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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman comes to see her GP complaining of persistent abdominal cramping, bloating, and diarrhoea that has been going on for 5 months. She reports no blood in her stools, no unexplained weight loss, and no fatigue. Her medical history includes obesity, but there is no family history of any relevant conditions.
Upon examination, her heart rate is 80 bpm, her blood pressure is 130/75 mmHg, and she has no fever. Both her abdominal and pelvic exams are unremarkable, and there is no pallor or jaundice.
What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient's symptoms?Your Answer: Measure anti-TTG antibodies
Correct Answer: Measure serum CA-125
Explanation:If a woman aged 50 or older presents with persistent symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS), such as cramping, bloating, and diarrhoea, ovarian cancer should be suspected even without other symptoms like unexplained weight loss or fatigue. This is because ovarian cancer often presents with non-specific symptoms similar to IBS and rarely occurs for the first time in patients aged 50 or older. It is important to measure serum CA-125 to help diagnose ovarian cancer. An abdominal and pelvic examination should also be carried out, but if this is normal, measuring CA-125 is the next step. Ultrasound scans of the abdomen and pelvis are recommended once CA-125 has been measured, and if these suggest malignancy, other ultrasounds may be considered under specialist guidance. Measuring anti-TTG antibodies is not necessary in this case, as IBS rarely presents for the first time in patients aged 50 or older. Urgent referral to gastroenterology is not appropriate unless the patient has features of inflammatory bowel disease.
Ovarian cancer is a common malignancy in women, ranking fifth in frequency. It is most commonly diagnosed in women over the age of 60 and has a poor prognosis due to late detection. The majority of ovarian cancers, around 90%, are of epithelial origin, with serous carcinomas accounting for 70-80% of cases. Interestingly, recent research suggests that many ovarian cancers may actually originate in the distal end of the fallopian tube. Risk factors for ovarian cancer include a family history of BRCA1 or BRCA2 gene mutations, early menarche, late menopause, and nulliparity.
Clinical features of ovarian cancer are often vague and can include abdominal distension and bloating, abdominal and pelvic pain, urinary symptoms such as urgency, early satiety, and diarrhea. The initial diagnostic test recommended by NICE is a CA125 blood test, although this can also be elevated in other conditions such as endometriosis and benign ovarian cysts. If the CA125 level is raised, an urgent ultrasound scan of the abdomen and pelvis should be ordered. However, a CA125 test should not be used for screening asymptomatic women. Diagnosis of ovarian cancer is difficult and usually requires a diagnostic laparotomy.
Management of ovarian cancer typically involves a combination of surgery and platinum-based chemotherapy. Unfortunately, 80% of women have advanced disease at the time of diagnosis, leading to a 5-year survival rate of only 46%. It was previously thought that infertility treatment increased the risk of ovarian cancer due to increased ovulation, but recent evidence suggests that this is not a significant factor. In fact, the combined oral contraceptive pill and multiple pregnancies have been shown to reduce the risk of ovarian cancer by reducing the number of ovulations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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An 82-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner (GP) with a 4-month history of progressively worsening jaundice. His wife says that she noticed it a while ago, but her husband has been reluctant to come to see the GP. The man does not complain of any abdominal pain and on examination no masses are felt. He agrees when asked by the GP that he has lost quite some weight recently. The patient has a strong alcohol history and has been smoking 20 cigarettes daily since he was in his twenties. The GP refers the patient to secondary care.
Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer: Cholangiocarcinoma
Correct Answer: Pancreatic cancer
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis of Painless Jaundice in a Patient with Risk Factors for Pancreatic Cancer
This patient presents with painless jaundice, which is most suggestive of obstructive jaundice due to a tumour in the head of the pancreas. The patient also has strong risk factors for pancreatic cancer, such as smoking and alcohol. However, other conditions should be considered in the differential diagnosis, such as chronic cholecystitis, chronic pancreatitis, cholangiocarcinoma, and chronic liver disease.
Chronic cholecystitis is unlikely to be the cause of painless jaundice, as it typically presents with colicky abdominal pain and gallstones on ultrasound. Chronic pancreatitis is a possible diagnosis, given the patient’s risk factors, but it usually involves abdominal pain and fatty diarrhoea. Cholangiocarcinoma is a rare cancer that develops in the bile ducts and can cause jaundice, abdominal pain, and itching. Primary sclerosing cholangitis is a risk factor for cholangiocarcinoma. Chronic liver disease is also a possible consequence of alcohol abuse, but it usually involves other signs such as nail clubbing, palmar erythema, and spider naevi.
Therefore, a thorough evaluation of the patient’s medical history, physical examination, laboratory tests, and imaging studies is necessary to confirm the diagnosis of pancreatic cancer and rule out other potential causes of painless jaundice. Early detection and treatment of pancreatic cancer are crucial for improving the patient’s prognosis and quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman with known alcohol dependence is admitted to the Emergency Department following a 32-hour history of worsening confusion. She complains of excessive sweating and feeling hot; she is also distressed as she says that ants are crawling on her body – although nothing is visible on her skin. She states that over the last few days she has completely stopped drinking alcohol in an attempt to become sober.
On examination she is clearly agitated, with a coarse tremor. Her temperature is 38.2°C, blood pressure is 134/76 mmHg and pulse is 87 beats per minute. She has no focal neurological deficit. A full blood count and urinalysis is taken which reveals the following:
Full blood count:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 144 g/l 135–175 g/l
Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 105 fl 76–98 fl
White cell count (WCC) 6.8 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 220 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
There are no abnormalities detected on urine and electrolytes (U&Es) and liver function tests (LFTs).
Urinalysis:
Investigations Results
Leukocytes Negative
Nitrites Negative
Protein Negative
Blood Negative
Glucose Negative
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Wernicke's encephalopathy
Correct Answer: Delirium tremens
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Alcohol Withdrawal Symptoms
Delirium Tremens, Korsakoff’s Psychosis, Wernicke’s Encephalopathy, Hepatic Encephalopathy, and Focal Brain Infection: Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Alcohol Withdrawal Symptoms
A patient presents with agitation, hyperthermia, and visual hallucinations after acute cessation of alcohol. What could be the possible diagnoses?
Delirium tremens is the most likely diagnosis, given the severity of symptoms and timing of onset. It requires intensive care management, and oral lorazepam is recommended as first-line therapy according to NICE guidelines.
Korsakoff’s psychosis, caused by chronic vitamin B1 deficiency, is unlikely to have caused the patient’s symptoms, but the patient is susceptible to developing it due to alcohol dependence and associated malnutrition. Treatment with thiamine is necessary to prevent this syndrome from arising.
Wernicke’s encephalopathy, also caused by thiamine deficiency, presents with ataxia, ophthalmoplegia, and confusion. As the patient has a normal neurological examination, this diagnosis is unlikely to have caused the symptoms. However, regular thiamine treatment is still necessary to prevent it from developing.
Hepatic encephalopathy, a delirium secondary to hepatic insufficiency, is unlikely as the patient has no jaundice, abnormal LFTs, or hemodynamic instability.
Focal brain infection is also unlikely as there is no evidence of meningitis or encephalitis, and the full blood count and urinalysis provide reassuring results. The high MCV is likely due to alcohol-induced macrocytosis. Although delirium secondary to infection is an important diagnosis to consider, delirium tremens is a more likely diagnosis in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 42-year-old female patient complains of a slow onset of difficulty swallowing both solids and liquids. An upper GI endoscopy shows no abnormalities, and there is no visible swelling in the neck. A preliminary psychiatric evaluation reveals no issues. The on-call junior doctor suspects a psychological or functional cause. What signs would indicate an organic origin for the dysphagia?
Your Answer: Raynaud's phenomenon
Explanation:The relationship between Raynaud’s phenomenon and dysphagia is important in identifying potential underlying systemic diseases such as scleroderma. Raynaud’s phenomenon is a common symptom found in scleroderma, a systemic disease that can cause dysphagia and oesophageal dysmotility. While Raynaud’s phenomenon may be the only early manifestation of scleroderma, gastrointestinal involvement can also occur in the early stages. Therefore, the combination of Raynaud’s phenomenon with oesophageal symptoms should prompt further investigation for scleroderma.
Arthritis is not a specific cause of dysphagia-related illness, although it may occur in a variety of diseases. In scleroderma, arthralgia is more common than arthritis. Globus pharyngeus, the sensation of having something stuck in the throat, can cause severe distress, but despite extensive investigation, there is no known cause. Malar rash, found in systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), is not associated with dysphagia. Weakness is a non-specific symptom that may be a manifestation of psychiatric illness or malnutrition as a consequence of dysphagia, and cannot guide further management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 49-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by ambulance after a witnessed fall. He struck his head on the pavement. He is known to the nursing staff, having been brought in on numerous occasions for the management of alcohol intoxication. On examination, his vital signs are within normal limits, but he is minimally responsive to verbal commands and has slurred speech. He has an elevated serum alcohol level. A computed tomography (CT) brain is reported as normal. He is admitted for overnight observation, hydrated with intravenous dextrose and given acetaminophen for pain relief.
By day 2 of his admission, he remains confused and inappropriate. He appears at times indifferent and does not pay attention to questioning. When he does respond, his answers are tangential and he does not appear to know his own name. On morning ward rounds, you notice that he has a bilateral rectus palsy which was not present at the time of admission. A repeat CT of his brain is normal.
To which one of the following vitamin deficiencies is this presentation is most likely due?Your Answer: Vitamin B1
Explanation:The Importance of B Vitamins in Neurological Health
B vitamins play a crucial role in neurological health, and deficiencies can lead to a range of symptoms and conditions. Wernicke’s encephalopathy, characterized by encephalopathy, oculomotor dysfunction, and gait ataxia, is caused by a deficiency in vitamin B1 and is commonly seen in chronic alcohol users and those with anorexia nervosa or hyperemesis gravidarum. Vitamin B3 deficiency can cause neurologic symptoms, photosensitivity dermatitis, and GI upset, while vitamin B2 deficiency can lead to normochromic, normocytic anemia, pharyngitis, cheilitis, glossitis, and stomatitis. Vitamin B5 deficiency is rare but can cause paraesthesiae of the extremities and GI upset. Vitamin B12 deficiency has multi-system effects, including neurologic syndromes, haematologic syndrome, and skeletal changes. It is crucial to address any potential deficiencies in B vitamins to prevent these neurological complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old obese woman presents to the Emergency Department (ED) with increasing shortness of breath and right-sided chest pain over the past few days. She appears unwell and has a temperature of 38.9°C. On room air, her oxygen saturations are 85%, and her blood pressure is 70/40 mmHg with a heart rate of 130 beats per minute in sinus rhythm. A chest X-ray (CXR) reveals consolidation in the right lower lobe, and her blood tests show bilirubin levels of 120 µmol/litre and ALP levels of 300 IU/litre. She also experiences tenderness in the right upper quadrant.
What additional investigation would you perform to confirm the diagnosis?Your Answer: Blood cultures
Correct Answer: Ultrasound scan abdomen
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Suspected Biliary Problem in a Patient with Pneumonia
When a patient presents with symptoms of pneumonia, it is important to consider other potential underlying conditions. In this case, the patient’s blood tests suggest the possibility of cholecystitis or cholangitis, indicating a potential biliary problem. To confirm or exclude this diagnosis, an ultrasound scan of the abdomen is necessary. If the ultrasound rules out a biliary problem, the pneumonia remains the primary concern. A CT scan of the chest is not necessary at this point since the pneumonia has already been diagnosed. Blood cultures and sputum samples can help identify the organism causing the infection, but they do not confirm the overall diagnosis. Additionally, serum haptoglobin is not a reliable test for confirming haemolysis caused by mycoplasma pneumonia. Overall, a thorough diagnostic approach is necessary to accurately identify and treat the underlying condition in a patient with suspected pneumonia and potential biliary problems.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old Caucasian man presents with a 3-month history of diarrhoea, fatigue, and weight loss. He denies any history of alcohol or drug abuse. He frequently travels to southern India for work. Laboratory tests show mixed macrocytic anaemia with low levels of serum folate and vitamin B12. Stool examination is negative for ova and parasites. A small bowel biopsy reveals predominant mononuclear infiltration and villous destruction throughout the small intestine. What intervention is most likely to improve his symptoms?
Your Answer: Gluten-free diet
Correct Answer: Broad spectrum antibiotics like tetracycline and folate
Explanation:Treatment Options for Tropical Sprue: Broad Spectrum Antibiotics and Folate Supplementation
Tropical sprue is a condition commonly seen in individuals visiting or residing in tropical countries, particularly in southern India. It is characterized by chronic diarrhea, weight loss, and deficiencies in vitamin B12 and folate. Stool examination typically shows no evidence of ova and parasites, while small intestinal biopsy reveals mononuclear cell infiltration and less villous atrophy throughout the intestine.
The recommended treatment for tropical sprue involves the use of broad-spectrum antibiotics, such as tetracyclines, along with folate supplementation. This approach has been shown to effectively reverse the changes in the small intestine associated with the condition.
Other treatment options, such as antihelminthic drugs, are not effective in treating tropical sprue. Similarly, pancreatic enzyme replacement is not indicated in this condition.
It is important to note that tropical sprue should not be confused with coeliac disease, which is treated with a gluten-free diet. In coeliac disease, small intestinal biopsy typically shows severe villous atrophy and mononuclear cell infiltration in the proximal portion of the small bowel.
Finally, double-strength trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole is used in the treatment of Whipple’s disease, which is characterized by PAS-positive macrophages in the lamina propria of the small intestine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man presents to the general practitioner (GP) with a 6-month history of increasing difficulty with swallowing solid foods. He does not have any problems with swallowing liquids. He has always been overweight but has lost 5 kg in the past few months. He attributes this eating a little less due to his swallowing difficulties. He has a past history of long-term heartburn and indigestion, which he has been self-treating with over-the-counter antacids. The GP is concerned that the patient may have oesophageal cancer.
Which one of the following statements with regard to oesophageal cancer is correct?Your Answer: Barrett’s oesophagus is a pre-malignant condition that may lead to squamous carcinoma
Correct Answer: Achalasia predisposes to squamous carcinoma of the oesophagus
Explanation:Understanding Oesophageal Carcinoma: Risk Factors, Diagnosis, and Prognosis
Oesophageal carcinoma is a type of cancer that affects the oesophagus, the muscular tube that connects the throat to the stomach. In this article, we will discuss the risk factors, diagnosis, and prognosis of oesophageal carcinoma.
Risk Factors
Achalasia, a condition that affects the ability of the oesophagus to move food down to the stomach, and alcohol consumption are associated with squamous carcinoma, which most commonly affects the upper and middle oesophagus. Barrett’s oesophagus, a pre-malignant condition that may lead to squamous carcinoma, and gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) predispose to adenocarcinoma, which occurs in the lower oesophagus.
Diagnosis
Barrett’s oesophagus is a recognised pre-malignant condition that requires acid-lowering therapy and frequent follow-up. Ablative and excisional therapies are available. Most cases are amenable to curative surgery at diagnosis. Dysphagia, or difficulty swallowing, is an early manifestation of the disease and is typically experienced with solid foods.
Prognosis
Prognosis depends on the stage and grade at diagnosis, but unfortunately, the disease frequently presents once the cancer has spread. Therefore, early detection and treatment are crucial for improving outcomes.
Conclusion
Oesophageal carcinoma is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Understanding the risk factors, diagnosis, and prognosis can help individuals take steps to reduce their risk and seek medical attention if symptoms arise.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman is found to have gallstones during an abdominal ultrasound. The surgeon informs her that one of the stones is quite large and is currently lodged in the bile duct, about 5 cm above the transpyloric plane. The surgeon explains that this plane is a significant anatomical landmark for several abdominal structures.
What structure is located at the level of the transpyloric plane?Your Answer: Cardio-oesophageal junction
Correct Answer: Origin of the superior mesenteric artery
Explanation:The transpyloric plane, also known as Addison’s plane, is an imaginary plane located at the level of the L1 vertebral body. It is situated halfway between the jugular notch and the superior border of the pubic symphysis and serves as an important anatomical landmark. Various structures lie in this plane, including the pylorus of the stomach, the first part of the duodenum, the duodeno-jejunal flexure, both the hepatic and splenic flexures of the colon, the fundus of the gallbladder, the neck of the pancreas, the hila of the kidneys and spleen, the ninth costal cartilage, and the spinal cord termination. Additionally, the origin of the superior mesenteric artery and the point where the splenic vein and superior mesenteric vein join to form the portal vein are located in this plane. The cardio-oesophageal junction, where the oesophagus meets the stomach, is also found in this area. It is mainly intra-abdominal, 3-4 cm in length, and houses the gastro-oesophageal sphincter. The ninth costal cartilage lies at the transpyloric plane, not the eighth, and the hila of both kidneys are located here, not just the superior pole of the left kidney. The uncinate process of the pancreas, which is an extension of the lower part of the head of the pancreas, lies between the superior mesenteric vessel and the aorta, and the neck of the pancreas is situated along the transpyloric plane.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 31-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of progressive weakness and fatigue. He reports experiencing 'abdominal complaints' for the past 6 years, without relief from any treatments. Upon examination, he appears severely pale and has glossitis. He has been having bowel movements five to six times per day. The only significant history he has is that he had to undergo surgery at the age of 4 to remove a swallowed toy. Blood tests show the following results: Hemoglobin - 98 g/l (normal range: 135-175 g/l), Vitamin B12 - 60 pmol/l (normal range: 160-900 pmol/l), Folate - 51 μg/l (normal range: 2.0-11.0 μg/l), and Cholesterol - 2.7 mmol/l (normal range: <5.2 mmol/l). What is the appropriate definitive treatment for this condition?
Your Answer: Vitamin B12 replacement
Correct Answer: Antibiotics
Explanation:Treatment Options for Small Intestinal Bacterial Overgrowth (SIBO)
Small intestinal bacterial overgrowth (SIBO) is a condition that can cause malabsorption, chronic diarrhea, and megaloblastic anemia. It is often caused by a failure of normal mechanisms that control bacterial growth within the small gut, such as decreased gastric acid secretion and factors that affect gut motility. Patients who have had intestinal surgery are also at an increased risk of developing SIBO.
The most effective treatment for SIBO is a course of antibiotics, such as metronidazole, ciprofloxacin, co-amoxiclav, or rifaximin. A 2-week course of antibiotics may be tried initially, but in many patients, long-term antibiotic therapy may be needed.
In contrast, a gluten-free diet is the treatment for coeliac disease, which presents with malabsorption and iron deficiency anemia. Steroids are not an appropriate treatment for SIBO or coeliac disease, as they can suppress local immunity and allow further bacterial overgrowth.
Vitamin B12 replacement is necessary for patients with SIBO who have megaloblastic anemia due to B12 malabsorption and metabolism by bacteria. There is no indication of intestinal tuberculosis in this patient, but in suspected cases, intestinal biopsy may be needed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man, with a history of chronic alcohol abuse, presents to the Emergency Department with pain in the right and left upper quadrants. He has had bouts of abdominal pain in the past year. For the past month, he has had more frequent and worsening abdominal pain. Physical examination reveals right upper and left upper quadrant pain with guarding. An abdominal plain film radiograph reveals no free air, but there is an extensive peritoneal fluid collection, along with dilated loops of the small bowel. An abdominal computed tomography (CT) scan reveals a 6- to 7-cm cystic mass in the tail of the pancreas.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Pancreatic adenocarcinoma
Correct Answer: Pancreatic pseudocyst
Explanation:Differentiating Pancreatic Conditions: Pseudocysts, Adenocarcinoma, Islet Cell Adenoma, Acute Pancreatitis, and Metastatic Carcinoma
Pancreatic pseudocysts are collections of necrotic-haemorrhagic material that lack an epithelial lining and account for 75% of cysts in the pancreas. They often occur after an episode of acute pancreatitis or traumatic injury to the abdomen.
Pancreatic adenocarcinoma, on the other hand, is a solid mass that is not related to alcoholism. It usually develops in the head of the gland and is characterised by hard, stellate, poorly defined masses.
Islet cell adenomas, which are often non-functional, are not cystic and can be difficult to image due to their small size. However, some may secrete hormones such as insulin or gastrin.
Acute pancreatitis is a reversible inflammation of the pancreas that ranges in severity from oedema and fat necrosis to severe haemorrhage and parenchymal necrosis. It is a medical emergency characterised by sudden severe pain in the abdomen.
Finally, metastatic carcinoma is characterised by multiple solid masses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a 3-week history of tiredness, epigastric discomfort and an episode of passing black stools. His past medical history includes a 4-year history of rheumatoid arthritis for which he takes regular methotrexate, folic acid and naproxen. He recently received a course of oral corticosteroids for a flare of his rheumatoid arthritis. He denies alcohol consumption and is a non-smoker. On systemic enquiry he reports a good appetite and denies any weight loss. The examination reveals conjunctival pallor and a soft abdomen with tenderness in the epigastrium. His temperature is 36.7°C, blood pressure is 112/68 mmHg, pulse is 81 beats per minute and oxygen saturations are 96% on room air. A full blood count is taken which reveals the following:
Investigation Result Normal Value
Haemoglobin 76 g/l 135–175 g/l
Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 68 fl 76–98 fl
White cell count (WCC) 5.2 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 380 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Oesophageal varices
Correct Answer: Peptic ulcer
Explanation:Gastrointestinal Conditions: Peptic Ulcer, Atrophic Gastritis, Barrett’s Oesophagus, Gastric Cancer, and Oesophageal Varices
Peptic Ulcer:
Peptic ulceration is commonly caused by NSAID use or Helicobacter pylori infection. Symptoms include dyspepsia, upper gastrointestinal bleeding, and iron deficiency anaemia. Treatment involves admission to a gastrointestinal ward for resuscitation, proton pump inhibitor initiation, and urgent endoscopy. If caused by H. pylori, triple therapy is initiated.Atrophic Gastritis:
Atrophic gastritis is a chronic inflammatory change of the gastric mucosa, resulting in malabsorption and anaemia. However, it is unlikely to account for melaena or epigastric discomfort.Barrett’s Oesophagus:
Barrett’s oesophagus is a histological diagnosis resulting from chronic acid reflux. It is unlikely to cause the patient’s symptoms as there is no history of reflux.Gastric Cancer:
Gastric cancer is less likely due to the lack of risk factors and additional ‘red flag’ symptoms such as weight loss and appetite change. Biopsies of peptic ulcers are taken at endoscopy to check for an underlying malignant process.Oesophageal Varices:
Oesophageal varices are caused by chronic liver disease and can result in severe bleeding and haematemesis. However, this diagnosis is unlikely as there is little history to suggest chronic liver disease. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 13
Correct
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A 40-year-old woman presents with chronic diarrhoea. She reports that her stools float and are difficult to flush away. Blood tests reveal low potassium levels, low corrected calcium levels, low albumin levels, low haemoglobin levels, and a low mean corpuscular volume (MCV). The doctor suspects coeliac disease. What is the recommended first test to confirm the diagnosis?
Your Answer: Anti-tissue transglutaminase (anti-TTG)
Explanation:Coeliac Disease: Diagnosis and Investigations
Coeliac disease is a common cause of chronic diarrhoea and steatorrhoea, especially in young adults. The initial investigation of choice is the anti-tissue transglutaminase (anti-TTG) test, which has a sensitivity of over 96%. However, it is important to check IgA levels concurrently, as anti-TTG is an IgA antibody and may not be raised in the presence of IgA deficiency.
The treatment of choice is a lifelong gluten-free diet, which involves avoiding gluten-containing foods such as wheat, barley, rye, and oats. Patients with coeliac disease are at increased risk of small bowel lymphoma and oesophageal carcinoma over the long term.
While small bowel biopsy is the gold standard investigation, it is not the initial investigation of choice. Faecal fat estimation may be useful in estimating steatorrhoea, but it is not diagnostic for coeliac disease. Associated abnormalities include hypokalaemia, hypocalcaemia, hypomagnesaemia, hypoalbuminaemia, and anaemia with iron, B12, and folate deficiency.
In conclusion, coeliac disease should be considered in the differential diagnosis of chronic diarrhoea and steatorrhoea. The anti-TTG test is the initial investigation of choice, and a lifelong gluten-free diet is the treatment of choice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 14
Correct
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A 45-year-old man who lives in a local hostel for the homeless is added onto the medical take following a seizure. He last consumed alcohol 32 h previously and, when assessed, he is tremulous and anxious, wishing to self-discharge. His nutritional status and personal hygiene are poor.
Which one of the following is the most essential to be carefully monitored while an inpatient?Your Answer: Phosphate
Explanation:Monitoring Electrolytes in Alcohol Withdrawal: Importance of Serum Phosphate
Alcohol dependency can lead to poor personal hygiene, nutritional deficiencies, and alcohol withdrawal. During withdrawal, electrolyte imbalances may occur, including magnesium, potassium, and serum phosphate. Of these, serum phosphate levels require close monitoring, especially during refeeding, as they may plummet dangerously low and require prompt replacement with intravenous phosphate. Gamma glutamyl transferase (GGT) may also be elevated but is not useful in this situation. Sodium levels should be monitored to avoid hyponatraemia, but serum phosphate levels are more likely to change rapidly and must be monitored closely to prevent refeeding syndrome. Haemoglobin levels are not the most appropriate answer in this case unless there is an acute change or bleeding risk.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old, malnourished patient needs to have a nasogastric tube (NGT) inserted for enteral feeding. What is the most important measure to take before beginning the feeding plan?
Your Answer: Aspirate 10 ml from the tube and observe the appearance of the tube aspirate
Correct Answer: Chest radiograph
Explanation:Confirming Nasogastric Tube Placement: The Role of Chest Radiograph
Confirming the placement of a nasogastric tube (NGT) is crucial to prevent potential harm to the patient. While pH testing was previously used, chest radiograph has become the preferred method due to its increasing availability and negligible radiation exposure. The NGT has two main indications: enteral feeding/medication administration and stomach decompression. A chest radiograph should confirm that the NGT is passed down the midline, past the carina, past the level of the diaphragm, deviates to the left, and the tip is seen in the stomach. Respiratory distress absence is a reliable indicator of correct placement, while aspirating or auscultating the tube is unreliable. Abdominal radiographs are not recommended due to their inability to visualize the entire length of the NGT and the unnecessary radiation risk to the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 16
Correct
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Olivia is a 15-year-old girl presenting with abdominal pains. The abdominal pain was around her lower abdomen and is crampy in nature and occasionally radiates to her back. Her pain normally comes on approximately before the onset of her period. She also feels increasingly fatigued during this period. No abdominal pains were noted outside of this menstrual period. Olivia has no significant medical history. She denies any recent changes in her diet or bowel habits. She has not experienced any recent weight loss or rectal bleeding. She denies any family history of inflammatory bowel disease or colon cancer. Given the likely diagnosis, what is the likely 1st line treatment?
Your Answer: Mefenamic acid
Explanation:Primary dysmenorrhoea is likely the cause of the patient’s abdominal pain, as it occurs around the time of her menstrual cycle and there are no other accompanying symptoms. Since the patient is not sexually active and has no risk factors, a pelvic ultrasound may not be necessary to diagnose primary dysmenorrhoea. The first line of treatment for this condition is NSAIDs, such as mefenamic acid, ibuprofen, or naproxen, which work by reducing the amount of prostaglandins in the body and thereby reducing the severity of pain.
Dysmenorrhoea is a condition where women experience excessive pain during their menstrual period. There are two types of dysmenorrhoea: primary and secondary. Primary dysmenorrhoea affects up to 50% of menstruating women and is not caused by any underlying pelvic pathology. It usually appears within 1-2 years of the menarche and is thought to be partially caused by excessive endometrial prostaglandin production. Symptoms include suprapubic cramping pains that may radiate to the back or down the thigh, and pain typically starts just before or within a few hours of the period starting. NSAIDs such as mefenamic acid and ibuprofen are effective in up to 80% of women, and combined oral contraceptive pills are used second line for management.
Secondary dysmenorrhoea, on the other hand, typically develops many years after the menarche and is caused by an underlying pathology. The pain usually starts 3-4 days before the onset of the period. Causes of secondary dysmenorrhoea include endometriosis, adenomyosis, pelvic inflammatory disease, intrauterine devices, and fibroids. Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend referring all patients with secondary dysmenorrhoea to gynaecology for investigation. It is important to note that the intrauterine system (Mirena) may help dysmenorrhoea, but this only applies to normal copper coils.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 17
Correct
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A 50-year-old man presents to the upper gastrointestinal surgeon with a 9-month history of difficulty swallowing both liquids and solid foods. He also complains of regurgitating food. He has been eating smaller and smaller meals given the above symptoms. He has a past medical history of depression for which he takes citalopram. He has never smoked or drank alcohol. He has trialled over-the-counter proton-pump inhibitor (PPI) medication without any symptom relief.
Physical examination is normal. A recent chest radiograph also appears to be normal. His electrocardiogram (ECG) is also normal.
His observations are shown below:
Temperature 36.8 °C
Blood pressure 127/79 mmHg
Heart rate 75 beats per minute
Respiratory rate 16 breaths per minute
Sp(O2) 98% (room air)
A diagnosis of achalasia is likely.
Which of the following is the most appropriate definitive management for this condition?Your Answer: Pneumatic dilation
Explanation:Achalasia is a condition where the lower esophageal sphincter fails to relax, causing difficulty in swallowing and regurgitation. Pneumatic dilation is a treatment option that involves using a balloon to stretch the sphincter and reduce pressure in the esophagus. However, this procedure carries a risk of perforation and is only recommended for patients who are good surgical candidates. Botulinum toxin A injections can also be used to inhibit the neurons that increase sphincter tone, but may require repeat treatments. Gastrostomy, or creating an artificial opening into the stomach, is reserved for severe cases where other treatments have failed and the patient is not a surgical candidate. Sublingual isosorbide dinitrate and nifedipine are pharmacological options that can temporarily relax the sphincter and may be used as a bridge while waiting for definitive treatment or for patients who cannot tolerate invasive procedures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 18
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with severe epigastric pain and vomiting. The pain radiates through to her back and began 2 hours ago while she was out with her friends in a restaurant. She has a past medical history of gallstones and asthma.
Which test should be used to confirm this woman’s diagnosis?Your Answer: Serum lipase
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Acute Pancreatitis
Acute pancreatitis is a condition that is commonly caused by gallstones and alcohol consumption. Its symptoms include upper abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. While serum amylase is widely used for diagnosis, serum lipase is preferred where available. Serum lactate is a useful marker for organ perfusion and can indicate the severity of the inflammatory response. A raised white cell count, particularly neutrophilia, is associated with a poorer prognosis. Serum calcium levels may also be affected, but this is not a specific test for pancreatitis. Blood glucose levels may be abnormal, with hyperglycemia being common, but this is not diagnostic of acute pancreatitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman with a history of multiple gallstones is presenting with jaundice due to a common bile duct obstruction caused by a large stone. What biochemical abnormalities are expected to be observed in this patient?
Your Answer: Decreased plasma direct bilirubin
Correct Answer: Decreased stercobilin in the stool
Explanation:Effects of Biliary Tree Obstruction on Bilirubin Metabolism
Biliary tree obstruction can have various effects on bilirubin metabolism. One of the consequences is a decrease in stercobilin in the stool, which can lead to clay-colored stools. Additionally, there is an increase in urobilinogen in the urine due to less bilirubin in the intestine. However, there is a decrease in urobilinogen in the urine due to reduced excretion. The plasma bilirubin level is increased, leading to jaundice. Finally, there is an increase in plasma conjugated bilirubin, which is water-soluble and can be excreted by the kidneys.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 20
Correct
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A 40-year-old woman from Vietnam presents with abdominal swelling. She has no history of blood transfusion or jaundice in the past and is in a stable relationship with two children. Upon admission, she was found to be icteric. During the investigation, she experienced a bout of haematemesis and was admitted to the High Dependency Unit.
What is the most probable cause of her symptoms?Your Answer: Hepatitis B infection
Explanation:The patient is likely suffering from chronic liver disease and portal hypertension, possibly caused by a hepatitis B infection. This is common in regions such as sub-Saharan Africa and East Asia, where up to 10% of adults may be chronically infected. Acute paracetamol overdose can also cause liver failure, but it does not typically present with haematemesis. Mushroom poisoning can be deadly and cause liver damage, but it is not a cause of chronic liver disease. Hepatitis C is another cause of liver cirrhosis, but it is more common in other regions such as Egypt. Haemochromatosis is a rare autosomal recessive disease that can present with cirrhosis and other symptoms, but it is less likely in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department after vomiting bright red blood multiple times over the past four hours. He has a history of alcohol abuse and has been diagnosed with spontaneous bacterial peritonitis in the past. He currently consumes 4-5 pints of beer daily and has a poor compliance with his medication regimen, resulting in missed appointments and discharge from outpatient follow-up. On examination, he has dry mucous membranes, palmar erythema, and hepatomegaly. His vital signs are as follows: temperature 36.6°C, blood pressure 113/67 mmHg, respiratory rate 21 breaths per minute, heart rate 100 beats per minute, and SpO2 99% on room air. The patient is resuscitated with aggressive intravenous fluids, and the gastroenterology team is consulted. They suspect bleeding oesophageal varices and perform an upper gastrointestinal endoscopy, which confirms the diagnosis. The varices are banded, and bleeding is significantly reduced.
Which medication is most likely to prevent further episodes of oesophageal varices in this 55-year-old patient?Your Answer: Ranitidine
Correct Answer: Propranolol
Explanation:Medications for Secondary Prevention of Variceal Hemorrhage
Variceal hemorrhage is a serious complication of portal hypertension, which can be prevented by using certain medications. Non-selective beta-blockers like nadolol or propranolol are commonly used for secondary prevention of variceal hemorrhage. They work by blocking dilatory tone of the mesenteric arterioles, resulting in unopposed vasoconstriction and therefore a decrease in portal inflow. Selective beta-blockers are not effective in reducing portal hypertension. The dose of the non-selective beta-blocker should be titrated to achieve a resting heart rate of between 55 and 60 beats per minute. Ciprofloxacin is another medication used in prophylaxis of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis in high-risk patients. However, it is not effective in preventing variceal bleeding. Proton-pump inhibitors (PPIs) like omeprazole are used in the treatment of gastric reflux and peptic ulcer disease, but they have little impact on portal hypertension and are not indicated in the prophylaxis of variceal bleeding. Similarly, ranitidine, a histamine-2 receptor antagonist, is not likely to help prevent further episodes of variceal bleeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old female complains of abdominal pain and melaena. She has a medical history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes, and right knee osteoarthritis. Which medication could be causing her symptoms?
Your Answer: Tramadol
Correct Answer: Diclofenac
Explanation:Causes of Peptic Ulceration and the Role of Medications
Peptic ulceration is a condition that can cause acute gastrointestinal (GI) blood loss. One of the common causes of peptic ulceration is the reduction in the production of protective mucous in the stomach, which exposes the stomach epithelium to acid. This can be a consequence of using non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) such as diclofenac, which is commonly used in the treatment of osteoarthritis. Steroids are also known to contribute to peptic ulceration.
On the other hand, tramadol, an opiate, does not increase the risk of GI ulceration. It is important to be aware of the potential side effects of medications and to discuss any concerns with a healthcare provider. By doing so, patients can receive appropriate treatment while minimizing the risk of adverse effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman presents to the Gastroenterology Clinic with constipation that has worsened over the past six weeks. She reports straining during defecation. She has a feeling of incomplete evacuation. She has two children who were born via vaginal delivery without history of tears. She has had bladder suspension surgery. On examination, her abdomen is soft and non-distended without palpable masses.
On digital rectal examination, she has an empty rectum. Her resting anal tone is weak but her squeeze tone is normal. She does not relax the puborectalis muscle or the external anal sphincter when simulating defecation; she also has 4-cm perineal descent with straining.
What is the most appropriate investigation to carry out next?Your Answer: Colonoscopy
Correct Answer: Magnetic resonance defecography
Explanation:Magnetic resonance defecography is the most appropriate investigation for a patient with abnormal pelvic floor muscle tone, perineal descent, and symptoms of incomplete evacuation during defecation. This test evaluates global pelvic floor anatomy and dynamic motion, identifying prolapse, rectocele, and pelvic floor dysfunctions. Other tests, such as abdominal ultrasound, barium enema, colonoscopy, and CT abdomen, may not provide sufficient information on the underlying pathology of the patient’s symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 24
Correct
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An 80-year-old woman has been referred to a Gastroenterologist by her General Practitioner due to epigastric discomfort and the development of jaundice over several months. The patient reports no pain but has experienced unintentional weight loss. During examination, no abdominal tenderness or mass is detected. Serology results indicate that the patient has recently been diagnosed with diabetes. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Pancreatic carcinoma
Explanation:Differentiating between Gastrointestinal Conditions
When presented with a patient experiencing symptoms such as weight loss, jaundice, and epigastric discomfort, it is important to consider various gastrointestinal conditions that may be causing these symptoms. One possible diagnosis is pancreatic carcinoma, which is often associated with painless jaundice and the development of diabetes. Hepatitis, caused by viral infection or excessive alcohol intake, can also lead to liver cancer. Chronic pancreatitis, typically caused by alcohol misuse, can result in pain and dysfunction of the pancreas. Gastritis, on the other hand, is often caused by prolonged use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs or infection with Helicobacter pylori, and can lead to gastric ulcers and bleeding. Finally, hepatocellular carcinoma can be caused by chronic hepatitis B or C, or chronic excessive alcohol intake. Proper diagnosis and treatment of these conditions is crucial for the patient’s health and well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 25
Correct
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A 32-year-old man presents with complaints of heartburn and epigastric pain that are affecting his daily routine. Upon endoscopy, a shallow ulcer is observed on the posterior aspect of the first part of the duodenum. Which artery is most likely to be eroded by the ulcer?
Your Answer: Gastroduodenal artery
Explanation:Arteries of the Gastrointestinal Tract
The gastrointestinal tract is supplied by several arteries, each with its own unique function and potential for complications. Here are some of the main arteries and their roles:
1. Gastroduodenal artery: This artery is often the culprit of gastrointestinal bleeding from peptic ulcer disease. It is the first branch of the common hepatic artery and runs behind the first part of the duodenum.
2. Short gastric artery: A branch of the splenic artery, this artery supplies the cardia and superior part of the greater curvature of the stomach.
3. Splenic artery: One of the three main branches of the coeliac trunk, this artery supplies the pancreas body and tail. It is at high risk of bleeding in severe pancreatitis due to its close proximity to the supero-posterior border of the pancreas.
4. Left gastric artery: Another branch of the coeliac trunk, this artery supplies the lesser curvature of the stomach along with the right gastric artery.
5. Left gastroepiploic artery: This artery, also a branch of the splenic artery, supplies much of the greater curvature of the stomach.
Understanding the roles and potential complications of these arteries is crucial in the diagnosis and treatment of gastrointestinal disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man presents with a complaint of passing small amounts of fresh red blood with his stool. He also reports a small amount of mucous discharge with his stool and feeling pruritic and sore around his anus for the past couple of days. The patient denies any pain but has been more constipated than usual over the past few months. He denies any recent weight loss and has a BMI of approximately 35. The patient has a history of hypercholesterolaemia and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. He recently completed a 7-day course of amoxicillin for a lower respiratory tract infection 5 days ago. What is the most likely cause of his rectal bleeding?
Your Answer: Anal fissure
Correct Answer: Haemorrhoids
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Rectal Bleeding: Haemorrhoids, Colon Cancer, Diverticulitis, Anal Fissure, and Ulcerative Colitis
Rectal bleeding can be a concerning symptom for patients and healthcare providers alike. In this case, the patient has multiple risk factors for haemorrhoids, which are the most likely cause of his symptoms. However, it is important to consider other potential diagnoses, such as colon cancer, diverticulitis, anal fissure, and ulcerative colitis.
Haemorrhoids are caused by increased pressure in the blood vessels around the anus, which can be exacerbated by obesity, chronic constipation, and coughing. Symptoms include fresh red blood and mucous after passing stool, a pruritic anus, and soreness around the anus.
Colon cancer is less likely in this case, as it typically presents with a change in bowel habit and blood in the stool, but not with a pruritic, sore anus. However, if there is no evidence of haemorrhoids on examination, colonoscopy may be recommended to rule out cancer.
Diverticulitis is characterised by passing fresh, red blood per rectum, as well as nausea and vomiting, pyrexia, and abdominal pain.
Anal fissure also involves the passage of small amounts of fresh red blood with stools, but is associated with sharp anal pain when stools are passed.
Ulcerative colitis can be associated with passage of blood and mucous with stools, as well as weight loss, diarrhoea, anaemia, and fatigue. The patient has some risk factors for ulcerative colitis, which has two peak ages for diagnosis: 15-35 and 50-70 years old.
In summary, while haemorrhoids are the most likely cause of this patient’s symptoms, it is important to consider other potential diagnoses and perform appropriate testing to rule out more serious conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 27
Correct
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A 35-year-old General Practice manager is referred to the Gastroenterology Clinic with a 2-year history of gastroenterological complaints. The patient reports abdominal bloating, especially after meals and in the evenings, and alternating symptoms of diarrhoea and constipation. She also has a history of anxiety and is currently very busy at work – she feels this is also having an impact on her symptoms, as her symptoms tend to settle when she is on leave.
Which one of the following features in the clinical history would point towards a likely organic cause of abdominal pain (ie non-functional) diagnosis?Your Answer: Unexplained weight loss
Explanation:Understanding Irritable Bowel Syndrome Symptoms and Red Flags
Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is a complex condition that can manifest in various ways. Some common symptoms include tenesmus, abdominal bloating, mucous per rectum, relief of symptoms on defecation, lethargy, backache, and generalised symptoms. However, it’s important to note that these symptoms alone do not necessarily indicate an organic cause of abdominal pain.
On the other hand, there are red flag symptoms that may suggest an underlying condition other than IBS. These include unintentional and unexplained weight loss, rectal bleeding, a family history of bowel or ovarian cancer, and a change in bowel habit lasting for more than six weeks, especially in people over 60 years old.
It’s crucial to understand the difference between IBS symptoms and red flag symptoms to ensure proper diagnosis and treatment. If you experience any of the red flag symptoms, it’s essential to seek medical attention promptly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 28
Correct
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A 61-year-old man has been admitted to a General Surgical Ward, following an endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) for acute cholangitis. The procedure took place approximately two hours ago and went well, without complications. The patient is now complaining of central abdominal pain, radiating to the back.
His observations are normal. Examination is significant for central abdominal pain. His blood tests are significant for an amylase level of 814 u/l. His pre-ERCP amylase level was 89 u/l.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Acute pancreatitis
Explanation:Complications of ERCP: Post-ERCP Pancreatitis, Papillary Stenosis, Anaphylaxis, Duodenal Pneumostasis, and Oesophageal Perforation
Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) is a diagnostic and therapeutic procedure used to examine the bile ducts and pancreatic ducts. However, like any medical procedure, ERCP is not without risks. Here are some of the possible complications of ERCP:
Post-ERCP Pancreatitis: This is a common complication of ERCP, with an incidence of approximately 2-3%. It is characterized by abdominal pain that radiates to the back and a significant elevation in amylase levels. Treatment involves analgesia, hydration, and bowel rest.
Papillary Stenosis: This is a late complication of ERCP that occurs in approximately 2-4% of patients. It is treated with endoscopic management, such as stenting or balloon dilation.
Anaphylaxis: Although rare, anaphylactic reactions to contrast agents used during ERCP can occur. Symptoms include respiratory compromise and hypotension, and treatment involves adrenaline and airway support.
Duodenal Pneumostasis: This complication refers to a collection of air in the duodenal wall and is typically recognized during the procedure. The procedure should be stopped to avoid bowel perforation.
Oesophageal Perforation: This is a rare complication of ERCP that typically presents with chest pain, mediastinitis, and cardiovascular instability.
In conclusion, while ERCP is a useful diagnostic and therapeutic tool, it is important to be aware of the potential complications and to take appropriate measures to prevent and manage them.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 29
Correct
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A 45-year-old alcoholic presents to the Emergency Department with retrosternal chest pain, shortness of breath and pain on swallowing after a heavy drinking session the night before. He reports having vomited several times this morning, after which the pain started. He denies any blood in the vomit and has no melaena. On examination, he is febrile and tachypnoeic and has a heart rate of 110 bpm. A chest X-ray reveals a left-sided pneumothorax and air within the mediastinum.
Given the likely diagnosis, what is the most appropriate management to treat the underlying cause of his symptoms?Your Answer: Urgent surgery
Explanation:Management of Suspected Oesophageal Rupture
Suspected oesophageal rupture is a medical emergency that requires urgent intervention. This condition is more common in patients with a history of alcohol excess and can be associated with a triad of vomiting, chest pain, and subcutaneous emphysema. Symptoms include retrosternal chest/epigastric pain, tachypnoea, fever, pain on swallowing, and shock. A chest X-ray reveals gas within soft tissue spaces, pneumomediastinum, left pleural effusion, and left-sided pneumothorax. Without rapid treatment, the condition can be fatal.
Antibiotics are necessary to treat the infection that may result from oesophageal rupture. However, they will not address the underlying cause of the infection.
Chest drain insertion is not the correct management for pneumothorax secondary to oesophageal rupture. A chest drain would not resolve the underlying cause, and air would continue to enter the pleural cavity via the oesophagus.
Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) are not appropriate for suspected oesophageal rupture. PPIs would be the correct management for a suspected perforated ulcer. However, the history of acute-onset pain following vomiting is more in keeping with oesophageal rupture.
Urgent endoscopy is not appropriate for suspected oesophageal rupture. Endoscopy risks further oesophageal perforation, and there is no report of haematemesis or melaena, making this a less likely cause of the patient’s symptoms.
Management of Suspected Oesophageal Rupture: Antibiotics, Chest Drain Insertion, PPIs, and Endoscopy
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 30
Correct
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A 26-year old woman has been asked to come in for a consultation at her GP's office after her blood test results showed an elevated level of anti-tissue transglutaminase antibody. What condition is linked to this antibody?
Your Answer: Coeliac disease
Explanation:Autoimmune Diseases: Causes and Symptoms
Autoimmune diseases are conditions where the body’s immune system attacks its own tissues and organs. Here are some examples of autoimmune diseases and their causes and symptoms:
Coeliac Disease
Coeliac disease is caused by an autoimmune reaction to gluten, a protein found in wheat. Symptoms include chronic diarrhoea, weight loss, and fatigue.Graves’ Disease
This autoimmune disease affects the thyroid gland, resulting in hyperthyroidism. It is associated with anti-thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) receptor antibodies.Pemphigus Vulgaris
This rare autoimmune disease causes blistering of the skin and mucosal surfaces due to autoantibodies against desmoglein.Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
This multisystem autoimmune disease is associated with a wide range of autoantibodies, including anti-nuclear antibody (ANA) and anti-double-stranded (ds) DNA. Symptoms can include joint pain, fatigue, and skin rashes.Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus
This autoimmune disease results in the destruction of islet cells in the pancreas. Islet cell autoantibodies and antibodies to insulin have been described as causes. Symptoms include increased thirst and urination, weight loss, and fatigue.In summary, autoimmune diseases can affect various organs and tissues in the body, and their symptoms can range from mild to severe. Understanding their causes and symptoms is crucial for early diagnosis and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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