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  • Question 1 - A typically healthy and fit 35-year-old man presents to Accident and Emergency with...

    Incorrect

    • A typically healthy and fit 35-year-old man presents to Accident and Emergency with palpitations that have been ongoing for 4 hours. He reports no chest pain and has a National Early Warning Score (NEWS) of 0. Upon examination, the only notable finding is an irregularly irregular pulse. An electrocardiogram (ECG) confirms that the patient is experiencing atrial fibrillation (AF). The patient has no significant medical history and is not taking any regular medications. Blood tests (thyroid function tests (TFTs), full blood count (FBC), urea and electrolytes (U&Es), liver function tests (LFTs), and coagulation screen) are normal, and a chest X-ray (CXR) is unremarkable.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Send home with a 24-hour three-lead ECG tape and review in 1 week

      Correct Answer: IV flecainide

      Explanation:

      Treatment options for acute atrial fibrillation

      Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a common arrhythmia that can lead to serious complications such as stroke and heart failure. When a patient presents with acute AF, it is important to determine the underlying cause and choose the appropriate treatment. Here are some treatment options for acute AF:

      Treatment options for acute atrial fibrillation

      Initial investigation

      The patient should be investigated for any reversible causes of AF such as hyperthyroidism and alcohol. Blood tests and a chest X-ray should be performed to rule out any underlying conditions.

      Medical cardioversion

      If no reversible causes are found, medical cardioversion is the most appropriate treatment for haemodynamically stable patients who have presented within 48 hours of the onset of AF.

      Anticoagulation therapy

      If the patient remains in persistent AF for more than 48 hours, their CHA2DS2 VASc score should be calculated to determine the risk of emboli. If the score is high, anticoagulation therapy should be started.

      Trial of b-blocker

      Sotalol is often used in paroxysmal AF as a ‘pill in the pocket’ regimen. However, in acute first-time presentations without significant cardiac risk factors, cardioversion should be attempted first.

      Intravenous adenosine

      This treatment may transiently block the atrioventricular (AV) node and is commonly used in atrial flutter. However, it is not recommended for use in acute AF presentation in an otherwise well patient.

      In conclusion, the appropriate treatment for acute AF depends on the underlying cause and the patient’s risk factors. It is important to choose the right treatment to prevent serious complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      57
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 61-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of increasing exertional dyspnoea...

    Incorrect

    • A 61-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of increasing exertional dyspnoea accompanied by bilateral peripheral oedema. He reports feeling extremely fatigued lately. During the physical examination, his lungs are clear, but he has ascites. On auscultation of his heart sounds, you detect a holosystolic murmur with a high pitch at the left sternal edge, extending to the right sternal edge. What is the probable reason for this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Aortic stenosis

      Correct Answer: Tricuspid regurgitation

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Heart Murmurs and Symptoms

      Tricuspid regurgitation is characterized by signs of right heart failure, such as dyspnea and peripheral edema, and a classical murmur. The backflow of blood to the right atrium leads to right heart dilation, weakness, and eventually failure, resulting in ascites and poor ejection fraction causing edema.

      Mitral regurgitation has a similar murmur to tricuspid regurgitation but is heard best at the apex.

      Aortic regurgitation is identified by an early diastolic decrescendo murmur at the left sternal edge.

      Aortic stenosis does not typically result in ascites, and its murmur is ejection systolic.

      Pulmonary stenosis is characterized by a mid-systolic crescendo-decrescendo murmur best heard over the pulmonary post and not a holosystolic murmur at the left sternal edge.

      Understanding Heart Murmurs and Symptoms

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      74.7
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  • Question 3 - A 40-year-old man presents with pyrexia, night sweats and has recently noticed changes...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old man presents with pyrexia, night sweats and has recently noticed changes to his fingernails. He has no past medical history except he remembers that as a child he was in hospital with inflamed, painful joints, and a very fast heartbeat following a very sore throat.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Infective endocarditis

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Pyrexia and Splinter Haemorrhages

      The patient’s past medical history suggests a possible case of rheumatic fever, which can lead to valvular damage and increase the risk of infective endocarditis later in life. The current symptoms of pyrexia, night sweats, and splinter haemorrhages point towards a potential diagnosis of infective endocarditis. There are no clinical signs of septic arthritis, hepatitis, or pneumonia. Aortic regurgitation may present with different symptoms such as fatigue, syncope, and shortness of breath, but it is less likely in this case. Overall, the differential diagnosis for this patient includes infective endocarditis as the most probable diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      33.9
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  • Question 4 - A 56-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with chest pain. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with chest pain. He has a medical history of angina, hypertension, high cholesterol, and is a current smoker. Upon arrival, a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) is conducted, revealing ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. Which coronary artery is most likely responsible for this presentation?

      Your Answer: Left circumflex

      Correct Answer: Right coronary artery

      Explanation:

      ECG Changes and Localisation of Infarct in Coronary Artery Disease

      Patients with chest pain and multiple risk factors for cardiac disease require prompt evaluation to determine the underlying cause. Electrocardiogram (ECG) changes can help localise the infarct to a particular territory, which can aid in diagnosis and treatment.

      Inferior infarcts are often due to lesions in the right coronary artery, as evidenced by ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. However, in 20% of cases, this can also be caused by an occlusion of a dominant left circumflex artery.

      Lateral infarcts involve branches of the left anterior descending (LAD) and left circumflex arteries, and are characterised by ST elevation in leads I, aVL, and V5-6. It is unusual for a lateral STEMI to occur in isolation, and it usually occurs as part of a larger territory infarction.

      Anterior infarcts are caused by blockage of the LAD artery, and are characterised by ST elevation in leads V1-V6.

      Blockage of the right marginal artery does not have a specific pattern of ECG changes associated with it, and it is not one of the major coronary vessels.

      In summary, understanding the ECG changes associated with different coronary arteries can aid in localising the infarct and guiding appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      48.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 30-year-old man presents with syncope, which was preceded by palpitations. He has...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old man presents with syncope, which was preceded by palpitations. He has no past medical history and is generally fit and well. The electrocardiogram (ECG) shows a positive delta wave in V1.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Wolff–Parkinson–White (WPW) syndrome

      Explanation:

      Differentiating ECG Features of Various Heart Conditions

      Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome is a congenital heart condition characterized by an accessory conduction pathway connecting the atria and ventricles. Type A WPW syndrome, identified by a delta wave in V1, can cause supraventricular tachycardia due to the absence of rate-lowering properties in the accessory pathway. Type B WPW syndrome, on the other hand, causes a negative R wave in V1. Radiofrequency ablation is the definitive treatment for WPW syndrome.

      Maladie de Roger is a type of ventricular septal defect that does not significantly affect blood flow. Atrioventricular septal defect, another congenital heart disease, can cause ECG features related to blood shunting.

      Brugada syndrome, which has three distinct types, does not typically present with a positive delta wave in V1 on ECG. Tetralogy of Fallot, a congenital heart defect, presents earlier with symptoms such as cyanosis and exertional dyspnea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      16
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - What condition would make exercise testing completely unsafe? ...

    Correct

    • What condition would make exercise testing completely unsafe?

      Your Answer: Severe aortic stenosis

      Explanation:

      Contraindications for Exercise Testing

      Exercise testing is a common diagnostic tool used to evaluate a patient’s cardiovascular health. However, there are certain conditions that make exercise testing unsafe or inappropriate. These conditions are known as contraindications.

      Absolute contraindications for exercise testing include acute myocardial infarction (heart attack) within the past two days, unstable angina, uncontrolled cardiac arrhythmias, symptomatic severe aortic stenosis, uncontrolled heart failure, acute pulmonary embolism or pulmonary infarction, acute myocarditis or pericarditis, and acute aortic dissection. These conditions are considered absolute contraindications because they pose a significant risk to the patient’s health and safety during exercise testing.

      Relative contraindications for exercise testing include left main coronary stenosis, moderate stenotic valvular heart disease, electrolyte abnormalities, severe arterial hypertension, tachyarrhythmias or bradyarrhythmias, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, mental or physical impairment leading to an inability to exercise adequately, and high-degree atrioventricular (AV) block. These conditions are considered relative contraindications because they may increase the risk of complications during exercise testing, but the benefits of testing may outweigh the risks in certain cases.

      It is important for healthcare providers to carefully evaluate a patient’s medical history and current health status before recommending exercise testing. If contraindications are present, alternative diagnostic tests may be necessary to ensure the safety and well-being of the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - What is the correct statement regarding the relationship between the electrocardiogram and the...

    Incorrect

    • What is the correct statement regarding the relationship between the electrocardiogram and the cardiac cycle?

      Your Answer: The first heart sound occurs at the same time as the P wave

      Correct Answer: The QT interval gives a rough indication of the duration of ventricular systole

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Electrocardiogram: Key Components and Timing

      As a junior doctor, interpreting electrocardiograms (ECGs) is a crucial skill. One important aspect to understand is the timing of key components. The QT interval, which measures ventricular depolarization and repolarization, gives an indication of the duration of ventricular systole. However, this measurement is dependent on heart rate and is corrected using Bazett’s formula. The P wave results from atrial depolarization, while the QRS complex is caused by ventricular depolarization. The first heart sound, which coincides with the QRS complex, results from closure of the AV valves as the ventricles contract. The second heart sound, occurring at about the same time as the T wave, is caused by closure of the aortic and pulmonary valves. Understanding the timing of these components is essential for accurate ECG interpretation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      52.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 25-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with severe vomiting and diarrhoea...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with severe vomiting and diarrhoea that has lasted for four days. He has been unable to keep down any fluids and is dehydrated, so he is started on an intravenous infusion. Upon investigation, his potassium level is found to be 2.6 mmol/L (3.5-4.9). What ECG abnormality would you anticipate?

      Your Answer: Tall, tented T waves

      Correct Answer: S-T segment depression

      Explanation:

      Hypokalaemia and Hyperkalaemia

      Hypokalaemia is a condition characterized by low levels of potassium in the blood. This can be caused by excess loss of potassium from the gastrointestinal or renal tract, decreased oral intake of potassium, alkalosis, or insulin excess. Additionally, hypokalaemia can be seen if blood is taken from an arm in which IV fluid is being run. The characteristic ECG changes associated with hypokalaemia include S-T segment depression, U-waves, inverted T waves, and prolonged P-R interval.

      On the other hand, hyperkalaemia is a condition characterized by high levels of potassium in the blood. This can be caused by kidney failure, medications, or other medical conditions. The changes that may be seen with hyperkalaemia include tall, tented T-waves, wide QRS complexes, and small P waves.

      It is important to understand the causes and symptoms of both hypokalaemia and hyperkalaemia in order to properly diagnose and treat these conditions. Regular monitoring of potassium levels and ECG changes can help in the management of these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      27.9
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  • Question 9 - A 65-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with sudden onset epigastric discomfort....

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with sudden onset epigastric discomfort. He has a significant past medical history of hypercholesterolaemia and type II diabetes mellitus, and he is a heavy smoker. On examination, his pulse is 30 bpm; he is hypotensive and has distended neck veins. The chest is clear to auscultation. Initial blood tests reveal an elevated troponin level, and an electrocardiogram (ECG) shows hyperacute T-waves in leads II, III and aVF.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Right/inferior MI

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Different Types of Myocardial Infarction: A Guide to ECG Changes and Symptoms

      Myocardial infarction (MI) can occur in different areas of the heart, depending on which artery is occluded. Right/inferior MIs, which account for up to 40-50% of cases, are caused by occlusion of the RCA or, less commonly, a dominant left circumflex artery. Symptoms include bradycardia, hypotension, and a clear chest on auscultation. Conduction disturbances, particularly type II and III heart blocks, are also common. ECG changes include ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF, and reciprocal ST-segment depression in aVL (± lead I).

      Anterolateral MIs are possible, but less likely to present with bradycardia, hypotension, and a clear chest. An anterior MI, caused by occlusion of the LAD, is associated with tachycardia rather than bradycardia.

      Other conditions, such as acute pulmonary edema and pulmonary embolism, may present with similar symptoms but have different ECG changes and additional features. Understanding the ECG changes and symptoms associated with different types of MI can help with accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      43.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 7-year-old girl comes to the clinic complaining of headaches, particularly during times...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old girl comes to the clinic complaining of headaches, particularly during times of stress or physical activity. She has no significant medical history. During her neurological exam, no abnormalities are found. However, a systolic murmur is heard along the length of her left sternal edge and spine. Her chest is clear and her blood pressure is 156/88 mmHg in her left arm and 104/68 mmHg in her left leg. An ECG reveals sinus rhythm with evidence of left ventricular hypertrophy. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Coarctation of the aorta

      Explanation:

      Coarctation of the Aorta and its Interventions

      Coarctation of the aorta is a condition where the aorta narrows, usually distal to the left subclavian artery. This can cause an asymptomatic difference in upper and lower body blood pressures and can lead to left ventricular hypertrophy. The severity of the restriction varies, with severe cases presenting early with cardiac failure, while less severe cases can go undiagnosed into later childhood.

      Interventions for coarctation of the aorta include stenting, excision and graft placement, and using the left subclavian artery to bypass the coarctation. An atrial septal defect and hypertrophic occlusive cardiomyopathy would not cause a blood pressure difference between the upper and lower body. Stress headaches and a flow murmur are not appropriate diagnoses for a child with hypertension, which should be thoroughly investigated for an underlying cause.

      In contrast, transposition of the great arteries is a major cyanotic cardiac abnormality that presents in infancy. It is important to diagnose and treat coarctation of the aorta to prevent complications such as left ventricular hypertrophy and cardiac failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      56.4
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiology (5/10) 50%
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