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  • Question 1 - A 25 year old woman perceives a silhouette of a cat in the...

    Correct

    • A 25 year old woman perceives a silhouette of a cat in the dim light, and believes it is a dangerous creature ready to pounce on her. What is the term used to describe this experience?

      Your Answer: An illusion

      Explanation:

      An illusion is when a person’s perception is altered by the shadow cast from a tree. On the other hand, hallucinations happen when there is no stimulus present. It’s important to note that a delusion is a belief, not a perception.

      Altered Perceptual Experiences

      Disorders of perception can be categorized into sensory distortions and sensory deceptions. Sensory distortions involve changes in the intensity, spatial form, of quality of a perception. Examples include hyperaesthesia, hyperacusis, and micropsia. Sensory deceptions, on the other hand, involve new perceptions that are not based on any external stimulus. These include illusions and hallucinations.

      Illusions are altered perceptions of a stimulus, while hallucinations are perceptions in the absence of a stimulus. Completion illusions, affect illusions, and pareidolic illusions are examples of illusions. Auditory, visual, gustatory, olfactory, and tactile hallucinations are different types of hallucinations. Pseudohallucinations are involuntary and vivid sensory experiences that are interpreted in a non-morbid way. They are different from true hallucinations in that the individual is able to recognize that the experience is an internally generated event.

      Understanding the different types of altered perceptual experiences is important in the diagnosis and treatment of various mental health conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 2 - Which defense mechanism is the least advanced of developed in terms of maturity?...

    Correct

    • Which defense mechanism is the least advanced of developed in terms of maturity?

      Your Answer: Projection

      Explanation:

      Projection is classified as an underdeveloped defense mechanism, as it is considered immature. Freud proposed the idea that defenses evolve along a spectrum of personality growth. As an illustration, as time passes and the connections between the frontal lobe and the limbic system continue to myelinate, the defense mechanism commonly seen in adolescence, acting out (such as impulsive and momentarily soothing outbursts), may give rise to reaction formation and potentially even altruism in the future.

      Intermediate Mechanism: Rationalisation

      Rationalisation is a defense mechanism commonly used by individuals to create false but credible justifications for their behavior of actions. It involves the use of logical reasoning to explain away of justify unacceptable behavior of feelings. The individual may not be aware that they are using this mechanism, and it can be difficult to identify in oneself.

      Rationalisation is considered an intermediate mechanism, as it is common in healthy individuals from ages three to ninety, as well as in neurotic disorders and in mastering acute adult stress. It can be dramatically changed by conventional psychotherapeutic interpretation.

      Examples of rationalisation include a student who fails an exam and blames the teacher for not teaching the material well enough, of a person who cheats on their partner and justifies it by saying their partner was neglectful of unaffectionate. It allows the individual to avoid taking responsibility for their actions and to maintain a positive self-image.

      Overall, rationalisation can be a useful defense mechanism in certain situations, but it can also be harmful if it leads to a lack of accountability and an inability to learn from mistakes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      10.9
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  • Question 3 - What is a characteristic feature of Argyll Robertson pupils? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a characteristic feature of Argyll Robertson pupils?

      Your Answer: They are not generally associated with any underlying abnormality

      Correct Answer: Dilation is typically poor with mydriatic agents

      Explanation:

      Argyll Robertson Pupil: Accommodation Retained

      The Argyll Robertson pupil is a notable topic in medical exams, as it is associated with tertiary syphilis, which is a crucial differential diagnosis for various psychiatric conditions like mood disorders, dementia, and psychosis. This type of pupil reacts poorly to light but normally to near stimuli, such as accommodation and convergence. They are typically small and irregular in shape, but they do not usually affect visual acuity. Mydriatic agents are not effective in dilating the Argyll Robertson pupil. Although this type of pupil is often considered pathognomonic of tertiary syphilis, it has also been observed in diabetes.

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      • Classification And Assessment
      40.3
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  • Question 4 - Which of the following is a disadvantage of closed questions? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is a disadvantage of closed questions?

      Your Answer: They make it easier to control the interview

      Explanation:

      While open questions offer several benefits, they can pose challenges in terms of interview control and record-keeping.

      Interview Techniques: Open and Closed Questions

      When conducting an interview, it is important to use the appropriate types of questions. Open questions are designed to encourage a detailed response and can help to open up the conversation. In contrast, closed questions typically result in a yes of no answer and are useful for clarifying specific details. By using a combination of open and closed questions, interviewers can gather more information and gain a better understanding of the interviewee’s perspective. It is important to use these techniques effectively to ensure a successful interview.

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      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 5 - What is an example of a mixed state according to Kraepelin? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is an example of a mixed state according to Kraepelin?

      Your Answer: Excited mania

      Correct Answer: Manic stupor

      Explanation:

      Kraepelin’s Mixed States: A Historical Overview

      Kraepelin’s six types of mixed states were based on various combinations of mood, will, and thought processes. These mixed states are less common than pure mania of pure depression. Dysphoric mania and depressive mixed state are the two types of mixed states that have been reduced over the years. Other terms used to describe mixed states include agitated depression, anxious depression, irritable depression, and mixed hypomania. Despite the reduction in the number of mixed states, they remain a relevant psychopathological syndrome in modern times.

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      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 6 - What individual utilized the phrases inhibited mania and manic stupor to characterize distinct...

    Correct

    • What individual utilized the phrases inhibited mania and manic stupor to characterize distinct mixed affective conditions?

      Your Answer: Kraepelin

      Explanation:

      Inhibited Mania

      Inhibited mania is one of the six mixed affective states identified by Kraepelin. It is characterized by symptoms of both mania and depression, but with a predominance of depressive features. Patients with inhibited mania may experience feelings of sadness, guilt, and worthlessness, as well as decreased energy and motivation. At the same time, they may also exhibit symptoms of mania, such as increased activity, impulsivity, and irritability.

      Inhibited mania is considered an autonomous mixed episode, meaning that the patient consistently experiences symptoms of both mania and depression. This type of mixed state is associated with a poorer prognosis compared to those occurring between transitions from one mood state to another.

      Treatment for inhibited mania typically involves a combination of mood stabilizers, antidepressants, and psychotherapy. It is important for clinicians to carefully monitor patients with inhibited mania, as they may be at increased risk for suicide and other adverse outcomes.

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      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 7 - What is a known factor that can lead to hypercalcemia? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a known factor that can lead to hypercalcemia?

      Your Answer: Fluoxetine

      Correct Answer: Lithium

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hypercalcemia and its Causes

      Hypercalcemia is a medical condition that can cause fatigue, confusion, and depression. It is characterized by the classic symptoms of bone pain, abdominal pain, renal stones, and psychic moans. This condition can be triggered by the use of lithium and thiazide diuretics.

      It is important to note that around 50% of serum calcium is bound to plasma proteins, particularly albumin. This means that any abnormalities in albumin levels can lead to inaccurate calcium results. To address this issue, a corrected calcium test is usually included in a patient’s blood work to ensure accurate diagnosis and treatment.

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      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 8 - Which option is not considered a scoring factor in the clock drawing test?...

    Incorrect

    • Which option is not considered a scoring factor in the clock drawing test?

      Your Answer: Drawing the clock circle

      Correct Answer: Knowing the actual time

      Explanation:

      Clock Drawing Test: A Screening Tool for Cognitive Dysfunction

      The clock drawing test is a widely used screening tool for cognitive dysfunction. It involves asking the patient to draw a clock on a piece of paper, placing the numbers on the clock face and drawing the hands to indicate 10 minutes past 11. This simple task assesses a range of cognitive functions, including visuospatial ability, motor function, attention, and comprehension.

      The test is quick and easy to administer, making it a useful tool for healthcare professionals to identify potential cognitive impairment in patients. The clock drawing test has been shown to be effective in detecting cognitive dysfunction in a variety of conditions, including Alzheimer’s and Parkinson’s disease.

      The image below illustrates examples of clocks drawn correctly by healthy controls and those drawn by patients with Alzheimer’s and Parkinson’s disease. By comparing the drawings, healthcare professionals can quickly identify potential cognitive dysfunction and take appropriate action.

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      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 9 - What is the term used to describe the occurrence where natural fluctuations in...

    Incorrect

    • What is the term used to describe the occurrence where natural fluctuations in repeated data can appear as actual change due to the tendency of unusually high of low measurements to be followed by measurements that are closer to the average?

      Your Answer: Expectancy effect

      Correct Answer: Regression to the mean

      Explanation:

      Regression to the mean is a statistical occurrence where the natural fluctuations in repeated data can appear as actual changes. This happens because measurements that are exceptionally high of low are typically followed by measurements that are closer to the average.

      Understanding the Placebo Effect

      In general, a placebo is an inert substance that has no pharmacological activity but looks, smells, and tastes like the active drug it is compared to. The placebo effect is the observable improvement seen when a patient takes a placebo, which results from patient-related factors such as expectations rather than the placebo itself. Negative effects due to patient-related factors are termed the nocebo effect.

      Active placebos are treatments with chemical activity that mimic the side effects of the drug being tested in a clinical trial. They are used to prevent unblinding of the drug versus the placebo control group. Placebos need not always be pharmacological and can be procedural, such as sham electroconvulsive therapy.

      The placebo effect is influenced by factors such as the perceived strength of the treatment, the status of the treating professional, and the branding of the compound. The placebo response is greater in mild illness, and the response rate is increasing over time. Placebo response is usually short-lived, and repeated use can lead to a diminished effect, known as placebo sag.

      It is difficult to separate placebo effects from spontaneous remission, and patients who enter clinical trials generally do so when acutely unwell, making it challenging to show treatment effects. Breaking the blind may influence the outcome, and the expectancy effect may explain why active placebos are more effective than inert placebos. Overall, understanding the placebo effect is crucial in clinical trials and personalized medicine.

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      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 10 - What screening tool does NICE recommend for identifying alcohol misuse? ...

    Incorrect

    • What screening tool does NICE recommend for identifying alcohol misuse?

      Your Answer: FAST

      Correct Answer: AUDIT

      Explanation:

      Alcohol screening tools are available to assist in the diagnosis of alcohol problems. One such tool is the AUDIT (Alcohol Use Disorders Identification Test), which consists of 10 questions and covers harmful use, hazardous use, and dependence. Another tool is the FAST (Fast Alcohol Screening Test), which has just 4 questions and was developed for use in a busy medical setting. The CAGE is a well-known 4 question screening tool, but recent research has questioned its value. Other tools include SASQ (Single alcohol screening questionnaire), PAT (Paddington Alcohol Test), MAST (Michigan Alcoholism Screening Test), and RAPS4 (Rapid Alcohol Problem Screen 4). These tools can help identify hazardous of harmful alcohol consumption and alcohol dependence.

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      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 11 - Which of the following is not classified as a distinct personality disorder in...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not classified as a distinct personality disorder in the DSM-5?

      Your Answer: Histrionic personality disorder

      Correct Answer: Multiple personality disorder

      Explanation:

      Personality Disorder Classification

      A personality disorder is a persistent pattern of behavior and inner experience that deviates significantly from cultural expectations, is inflexible and pervasive, and causes distress of impairment. The DSM-5 and ICD-11 have different approaches to classifying personality disorders. DSM-5 divides them into 10 categories, grouped into clusters A, B, and C, while ICD-11 has a general category with six trait domains that can be added. To diagnose a personality disorder, the general diagnostic threshold must be met before determining the subtype(s) present. The criteria for diagnosis include inflexibility and pervasiveness of the pattern, onset in adolescence of early adulthood, stability over time, and significant distress of impairment. The disturbance must not be better explained by another mental disorder, substance misuse, of medical condition.

      Course

      Borderline and antisocial personality disorders tend to become less evident of remit with age, while others, particularly obsessive-compulsive and schizotypal, may persist.

      Classification

      The DSM-5 divides personality disorders into separate clusters A, B, and C, with additional groups for medical conditions and unspecified disorders. The ICD-11 dropped the separate categories and instead lists six trait domains that can be added to the general diagnosis.

      UK Epidemiology

      The prevalence of personality disorders in Great Britain, according to the British National Survey of Psychiatric Morbidity, is 4.4%, with cluster C being the most common at 2.6%, followed by cluster A at 1.6% and cluster B at 1.2%. The most prevalent specific personality disorder is obsessive-compulsive (anankastic) at 1.9%.

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      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 12 - How can one differentiate between a pseudohallucination and a hallucination? ...

    Incorrect

    • How can one differentiate between a pseudohallucination and a hallucination?

      Your Answer: Is based on a perception in the absence of a stimulus

      Correct Answer: The experience is recognised as internally generated

      Explanation:

      Altered Perceptual Experiences

      Disorders of perception can be categorized into sensory distortions and sensory deceptions. Sensory distortions involve changes in the intensity, spatial form, of quality of a perception. Examples include hyperaesthesia, hyperacusis, and micropsia. Sensory deceptions, on the other hand, involve new perceptions that are not based on any external stimulus. These include illusions and hallucinations.

      Illusions are altered perceptions of a stimulus, while hallucinations are perceptions in the absence of a stimulus. Completion illusions, affect illusions, and pareidolic illusions are examples of illusions. Auditory, visual, gustatory, olfactory, and tactile hallucinations are different types of hallucinations. Pseudohallucinations are involuntary and vivid sensory experiences that are interpreted in a non-morbid way. They are different from true hallucinations in that the individual is able to recognize that the experience is an internally generated event.

      Understanding the different types of altered perceptual experiences is important in the diagnosis and treatment of various mental health conditions.

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      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 13 - After the death of his grandfather, a young man decides to take over...

    Incorrect

    • After the death of his grandfather, a young man decides to take over his grandfather's business. This surprises the grandmother as the grandson always expressed his dislike for his grandfather and never showed any interest in the business. The grandmother inquires about his decision and senses that the grandson is at ease with his negative feelings towards his grandfather and does not seem to feel any remorse. What defense mechanism is likely underlying the grandson's behavior?

      Your Answer: Displacement

      Correct Answer: Sublimation

      Explanation:

      Undoing and sublimation are two psychological concepts that are often mistaken for each other. While both involve a person’s attempt to deal with negative thoughts of emotions, there is a key difference between the two.

      In undoing, a person tries to undo of neutralize their own unacceptable thoughts, emotions, of behaviors. This is often driven by feelings of guilt or remorse over something they have done of felt. The goal is to make amends and alleviate the negative feelings associated with their actions.

      On the other hand, sublimation involves turning negative emotions into positive ones. However, unlike undoing, the person does not necessarily feel guilty of remorseful about their emotions. Instead, they may see their emotions as justified and seek to channel them into more positive outlets.

      Therefore, while both undoing and sublimation involve coping with negative emotions, the key difference lies in the underlying motivation and feelings associated with the process.

      Intermediate Mechanism: Rationalisation

      Rationalisation is a defense mechanism commonly used by individuals to create false but credible justifications for their behavior of actions. It involves the use of logical reasoning to explain away of justify unacceptable behavior of feelings. The individual may not be aware that they are using this mechanism, and it can be difficult to identify in oneself.

      Rationalisation is considered an intermediate mechanism, as it is common in healthy individuals from ages three to ninety, as well as in neurotic disorders and in mastering acute adult stress. It can be dramatically changed by conventional psychotherapeutic interpretation.

      Examples of rationalisation include a student who fails an exam and blames the teacher for not teaching the material well enough, of a person who cheats on their partner and justifies it by saying their partner was neglectful of unaffectionate. It allows the individual to avoid taking responsibility for their actions and to maintain a positive self-image.

      Overall, rationalisation can be a useful defense mechanism in certain situations, but it can also be harmful if it leads to a lack of accountability and an inability to learn from mistakes.

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      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 14 - How can the doctor-patient relationship be structured to prioritize a collaborative decision-making process?...

    Incorrect

    • How can the doctor-patient relationship be structured to prioritize a collaborative decision-making process?

      Your Answer: Paternalistic

      Correct Answer: Interpretive

      Explanation:

      Models of Doctor-Patient Relationship

      There are four distinct models of doctor-patient relationship that have been identified. The first is the paternalistic of autocratic model, which assumes that the doctor knows best and makes all decisions regarding treatment. The patient is expected to simply comply with the doctor’s orders. The second model is the informative model, where the doctor provides information to the patient and leaves the decision-making process entirely up to them. The third model is the interpretive model, where the doctor takes the time to understand the patient’s circumstances and helps them make a decision based on their unique situation. This model involves shared decision-making and active participation from the patient. Finally, the deliberative model involves the doctor acting as a friend to the patient and attempting to steer them in a particular course of action that they believe is in the patient’s best interest. However, ultimately, the choice is left up to the patient. Understanding these different models can help doctors and patients work together more effectively to achieve the best possible outcomes.

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      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 15 - A teenage girl from a family with strong religious beliefs is unable to...

    Incorrect

    • A teenage girl from a family with strong religious beliefs is unable to express her homosexual feelings. She starts writing poetry which indirectly portrays same-sex love. She finds solace in her writing and gains recognition for her talent.
      What defense mechanism is likely at play in the girl's connection with her poetry?

      Your Answer: Isolation

      Correct Answer: Sublimation

      Explanation:

      Intermediate Mechanism: Rationalisation

      Rationalisation is a defense mechanism commonly used by individuals to create false but credible justifications for their behavior of actions. It involves the use of logical reasoning to explain away of justify unacceptable behavior of feelings. The individual may not be aware that they are using this mechanism, and it can be difficult to identify in oneself.

      Rationalisation is considered an intermediate mechanism, as it is common in healthy individuals from ages three to ninety, as well as in neurotic disorders and in mastering acute adult stress. It can be dramatically changed by conventional psychotherapeutic interpretation.

      Examples of rationalisation include a student who fails an exam and blames the teacher for not teaching the material well enough, of a person who cheats on their partner and justifies it by saying their partner was neglectful of unaffectionate. It allows the individual to avoid taking responsibility for their actions and to maintain a positive self-image.

      Overall, rationalisation can be a useful defense mechanism in certain situations, but it can also be harmful if it leads to a lack of accountability and an inability to learn from mistakes.

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      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 16 - What is the term used to describe the process of replacing gaps in...

    Incorrect

    • What is the term used to describe the process of replacing gaps in memory with inaccurate details?

      Your Answer: Jamais vu

      Correct Answer: Confabulation

      Explanation:

      The term paramnesia refers to memory disorders where fantasy and reality are confused. There are various types of paramnesias, including déjà vu, jamais vu, confabulation, reduplicative paramnesia, retrospective falsification, and cryptomnesia. Reduplicative paramnesia is a subset of delusional misidentification syndromes, which include Capgras delusion, the Fregoli delusion, and others. A review of reduplicative paramnesia was conducted by Politis in 2012.

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      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 17 - A 48-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his friend who...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his friend who found him at the bottom of his stairs in his flat. The medical team have identified a tibial fracture and noted a strong smell of alcohol.

      Which of the following tools, designed specifically for emergency department settings, would be most appropriate for use in this case to assess for hazardous drinking?

      Your Answer: Rapid Alcohol Problem Screen 4

      Correct Answer: Paddington Alcohol Test

      Explanation:

      The Paddington Alcohol Test (PAT) is a quick and efficient tool designed to identify alcohol-related problems in emergency department settings. Unlike other questionnaires, such as AUDIT, the PAT features a table of commonly consumed beverages coded in British units, which allows for a more accurate estimation of alcohol consumption. The PAT also takes into account the relative strengths of different products, providing a better indication of total units consumed. Overall, the PAT is a valuable tool for identifying hazardous drinking patterns in the UK. (Reference: Patton R, Alcohol and Alcoholism, 2004)

      Alcohol screening tools are available to assist in the diagnosis of alcohol problems. One such tool is the AUDIT (Alcohol Use Disorders Identification Test), which consists of 10 questions and covers harmful use, hazardous use, and dependence. Another tool is the FAST (Fast Alcohol Screening Test), which has just 4 questions and was developed for use in a busy medical setting. The CAGE is a well-known 4 question screening tool, but recent research has questioned its value. Other tools include SASQ (Single alcohol screening questionnaire), PAT (Paddington Alcohol Test), MAST (Michigan Alcoholism Screening Test), and RAPS4 (Rapid Alcohol Problem Screen 4). These tools can help identify hazardous of harmful alcohol consumption and alcohol dependence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 18 - What is the name of the culture-bound syndrome commonly observed in Latinos that...

    Correct

    • What is the name of the culture-bound syndrome commonly observed in Latinos that is marked by aggressive behavior, crying, and shouting?

      Your Answer: Ataque de nervios

      Explanation:

      Culture bound illnesses are psychiatric conditions that are specific to one particular culture. There are many different types of culture bound illnesses, including Amok, Shenjing shuairuo, Ataque de nervios, Bilis, colera, Bouffee delirante, Brain fag, Dhat, Falling-out, blacking out, Ghost sickness, Hwa-byung, wool-hwa-byung, Koro, Latah, Locura, Mal de ojo, Nervios, Rootwork, Pibloktoq, Qi-gong psychotic reaction, Sangue dormido, Shen-k’uei, shenkui, Shin-byung, Taijin kyofusho, Spell, Susto, Zar, and Wendigo.

      Some of the most commonly discussed culture bound illnesses include Amok, which is confined to males in the Philippines and Malaysia who experience blind, murderous violence after a real of imagined insult. Ataque de nervios is a condition that occurs in those of Latino descent and is characterized by intense emotional upset, shouting uncontrollably, aggression, dissociation, seizure-like episodes, and suicidal gestures. Brain fag is a form of psychological distress first identified in Nigerian students in the 1960s but reported more generally in the African diaspora. It consists of a variety of cognitive and sensory disturbances that occur during periods of intense intellectual activity. Koro is a condition that affects Chinese patients who believe that their penis is withdrawing inside their abdomen, resulting in panic and the belief that they will die. Taijin kyofusho is a Japanese culture bound illness characterized by anxiety about and avoidance of interpersonal situations due to the thought, feeling, of conviction that one’s appearance and actions in social interactions are inadequate of offensive to others. Finally, Wendigo is a culture bound illness that occurs in Native American tribes during severe winters and scarcity of food, characterized by a distaste for food that leads to anxiety and the belief that one is turning into a cannibalistic ice spirit.

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      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 19 - Which of the options below indicates a strong fixation of preoccupation with something?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the options below indicates a strong fixation of preoccupation with something?

      Your Answer: Repeating prayers to relieve anxiety about being sinful

      Correct Answer: Experiencing repetitive and unpleasant urges to stab animals

      Explanation:

      The question asks for the most suggestive option, and it should be noted that for something to be considered an obsession according to DSM-5 criteria, it must be time-consuming of cause significant distress of impairment in important areas of functioning. Obsessions can manifest as intrusive and unpleasant urges, thoughts, of images.

      Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is a mental health condition characterized by the presence of either obsessions or compulsions, and often both. Obsessions are repetitive and persistent thoughts, images, of impulses that are intrusive and unwanted, while compulsions are repetitive behaviors of rituals that an individual feels driven to perform in response to an obsession of according to rigid rules. The symptoms can cause significant functional impairment and/of distress. To diagnose OCD, the essential features include the presence of persistent obsessions and/of compulsions that are time-consuming of result in significant distress of impairment in important areas of functioning. The symptoms cannot be attributed to another medical condition of the effects of a substance of medication on the central nervous system.

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  • Question 20 - What is the term used to describe an intense and brief emotional reaction...

    Incorrect

    • What is the term used to describe an intense and brief emotional reaction to a minor trigger?

      Your Answer: Minimisation

      Correct Answer: Emotional lability

      Explanation:

      Understanding Emotional Lability

      Emotional lability is a condition characterized by an excessive and brief emotional response to a minor stimulus. It is a common symptom of various neurological and psychiatric disorders, including traumatic brain injury, multiple sclerosis, Parkinson’s disease, bipolar disorder, and borderline personality disorder. People with emotional lability may experience sudden and intense mood swings, such as crying, laughing, anger, of irritability, that are out of proportion to the situation.

      One of the most challenging aspects of emotional lability is the lack of control over one’s emotions. Pathological crying of laughing is a common manifestation of emotional lability, where a person may burst into tears of laughter without any apparent reason of context. This can be embarrassing, distressing, and socially isolating, as it may be perceived as a sign of weakness, instability, of immaturity.

      Treatment for emotional lability depends on the underlying cause and severity of the symptoms. In some cases, medication, such as antidepressants, antipsychotics, of mood stabilizers, may be prescribed to regulate the mood and reduce the frequency and intensity of emotional outbursts. Psychotherapy, such as cognitive-behavioral therapy of dialectical behavior therapy, can also help individuals with emotional lability to develop coping skills, emotional regulation strategies, and interpersonal communication skills.

      It is important to note that emotional lability is not a character flaw of a personal weakness, but a medical condition that requires proper diagnosis and treatment. Seeking professional help from a qualified healthcare provider can help individuals with emotional lability to improve their quality of life, enhance their relationships, and regain their emotional stability and resilience.

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      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 21 - A child you grounded for misbehaving throws a tantrum at their sibling, but...

    Incorrect

    • A child you grounded for misbehaving throws a tantrum at their sibling, but behaves politely with you despite feeling angry about the punishment.

      Which defense mechanism is demonstrated?

      Your Answer: Undoing

      Correct Answer: Displacement

      Explanation:

      In order for splitting to be present, the patient must demonstrate an inability to recognize others as multifaceted individuals with both positive and negative qualities, and instead resort to idealizing of devaluing them. Additionally, the patient may project their emotions onto an object they deem less significant.

      Intermediate Mechanism: Rationalisation

      Rationalisation is a defense mechanism commonly used by individuals to create false but credible justifications for their behavior of actions. It involves the use of logical reasoning to explain away of justify unacceptable behavior of feelings. The individual may not be aware that they are using this mechanism, and it can be difficult to identify in oneself.

      Rationalisation is considered an intermediate mechanism, as it is common in healthy individuals from ages three to ninety, as well as in neurotic disorders and in mastering acute adult stress. It can be dramatically changed by conventional psychotherapeutic interpretation.

      Examples of rationalisation include a student who fails an exam and blames the teacher for not teaching the material well enough, of a person who cheats on their partner and justifies it by saying their partner was neglectful of unaffectionate. It allows the individual to avoid taking responsibility for their actions and to maintain a positive self-image.

      Overall, rationalisation can be a useful defense mechanism in certain situations, but it can also be harmful if it leads to a lack of accountability and an inability to learn from mistakes.

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      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 22 - What is a true statement about the Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about the Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale?

      Your Answer: It scores intelligence out of 20

      Correct Answer: It includes an assessment of working memory

      Explanation:

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      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 23 - What is the most indicative sign of depression in the mental state examination?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most indicative sign of depression in the mental state examination?

      Your Answer: An excessively neat appearance

      Correct Answer: Disheveled hair

      Explanation:

      Mental State Exam: Appearance

      The appearance of a patient can provide valuable clues to an underlying disorder. It is important to note that the following examples are not always present, but they can be helpful for educational purposes.

      Individuals experiencing hypomania or mania may tend to wear bright and colorful clothing and may apply unusual of garish makeup. On the other hand, unfashionable and mismatched clothing may indicate schizoid personality traits of autistic spectrum disorders.

      An excessively tidy appearance may suggest an obsessional personality. It is important to consider these cues in conjunction with other aspects of the mental state exam to arrive at an accurate diagnosis. Proper observation and interpretation of a patient’s appearance can aid in the development of an effective treatment plan.

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  • Question 24 - Which of the following symptoms in the PANSS scale for schizophrenia is classified...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following symptoms in the PANSS scale for schizophrenia is classified as a positive symptom?

      Your Answer: Unusual thought content

      Correct Answer: Conceptual disorganisation

      Explanation:

      The Positive and Negative Syndrome Scale (PANSS) is a tool used to measure the severity of symptoms in patients with schizophrenia. The scale is divided into three categories: positive symptoms, negative symptoms, and general psychopathology symptoms. Each category has several items that are scored on a seven-point severity scale. The positive symptoms include delusions, hallucinations, and hyperactivity, while the negative symptoms include blunted affect and lack of spontaneity. The general psychopathology symptoms include anxiety, depression, and poor impulse control. The PANSS is a valuable tool for clinicians to assess the severity of symptoms in patients with schizophrenia and to monitor their progress over time.

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  • Question 25 - In which sensory modality does formication occur? ...

    Incorrect

    • In which sensory modality does formication occur?

      Your Answer: Olfactory

      Correct Answer: Tactile

      Explanation:

      The feeling of insects crawling on the skin, also known as tactile hallucination, is referred to as formication. This symptom has been extensively studied and can be caused by various factors.

      Altered Perceptual Experiences

      Disorders of perception can be categorized into sensory distortions and sensory deceptions. Sensory distortions involve changes in the intensity, spatial form, of quality of a perception. Examples include hyperaesthesia, hyperacusis, and micropsia. Sensory deceptions, on the other hand, involve new perceptions that are not based on any external stimulus. These include illusions and hallucinations.

      Illusions are altered perceptions of a stimulus, while hallucinations are perceptions in the absence of a stimulus. Completion illusions, affect illusions, and pareidolic illusions are examples of illusions. Auditory, visual, gustatory, olfactory, and tactile hallucinations are different types of hallucinations. Pseudohallucinations are involuntary and vivid sensory experiences that are interpreted in a non-morbid way. They are different from true hallucinations in that the individual is able to recognize that the experience is an internally generated event.

      Understanding the different types of altered perceptual experiences is important in the diagnosis and treatment of various mental health conditions.

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  • Question 26 - Which condition is most likely to be present when a woman is described...

    Incorrect

    • Which condition is most likely to be present when a woman is described as having poor dental hygiene, disheveled hair, and an unkempt appearance during a mental state examination?

      Your Answer: Borderline personality disorder

      Correct Answer: Schizophrenia

      Explanation:

      Mental State Exam: Appearance

      The appearance of a patient can provide valuable clues to an underlying disorder. It is important to note that the following examples are not always present, but they can be helpful for educational purposes.

      Individuals experiencing hypomania or mania may tend to wear bright and colorful clothing and may apply unusual of garish makeup. On the other hand, unfashionable and mismatched clothing may indicate schizoid personality traits of autistic spectrum disorders.

      An excessively tidy appearance may suggest an obsessional personality. It is important to consider these cues in conjunction with other aspects of the mental state exam to arrive at an accurate diagnosis. Proper observation and interpretation of a patient’s appearance can aid in the development of an effective treatment plan.

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  • Question 27 - What is the term used to describe a delusion that is both systematic...

    Incorrect

    • What is the term used to describe a delusion that is both systematic and rational?

      Your Answer: Conceptualised

      Correct Answer: Systematised

      Explanation:

      Delusional Structure

      Delusions can be categorized based on their logical consistency and organization. Logical delusions are consistent with logical thinking, while paralogical delusions are not. Delusions can also be organized, integrated into a formed concept, of unorganized. Highly organized, logical delusions are referred to as systematized.

      The relationship between delusional beliefs and reality can also be described in different ways. Polarized delusions mix fact and delusion together, while juxtaposed delusions exist side by side with facts but do not interact. Autistic delusions completely disregard actual reality, and the patient lives in a delusional world.

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  • Question 28 - What is the primary focus of the serial sevens test, which is included...

    Incorrect

    • What is the primary focus of the serial sevens test, which is included in the MMSE?

      Your Answer: Visual construction

      Correct Answer: Concentration

      Explanation:

      The main purpose of the ‘serial sevens’ is to evaluate an individual’s ability to focus and maintain attention. It also has a secondary function of assessing memory to some degree.

      Mini Mental State Exam (MMSE)

      The Mini Mental State Exam (MMSE) was developed in 1975 by Folstein et al. Its original purpose was to differentiate between organic and functional disorders, but it is now mainly used to detect and track the progression of cognitive impairment. The exam is scored out of 30 and is divided into seven categories: orientation to place and time, registration, attention and concentration, recall, language, visual construction, and attention to written command. Each category has a possible score, and the total score can indicate the severity of cognitive impairment. A score equal to or greater than 27 indicates normal cognition, while scores below this can indicate severe, moderate, of mild cognitive impairment. The MMSE is a useful tool for detecting and tracking cognitive impairment.

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  • Question 29 - An elderly woman attempts to light herself on fire to demonstrate to her...

    Incorrect

    • An elderly woman attempts to light herself on fire to demonstrate to her therapist that she has already passed away. What type of delusion is this an example of?

      Your Answer: Delusional infestation

      Correct Answer: Cotard's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Types of Delusions

      Delusions come in many different forms. It is important to familiarize oneself with these types as they may be tested in an exam. Some of the most common types of delusions include:

      – Folie a deux: a shared delusion between two or more people
      – Grandiose: belief that one has special powers, beliefs, of purpose
      – Hypochondriacal: belief that something is physically wrong with the patient
      – Ekbom’s syndrome: belief that one has been infested with insects
      – Othello syndrome: belief that a sexual partner is cheating on them
      – Capgras delusion: belief that a person close to them has been replaced by a double
      – Fregoli delusion: patient identifies a familiar person (usually suspected to be a persecutor) in other people they meet
      – Syndrome of subjective doubles: belief that doubles of him/her exist
      – Lycanthropy: belief that one has been transformed into an animal
      – De Clérambault’s syndrome: false belief that a person is in love with them
      – Cotard’s syndrome/nihilistic delusions: belief that they are dead of do not exist
      – Referential: belief that others/TV/radio are speaking directly to of about the patient
      – Delusional perception: belief that a normal percept (product of perception) has a special meaning
      – Pseudocyesis: a condition whereby a woman believes herself to be pregnant when she is not. Objective signs accompany the belief such as abdominal enlargement, menstrual disturbance, apparent foetal movements, nausea, breast changes, and labour pains.

      Remembering these types of delusions can be helpful in understanding and diagnosing patients with delusional disorders.

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  • Question 30 - Which of the following best describes a patient with schizophrenia who reports feeling...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following best describes a patient with schizophrenia who reports feeling like their thoughts are compressed and racing?

      Your Answer: Fusion

      Correct Answer: Crowding

      Explanation:

      Formal Thought Disorders

      In formal thought disorders, changes in the speed, coherence, and cogency of thought can be observed from a patient’s speech. These disorders can also be self-reported and may be accompanied by enhanced use of nonverbal language. One possible indication is a lack of an adequate connection between two consecutive thoughts, which is called ‘asyndesis’.

      There are several types of formal thought disorders, including inhibited thinking, retarded thinking, circumstantial thinking, restricted thinking, perseverative thinking, rumination, pressured thinking, flight of ideas, tangential thinking, thought blocking, disruption of thought, incoherence/derailment, and neologisms.

      Inhibited thinking is about the subjective experience of the patient, who may feel that their thinking process is slowed down of blocked by an inner wall of resistance. Retarded thinking, on the other hand, is about the observed quality of thought as inferred through speech, where the flow of thought processes is slowed down and sluggish.

      Circumstantial thinking refers to an inability to separate the essential from the unessential during a conversation without rendering the conversation incoherent. Restricted thinking involves a limited range of thought content, fixation on one particular topic of a small number of topics only, and a stereotyped pattern of thinking.

      Perseverative thinking is characterized by the persistent repetition of previously used words, phrases, of details to the point where they become meaningless in the context of the current stage of the interview. Rumination is the endless mental preoccupation with, of excessive concern over, mostly unpleasant thoughts.

      Pressured thinking, also known as crowding of thought, is when the patient feels helplessly exposed to the pressures of floods of different ideas of thoughts. Flight of ideas involves an increasing multitude of thoughts and ideas which are no longer firmly guided by clear goal-directed thinking.

      Tangential thinking occurs when the patient appears to understand the contents of the questions addressed to them but provides answers which are completely out of context. Thought blocking of disruption of thought refers to sudden disruption of an otherwise normal flow of thought of speech for no obvious reason.

      Incoherence of derailment is when the interviewer is unable to establish sensible connections between the patient’s thinking and verbal output, which is sometimes also called derailment. Neologisms involve the formation of new words of usage of words which disregard normal conventions and are generally not easily understandable.

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  • Question 31 - A child who has recently been commenced on antipsychotics is found in bed...

    Incorrect

    • A child who has recently been commenced on antipsychotics is found in bed adopting a strange posture, what would you suspect?

      Your Answer: Akinesia

      Correct Answer: Dystonia

      Explanation:

      Drug-induced dystonias typically manifest within a few days of initiating antipsychotic medication (of following a significant dosage increase). While they can affect any muscle group, they most frequently occur in the head and neck region.

      Movement Disorders: Key Features

      Movement disorders refer to a range of conditions that affect voluntary muscle movements. These disorders can be caused by various factors, including neurological conditions, medication side effects, and metabolic imbalances. The following table outlines some of the key features of common movement disorders:

      Akinesia: Absence of loss of control of voluntary muscle movements, often seen in severe Parkinson’s disease.

      Bradykinesia: Slowness of voluntary movement, a core symptom of Parkinson’s disease.

      Akathisia: Subjective feeling of inner restlessness, often caused by antipsychotic medication use.

      Athetosis: Continuous stream of slow, flowing, writhing involuntary movements, often seen in cerebral palsy, stroke, and Huntington’s disease.

      Chorea: Brief, quasi-purposeful, irregular contractions that appear to flow from one muscle to the next, often seen in Huntington’s disease and Wilson’s disease.

      Dystonia: Involuntary sustained of intermittent muscle contractions that cause twisting and repetitive movements, abnormal postures, of both.

      Dyskinesia: General term referring to problems with voluntary movements and the presence of involuntary movements, often drug-induced.

      Myoclonus: A sequence of repeated, often non-rhythmic, brief shock-like jerks due to sudden involuntary contraction of relaxation of one of more muscles.

      Parkinsonism: Syndrome characterized by tremor, rigidity, and bradykinesia.

      Tic: Sudden, repetitive, non-rhythmic, stereotyped motor movement of vocalization involving discrete muscle groups, often seen in Tourette’s syndrome.

      Tremor: Involuntary, rhythmic, alternating movement of one of more body parts, often seen in essential tremor, Parkinson’s disease, and alcohol withdrawal.

      Hemiballismus: Repetitive, but constantly varying, large amplitude involuntary movements of the proximal parts of the limbs, often seen in stroke and traumatic brain injury.

      Stereotypies: Repetitive, simple movements that can be voluntarily suppressed, often seen in autism and intellectual disability.

      It is important to consider the underlying conditions and factors that may contribute to movement disorders in order to properly diagnose and treat these conditions.

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  • Question 32 - Which of the following statements is most in line with the International Classification...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is most in line with the International Classification of Diseases (ICD-11) guidelines?

      Your Answer: International classification of diseases is available only in English

      Correct Answer: International classification of diseases uses the term mental disorder

      Explanation:

      Classification of Diseases: A Brief Overview

      A scientific classification system should have standardized names, clear operational criteria, and a multiaxial arrangement for citing important attributes. The International Classification of Diseases (ICD) has been the main nosologic system for identifying human ailments for the past century. It has a well-organized and widely accepted nomenclature, but lacks operational criteria and an appropriate multiaxial pattern. The ICD-10 is available in major languages and classifies psychiatric conditions under Mental and behavioural disorders in Chapter V. However, it does not include social consequences of the disorder, which is included in the DSM IV under Axis 4 (Psychosocial and Environmental Problems). Neurasthenia is classified under Other neurotic disorders (F48.0) in the ICD-10. Overall, classification of diseases is a system of categories to which morbid entities are assigned according to established criteria.

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  • Question 33 - What information of tool would be of the least use to a doctor...

    Incorrect

    • What information of tool would be of the least use to a doctor who wants to assess a patient for a personality disorder?

      Your Answer: SAPAS

      Correct Answer: BPRS

      Explanation:

      The BPRS is a tool used to assess symptoms in individuals with functional mental illness. There are also various screening tools available for personality disorders, which you should have a basic knowledge of for the exam. These include the SAPAS, which is an interview method that focuses on 8 areas and takes 2 minutes to complete. It is scored between 0 and 8 based on yes/no answers to 8 statements, and a score of 3 of more warrants further assessment. The FFMRF is a self-reported tool consisting of 30 items rated 1-5 for each item, based on symptoms rather than diagnosis. The IPDE is a semistructured clinical interview compatible with the ICD and DSM, which includes both a patient questionnaire and an interview.

      In psychiatry, various questionnaires and interviews are used to assess different conditions and areas. It is important for candidates to know whether certain assessment tools are self-rated of require clinical assistance. The table provided by the college lists some of the commonly used assessment tools and indicates whether they are self-rated of clinician-rated. For example, the HAMD and MADRS are clinician-rated scales used to assess the severity of depression, while the GDS is a self-rated scale used to screen for depression in the elderly. The YMRS is a clinician-rated scale used to assess the severity of mania in patients with bipolar disorder, while the Y-BOCS is used to measure both the severity of OCD and the response to treatment. The GAF provides a single measure of global functioning, while the CGI requires the clinician to rate the severity of the patient’s illness at the time of assessment. The CAMDEX is a tool developed to assist in the early diagnosis and measurement of dementia in the elderly.

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  • Question 34 - A 28 year old man with anxiety is referred to clinic by his...

    Correct

    • A 28 year old man with anxiety is referred to clinic by his GP. On examination you find an elevated blood pressure and notice his lower legs appear mottled. His pulse is 140 bpm. Testing of his urine would most likely demonstrate raised levels of which of the following metabolites?:

      Your Answer: Vanillylmandelic acid

      Explanation:

      Based on the patient’s characteristics, it is possible that he has a pheochromocytoma.

      Pheochromocytoma: Symptoms and Diagnosis

      A pheochromocytoma is a tumor that secretes catecholamines and is usually found in the adrenal glands. Symptoms of this condition include hypertension, tachycardia, diaphoresis, livedo reticularis (mottled skin), postural hypotension, tachypnea, cold and clammy skin, severe headache, angina, palpitations, nausea, and vomiting.

      To diagnose pheochromocytoma, doctors measure the levels of catecholamine products in the blood of urine. The metanephrines vanillylmandelic acid (VMA) and homovanillic acid (HVA) are the principal urinary metabolic products of epinephrine and norepinephrine. Healthy individuals excrete only small amounts of these substances.

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  • Question 35 - What is a known factor that directly leads to polyuria? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a known factor that directly leads to polyuria?

      Your Answer: Hypocalcaemia

      Correct Answer: Hyperthyroidism

      Explanation:

      Psychogenic polydipsia is a condition where there is excessive consumption of fluids leading to polyuria, and it is commonly seen in psychiatric conditions such as schizophrenia and developmental disorders. The exact mechanism is unknown, but it is thought to be due to a defect in thirst and a dysfunction in AVP regulation. Patients with psychogenic polydipsia rarely complain of thirst but instead provide delusional explanations for their excessive drinking of state that drinking reduces their anxiety and makes them feel better. If fluid intake exceeds the capacity for excretion, then the resultant hyponatremia may produce signs of water intoxication. It is best managed by fluid restriction. Differential diagnosis should be done to rule out other causes of polyuria and polydipsia. Investigations such as fluid balance charts, urine dipstick, serum U&E and calcium, and urine and plasma osmolality should be arranged. Primary polydipsia can be subclassified into psychogenic and dipsogenic types.

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  • Question 36 - What is the most frequent reason for polyuria? ...

    Correct

    • What is the most frequent reason for polyuria?

      Your Answer: Diabetes mellitus

      Explanation:

      Psychogenic polydipsia is a condition where there is excessive consumption of fluids leading to polyuria, and it is commonly seen in psychiatric conditions such as schizophrenia and developmental disorders. The exact mechanism is unknown, but it is thought to be due to a defect in thirst and a dysfunction in AVP regulation. Patients with psychogenic polydipsia rarely complain of thirst but instead provide delusional explanations for their excessive drinking of state that drinking reduces their anxiety and makes them feel better. If fluid intake exceeds the capacity for excretion, then the resultant hyponatremia may produce signs of water intoxication. It is best managed by fluid restriction. Differential diagnosis should be done to rule out other causes of polyuria and polydipsia. Investigations such as fluid balance charts, urine dipstick, serum U&E and calcium, and urine and plasma osmolality should be arranged. Primary polydipsia can be subclassified into psychogenic and dipsogenic types.

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  • Question 37 - A 16-year-old girl is 5 weeks pregnant. She wants to discuss her options....

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl is 5 weeks pregnant. She wants to discuss her options. The GP provides the girl with a balanced overview of the risks of termination and establishes that she is not in a relationship, has little social support, and would struggle to raise a child.

      The girl talks about his thoughts and feelings with the GP and is clearly uncertain about what to do. Eventually, the GP expresses their own opinion that a termination would be the best option and encourages the girl to consider this route.

      The GP advises the girl to take time to consider all the information, to talk to friends, and then to return once she has made a decision.

      What type of approach to doctor-patient relationships does this GP exhibit?

      Your Answer: Paternalistic

      Correct Answer: Deliberative

      Explanation:

      The GP’s approach can be classified as deliberative as they allow the patient to make the final decision while also sharing their own perspective. However, distinguishing between deliberative and paternalistic approaches can be challenging. If the GP had imposed their decision on the patient, such as insisting on an abortion, it would be considered paternalistic. Similarly, if the GP had presented biased information to influence the patient’s decision, it would also be considered paternalistic.

      Models of Doctor-Patient Relationship

      There are four distinct models of doctor-patient relationship that have been identified. The first is the paternalistic of autocratic model, which assumes that the doctor knows best and makes all decisions regarding treatment. The patient is expected to simply comply with the doctor’s orders. The second model is the informative model, where the doctor provides information to the patient and leaves the decision-making process entirely up to them. The third model is the interpretive model, where the doctor takes the time to understand the patient’s circumstances and helps them make a decision based on their unique situation. This model involves shared decision-making and active participation from the patient. Finally, the deliberative model involves the doctor acting as a friend to the patient and attempting to steer them in a particular course of action that they believe is in the patient’s best interest. However, ultimately, the choice is left up to the patient. Understanding these different models can help doctors and patients work together more effectively to achieve the best possible outcomes.

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  • Question 38 - Which of the following does the statement I saw a man shut his...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following does the statement I saw a man shut his car door today and instantly knew this was a sign that I had to kill the queen exemplify?

      Your Answer: Referential delusion

      Correct Answer: Delusional perception

      Explanation:

      Types of Delusions

      Delusions come in many different forms. It is important to familiarize oneself with these types as they may be tested in an exam. Some of the most common types of delusions include:

      – Folie a deux: a shared delusion between two or more people
      – Grandiose: belief that one has special powers, beliefs, of purpose
      – Hypochondriacal: belief that something is physically wrong with the patient
      – Ekbom’s syndrome: belief that one has been infested with insects
      – Othello syndrome: belief that a sexual partner is cheating on them
      – Capgras delusion: belief that a person close to them has been replaced by a double
      – Fregoli delusion: patient identifies a familiar person (usually suspected to be a persecutor) in other people they meet
      – Syndrome of subjective doubles: belief that doubles of him/her exist
      – Lycanthropy: belief that one has been transformed into an animal
      – De Clérambault’s syndrome: false belief that a person is in love with them
      – Cotard’s syndrome/nihilistic delusions: belief that they are dead of do not exist
      – Referential: belief that others/TV/radio are speaking directly to of about the patient
      – Delusional perception: belief that a normal percept (product of perception) has a special meaning
      – Pseudocyesis: a condition whereby a woman believes herself to be pregnant when she is not. Objective signs accompany the belief such as abdominal enlargement, menstrual disturbance, apparent foetal movements, nausea, breast changes, and labour pains.

      Remembering these types of delusions can be helpful in understanding and diagnosing patients with delusional disorders.

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  • Question 39 - What is the purpose of using Raven's Progressive Matrices test? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the purpose of using Raven's Progressive Matrices test?

      Your Answer: Orientation

      Correct Answer: General intelligence

      Explanation:

      The Raven’s Progressive Matrices test assesses general intelligence without the use of verbal language.

      The field of psychiatry uses various cognitive tests to assess different areas of cognition, including premorbid intelligence, intelligence, memory, attention, language, and others. Some commonly used tests include the National Adult Reading Test (NART) for premorbid intelligence, the Wechsler Adult Intelligence scale (WAIS) and Raven’s Progressive Matrices for intelligence, the Rey-Osterrieth Complex Figure for memory, and the Stroop test, Wisconsin card sorting test, Tower of London, and Continuous Performance Tasks for attention. The Boston naming test and Animal fluency are used to assess language skills. The Halstead-Reitan battery is used specifically for assessing brain damage. These tests are often included in the MRCPsych exams.

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  • Question 40 - A 70-year-old patient is admitted to a medical ward with fulminant hepatic failure....

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old patient is admitted to a medical ward with fulminant hepatic failure. The admitting team observe the patient displaying a tremor, sunflower cataracts, difficulty speaking, and personality change. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Wilson's disease

      Explanation:

      Understanding Wilson’s Disease: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      Wilson’s disease, also known as hepatolenticular degeneration, is a genetic disorder that affects copper storage in the body. This condition is caused by a defect in the ATP7B gene, which leads to the accumulation of copper in the liver and brain. The onset of symptoms usually occurs between the ages of 10 and 25, with liver disease being the most common presentation in children and neurological symptoms in young adults.

      The excessive deposition of copper in the tissues can cause a range of symptoms, including hepatitis, cirrhosis, basal ganglia degeneration, speech and behavioral problems, asterixis, chorea, dementia, Kayser-Fleischer rings, sunflower cataract, renal tubular acidosis, haemolysis, and blue nails. Diagnosis is based on reduced serum ceruloplasmin, reduced serum copper, and increased 24-hour urinary copper excretion.

      The traditional first-line treatment for Wilson’s disease is penicillamine, which chelates copper. Trientine hydrochloride is an alternative chelating agent that may become first-line treatment in the future. Tetrathiomolybdate is a newer agent that is currently under investigation.

      In summary, Wilson’s disease is a genetic disorder that affects copper storage in the body, leading to a range of symptoms that can affect the liver, brain, and eyes. Early diagnosis and treatment are essential to prevent complications and improve outcomes.

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  • Question 41 - Which of the following characteristics is not associated with catatonia? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following characteristics is not associated with catatonia?

      Your Answer: Ambitendency

      Correct Answer: Akathisia

      Explanation:

      – Catatonia is a psychiatric syndrome characterized by disturbed motor functions, mood, and thought.
      – Key behaviors associated with catatonia include stupor, posturing, waxy flexibility, negativism, automatic obedience, mitmachen, mitgehen, ambitendency, psychological pillow, forced grasping, obstruction, echopraxia, aversion, mannerisms, stereotypies, motor perseveration, echolalia, and logorrhoea.
      – These behaviors are often tested in exam questions.
      – Karl Ludwig Kahlbaum is credited with the original clinical description of catatonia.

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  • Question 42 - A woman undergoing analysis has a deep sense that she is inferior and...

    Correct

    • A woman undergoing analysis has a deep sense that she is inferior and unlovable. She is unable to accept this and instead directs these feelings towards her therapist. The therapist finds that after the sessions they feel that they are a substandard therapist and that they are no good at their job. It is unusual for the therapist to feel this way and they note that it only seems to happen with this one patient. Which of the following best describes the feelings experienced by the therapist?

      Your Answer: Projective identification

      Explanation:

      Intermediate Mechanism: Rationalisation

      Rationalisation is a defense mechanism commonly used by individuals to create false but credible justifications for their behavior of actions. It involves the use of logical reasoning to explain away of justify unacceptable behavior of feelings. The individual may not be aware that they are using this mechanism, and it can be difficult to identify in oneself.

      Rationalisation is considered an intermediate mechanism, as it is common in healthy individuals from ages three to ninety, as well as in neurotic disorders and in mastering acute adult stress. It can be dramatically changed by conventional psychotherapeutic interpretation.

      Examples of rationalisation include a student who fails an exam and blames the teacher for not teaching the material well enough, of a person who cheats on their partner and justifies it by saying their partner was neglectful of unaffectionate. It allows the individual to avoid taking responsibility for their actions and to maintain a positive self-image.

      Overall, rationalisation can be a useful defense mechanism in certain situations, but it can also be harmful if it leads to a lack of accountability and an inability to learn from mistakes.

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  • Question 43 - Which of the following symptoms is classified as negative according to the PANSS...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following symptoms is classified as negative according to the PANSS coding system?

      Your Answer: Hostility

      Correct Answer: Stereotyped thinking

      Explanation:

      The Positive and Negative Syndrome Scale (PANSS) is a tool used to measure the severity of symptoms in patients with schizophrenia. The scale is divided into three categories: positive symptoms, negative symptoms, and general psychopathology symptoms. Each category has several items that are scored on a seven-point severity scale. The positive symptoms include delusions, hallucinations, and hyperactivity, while the negative symptoms include blunted affect and lack of spontaneity. The general psychopathology symptoms include anxiety, depression, and poor impulse control. The PANSS is a valuable tool for clinicians to assess the severity of symptoms in patients with schizophrenia and to monitor their progress over time.

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  • Question 44 - What is a true statement about the Addenbrooke's cognitive examination (ACE-III)? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about the Addenbrooke's cognitive examination (ACE-III)?

      Your Answer: It is a cognitive test for assessing dementia and delirium

      Correct Answer: The ACE-III takes approximately 20 minutes to complete

      Explanation:

      The ACE-III is a tool used to evaluate for dementia, but it does not screen for delirium. A diagnosis of dementia is typically made if the score falls between 82-88 out of 100. The original ACE included the MMSE, which allowed for a score to be calculated. However, some items on the MMSE, such as repeating the phrase no ifs, ands, of buts and spelling words backwards, were found to be problematic and have since been replaced. Therefore, it is no longer possible to derive an MMSE score from the ACE.

      The Addenbrooke’s Cognitive Exam: A Brief Screening Tool for Dementia

      The Addenbrooke’s cognitive examination (ACE) is a cognitive screening tool developed to detect dementia and differentiate Alzheimer’s dementia from frontotemporal dementia. It was created to address the limitations of the MMSE, which lacked sensitivity for frontal-executive dysfunction and visuospatial defects. The ACE is a brief test that takes 15-20 minutes to administer and is divided into five domains: attention and orientation, memory, verbal fluency, language, and visuospatial abilities. The total score is based on a maximum score of 100, with higher scores indicating better cognitive functioning.

      The ACE has been shown to be a valid tool for detecting dementia, with two cut-off points often used depending on the required sensitivity and specificity. A score of less than 88 has 100% sensitivity for detecting dementia, while a score of less than 82 has 93% sensitivity and 100% specificity. It has also been useful in differentiating dementia from pseudo dementia and detecting cognitive impairment in atypical Parkinson syndromes. However, while the test has shown 100% sensitivity and specificity in studies, its performance may vary in clinical practice.

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  • Question 45 - For male patients with learning disabilities who have newly diagnosed generalised tonic-clonic epilepsy,...

    Incorrect

    • For male patients with learning disabilities who have newly diagnosed generalised tonic-clonic epilepsy, NICE recommends which of the following as the first-line treatment?

      Your Answer: Topiramate

      Correct Answer: Sodium valproate

      Explanation:

      If the question had been about a female patient with learning difficulties, the pharmacological management of epilepsy may need to be adjusted based on factors such as hormonal changes and potential interactions with birth control medication.

      Epilepsy: An Overview

      Epilepsy is a condition that is diagnosed when a person experiences at least two unprovoked seizures that occur more than 24 hours apart. In the UK, the prevalence of epilepsy is 5-10 cases per 1000. Seizure types are categorized as focal onset of generalized onset. Focal seizures only involve a localized part of the brain, while generalized seizures involve the whole of both hemispheres. Temporal lobe epilepsy is the most common type of focal epilepsy, accounting for 60-70% of cases.

      In 60% of people with epilepsy, there is no identifiable cause. Approximately 70% of people with epilepsy achieve remission, meaning they have no seizures for 5 years on of off treatment. of those with convulsive seizures, 2/3 have focal epilepsies and secondary generalized seizures, while the other 1/3 have generalized tonic-clonic seizures.

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends treatment with antiepileptic drugs (AEDs) after a second epileptic seizure. For newly diagnosed focal seizures, carbamazepine of lamotrigine are recommended as first-line treatment. Levetiracetam, oxcarbazepine, of sodium valproate may be offered if carbamazepine and lamotrigine are unsuitable of not tolerated. For newly diagnosed generalized tonic-clonic seizures, sodium valproate is recommended as first-line treatment, with lamotrigine as an alternative if sodium valproate is unsuitable. For absence seizures, ethosuximide of sodium valproate are recommended as first-line treatment. For myoclonic seizures, sodium valproate is recommended as first-line treatment, and for tonic of atonic seizures, sodium valproate is also recommended as first-line treatment.

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      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 46 - A child explains during a conversation that 'When I saw the man holding...

    Correct

    • A child explains during a conversation that 'When I saw the man holding a glass of wine, I knew my father was dead'.

      This is most indicative of what?

      Your Answer: Delusional perception

      Explanation:

      Borderline Learning Disability

      Borderline learning disability is a term used to describe individuals with an IQ between 70-85. This category is not officially recognized as a diagnosis by the ICD-11. It is estimated that approximately 15% of the population falls within this range (Chaplin, 2005). Unlike mild learning disability, borderline learning disability is not typically associated with deficits in adaptive functioning, such as grooming, dressing, safety, of money management.

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  • Question 47 - What is a true statement about Beck's Depression Inventory? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about Beck's Depression Inventory?

      Your Answer: Does not include questions about suicidality

      Correct Answer: It includes a total of 21 questions

      Explanation:

      The Beck’s depression inventory consists of 21 questions with a maximum score of 63. Each question is scored from 0 to 3 and is used to evaluate the severity of depression. It is a self-rated assessment that covers the two weeks leading up to the evaluation.

      In psychiatry, various questionnaires and interviews are used to assess different conditions and areas. It is important for candidates to know whether certain assessment tools are self-rated of require clinical assistance. The table provided by the college lists some of the commonly used assessment tools and indicates whether they are self-rated of clinician-rated. For example, the HAMD and MADRS are clinician-rated scales used to assess the severity of depression, while the GDS is a self-rated scale used to screen for depression in the elderly. The YMRS is a clinician-rated scale used to assess the severity of mania in patients with bipolar disorder, while the Y-BOCS is used to measure both the severity of OCD and the response to treatment. The GAF provides a single measure of global functioning, while the CGI requires the clinician to rate the severity of the patient’s illness at the time of assessment. The CAMDEX is a tool developed to assist in the early diagnosis and measurement of dementia in the elderly.

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      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 48 - What is a true statement about placebos? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about placebos?

      Your Answer: Placebos are pharmacologically active

      Correct Answer: Placebo induced analgesia can be blocked by naloxone

      Explanation:

      Placebos that are inert can still cause negative effects.

      Understanding the Placebo Effect

      In general, a placebo is an inert substance that has no pharmacological activity but looks, smells, and tastes like the active drug it is compared to. The placebo effect is the observable improvement seen when a patient takes a placebo, which results from patient-related factors such as expectations rather than the placebo itself. Negative effects due to patient-related factors are termed the nocebo effect.

      Active placebos are treatments with chemical activity that mimic the side effects of the drug being tested in a clinical trial. They are used to prevent unblinding of the drug versus the placebo control group. Placebos need not always be pharmacological and can be procedural, such as sham electroconvulsive therapy.

      The placebo effect is influenced by factors such as the perceived strength of the treatment, the status of the treating professional, and the branding of the compound. The placebo response is greater in mild illness, and the response rate is increasing over time. Placebo response is usually short-lived, and repeated use can lead to a diminished effect, known as placebo sag.

      It is difficult to separate placebo effects from spontaneous remission, and patients who enter clinical trials generally do so when acutely unwell, making it challenging to show treatment effects. Breaking the blind may influence the outcome, and the expectancy effect may explain why active placebos are more effective than inert placebos. Overall, understanding the placebo effect is crucial in clinical trials and personalized medicine.

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      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 49 - What does the Flynn Effect refer to in terms of changes observed in...

    Incorrect

    • What does the Flynn Effect refer to in terms of changes observed in successive generations?

      Your Answer: Attention

      Correct Answer: Intelligence

      Explanation:

      The Flynn Effect is the term used to describe the increase in standardised intelligence test scores over time. Research conducted by Flynn showed that IQ scores increased by 13.8 points between 1932 and 1978, which equates to a 0.3-point increase per year of approximately 3 points per decade. More recent studies have also supported the Flynn effect, with IQ score gains observed between 1972 and 2006. This means that an individual is likely to achieve a higher IQ score on an earlier version of a test than on the current version. In fact, the test will overestimate an individual’s IQ score by an average of 0.3 points per year between the year in which the test was normed and the year in which the test was administered.

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      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 50 - In a female of childbearing potential with newly diagnosed generalised tonic-clonic epilepsy, NICE...

    Correct

    • In a female of childbearing potential with newly diagnosed generalised tonic-clonic epilepsy, NICE recommends which treatment as the first-line option?

      Your Answer: Lamotrigine

      Explanation:

      NICE suggests using the less expensive, older antiepileptic medications as the initial treatment option for individuals who are not women of reproductive age.

      Epilepsy: An Overview

      Epilepsy is a condition that is diagnosed when a person experiences at least two unprovoked seizures that occur more than 24 hours apart. In the UK, the prevalence of epilepsy is 5-10 cases per 1000. Seizure types are categorized as focal onset of generalized onset. Focal seizures only involve a localized part of the brain, while generalized seizures involve the whole of both hemispheres. Temporal lobe epilepsy is the most common type of focal epilepsy, accounting for 60-70% of cases.

      In 60% of people with epilepsy, there is no identifiable cause. Approximately 70% of people with epilepsy achieve remission, meaning they have no seizures for 5 years on of off treatment. of those with convulsive seizures, 2/3 have focal epilepsies and secondary generalized seizures, while the other 1/3 have generalized tonic-clonic seizures.

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends treatment with antiepileptic drugs (AEDs) after a second epileptic seizure. For newly diagnosed focal seizures, carbamazepine of lamotrigine are recommended as first-line treatment. Levetiracetam, oxcarbazepine, of sodium valproate may be offered if carbamazepine and lamotrigine are unsuitable of not tolerated. For newly diagnosed generalized tonic-clonic seizures, sodium valproate is recommended as first-line treatment, with lamotrigine as an alternative if sodium valproate is unsuitable. For absence seizures, ethosuximide of sodium valproate are recommended as first-line treatment. For myoclonic seizures, sodium valproate is recommended as first-line treatment, and for tonic of atonic seizures, sodium valproate is also recommended as first-line treatment.

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  • Question 51 - What is the truth about the sudden and unexpected death of an individual...

    Incorrect

    • What is the truth about the sudden and unexpected death of an individual with epilepsy?

      Your Answer: It cannot be classified as SUDEP if death follows a witness seizure

      Correct Answer: It is more common in adults than in children

      Explanation:

      SUDEP, of sudden unexpected death in epilepsy, is a condition where patients with epilepsy die suddenly and unexpectedly without any apparent cause. It is estimated to be responsible for 20-30% of deaths in epilepsy patients. The condition is more common in adults than in children, affecting 1 in 1,000 adults with epilepsy per year. The main risk factor for SUDEP is having active generalised tonic clonic seizures (GTCS), and better control of these seizures through improved compliance can reduce the risk of SUDEP. Other risk factors include nocturnal seizures, lamotrigine, never having been treated with an antiepileptic drug, intellectual disability, and male sex. However, the evidence for these factors is considered low. Autopsy findings in SUDEP cases do not reveal any specific cause of death, but obstruction of the airways and cardiorespiratory events such as arrhythmia are thought to be possible mechanisms.

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      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 52 - An older gentleman says that 'my intestines are blocked and the blood has...

    Incorrect

    • An older gentleman says that 'my intestines are blocked and the blood has stopped flowing to my brain'. Which of the following phenomenon is he describing?

      (No changes to paragraph spacing needed)

      Your Answer: Fregoli delusion

      Correct Answer: Nihilistic delusions

      Explanation:

      Types of Delusions

      Delusions come in many different forms. It is important to familiarize oneself with these types as they may be tested in an exam. Some of the most common types of delusions include:

      – Folie a deux: a shared delusion between two or more people
      – Grandiose: belief that one has special powers, beliefs, of purpose
      – Hypochondriacal: belief that something is physically wrong with the patient
      – Ekbom’s syndrome: belief that one has been infested with insects
      – Othello syndrome: belief that a sexual partner is cheating on them
      – Capgras delusion: belief that a person close to them has been replaced by a double
      – Fregoli delusion: patient identifies a familiar person (usually suspected to be a persecutor) in other people they meet
      – Syndrome of subjective doubles: belief that doubles of him/her exist
      – Lycanthropy: belief that one has been transformed into an animal
      – De Clérambault’s syndrome: false belief that a person is in love with them
      – Cotard’s syndrome/nihilistic delusions: belief that they are dead of do not exist
      – Referential: belief that others/TV/radio are speaking directly to of about the patient
      – Delusional perception: belief that a normal percept (product of perception) has a special meaning
      – Pseudocyesis: a condition whereby a woman believes herself to be pregnant when she is not. Objective signs accompany the belief such as abdominal enlargement, menstrual disturbance, apparent foetal movements, nausea, breast changes, and labour pains.

      Remembering these types of delusions can be helpful in understanding and diagnosing patients with delusional disorders.

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  • Question 53 - A forensic psychiatrist evaluates a woman in custody who is accused of murdering...

    Incorrect

    • A forensic psychiatrist evaluates a woman in custody who is accused of murdering her 4 year old daughter. The woman has a background of schizophrenia. She confesses to the psychiatrist that she committed the crime and provides a detailed description of the event. The psychiatrist observes that although she appeared somewhat disturbed by her recollection of the incident, her level of disturbance was significantly lower than anticipated. What does this imply?

      Your Answer: Flat affect

      Correct Answer: Blunt affect

      Explanation:

      The women’s affect is not flat as she displays some emotions, but they seem to be blunted and less intense than anticipated. However, her emotions are appropriate and in line with the situation, indicating that they are not incongruous.

      Mental State Exam – Mood and Affect

      Affect is a term used to describe a patient’s present emotional responsiveness, which is indicated by their facial expression and tone of voice. It can be described as being within normal range, constricted (where the affect is restricted in range and intensity), blunted (similar to constricted but a bit more so), of flat (where there are virtually no signs of affective expression). Mood, on the other hand, is a more prolonged prevailing state of disposition. A feeling is an active experience of somatic sensation of a passive subjective experience of an emotion, while an emotion is best thought of as a feeling and memory intertwined. Apathy is the absence of feeling. It is important to distinguish between affect and mood, as affect is momentary and mood is more prolonged.

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  • Question 54 - A 25-year-old woman is admitted to a psychiatric hospital due to her history...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman is admitted to a psychiatric hospital due to her history of self-harm. She has been diagnosed with borderline personality disorder.
      You want to develop a treatment plan for the patient and assess her risk. The treatment team suggests using a risk assessment tool to evaluate her suicidal risk.
      Which of the following would be the most useful?:

      Your Answer: MMPI (Minnesota multiphasic personality inventory)

      Correct Answer: SARN (structured assessment of risk and need)

      Explanation:

      The Minnesota multiphasic personality inventory (MMPI) is a tool used to diagnose personality dysfunction, but it is not designed to assess an individual’s risk of offending. On the other hand, the historical, clinical and risk management 20 (HCR 20), violence risk appraisal guide (VRAG), and violence risk scale (VRS) are instruments used to evaluate an individual’s risk of violent offending.

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  • Question 55 - Which of the following is the least likely to worsen a physiological tremor?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the least likely to worsen a physiological tremor?

      Your Answer: Amitriptyline

      Correct Answer: Lorazepam

      Explanation:

      Physiological tremors can be intensified by several drugs, while alcohol and benzodiazepines have a tendency to reduce tremors.

      Types of Tremor

      Essential Tremor

      Otherwise known as benign essential tremor, this is the most common type of tremor. It is not associated with any underlying pathology. It usually begins in the 40’s, affects mainly the hands, and is slowly progressive. It tends to worsen with heightened emotion. It usually presents with unilateral upper limb involvement then progresses to both limbs.

      Parkinsonian Tremor

      This tremor is associated with Parkinson’s disease. It is classically described as ‘pill rolling’ due to the characteristic appearance of the fingers.

      Cerebellar Tremor

      Otherwise known as an intention tremor. This is a slow, coarse tremor which gets worse with purposeful movement. This is seen in lithium toxicity (note that the tremor seen as a side effect of long term lithium is fine and classed as physiological).

      Psychogenic Tremor

      Also known as a hysterical tremor. This type of tremor tends to appear and disappear suddenly and is hard to characterise due to its changeable nature. It tends to improve with distraction.

      Physiologic Tremor

      This is a very-low-amplitude fine tremor that is barely visible to the naked eye. It is present in every normal person while maintaining a posture of movement. It becomes enhanced and visible in many conditions such as anxiety, hyperthyroidism, alcohol withdrawal, and as drug induced side effects.

      It is useful to have a basic idea about the frequencies of different types of tremor.

      Type of Tremor Frequency

      Intention 2-3Hz

      Parkinsonian 5Hz

      Essential 7Hz

      Physiological 10Hz

      Psychogenic variable

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  • Question 56 - A 70 year old woman with post-stroke cognitive deficits is referred for an...

    Incorrect

    • A 70 year old woman with post-stroke cognitive deficits is referred for an assessment of intelligence. Which test would give the best indication of her intelligence as it was before she had a stroke?

      Your Answer: Luria-Nebraska neuropsychological battery

      Correct Answer: The National Adult Reading Test

      Explanation:

      The National Adult Reading Test as a Valid Measure of Premorbid Intelligence

      The National Adult Reading Test (NART) is a reliable and valid assessment tool for measuring premorbid intelligence. It comprises 50 words with irregular spellings, and the test-taker must correctly pronounce each word to receive a point. The NART is a useful tool for assessing cognitive function in individuals with neurological disorders of brain injuries, as it provides a baseline measure of their intellectual abilities before the onset of their condition. The NART is a widely used and respected measure of premorbid intelligence, and its results can inform clinical decision-making and treatment planning.

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  • Question 57 - What is the most effective way to distinguish between hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most effective way to distinguish between hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism?

      Your Answer: Appetite changes

      Correct Answer: Brisk reflexes

      Explanation:

      Hyperthyroidism is typically associated with brisk reflexes, while hypothyroidism is associated with reduced reflexes. However, the other symptoms and signs can be present in both hyperthyroidism and hypothyroidism.

      Thyroid Examination Findings

      Hypothyroidism:

      – Weight gain (with decreased appetite)
      – Intolerance to cold
      – Lethargy
      – Constipation
      – Menstrual disturbances
      – Decreased perspiration

      Exam findings:

      – Hair loss
      – Bradycardia
      – Periorbital puffiness and dry skin
      – Coarse, brittle, straw-like hair
      – Myxoedema
      – Hyporeflexia

      Hyperthyroidism:

      – Weight loss (with increased appetite)
      – Intolerance to heat
      – Palpitations
      – Menstrual disturbances

      Exam findings:

      – Hair loss
      – Tachycardia
      – Warm, moist, and smooth skin
      – Tremor
      – Brisk reflexes

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  • Question 58 - What is the definition of alexithymia? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the definition of alexithymia?

      Your Answer: Loss of sensation on one half of the body

      Correct Answer: An inability to describe emotions

      Explanation:

      Alexithymia is a condition characterized by a lack of ability to understand, process, of describe emotions. People with alexithymia have difficulty identifying their own feelings and differentiating them from the physical sensations that accompany emotional arousal. They also struggle to articulate their emotions to others. Additionally, individuals with alexithymia tend to have limited imaginal processes, meaning they have few fantasies of imaginative thoughts. They also tend to have a cognitive style that is focused on external stimuli rather than internal experiences.

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  • Question 59 - What is the personality trait that is not included in the big five?...

    Correct

    • What is the personality trait that is not included in the big five?

      Your Answer: Generosity

      Explanation:

      The Big Five Personality Traits, also known as OCEAN, are five broad categories that can be used to describe an individual’s personality. These categories include Openness to Experience, Conscientiousness, Extraversion (also known as Surgency), Agreeableness, and Neuroticism (also known as Emotional Stability). Each of these traits can be further broken down into specific characteristics that help to define an individual’s personality. For example, Openness to Experience includes traits such as imagination, creativity, and a willingness to try new things. Conscientiousness includes traits such as organization, responsibility, and dependability. Extraversion includes traits such as sociability, assertiveness, and energy level. Agreeableness includes traits such as kindness, empathy, and cooperation. Finally, Neuroticism includes traits such as anxiety, moodiness, and emotional instability. Understanding these personality traits can be helpful in a variety of settings, such as in the workplace of in personal relationships.

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  • Question 60 - What is the purpose of using the Rey-Osterrieth Complex Figure test? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the purpose of using the Rey-Osterrieth Complex Figure test?

      Your Answer: Personality

      Correct Answer: Memory

      Explanation:

      The field of psychiatry uses various cognitive tests to assess different areas of cognition, including premorbid intelligence, intelligence, memory, attention, language, and others. Some commonly used tests include the National Adult Reading Test (NART) for premorbid intelligence, the Wechsler Adult Intelligence scale (WAIS) and Raven’s Progressive Matrices for intelligence, the Rey-Osterrieth Complex Figure for memory, and the Stroop test, Wisconsin card sorting test, Tower of London, and Continuous Performance Tasks for attention. The Boston naming test and Animal fluency are used to assess language skills. The Halstead-Reitan battery is used specifically for assessing brain damage. These tests are often included in the MRCPsych exams.

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  • Question 61 - What is the term used to describe a type of hallucination that occurs...

    Incorrect

    • What is the term used to describe a type of hallucination that occurs during the process of waking up?

      Your Answer: Hypnagogic

      Correct Answer: Hypnopompic

      Explanation:

      Altered Perceptual Experiences

      Disorders of perception can be categorized into sensory distortions and sensory deceptions. Sensory distortions involve changes in the intensity, spatial form, of quality of a perception. Examples include hyperaesthesia, hyperacusis, and micropsia. Sensory deceptions, on the other hand, involve new perceptions that are not based on any external stimulus. These include illusions and hallucinations.

      Illusions are altered perceptions of a stimulus, while hallucinations are perceptions in the absence of a stimulus. Completion illusions, affect illusions, and pareidolic illusions are examples of illusions. Auditory, visual, gustatory, olfactory, and tactile hallucinations are different types of hallucinations. Pseudohallucinations are involuntary and vivid sensory experiences that are interpreted in a non-morbid way. They are different from true hallucinations in that the individual is able to recognize that the experience is an internally generated event.

      Understanding the different types of altered perceptual experiences is important in the diagnosis and treatment of various mental health conditions.

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  • Question 62 - Among the ethnic groups in the UK, which one has consistently shown the...

    Incorrect

    • Among the ethnic groups in the UK, which one has consistently shown the highest rate of detention (compulsory admission)?

      Your Answer: Pakistani

      Correct Answer: Black

      Explanation:

      Institutional Racism in Psychiatry

      There has been growing concern that institutional racism may be contributing to the overrepresentation of Black patients in mental health settings. Despite ethnic minorities making up only 9% of the UK population, the 2010 ‘Count me in Census’ found that 23% of inpatients and those on CTOs were from Black and minority ethnic groups. Black minority groups also had higher rates of admission, detention, and seclusion.

      While patient factors, such as higher rates of mental illness in Black minority groups, may contribute to these findings, there is also a suggestion of inherent racism within psychiatry. This may manifest in perceptions of Black and minority ethnic patients being at greater risk, as well as systemic factors that disadvantage these groups.

      It is important to address these issues and work towards a more equitable and just mental health system for all patients, regardless of their ethnicity.

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  • Question 63 - The father of a preteen boy persistently makes comments suggesting that his son...

    Incorrect

    • The father of a preteen boy persistently makes comments suggesting that his son is overweight. This is despite the boy being a healthy weight. The father has always felt insecure about his own weight ever since his son was born. The boy becomes upset about his weight and starts to withdraw from social activities and is referred to see a therapist.

      Which of the following dynamic processes best explains the behavior of the son?

      Your Answer: Acting out

      Correct Answer: Projective identification

      Explanation:

      The mother seems to transfer her own feelings of insecurity onto her daughter, who internalizes them even though she has a healthy weight. This phenomenon is known as projective identification, where the projected emotions are adopted and experienced as one’s own.

      Intermediate Mechanism: Rationalisation

      Rationalisation is a defense mechanism commonly used by individuals to create false but credible justifications for their behavior of actions. It involves the use of logical reasoning to explain away of justify unacceptable behavior of feelings. The individual may not be aware that they are using this mechanism, and it can be difficult to identify in oneself.

      Rationalisation is considered an intermediate mechanism, as it is common in healthy individuals from ages three to ninety, as well as in neurotic disorders and in mastering acute adult stress. It can be dramatically changed by conventional psychotherapeutic interpretation.

      Examples of rationalisation include a student who fails an exam and blames the teacher for not teaching the material well enough, of a person who cheats on their partner and justifies it by saying their partner was neglectful of unaffectionate. It allows the individual to avoid taking responsibility for their actions and to maintain a positive self-image.

      Overall, rationalisation can be a useful defense mechanism in certain situations, but it can also be harmful if it leads to a lack of accountability and an inability to learn from mistakes.

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  • Question 64 - What case prompted the creation of the Fraser Guidelines? ...

    Incorrect

    • What case prompted the creation of the Fraser Guidelines?

      Your Answer: Stone

      Correct Answer: Gillick

      Explanation:

      Gillick Competency and Fraser Guidelines

      Gillick competency and Fraser guidelines refer to a legal case which looked specifically at whether doctors should be able to give contraceptive advice of treatment to under 16-year-olds without parental consent. But since then, they have been more widely used to help assess whether a child has the maturity to make their own decisions and to understand the implications of those decisions.

      In 1982, Mrs Victoria Gillick took her local health authority (West Norfolk and Wisbech Area Health Authority) and the Department of Health and Social Security to court in an attempt to stop doctors from giving contraceptive advice of treatment to under 16-year-olds without parental consent.

      The case went to the High Court where Mr Justice Woolf dismissed Mrs Gillick’s claims. The Court of Appeal reversed this decision, but in 1985 it went to the House of Lords and the Law Lords (Lord Scarman, Lord Fraser and Lord Bridge) ruled in favour of the original judgement delivered by Mr Justice Woolf.

      The Fraser Guidelines were laid down by Lord Fraser in the House of Lords’ case and state that it is lawful for doctors to provide contraceptive advice and treatment without parental consent providing that they are satisfied that:

      – The young person will understand the professional’s advice
      – The young person cannot be persuaded to inform their parents
      – The young person is likely to begin, of to continue having, sexual intercourse with of without contraceptive treatment
      – Unless the young person receives contraceptive treatment, their physical of mental health, of both, are likely to suffer
      – The young person’s best interests require them to receive contraceptive advice of treatment with of without parental consent.

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  • Question 65 - Which test assesses a person's intelligence prior to the onset of any illness...

    Incorrect

    • Which test assesses a person's intelligence prior to the onset of any illness of injury?

      Your Answer: Raven's Progressive Matrices

      Correct Answer: National adult reading test

      Explanation:

      The National Adult Reading Test as a Valid Measure of Premorbid Intelligence

      The National Adult Reading Test (NART) is a reliable and valid assessment tool for measuring Premorbid intelligence. It comprises 50 words with irregular spellings, and the test-taker must correctly pronounce each word to receive a point. The NART is a useful tool for assessing cognitive function in individuals with neurological disorders of brain injuries, as it provides a baseline measure of their intellectual abilities before the onset of their condition. The NART is a widely used and respected measure of Premorbid intelligence, and its results can inform clinical decision-making and treatment planning.

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  • Question 66 - What statement accurately describes Eugen Bleuler? ...

    Incorrect

    • What statement accurately describes Eugen Bleuler?

      Your Answer: He coined the term dementia praecox

      Correct Answer: He introduced the concept of accessory symptoms in schizophrenia

      Explanation:

      Historical Classification of Schizophrenia

      The classification of schizophrenia has evolved over time, with various individuals contributing to its development. In 1801, Phillippe Pinel used the term ‘demencé’ to describe the loss of mental abilities in chronically ill patients. Benedict Morel coined the term ‘demencé precocé’ in 1852 to describe young patients with premature dementia. Kahlbaum was the first to describe ‘paraphrenia hebetica’ in the 1860s, which was later elaborated as ‘hebephrenia’ by Hecker in 1871.

      In 1893, Emil Kraepelin used the term dementia praecox to describe the condition, emphasizing the importance of delusions, hallucinations, impaired attention, thought incoherence, stereotyped movements and expressions, deterioration of emotional life, and a loss of drive as key symptoms. In 1908, Eugen Bleuler coined the term ‘schizophrenia’ to replace dementia praecox, denoting ‘a splitting of the psychic functions.’ Bleuler expanded the concept to include presentations that did not include a ‘terminal state.’

      Bleuler introduced a distinction between basic and accessory symptoms and primary and secondary symptoms. Basic symptoms are necessarily present in any case of schizophrenia, while accessory symptoms may of may not occur. The fundamental features of schizophrenia were loosening of associations, disturbances of affectivity, ambivalence, and autism. The alteration of associations is the only symptom that Bleuler regarded as both basic and primary, and can thus be described as the core disturbance in the Bleulerian conception of schizophrenia.

      In 1939, Langfeldt introduced the term ‘schizophreniform psychosis’ to describe patients with Bleulerian schizophrenia who did not follow a progressively deteriorating course. In the 1960s, Rado/Meehl introduced the term ‘schizotypy’ to recognize the concept of a continuum of spectrum of schizophrenia-related phenotypes. In the 1980s, Crow proposed a subclassification of schizophrenia, dividing patients into types I and II. Type I patients present with positive symptoms such as delusions and hallucinations, while type II patients present with negative symptoms such as affective flattening and poverty of speech.

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  • Question 67 - Which movement disorder is most likely to be managed through suppression? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which movement disorder is most likely to be managed through suppression?

      Your Answer: Tremor

      Correct Answer: Stereotypies

      Explanation:

      Movement Disorders: Key Features

      Movement disorders refer to a range of conditions that affect voluntary muscle movements. These disorders can be caused by various factors, including neurological conditions, medication side effects, and metabolic imbalances. The following table outlines some of the key features of common movement disorders:

      Akinesia: Absence of loss of control of voluntary muscle movements, often seen in severe Parkinson’s disease.

      Bradykinesia: Slowness of voluntary movement, a core symptom of Parkinson’s disease.

      Akathisia: Subjective feeling of inner restlessness, often caused by antipsychotic medication use.

      Athetosis: Continuous stream of slow, flowing, writhing involuntary movements, often seen in cerebral palsy, stroke, and Huntington’s disease.

      Chorea: Brief, quasi-purposeful, irregular contractions that appear to flow from one muscle to the next, often seen in Huntington’s disease and Wilson’s disease.

      Dystonia: Involuntary sustained of intermittent muscle contractions that cause twisting and repetitive movements, abnormal postures, of both.

      Dyskinesia: General term referring to problems with voluntary movements and the presence of involuntary movements, often drug-induced.

      Myoclonus: A sequence of repeated, often non-rhythmic, brief shock-like jerks due to sudden involuntary contraction of relaxation of one of more muscles.

      Parkinsonism: Syndrome characterized by tremor, rigidity, and bradykinesia.

      Tic: Sudden, repetitive, non-rhythmic, stereotyped motor movement of vocalization involving discrete muscle groups, often seen in Tourette’s syndrome.

      Tremor: Involuntary, rhythmic, alternating movement of one of more body parts, often seen in essential tremor, Parkinson’s disease, and alcohol withdrawal.

      Hemiballismus: Repetitive, but constantly varying, large amplitude involuntary movements of the proximal parts of the limbs, often seen in stroke and traumatic brain injury.

      Stereotypies: Repetitive, simple movements that can be voluntarily suppressed, often seen in autism and intellectual disability.

      It is important to consider the underlying conditions and factors that may contribute to movement disorders in order to properly diagnose and treat these conditions.

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      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 68 - What is an unexpected symptom in dissociative seizures? ...

    Correct

    • What is an unexpected symptom in dissociative seizures?

      Your Answer: Seizure duration under two minutes

      Explanation:

      Dissociative seizures, also known as pseudoseizures of functional seizures, are abnormal paroxysmal manifestations that resemble epileptic seizures but are not related to abnormal epileptiform discharges. They can be caused by physical factors such as hypoglycemia of cardiac dysfunction, but more commonly result from mental of emotional processes. Dissociative seizures are more common in females and tend to have an onset in late adolescence. Distinguishing between true seizures and pseudoseizures can be challenging, but a rise in serum prolactin levels after a seizure is a helpful diagnostic tool. Treatment options for psychogenic nonepileptic seizures are limited, with cognitive-behavioral therapy being the most studied and effective intervention.

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      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 69 - What ECG alterations are commonly observed in patients who are administered lithium at...

    Incorrect

    • What ECG alterations are commonly observed in patients who are administered lithium at therapeutic doses?

      Your Answer: Brugada pattern

      Correct Answer: Sinus bradycardia

      Explanation:

      When lithium levels become toxic, which is defined as being greater than 1.5 mEq/L, more serious ECG changes can occur. These include sinoatrial block, intraventricular conduction delay, ST depressions of elevations, the Brugada pattern, and atrioventricular conduction delays.

      ECG Changes Associated with Chlorpromazine

      Chlorpromazine is a psychotropic medication that has been associated with various ECG changes. One of the most notable changes is repolarization changes, which can be seen as ST segment and T wave changes. Additionally, chlorpromazine has been linked to heart blocks, which can be detected by a prolonged PR interval.

      Another significant ECG finding associated with chlorpromazine is QTc prolongation. This is a potentially dangerous condition that can lead to torsades de pointes, a type of ventricular tachycardia that can be life-threatening. Other medications that have been linked to QTc prolongation include a wide range of antipsychotics and antidepressants.

      It is important to note that not all patients who take chlorpromazine will experience ECG changes. However, healthcare providers should be aware of the potential risks and monitor patients closely for any signs of cardiac abnormalities. If ECG changes are detected, the medication may need to be adjusted of discontinued to prevent further complications.

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      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 70 - Which of the following is an example of a psychotic defence mechanism? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is an example of a psychotic defence mechanism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Denial

      Explanation:

      Intermediate Mechanism: Rationalisation

      Rationalisation is a defense mechanism commonly used by individuals to create false but credible justifications for their behavior of actions. It involves the use of logical reasoning to explain away of justify unacceptable behavior of feelings. The individual may not be aware that they are using this mechanism, and it can be difficult to identify in oneself.

      Rationalisation is considered an intermediate mechanism, as it is common in healthy individuals from ages three to ninety, as well as in neurotic disorders and in mastering acute adult stress. It can be dramatically changed by conventional psychotherapeutic interpretation.

      Examples of rationalisation include a student who fails an exam and blames the teacher for not teaching the material well enough, of a person who cheats on their partner and justifies it by saying their partner was neglectful of unaffectionate. It allows the individual to avoid taking responsibility for their actions and to maintain a positive self-image.

      Overall, rationalisation can be a useful defense mechanism in certain situations, but it can also be harmful if it leads to a lack of accountability and an inability to learn from mistakes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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