stimulates the growth of the myometrium and the ductal system of the breasts. Prolactin, which increases during pregnancy, initiates and maintains milk secretion of the mammary gland. It is essential for the expression of the mammotropic effects of oestrogen and progesterone. However, oestrogen and progesterone directly antagonize the stimulating effects of prolactin on milk synthesis.

      Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is secreted by the syncitiotrophoblast and can be detected within nine days of pregnancy. It mimics LH, rescuing the corpus luteum from degenerating and ensuring early oestrogen and progesterone secretion. It also stimulates the production of relaxin and may inhibit contractions induced by oxytocin. Other hormones produced during pregnancy include relaxin, which suppresses myometrial contractions and relaxes the pelvic ligaments and pubic symphysis, and human placental lactogen (hPL), which has lactogenic actions and enhances protein metabolism while antagonizing insulin.

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      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 10 - A 29-year-old primigravida with a pre-pregnancy BMI of 33 kg/m² is diagnosed with...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old primigravida with a pre-pregnancy BMI of 33 kg/m² is diagnosed with gestational diabetes and fetal macrosomia is estimated on ultrasound scans. Her blood pressure measures 128/70 mmHg. What is the most significant obstetric emergency she is susceptible to?

      Your Answer: Shoulder dystocia

      Explanation:

      Shoulder dystocia, a complication of obstructed labor, is more likely to occur in cases of gestational diabetes and macrosomia. This is because a larger fetal shoulder can obstruct the maternal pubic symphysis. Low birth weight babies are at a higher risk of umbilical cord prolapse, while uterine rupture is typically associated with previous Caesarean section or myomectomy. Although disseminated intravascular coagulation and amniotic fluid embolism are serious obstetric emergencies, there is no indication in the patient’s history of an increased risk for these conditions.

      Shoulder dystocia is a complication that can occur during vaginal delivery when the body of the fetus cannot be delivered after the head has already been delivered. This is usually due to the anterior shoulder of the fetus becoming stuck on the mother’s pubic bone. Shoulder dystocia can cause harm to both the mother and the baby.

      There are several risk factors that increase the likelihood of shoulder dystocia, including fetal macrosomia (large baby), high maternal body mass index, diabetes mellitus, and prolonged labor.

      If shoulder dystocia is identified, it is important to call for senior medical assistance immediately. The McRoberts’ maneuver is often used to help deliver the baby. This involves flexing and abducting the mother’s hips to increase the angle of the pelvis and facilitate delivery. An episiotomy may be performed to provide better access for internal maneuvers, but it will not relieve the bony obstruction. Symphysiotomy and the Zavanelli maneuver are not recommended as they can cause significant harm to the mother. Oxytocin administration is not effective in treating shoulder dystocia.

      Complications of shoulder dystocia can include postpartum hemorrhage and perineal tears for the mother, and brachial plexus injury or neonatal death for the baby. It is important to manage shoulder dystocia promptly and effectively to minimize these risks.

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      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 11 - A 26-year-old female arrives at the emergency department complaining of intense pelvic pain...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old female arrives at the emergency department complaining of intense pelvic pain on the left side and absence of menstruation. During the physical examination, the doctor discovers tenderness in the pelvic area. A pregnancy test confirms a positive result, and a transvaginal ultrasound is conducted, revealing a tubal ectopic pregnancy with a fetal heartbeat. As a result, a laparoscopic salpingectomy is carried out.

      In which anatomical structure is this condition most likely located?

      Your Answer: Broad ligament

      Explanation:

      The Broad ligament is where the Fallopian tubes are located. If a tubal ectopic pregnancy is detected with a fetal heartbeat, the recommended treatment is a laparoscopic salpingectomy. This surgical procedure involves removing the affected Fallopian tube by accessing it within the Broad ligament. However, if there are other risk factors for infertility, a laparoscopic salpingotomy may be performed instead.

      On the other hand, the Cardinal ligament contains the uterine vessels and is not involved in ectopic pregnancy. It may be operated on in cases of uterine fibroids through a laparoscopic myomectomy.

      The Ovarian ligament attaches the ovaries to the uterus but does not contain any structures. Meanwhile, the Round ligament attaches the uterine fundus to the labia majora but also does not contain any structures.

      Pelvic Ligaments and their Connections

      Pelvic ligaments are structures that connect various organs within the female reproductive system to the pelvic wall. These ligaments play a crucial role in maintaining the position and stability of these organs. There are several types of pelvic ligaments, each with its own unique function and connection.

      The broad ligament connects the uterus, fallopian tubes, and ovaries to the pelvic wall, specifically the ovaries. The round ligament connects the uterine fundus to the labia majora, but does not connect to any other structures. The cardinal ligament connects the cervix to the lateral pelvic wall and is responsible for supporting the uterine vessels. The suspensory ligament of the ovaries connects the ovaries to the lateral pelvic wall and supports the ovarian vessels. The ovarian ligament connects the ovaries to the uterus, but does not connect to any other structures. Finally, the uterosacral ligament connects the cervix and posterior vaginal dome to the sacrum, but does not connect to any other structures.

      Overall, pelvic ligaments are essential for maintaining the proper position and function of the female reproductive organs. Understanding the connections between these ligaments and the structures they support is crucial for diagnosing and treating any issues that may arise.

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      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 12 - A 32-year-old woman presents for a routine antenatal check-up at 28 weeks gestation....

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman presents for a routine antenatal check-up at 28 weeks gestation. She complains of feeling breathless, and her vital signs reveal a heart rate of 92bpm, blood pressure of 118/78 mmHg, temperature of 36.7ºC, respiratory rate of 18/min, and oxygen saturation of 98%. To rule out any respiratory issues, an arterial blood gas is performed, which indicates respiratory alkalosis. What physiological change during pregnancy could have caused this?

      Your Answer: Increase in tidal volume and increase in pulmonary ventilation

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is an increase in tidal volume and pulmonary ventilation. Pregnancy leads to an increase in tidal volume without any change in respiratory rate, resulting in an overall increase in pulmonary ventilation. This can cause respiratory alkalosis due to the loss of carbon dioxide.

      Incorrect options include a decrease in tidal volume and an increase in pulmonary ventilation, which is not observed during pregnancy. Similarly, an increase in tidal volume and a decrease in pulmonary ventilation, or no change in either tidal volume or pulmonary ventilation, are also not accurate descriptions of respiratory changes during pregnancy.

      During pregnancy, a woman’s body undergoes various physiological changes. The cardiovascular system experiences an increase in stroke volume, heart rate, and cardiac output, while systolic blood pressure remains unchanged and diastolic blood pressure decreases in the first and second trimesters before returning to normal levels by term. The enlarged uterus may cause issues with venous return, leading to ankle swelling, supine hypotension, and varicose veins.

      The respiratory system sees an increase in pulmonary ventilation and tidal volume, with oxygen requirements only increasing by 20%. This can lead to a sense of dyspnea due to over-breathing and a fall in pCO2. The basal metabolic rate also increases, potentially due to increased thyroxine and adrenocortical hormones.

      Maternal blood volume increases by 30%, with red blood cells increasing by 20% and plasma increasing by 50%, leading to a decrease in hemoglobin levels. Coagulant activity increases slightly, while fibrinolytic activity decreases. Platelet count falls, and white blood cell count and erythrocyte sedimentation rate rise.

      The urinary system experiences an increase in blood flow and glomerular filtration rate, with elevated sex steroid levels leading to increased salt and water reabsorption and urinary protein losses. Trace glycosuria may also occur.

      Calcium requirements increase during pregnancy, with gut absorption increasing substantially due to increased 1,25 dihydroxy vitamin D. Serum levels of calcium and phosphate may fall, but ionized calcium levels remain stable. The liver experiences an increase in alkaline phosphatase and a decrease in albumin levels.

      The uterus undergoes significant changes, increasing in weight from 100g to 1100g and transitioning from hyperplasia to hypertrophy. Cervical ectropion and discharge may increase, and Braxton-Hicks contractions may occur in late pregnancy. Retroversion may lead to retention in the first trimester but usually self-corrects.

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  • Question 13 - A healthy 35-year-old woman presents for her first antenatal visit at 12 weeks...

    Incorrect

    • A healthy 35-year-old woman presents for her first antenatal visit at 12 weeks of gestation. She is a non-smoker, non-drinker, and does not use illicit drugs. Her blood pressure is 112/68 mmHg and pulse is 68/min. During bimanual examination, a 14-week-sized non-tender uterus is noted with no adnexal masses or tenderness. An ultrasound reveals the presence of twins, which comes as a surprise to the patient. Due to a family history of a rare genetic disease, she opts for chorionic villus sampling to screen the twins. The results show karyotypes XX and XX, respectively, with no genetic disease detected.

      What is the most likely outcome if the oocyte divided on day 6 following fertilization?

      Your Answer: One chorion, one amnion, and monozygotic twins

      Correct Answer: One chorion, two amnions, and monozygotic twins

      Explanation:

      Monozygotic twins with one chorion and two amnions are the result of division between days 4 and 8 after fertilization. This type of twinning has diamniotic, monochorionic placentation. Division between days 8 and 12 after fertilization leads to monozygotic twins with monoamniotic, monochorionic placentation, while fertilization of two separate eggs with two separate sperm results in dizygotic twins with diamniotic, dichorionic placentation. It’s important to note that division between days 4 and 8 after fertilization does not result in dizygotic twins.

      Twin Pregnancies: Incidence, Types, and Complications

      Twin pregnancies occur in approximately 1 out of 105 pregnancies, with the majority being dizygotic or non-identical twins. Monozygotic or identical twins, on the other hand, develop from a single ovum that has divided to form two embryos. However, monoamniotic monozygotic twins are associated with increased risks of spontaneous miscarriage, perinatal mortality rate, malformations, intrauterine growth restriction, prematurity, and twin-to-twin transfusions. The incidence of dizygotic twins is increasing due to infertility treatment, and predisposing factors include previous twins, family history, increasing maternal age, multigravida, induced ovulation, in-vitro fertilisation, and race, particularly Afro-Caribbean.

      Antenatal complications of twin pregnancies include polyhydramnios, pregnancy-induced hypertension, anaemia, and antepartum haemorrhage. Fetal complications include perinatal mortality, prematurity, light-for-date babies, and malformations, especially in monozygotic twins. Labour complications may also arise, such as postpartum haemorrhage, malpresentation, cord prolapse, and entanglement.

      Management of twin pregnancies involves rest, ultrasound for diagnosis and monthly checks, additional iron and folate, more antenatal care, and precautions during labour, such as having two obstetricians present. Most twins deliver by 38 weeks, and if longer, most are induced at 38-40 weeks. Overall, twin pregnancies require close monitoring and management to ensure the best possible outcomes for both mother and babies.

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  • Question 14 - A 55-year-old woman is undergoing examination for unexplained weight loss and suspicious cysts...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman is undergoing examination for unexplained weight loss and suspicious cysts on both ovaries. During a biopsy of one of the cysts, the following report is obtained:

      Report: Solid mass. Abnormal accumulation of ciliated cells. Presence of psammoma bodies.

      What type of ovarian tumor is likely present in this patient?

      Your Answer: Serous cystadenoma

      Correct Answer: Serous cystadenocarcinoma

      Explanation:

      Psammoma bodies, which are collections of calcium, are present in the biopsy findings of a serous cystadenocarcinoma. This type of tumor is characterized by the presence of Walthard cell rests with ‘coffee bean’ nuclei, and would not be lined with mucous-secreting or ciliated cells. The patient’s weight loss is also indicative of a malignant cause.

      Types of Ovarian Tumours

      There are four main types of ovarian tumours, including surface derived tumours, germ cell tumours, sex cord-stromal tumours, and metastasis. Surface derived tumours are the most common, accounting for around 65% of ovarian tumours, and include the greatest number of malignant tumours. These tumours can be either benign or malignant and include serous cystadenoma, serous cystadenocarcinoma, mucinous cystadenoma, mucinous cystadenocarcinoma, and Brenner tumour. Germ cell tumours are more common in adolescent girls and account for 15-20% of tumours. These tumours are similar to cancer types seen in the testicle and can be either benign or malignant. Examples include teratoma, dysgerminoma, yolk sac tumour, and choriocarcinoma. Sex cord-stromal tumours represent around 3-5% of ovarian tumours and often produce hormones. Examples include granulosa cell tumour, Sertoli-Leydig cell tumour, and fibroma. Metastatic tumours account for around 5% of tumours and include Krukenberg tumour, which is a mucin-secreting signet-ring cell adenocarcinoma resulting from metastases from a gastrointestinal tumour.

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  • Question 15 - A gravida 3, para 0 (G3P0) woman at 8 weeks gestation presents to...

    Correct

    • A gravida 3, para 0 (G3P0) woman at 8 weeks gestation presents to the clinic with a 2-week history of vomiting. She reports that she has been unable to keep anything down for the last 4 days and now feels extremely tired. She also reports 8 kg of weight loss since the start of her pregnancy, stating that she now weighs 57kg.

      During the examination, the patient's eyes are sunken, and her mucous membranes appear dry.

      A urine dip shows marked ketosis, but is otherwise unremarkable.

      What is a risk factor for the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Trophoblastic disease

      Explanation:

      Hyperemesis gravidarum is a severe form of nausea and vomiting that affects around 1% of pregnancies. It is usually experienced between 8 and 12 weeks of pregnancy but can persist up to 20 weeks. The condition is thought to be related to raised beta hCG levels and is more common in women who are obese, nulliparous, or have multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease, or hyperthyroidism. Smoking is associated with a decreased incidence of hyperemesis.

      The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists recommend that a woman must have a 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance before a diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum can be made. Validated scoring systems such as the Pregnancy-Unique Quantification of Emesis (PUQE) score can be used to classify the severity of NVP.

      Management of hyperemesis gravidarum involves using antihistamines as a first-line treatment, with oral cyclizine or oral promethazine being recommended by Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Oral prochlorperazine is an alternative, while ondansetron and metoclopramide may be used as second-line treatments. Ginger and P6 (wrist) acupressure can be tried, but there is little evidence of benefit. Admission may be needed for IV hydration.

      Complications of hyperemesis gravidarum can include Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Mallory-Weiss tear, central pontine myelinolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and fetal growth restriction, pre-term birth, and cleft lip/palate (if ondansetron is used during the first trimester). The NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend considering admission if a woman is unable to keep down liquids or oral antiemetics, has ketonuria and/or weight loss (greater than 5% of body weight), or has a confirmed or suspected comorbidity that may be adversely affected by nausea and vomiting.

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  • Question 16 - A 28-year-old primigravida, at 8 weeks gestation presents for her prenatal check-up. She...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old primigravida, at 8 weeks gestation presents for her prenatal check-up. She reports taking a daily vitamin and denies any use of tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. On examination, her blood pressure is 118/66 mmHg and pulse is 78/min. Bimanual examination reveals a 10-week-sized non-tender uterus with no adnexal masses or tenderness. Ultrasound shows two 8-week intrauterine gestations with normal heartbeats, a single placenta, and no dividing intertwine membrane.

      What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Monochorionic monoamniotic twins

      Explanation:

      Twin Pregnancies: Incidence, Types, and Complications

      Twin pregnancies occur in approximately 1 out of 105 pregnancies, with the majority being dizygotic or non-identical twins. Monozygotic or identical twins, on the other hand, develop from a single ovum that has divided to form two embryos. However, monoamniotic monozygotic twins are associated with increased risks of spontaneous miscarriage, perinatal mortality rate, malformations, intrauterine growth restriction, prematurity, and twin-to-twin transfusions. The incidence of dizygotic twins is increasing due to infertility treatment, and predisposing factors include previous twins, family history, increasing maternal age, multigravida, induced ovulation, in-vitro fertilisation, and race, particularly Afro-Caribbean.

      Antenatal complications of twin pregnancies include polyhydramnios, pregnancy-induced hypertension, anaemia, and antepartum haemorrhage. Fetal complications include perinatal mortality, prematurity, light-for-date babies, and malformations, especially in monozygotic twins. Labour complications may also arise, such as postpartum haemorrhage, malpresentation, cord prolapse, and entanglement.

      Management of twin pregnancies involves rest, ultrasound for diagnosis and monthly checks, additional iron and folate, more antenatal care, and precautions during labour, such as having two obstetricians present. Most twins deliver by 38 weeks, and if longer, most are induced at 38-40 weeks. Overall, twin pregnancies require close monitoring and management to ensure the best possible outcomes for both mother and babies.

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  • Question 17 - A 35-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of abdominal discomfort and irregular menstrual...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of abdominal discomfort and irregular menstrual cycles. During the physical examination, a pelvic mass is discovered, leading to a referral to a gynaecologist. The transabdominal ultrasound reveals the presence of a fibroid in a structure that connects the uterus, fallopian tubes, and ovaries to the pelvic wall.

      What is the name of this ligament?

      Your Answer: Round ligament

      Correct Answer: Broad ligament

      Explanation:

      The pelvic wall is connected to the uterus, fallopian tubes, and ovaries through the broad ligament. While the cardinal and suspensory ligaments also attach to the pelvic wall, they are only connected to one structure each: the cervix for the cardinal ligament and the ovaries for the suspensory ligament. The broad ligament encompasses the round ligament, ovarian ligament, and suspensory ligament of the ovaries.

      Pelvic Ligaments and their Connections

      Pelvic ligaments are structures that connect various organs within the female reproductive system to the pelvic wall. These ligaments play a crucial role in maintaining the position and stability of these organs. There are several types of pelvic ligaments, each with its own unique function and connection.

      The broad ligament connects the uterus, fallopian tubes, and ovaries to the pelvic wall, specifically the ovaries. The round ligament connects the uterine fundus to the labia majora, but does not connect to any other structures. The cardinal ligament connects the cervix to the lateral pelvic wall and is responsible for supporting the uterine vessels. The suspensory ligament of the ovaries connects the ovaries to the lateral pelvic wall and supports the ovarian vessels. The ovarian ligament connects the ovaries to the uterus, but does not connect to any other structures. Finally, the uterosacral ligament connects the cervix and posterior vaginal dome to the sacrum, but does not connect to any other structures.

      Overall, pelvic ligaments are essential for maintaining the proper position and function of the female reproductive organs. Understanding the connections between these ligaments and the structures they support is crucial for diagnosing and treating any issues that may arise.

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  • Question 18 - A 28-year-old woman, who is 12 weeks pregnant, arrives at the Emergency Department...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman, who is 12 weeks pregnant, arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of severe nausea and general malaise. She has not undergone a booking scan. After conducting an ultrasound, you observe that her uterus appears larger than expected for her gestational age. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Molar pregnancy

      Explanation:

      A uterus that is larger than expected for the stage of pregnancy is a strong indication of a molar pregnancy. The patient is experiencing hyperemesis and overall discomfort, which can be attributed to the elevated levels of B-hcG in her bloodstream, as confirmed by a blood test.

      Gestational trophoblastic disorders refer to a range of conditions that originate from the placental trophoblast. These disorders include complete hydatidiform mole, partial hydatidiform mole, and choriocarcinoma. Complete hydatidiform mole is a benign tumor of trophoblastic material that occurs when an empty egg is fertilized by a single sperm that duplicates its own DNA, resulting in all 46 chromosomes being of paternal origin. Symptoms of this disorder include bleeding in the first or early second trimester, exaggerated pregnancy symptoms, a large uterus for dates, and high levels of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) in the blood. Hypertension and hyperthyroidism may also be present. Urgent referral to a specialist center is necessary, and evacuation of the uterus is performed. Effective contraception is recommended to avoid pregnancy in the next 12 months. About 2-3% of cases may progress to choriocarcinoma. In partial mole, a normal haploid egg may be fertilized by two sperms or one sperm with duplication of paternal chromosomes, resulting in DNA that is both maternal and paternal in origin. Fetal parts may be visible, and the condition is usually triploid.

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  • Question 19 - A 25-year-old woman who is 36 weeks pregnant presents to the hospital with...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman who is 36 weeks pregnant presents to the hospital with a blood pressure reading of 160/110 mmHg, proteinuria, headache, blurred vision, and abdominal pain. What typical feature would be anticipated in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Haemolysis, elevated liver enzymes and low platelets

      Explanation:

      The patient’s medical history suggests pre-eclampsia, which is characterized by high blood pressure and protein in the urine after 20 weeks of pregnancy. antihypertensive medication should be used to manage blood pressure. Women with this condition may also develop HELLP syndrome, which is characterized by low platelets, elevated liver enzymes, and haemolysis (indicated by raised LDH levels). If left untreated, pre-eclampsia can progress to eclampsia, which can be prevented by administering magnesium sulphate. Delivery is the only definitive treatment for pre-eclampsia.

      Symptoms of shock include tachycardia and hypotension, while Cushing’s triad (bradycardia, hypertension, and respiratory irregularity) is indicative of raised intracranial pressure. Anaphylaxis is characterized by facial swelling, rash, and stridor, while sepsis may present with warm extremities, rigors, and a strong pulse.

      Jaundice During Pregnancy

      During pregnancy, jaundice can occur due to various reasons. One of the most common liver diseases during pregnancy is intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, which affects around 1% of pregnancies and is usually seen in the third trimester. Symptoms include itching, especially in the palms and soles, and raised bilirubin levels. Ursodeoxycholic acid is used for symptomatic relief, and women are typically induced at 37 weeks. However, this condition can increase the risk of stillbirth.

      Acute fatty liver of pregnancy is a rare complication that can occur in the third trimester or immediately after delivery. Symptoms include abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, headache, jaundice, and hypoglycemia. ALT levels are typically elevated. Supportive care is the initial management, and delivery is the definitive management once the patient is stabilized.

      Gilbert’s and Dubin-Johnson syndrome may also be exacerbated during pregnancy. Additionally, HELLP syndrome, which stands for Haemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, Low Platelets, can also cause jaundice during pregnancy. It is important to monitor liver function tests and seek medical attention if any symptoms of jaundice occur during pregnancy.

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  • Question 20 - A 36-year-old woman with a history of endometriosis is scheduled for adhesiolysis to...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old woman with a history of endometriosis is scheduled for adhesiolysis to alleviate pain during micturition, defecation, and intercourse. Despite taking the combined oral contraceptive pill, the patient has not found relief. However, during the surgery, the surgeon mistakenly severs the ligament that connects the cervix to the lateral pelvic wall.

      Which ligament has been unintentionally cut during the procedure?

      Your Answer: Cardinal ligament

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is the cardinal ligament, which connects the cervix to the lateral pelvic wall. Pelvic surgery can damage this ligament, which may lead to cervical prolapse in severe cases.

      The broad ligament surrounds the fallopian tubes and ovaries, along with their respective neurovascular structures. However, it does not attach the cervix to the lateral pelvic wall.

      The pubocervical ligament anchors the cervix to the pubic symphysis. In severe cases, damage to this ligament may contribute to vaginal prolapse.

      The round ligament of the uterus maintains the anteverted position of the uterus. During pregnancy, stretching of the round ligament may cause round ligament pain.

      The uterosacral ligament anchors the uterus to the sacrum posteriorly, helping to maintain normal pelvic anatomy and prevent the descent of pelvic organs into the vaginal vault.

      Pelvic Ligaments and their Connections

      Pelvic ligaments are structures that connect various organs within the female reproductive system to the pelvic wall. These ligaments play a crucial role in maintaining the position and stability of these organs. There are several types of pelvic ligaments, each with its own unique function and connection.

      The broad ligament connects the uterus, fallopian tubes, and ovaries to the pelvic wall, specifically the ovaries. The round ligament connects the uterine fundus to the labia majora, but does not connect to any other structures. The cardinal ligament connects the cervix to the lateral pelvic wall and is responsible for supporting the uterine vessels. The suspensory ligament of the ovaries connects the ovaries to the lateral pelvic wall and supports the ovarian vessels. The ovarian ligament connects the ovaries to the uterus, but does not connect to any other structures. Finally, the uterosacral ligament connects the cervix and posterior vaginal dome to the sacrum, but does not connect to any other structures.

      Overall, pelvic ligaments are essential for maintaining the proper position and function of the female reproductive organs. Understanding the connections between these ligaments and the structures they support is crucial for diagnosing and treating any issues that may arise.

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  • Question 21 - A 25-year-old female presents with sudden onset of pain in her lower right...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old female presents with sudden onset of pain in her lower right abdomen. She has no significant medical history. Her last menstrual period was six weeks ago and her cycles have been regular in the past.

      During the physical examination, her temperature is 37.5°C, pulse rate is 98 bpm regular, and blood pressure is 110/72 mmHg. There is tenderness and guarding in the right iliac fossa.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ectopic pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Causes of Right Iliac Fossa Pain in Women

      Right iliac fossa pain in women can be caused by various conditions such as mittelschmerz, appendicitis, and ectopic pregnancy. However, in the case of a young woman who is seven weeks past her last period, ectopic pregnancy is highly suspected. This condition occurs when a fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, usually in the fallopian tube.

      To confirm or rule out ectopic pregnancy, the most appropriate initial test would be a pregnancy test. This test detects the presence of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG), a hormone produced by the placenta after implantation. If the test is positive, further evaluation such as ultrasound and blood tests may be necessary to determine the location of the pregnancy and the appropriate management. It is important to seek medical attention promptly if experiencing RIF pain, as delay in diagnosis and treatment of ectopic pregnancy can lead to serious complications.

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  • Question 22 - A 28-year-old woman, who is 10 weeks pregnant with twins, presents to the...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman, who is 10 weeks pregnant with twins, presents to the emergency department with worsening nausea and vomiting over the last 3 weeks. This is her second pregnancy. Her first pregnancy had several complications, including hypertension of pregnancy and delivering a large for gestational age baby. What is a significant risk factor for developing HG based on this history?

      Your Answer: Multiple pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Hyperemesis gravidarum (HG) is a condition characterized by persistent vomiting, dehydration, weight loss, and electrolyte imbalance, often accompanied by ketosis. Women with multiple pregnancies are at an increased risk of developing HG due to the higher concentrations of pregnancy-related hormones.

      Other risk factors for HG include trophoblastic disease, molar pregnancy, and a history of previous hyperemesis. Hypertension of pregnancy typically occurs after 16 weeks and is not associated with an increased risk of HG.

      Large for gestational age is not a risk factor for HG as it is usually diagnosed later in pregnancy during growth scans. Multiparity alone is not a risk factor, but a history of previous hyperemesis or nausea and vomiting during pregnancy increases the risk.

      Hyperemesis gravidarum is a severe form of nausea and vomiting that affects around 1% of pregnancies. It is usually experienced between 8 and 12 weeks of pregnancy but can persist up to 20 weeks. The condition is thought to be related to raised beta hCG levels and is more common in women who are obese, nulliparous, or have multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease, or hyperthyroidism. Smoking is associated with a decreased incidence of hyperemesis.

      The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists recommend that a woman must have a 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance before a diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum can be made. Validated scoring systems such as the Pregnancy-Unique Quantification of Emesis (PUQE) score can be used to classify the severity of NVP.

      Management of hyperemesis gravidarum involves using antihistamines as a first-line treatment, with oral cyclizine or oral promethazine being recommended by Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Oral prochlorperazine is an alternative, while ondansetron and metoclopramide may be used as second-line treatments. Ginger and P6 (wrist) acupressure can be tried, but there is little evidence of benefit. Admission may be needed for IV hydration.

      Complications of hyperemesis gravidarum can include Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Mallory-Weiss tear, central pontine myelinolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and fetal growth restriction, pre-term birth, and cleft lip/palate (if ondansetron is used during the first trimester). The NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend considering admission if a woman is unable to keep down liquids or oral antiemetics, has ketonuria and/or weight loss (greater than 5% of body weight), or has a confirmed or suspected comorbidity that may be adversely affected by nausea and vomiting.

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  • Question 23 - A 35-year-old primigravid woman visits the antenatal clinic for her 20-week scan. She...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old primigravid woman visits the antenatal clinic for her 20-week scan. She is informed that the combined test results indicate a high probability of her fetus having Down's syndrome.

      What were the probable outcomes of her combined test?

      Your Answer: ↑ HCG, ↓ PAPP-A, increased amount of nuchal fluid

      Explanation:

      The presence of ↑ HCG, ↓ PAPP-A, and a thickened nuchal translucency is indicative of Down’s syndrome. The combined screening test, which includes an ultrasound scan and blood test, is used to assess the risk of the fetus having Down’s syndrome, Edwards’ syndrome, and Patau’s syndrome. However, a diagnostic test such as amniocentesis or chorionic villus sampling is required to confirm the diagnosis. Advanced maternal age is also a significant risk factor for Down’s syndrome. The answer choices ‘↑ HCG, ↑ PAPP-A, increased amount of nuchal fluid’, ‘↑ HCG, ↓ PAPP-A, normal amount of nuchal fluid’, and ‘↓ HCG, ↓ PAPP-A, decreased amount of nuchal fluid’ are incorrect as they do not match the typical indicators of Down’s syndrome.

      NICE updated guidelines on antenatal care in 2021, recommending the combined test for screening for Down’s syndrome between 11-13+6 weeks. The quadruple test should be offered between 15-20 weeks for women who book later in pregnancy. Results of both tests return either a ‘lower chance’ or ‘higher chance’ result. If a woman receives a ‘higher chance’ result, she will be offered a second screening test (NIPT) or a diagnostic test. NIPT analyzes cell-free fetal DNA from placental cells in the mother’s blood and has high sensitivity and specificity for detecting chromosomal abnormalities, with private companies offering screening from 10 weeks gestation.

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  • Question 24 - A 12-year-old boy is feeling self-conscious about being one of the shortest in...

    Correct

    • A 12-year-old boy is feeling self-conscious about being one of the shortest in his class and not having experienced a deepening of his voice yet. His mother takes him to see the GP, who conducts a comprehensive history and examination. The doctor provides reassurance that the boy is developing normally and explains that puberty occurs at varying times for each individual. What are the cells in the testes that secrete testosterone?

      Your Answer: Leydig cells

      Explanation:

      Spermatogonia are male germ cells that are not yet differentiated and undergo spermatogenesis in the seminiferous tubules of the testes. Leydig cells are interstitial cells found in the testes that secrete testosterone in response to LH secretion. Sertoli cells are part of the seminiferous tubule of the testes and are activated by FSH. They nourish developing sperm cells. Myoid cells are contractile cells that generate peristaltic waves. They surround the basement membrane of the testes.

      Anatomy of the Scrotum and Testes

      The scrotum is composed of skin and dartos fascia, with an arterial supply from the anterior and posterior scrotal arteries. It is also the site of lymphatic drainage to the inguinal lymph nodes. The testes are surrounded by the tunica vaginalis, a closed peritoneal sac, with the parietal layer adjacent to the internal spermatic fascia. The testicular arteries arise from the aorta, just below the renal arteries, and the pampiniform plexus drains into the testicular veins. The left testicular vein drains into the left renal vein, while the right testicular vein drains into the inferior vena cava. Lymphatic drainage occurs to the para-aortic nodes.

      The spermatic cord is formed by the vas deferens and is covered by the internal spermatic fascia, cremasteric fascia, and external spermatic fascia. The cord contains the vas deferens, testicular artery, artery of vas deferens, cremasteric artery, pampiniform plexus, sympathetic nerve fibers, genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve, and lymphatic vessels. The vas deferens transmits sperm and accessory gland secretions, while the testicular artery supplies the testis and epididymis. The cremasteric artery arises from the inferior epigastric artery, and the pampiniform plexus is a venous plexus that drains into the right or left testicular vein. The sympathetic nerve fibers lie on the arteries, while the parasympathetic fibers lie on the vas. The genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve supplies the cremaster. Lymphatic vessels drain to lumbar and para-aortic nodes.

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  • Question 25 - A 35-year-old woman seeking to become pregnant is worried about experiencing two miscarriages....

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman seeking to become pregnant is worried about experiencing two miscarriages. She is seeking guidance on how to improve her chances of a successful pregnancy. What factors are linked to miscarriage?

      Your Answer: Older paternal age

      Explanation:

      Miscarriage is not caused by a single factor, but rather by a combination of risk factors. Women over the age of 35 and men over the age of 40 are at a significantly higher risk of experiencing a miscarriage. It is important to note that activities such as exercise, emotional stress, consuming spicy foods, and engaging in sexual intercourse do not increase the risk of miscarriage.

      Miscarriage: Understanding the Epidemiology

      Miscarriage, also known as spontaneous abortion, refers to the natural expulsion of the products of conception before the 24th week of pregnancy. It is a common occurrence, with approximately 15-20% of diagnosed pregnancies ending in miscarriage during the early stages. To avoid any confusion, the term miscarriage is often used instead of abortion.

      Studies show that up to 50% of conceptions fail to develop into a blastocyst within 14 days. This highlights the importance of early detection and monitoring during pregnancy. Additionally, recurrent spontaneous miscarriage affects approximately 1% of women, which can be a distressing and emotionally challenging experience.

      Understanding the epidemiology of miscarriage is crucial in providing appropriate care and support for women who experience this loss. With proper medical attention and emotional support, women can navigate through this difficult time and move forward with hope and healing.

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  • Question 26 - A 45-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1, has been referred to the medical...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1, has been referred to the medical assessment unit by her family physician due to persistent pelvic pain and discomfort with radiation to her lower back, hips and groin. This has significantly impacted her day-to-day activities, family and social life. She has a past medical history of atrial fibrillation and type II diabetes. She is currently 34 weeks into her second pregnancy, and ultrasound scans have reported a fairly large baby. Despite her symptoms, her bladder and bowel function remain normal. Upon assessment, her pulse is 78 beats per minute, blood pressure is 123/78 mmHg, temperature is 37.5ºC, respiratory rate is 16 breaths per minute, and CRP is less than 5 mg/L. What is the most likely cause of her pain?

      Your Answer: Pubic symphysis dysfunction

      Explanation:

      During pregnancy, it is common to experience pubic symphysis dysfunction due to increased ligament laxity caused by hormonal changes. This can result in pain over the pubic symphysis that may radiate to the groins and inner thighs. It is important to differentiate this from more serious conditions such as cauda equina syndrome, which is a surgical emergency and presents with low back pain, leg pain, numbness around the anus, and loss of bowel or bladder control. While slipped lumbar vertebrae can also cause similar symptoms, it is less common than pubic symphysis dysfunction during pregnancy. Ultrasound scans can confirm a normal fetus, ruling out ectopic pregnancy and miscarriage as potential causes of the symptoms.

      Understanding Symphysis Pubis Dysfunction in Pregnancy

      Symphysis pubis dysfunction (SPD), also known as pelvic girdle pain, is a common condition experienced by pregnant women. It is caused by the hormone relaxin, which affects the laxity of ligaments in the pelvic girdle and other parts of the body. This increased laxity can result in pain and instability in the symphysis pubis joint and/or sacroiliac joint. Around 20% of women suffer from SPD by 33 weeks of gestation, and it can occur at any time during pregnancy or in the postnatal period.

      Multiple risk factors have been identified, including a previous history of low back pain, multiparity, previous trauma to the back or pelvis, heavy workload, higher levels of stress, and job dissatisfaction. Patients typically present with discomfort and pain in the suprapubic or low back area, which may radiate to the upper thighs and perineum. Pain can range from mild to severe and is often exacerbated by walking, climbing stairs, turning in bed, standing on one leg, or weight-bearing activities.

      Physical examination may reveal tenderness of the symphysis pubis and/or sacroiliac joint, pain on hip abduction, pain at the symphysis when standing on one leg, and a waddling gait. Positive Faber and active straight leg raise tests, as well as palpation of the anterior surface of the symphysis pubis, can also indicate SPD. Imaging, such as ultrasound or MRI, is necessary to confirm separation of the symphysis pubis.

      Conservative management with physiotherapy is the primary treatment for SPD. Understanding the risk factors and symptoms of SPD can help healthcare providers provide appropriate care and support for pregnant women experiencing this condition.

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  • Question 27 - A 25-year-old primiparous woman is in the final stages of delivery. The baby's...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old primiparous woman is in the final stages of delivery. The baby's leading shoulder becomes impacted behind her pelvis. The midwife rings the emergency call bell.

      What is the initial step in managing this situation?

      Your Answer: Flex and abduct the hips as much as possible (McRobert's manoeuvre)

      Explanation:

      The initial step recommended for managing shoulder dystocia is the use of McRobert’s manoeuvre. This involves the mother’s hips being flexed towards her abdomen and abducting them outwards, typically with the assistance of two individuals. By doing so, the pelvis is tilted upwards, causing the pubic symphysis to move in the same direction. This results in an increase in the functional dimensions of the pelvic outlet, providing more space for the anterior shoulder to be delivered. McRobert’s manoeuvre is successful in the majority of cases of shoulder dystocia and should be performed before any invasive or potentially harmful procedures.

      Shoulder dystocia is a complication that can occur during vaginal delivery when the body of the fetus cannot be delivered after the head has already been delivered. This is usually due to the anterior shoulder of the fetus becoming stuck on the mother’s pubic bone. Shoulder dystocia can cause harm to both the mother and the baby.

      There are several risk factors that increase the likelihood of shoulder dystocia, including fetal macrosomia (large baby), high maternal body mass index, diabetes mellitus, and prolonged labor.

      If shoulder dystocia is identified, it is important to call for senior medical assistance immediately. The McRoberts’ maneuver is often used to help deliver the baby. This involves flexing and abducting the mother’s hips to increase the angle of the pelvis and facilitate delivery. An episiotomy may be performed to provide better access for internal maneuvers, but it will not relieve the bony obstruction. Symphysiotomy and the Zavanelli maneuver are not recommended as they can cause significant harm to the mother. Oxytocin administration is not effective in treating shoulder dystocia.

      Complications of shoulder dystocia can include postpartum hemorrhage and perineal tears for the mother, and brachial plexus injury or neonatal death for the baby. It is important to manage shoulder dystocia promptly and effectively to minimize these risks.

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  • Question 28 - A 26-year-old female presents to the emergency department with a 2-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old female presents to the emergency department with a 2-day history of suprapubic pain and fever. She has no significant medical or surgical history but takes a daily combined oral contraceptive pill and multivitamin. The surgical team orders a CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis, which shows pelvic fat stranding and free fluid in the pouch of Douglas. What is the most probable causative organism?

      Your Answer: Neisseria gonorrhoeae

      Correct Answer: Chlamydia trachomatis

      Explanation:

      Pelvic inflammatory disease can be a challenging diagnosis for emergency practitioners, as it presents with vague abdominal pain that can be mistaken for a surgical or gynecological issue. While CT scans are not ideal for young patients due to the risk of radiation exposure to the sex organs, they can reveal common findings for pelvic inflammatory disease, such as free fluid in the pouch of Douglas, pelvic fat stranding, tubo-ovarian abscesses, and fallopian tube thickening of more than 5 mm. In contrast, CT scans for appendicitis may show appendiceal dilatation, thickening of the caecal apex with a bar sign, periappendiceal fat stranding and phlegmon, and focal wall nonenhancement in cases of gangrenous appendix. The most common cause of pelvic inflammatory disease is Chlamydia trachomatis, followed by Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Mycobacterium tuberculosis. In cases of appendicitis, Escherichia coli is the most likely causative organism, with rare cases caused by other organisms.

      Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a condition where the female pelvic organs, including the uterus, fallopian tubes, ovaries, and surrounding peritoneum, become infected and inflamed. It is typically caused by an infection that spreads from the endocervix. The most common causative organism is Chlamydia trachomatis, followed by Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Mycoplasma genitalium, and Mycoplasma hominis. Symptoms of PID include lower abdominal pain, fever, dyspareunia, dysuria, menstrual irregularities, vaginal or cervical discharge, and cervical excitation.

      To diagnose PID, a pregnancy test should be done to rule out an ectopic pregnancy, and a high vaginal swab should be taken to screen for Chlamydia and gonorrhoeae. However, these tests may often be negative, so consensus guidelines recommend having a low threshold for treatment due to the potential complications of untreated PID. Management typically involves oral ofloxacin and oral metronidazole or intramuscular ceftriaxone, oral doxycycline, and oral metronidazole. In mild cases of PID, intrauterine contraceptive devices may be left in, but the evidence is limited, and removal of the IUD may be associated with better short-term clinical outcomes according to recent guidelines.

      Complications of PID include perihepatitis (Fitz-Hugh Curtis Syndrome), which occurs in around 10% of cases and is characterized by right upper quadrant pain that may be confused with cholecystitis, infertility (with a risk as high as 10-20% after a single episode), chronic pelvic pain, and ectopic pregnancy.

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  • Question 29 - A 32-year-old pregnant woman attends her 20-week anomaly scan. She has had two...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old pregnant woman attends her 20-week anomaly scan. She has had two previous pregnancies resulting in two sons. The pregnancy has been uneventful so far. During the scan, the sonographer observes that the foetus is below the 10th percentile for size, indicating that it is small for gestational age.

      What potential risk factors could have played a role in this outcome?

      Your Answer: Smoking

      Explanation:

      Smoking while pregnant is associated with a higher likelihood of having a baby that is small for gestational age. The increased risk is thought to be due to exposure to nicotine and carbon monoxide. Diabetes mellitus, previous pregnancy, and maternal obesity are not linked to small for gestational age babies, but rather to large for gestational age babies.

      Small for Gestational Age (SGA) is a statistical definition used to describe babies who are smaller than expected for their gestational age. Although there is no universally agreed percentile, the 10th percentile is often used, meaning that 10% of normal babies will be below this threshold. SGA can be determined either antenatally or postnatally. There are two types of SGA: symmetrical and asymmetrical. Symmetrical SGA occurs when the fetal head circumference and abdominal circumference are equally small, while asymmetrical SGA occurs when the abdominal circumference slows relative to the increase in head circumference.

      There are various causes of SGA, including incorrect dating, constitutionally small (normal) babies, and abnormal fetuses. Symmetrical SGA is more common and can be caused by idiopathic factors, race, sex, placental insufficiency, pre-eclampsia, chromosomal and congenital abnormalities, toxins such as smoking and heroin, and infections such as CMV, parvovirus, rubella, syphilis, and toxoplasmosis. Asymmetrical SGA is less common and can be caused by toxins such as alcohol, cigarettes, and heroin, chromosomal and congenital abnormalities, and infections.

      The management of SGA depends on the type and cause. For symmetrical SGA, most cases represent the lower limits of the normal range and require fortnightly ultrasound growth assessments to demonstrate normal growth rates. Pathological causes should be ruled out by checking maternal blood for infections and searching the fetus carefully with ultrasound for markers of chromosomal abnormality. Asymmetrical SGA also requires fortnightly ultrasound growth assessments, as well as biophysical profiles and Doppler waveforms from umbilical circulation to look for absent end-diastolic flow. If results are sub-optimal, delivery may be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
      18.7
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A newborn with known Rhesus incompatibility presents with significant edema and enlarged liver...

    Correct

    • A newborn with known Rhesus incompatibility presents with significant edema and enlarged liver and spleen. What is the probable complication for the infant?

      Your Answer: Hydrops fetalis

      Explanation:

      Rh disease is commonly linked with hydrops fetalis, a form of Haemolytic Disease of the Newborn. While Kernicterus is a possible outcome of Rh disease, it is not accurate to associate it with hepato-splenomegaly. Haemolysis leads to bilirubinemia, which is highly toxic to the nervous system, but it does not cause an enlargement of the liver and spleen. Although foetal heart failure can cause hepatomegaly, it is not related to Rh disease. Foetal liver failure, which may cause hepatomegaly, does not necessarily result in splenomegaly and is not associated with Rh disease.

      Rhesus negative mothers can develop anti-D IgG antibodies if they deliver a Rh +ve child, which can cause haemolysis in future pregnancies. Prevention involves testing for D antibodies and giving anti-D prophylaxis at 28 and 34 weeks. Anti-D should also be given in various situations, such as delivery of a Rh +ve infant or amniocentesis. Tests include cord blood FBC, blood group, direct Coombs test, and Kleihauer test. Affected fetuses may experience oedema, jaundice, anaemia, hepatosplenomegaly, heart failure, and kernicterus, and may require transfusions and UV phototherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
      10
      Seconds

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