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  • Question 1 - What is the common street name for the illicit drug known as snow?...

    Correct

    • What is the common street name for the illicit drug known as snow?

      Your Answer: Cocaine

      Explanation:

      Illicit drugs, also known as illegal drugs, are substances that are prohibited by law and can have harmful effects on the body and mind. Some of the most commonly used illicit drugs in the UK include opioids, amphetamines, cocaine, MDMA (ecstasy), cannabis, and hallucinogens.

      Opioids, such as heroin, are highly addictive and can cause euphoria, drowsiness, constipation, and respiratory depression. Withdrawal symptoms may include piloerection, insomnia, restlessness, dilated pupils, yawning, sweating, and abdominal cramps.

      Amphetamines and cocaine are stimulants that can increase energy, cause insomnia, hyperactivity, euphoria, and paranoia. Withdrawal symptoms may include hypersomnia, hyperphagia, depression, irritability, agitation, vivid dreams, and increased appetite.

      MDMA, also known as ecstasy, can cause increased energy, sweating, jaw clenching, euphoria, enhanced sociability, and increased response to touch. Withdrawal symptoms may include depression, insomnia, depersonalisation, and derealisation.

      Cannabis, also known as marijuana of weed, can cause relaxation, intensified sensory experience, paranoia, anxiety, and injected conjunctiva. Withdrawal symptoms may include insomnia, reduced appetite, and irritability.

      Hallucinogens, such as LSD, can cause perceptual changes, pupillary dilation, tachycardia, sweating, palpitations, tremors, and incoordination. There is no recognised withdrawal syndrome for hallucinogens.

      Ketamine, also known as Vitamin K, Super K, Special K, of donkey dust, can cause euphoria, dissociation, ataxia, and hallucinations. There is no recognised withdrawal syndrome for ketamine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      8.8
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  • Question 2 - Which of the following symptoms is uncommon in cases of alcohol withdrawal? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following symptoms is uncommon in cases of alcohol withdrawal?

      Your Answer: Persistent hallucinations

      Explanation:

      It is uncommon for individuals experiencing alcohol withdrawal to have transient hallucinations, as they are not a typical symptom.

      Alcohol withdrawal is characterized by overactivity of the autonomic nervous system, resulting in symptoms such as agitation, tremors, sweating, nausea, vomiting, fever, and tachycardia. These symptoms typically begin 3-12 hours after drinking stops, peak between 24-48 hours, and can last up to 14 days. Withdrawal seizures may occur before blood alcohol levels reach zero, and a small percentage of people may experience delirium tremens (DT), which can be fatal if left untreated. Risk factors for DT include abnormal liver function, old age, severity of withdrawal symptoms, concurrent medical illness, heavy alcohol use, self-detox, previous history of DT, low potassium, low magnesium, and thiamine deficiency.

      Pharmacologically assisted detox is often necessary for those who regularly consume more than 15 units of alcohol per day, and inpatient detox may be needed for those who regularly consume more than 30 units per day. The Clinical Institute Withdrawal Assessment of Alcohol Scale (CIWA-Ar) can be used to assess the severity of withdrawal symptoms and guide treatment decisions. Benzodiazepines are the mainstay of treatment, as chronic alcohol exposure results in decreased overall brain excitability and compensatory decrease of GABA-A neuroreceptor response to GABA. Chlordiazepoxide is a good first-line agent, while oxazepam, temazepam, and lorazepam are useful in patients with liver disease. Clomethiazole is effective but carries a high risk of respiratory depression and is not recommended. Thiamine should be offered to prevent Wernicke’s encephalopathy, and long-acting benzodiazepines can be used as prophylaxis for withdrawal seizures. Haloperidol is the treatment of choice if an antipsychotic is required.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      18.9
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  • Question 3 - A client visits the center for a follow-up. She became dependent on opiate...

    Correct

    • A client visits the center for a follow-up. She became dependent on opiate drugs a few years ago after being given oxycodone for a backache that resulted from a lumbar puncture. She effectively finished a detoxification program and has been off opiate medication for 7 months now.

      At which stage of the stages of change model is she presently?

      Your Answer: Maintenance

      Explanation:

      Stages of Change Model

      Prochaska and DiClemente’s Stages of Change Model identifies five stages that individuals go through when making a change. The first stage is pre-contemplation, where the individual is not considering change. There are different types of precontemplators, including those who lack knowledge about the problem, those who are afraid of losing control, those who feel hopeless, and those who rationalize their behavior.

      The second stage is contemplation, where the individual is ambivalent about change and is sitting on the fence. The third stage is preparation, where the individual has some experience with change and is trying to change, testing the waters. The fourth stage is action, where the individual has started to introduce change, and the behavior is defined as action during the first six months of change.

      The final stage is maintenance, where the individual is involved in ongoing efforts to maintain change. Action becomes maintenance once six months have elapsed. Understanding these stages can help individuals and professionals in supporting behavior change.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 4 - What is the illicit substance with the highest lifetime prevalence of use in...

    Incorrect

    • What is the illicit substance with the highest lifetime prevalence of use in Europe?

      Your Answer: Heroin

      Correct Answer: Cannabis

      Explanation:

      Drug usage patterns in the UK are comparable to those observed throughout Europe, as reported by the EMCDDA. Cannabis remains the most frequently used drug in the UK, followed by amphetamines, hallucinogens, cocaine, and ecstasy.

      Illicit Drug Use Epidemiology

      The EMCDDA regularly gathers data on the misuse of illicit drugs. A survey conducted between 2004 and 2008 revealed the following results regarding the lifetime prevalence of drug use:

      – Cannabis: 22.5%
      – Cocaine: 4.1%
      – Amphetamine: 3.7%
      – Ecstasy: 3.3%
      – Opioids*: 0.5%

      *Note that opioids were only included if they were taken for illicit purposes, rather than for pain relief.

      The above figures provide insight into the extent of illicit drug use across Europe during the survey period. While cannabis was the most commonly used drug, followed by cocaine, amphetamine, and ecstasy, opioid use was relatively low. These findings can inform public health policies and interventions aimed at reducing drug-related harm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 5 - What is accurate about project MATCH, also known as Matching alcoholism treatments to...

    Correct

    • What is accurate about project MATCH, also known as Matching alcoholism treatments to client heterogeneity?

      Your Answer: It found that the three psychological therapies tested were equal in effectiveness

      Explanation:

      Project MATCH: Investigating the Best Treatment for Alcoholics

      Project MATCH was an extensive research study that spanned over 8 years and aimed to determine which types of alcoholics respond best to which forms of treatment. The study investigated three types of treatment: Cognitive Behavioural Coping Skills Therapy, Motivational Enhancement Therapy, and Twelve-Step Facilitation Therapy.

      Cognitive Behavioural Coping Skills Therapy focused on correcting poor self-esteem and distorted, negative, and self-defeating thinking. Motivational Enhancement Therapy helped clients become aware of and build on personal strengths that could improve their readiness to quit. Twelve-Step Facilitation Therapy was designed to familiarize patients with the AA philosophy and encourage participation.

      After the study, it was concluded that patient-treatment matching is not necessary in alcoholism treatment because the three techniques are equally effective. This study provides valuable insights into the treatment of alcoholism and can help healthcare professionals make informed decisions about the best treatment options for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 6 - What is the method used for ultra rapid opiate detoxification? ...

    Correct

    • What is the method used for ultra rapid opiate detoxification?

      Your Answer: Naloxone

      Explanation:

      The use of high doses of opioid antagonists (naloxone and naltrexone) in ultra-rapid detox (over 24 hours) and rapid detox (over 1-5 days) is common. However, ultra-rapid detox is typically performed under general anesthesia, while rapid detox is usually done with some sedation. Despite this, NICE does not support the use of ultra-rapid detox. NICE recommends that rapid detox be offered only to individuals who specifically request it, provided that the service can safely provide it.

      Opioid Maintenance Therapy and Detoxification

      Withdrawal symptoms can occur after as little as 5 days of regular opioid use. Short-acting opioids like heroin have acute withdrawal symptoms that peak in 32-72 hours and last for 3-5 days. Longer-acting opioids like methadone have acute symptoms that peak at day 4-6 and last for 10 days. Buprenorphine withdrawal lasts up to 10 days and includes symptoms like myalgia, anxiety, and increased drug craving.

      Opioids affect the brain through opioid receptors, with the µ receptor being the main target for opioids. Dopaminergic cells in the ventral tegmental area produce dopamine, which is released into the nucleus accumbens upon stimulation of µ receptors, producing euphoria and reward. With repeat opioid exposure, µ receptors become less responsive, causing dysphoria and drug craving.

      Methadone and buprenorphine are maintenance-oriented treatments for opioid dependence. Methadone is a full agonist targeting µ receptors, while buprenorphine is a partial agonist targeting µ receptors and a partial k agonist of functional antagonist. Naloxone and naltrexone are antagonists targeting all opioid receptors.

      Methadone is preferred over buprenorphine for detoxification, and ultra-rapid detoxification should not be offered. Lofexidine may be considered for mild of uncertain dependence. Clonidine and dihydrocodeine should not be used routinely in opioid detoxification. The duration of detoxification should be up to 4 weeks in an inpatient setting and up to 12 weeks in a community setting.

      Pregnant women dependent on opioids should use opioid maintenance treatment rather than attempt detoxification. Methadone is preferred over buprenorphine, and transfer to buprenorphine during pregnancy is not advised. Detoxification should only be considered if appropriate for the women’s wishes, circumstances, and ability to cope. Methadone or buprenorphine treatment is not a contraindication to breastfeeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 7 - A 25-year-old male presents with chest pain, confusion, and agitation that started shortly...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old male presents with chest pain, confusion, and agitation that started shortly after using a recreational substance. Upon examination, he has a fever of 38.3°C and a blood pressure of 188/102 mmHg. Which recreational drug is the most probable cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Cocaine

      Explanation:

      The young male is exhibiting confusion and agitation, which is likely due to drug abuse, specifically cocaine. Cocaine can cause sweating, fever, and high blood pressure through its effects on the central nervous system and adrenergic receptors. Additionally, it may lead to the constriction of coronary and cerebral arteries, potentially resulting in heart attacks of strokes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 8 - If a disheveled and disoriented homeless man presents with an unsteady gait and...

    Correct

    • If a disheveled and disoriented homeless man presents with an unsteady gait and a lateral rectus palsy, what medication would you recommend?

      Your Answer: Intravenous vitamin B1

      Explanation:

      Wernicke’s Encephalopathy: Symptoms, Causes, and Treatment

      Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a serious condition that is characterized by confusion, ophthalmoplegia, and ataxia. However, the complete triad is only present in 10% of cases, which often leads to underdiagnosis. The condition results from prolonged thiamine deficiency, which is commonly seen in people with alcohol dependency, but can also occur in other conditions such as anorexia nervosa, malignancy, and AIDS.

      The onset of Wernicke’s encephalopathy is usually abrupt, but it may develop over several days to weeks. The lesions occur in a symmetrical distribution in structures surrounding the third ventricle, aqueduct, and fourth ventricle. The mammillary bodies are involved in up to 80% of cases, and atrophy of these structures is specific for Wernicke’s encephalopathy.

      Treatment involves intravenous thiamine, as oral forms of B1 are poorly absorbed. IV glucose should be avoided when thiamine deficiency is suspected as it can precipitate of exacerbate Wernicke’s. With treatment, ophthalmoplegia and confusion usually resolve within days, but the ataxia, neuropathy, and nystagmus may be prolonged of permanent.

      Untreated cases of Wernicke’s encephalopathy can lead to Korsakoff’s syndrome, which is characterized by memory impairment associated with confabulation. The mortality rate associated with Wernicke’s encephalopathy is 10-20%, making early diagnosis and treatment crucial.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 9 - Which statement accurately describes alcohol withdrawal? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement accurately describes alcohol withdrawal?

      Your Answer: Clomethiazole is the treatment of choice for seizures associated with alcohol withdrawal

      Correct Answer: For hallucinations associated with delirium tremens, haloperidol is the preferred antipsychotic

      Explanation:

      For individuals experiencing delirium tremens, the initial treatment option should be oral lorazepam. If symptoms persist of the individual declines oral medication, alternative options such as parenteral lorazepam of haloperidol should be offered, as recommended by NICE CG100.

      Alcohol withdrawal is characterized by overactivity of the autonomic nervous system, resulting in symptoms such as agitation, tremors, sweating, nausea, vomiting, fever, and tachycardia. These symptoms typically begin 3-12 hours after drinking stops, peak between 24-48 hours, and can last up to 14 days. Withdrawal seizures may occur before blood alcohol levels reach zero, and a small percentage of people may experience delirium tremens (DT), which can be fatal if left untreated. Risk factors for DT include abnormal liver function, old age, severity of withdrawal symptoms, concurrent medical illness, heavy alcohol use, self-detox, previous history of DT, low potassium, low magnesium, and thiamine deficiency.

      Pharmacologically assisted detox is often necessary for those who regularly consume more than 15 units of alcohol per day, and inpatient detox may be needed for those who regularly consume more than 30 units per day. The Clinical Institute Withdrawal Assessment of Alcohol Scale (CIWA-Ar) can be used to assess the severity of withdrawal symptoms and guide treatment decisions. Benzodiazepines are the mainstay of treatment, as chronic alcohol exposure results in decreased overall brain excitability and compensatory decrease of GABA-A neuroreceptor response to GABA. Chlordiazepoxide is a good first-line agent, while oxazepam, temazepam, and lorazepam are useful in patients with liver disease. Clomethiazole is effective but carries a high risk of respiratory depression and is not recommended. Thiamine should be offered to prevent Wernicke’s encephalopathy, and long-acting benzodiazepines can be used as prophylaxis for withdrawal seizures. Haloperidol is the treatment of choice if an antipsychotic is required.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      52.1
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  • Question 10 - What drug is classified as a class C substance in the United Kingdom?...

    Correct

    • What drug is classified as a class C substance in the United Kingdom?

      Your Answer: Anabolic steroids

      Explanation:

      While there is no specific law against possessing steroids, it is considered unlawful to produce, distribute, of import/export steroids with the intention of supplying them without proper licensing. Those found guilty of such actions may face a maximum sentence of 14 years imprisonment and/of a substantial monetary penalty.

      Drug Misuse (Law and Scheduling)

      The Misuse of Drugs Act (1971) regulates the possession and supply of drugs, classifying them into three categories: A, B, and C. The maximum penalty for possession varies depending on the class of drug, with Class A drugs carrying a maximum sentence of 7 years.

      The Misuse of Drugs Regulations 2001 further categorizes controlled drugs into five schedules. Schedule 1 drugs are considered to have no therapeutic value and cannot be lawfully possessed of prescribed, while Schedule 2 drugs are available for medical use but require a controlled drug prescription. Schedule 3, 4, and 5 drugs have varying levels of restrictions and requirements.

      It is important to note that a single drug can have multiple scheduling statuses, depending on factors such as strength and route of administration. For example, morphine and codeine can be either Schedule 2 of Schedule 5.

      Overall, the Misuse of Drugs Act and Regulations aim to regulate and control the use of drugs in the UK, with the goal of reducing drug misuse and related harm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 11 - What is the maintenance treatment used for individuals with opioid dependence syndrome? ...

    Correct

    • What is the maintenance treatment used for individuals with opioid dependence syndrome?

      Your Answer: Methadone

      Explanation:

      Synthetic opioids like methadone and buprenorphine are utilized as a replacement for heroin. Alpha2 adrenergic agonists such as clonidine and lofexidine are employed in detox settings to alleviate a range of opioid withdrawal symptoms.

      Opioid Maintenance Therapy and Detoxification

      Withdrawal symptoms can occur after as little as 5 days of regular opioid use. Short-acting opioids like heroin have acute withdrawal symptoms that peak in 32-72 hours and last for 3-5 days. Longer-acting opioids like methadone have acute symptoms that peak at day 4-6 and last for 10 days. Buprenorphine withdrawal lasts up to 10 days and includes symptoms like myalgia, anxiety, and increased drug craving.

      Opioids affect the brain through opioid receptors, with the µ receptor being the main target for opioids. Dopaminergic cells in the ventral tegmental area produce dopamine, which is released into the nucleus accumbens upon stimulation of µ receptors, producing euphoria and reward. With repeat opioid exposure, µ receptors become less responsive, causing dysphoria and drug craving.

      Methadone and buprenorphine are maintenance-oriented treatments for opioid dependence. Methadone is a full agonist targeting µ receptors, while buprenorphine is a partial agonist targeting µ receptors and a partial k agonist of functional antagonist. Naloxone and naltrexone are antagonists targeting all opioid receptors.

      Methadone is preferred over buprenorphine for detoxification, and ultra-rapid detoxification should not be offered. Lofexidine may be considered for mild of uncertain dependence. Clonidine and dihydrocodeine should not be used routinely in opioid detoxification. The duration of detoxification should be up to 4 weeks in an inpatient setting and up to 12 weeks in a community setting.

      Pregnant women dependent on opioids should use opioid maintenance treatment rather than attempt detoxification. Methadone is preferred over buprenorphine, and transfer to buprenorphine during pregnancy is not advised. Detoxification should only be considered if appropriate for the women’s wishes, circumstances, and ability to cope. Methadone or buprenorphine treatment is not a contraindication to breastfeeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 12 - What is a known factor that can lead to inaccurate positive results for...

    Incorrect

    • What is a known factor that can lead to inaccurate positive results for cannabis on drug screening tests?

      Your Answer: Verapamil

      Correct Answer: Promethazine

      Explanation:

      Drug Screening

      Drug testing can be conducted through various methods, but urinalysis is the most common. Urine drug tests can be either screening of confirmatory. Screening tests use enzymatic immunoassays to detect drug metabolites of classes of drug metabolites in the urine. However, these tests have limitations, such as false positives due to cross-reactivity. Therefore, any positive test should be confirmed through gas chromatography of mass spectrometry.

      People may try to manipulate drug testing procedures by adulterating the sample. Normal urine parameters, such as temperature, specific gravity, and pH, can assist in detecting adulterated samples. Adulterants include household items like vinegar, detergent, and ammonia, as well as commercially available products. Diluted urine may also yield false negatives.

      Detection times vary from person to person, and the approximate drug detection time in urine can be found in a table provided by Nelson (2016). False positives can occur due to cross-reactivity, as illustrated by Moeller (2017). Clinicians should be aware of the limitations of urine drug tests and the potential for manipulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 13 - What is a true statement about problem gambling? ...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement about problem gambling?

      Your Answer: It is more common in people with psychiatric problems

      Explanation:

      Problem Gambling: Screening and Interventions

      Problem gambling, also known as pathological gambling, refers to gambling that causes harm to personal, family, of recreational pursuits. The prevalence of problem gambling in adults ranges from 7.3% to 0.7%, while in psychiatric patients, it ranges from 6% to 12%. Problem gambling typically starts in early adolescence in males and runs a chronic, progressive course with periods of abstinence and relapses.

      Screening for problem gambling is done using various tools, including the NODS-CLiP and the South Oaks Gambling Screen (SOGS). Brief interventions have been successful in decreasing gambling, with motivational enhancement therapy (MET) being the most effective. Pharmacological interventions, such as selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), naltrexone, and mood stabilizers, have also been effective, but the choice of drug depends on the presence of comorbidity. Psychological interventions, particularly cognitive-behavioral treatments, show promise, but long-term follow-up and high drop-out rates are major limitations. Studies comparing psychological and pharmacological interventions are needed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 14 - A 25-year-old woman comes to you with concerns about 'hearing voices'. These voices...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman comes to you with concerns about 'hearing voices'. These voices are external and sound like her mother speaking directly to her. The content of the voices is not threatening. The woman is oriented and appears alert. She reports no prior psychiatric history in herself of her family. She speaks calmly and is not agitated. She has been drinking heavily for the past two years but denies any illicit drug use. She recently ended a long-term relationship and has been struggling to find stable employment.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Alcoholic hallucinosis

      Explanation:

      Probable alcoholic hallucinosis is indicated when non-persecutory second person auditory hallucinations are present in an individual who chronically abuses alcohol. Antipsychotics are effective in treating these hallucinations, but only if the individual abstains from alcohol.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 15 - A woman with schizophrenia and alcohol misuse is admitted to hospital following a...

    Correct

    • A woman with schizophrenia and alcohol misuse is admitted to hospital following a fall. On day three of the admission she becomes confused and agitated. Which of the following should not be prescribed?

      Your Answer: IV glucose

      Explanation:

      It is possible that the man is experiencing alcohol withdrawal, which often causes fluid imbalances that need to be addressed. However, administering intravenous glucose is not recommended as it could lead to Wernicke’s encephalopathy. While beta blockers have been found to be helpful in treating alcohol withdrawal, this is not a widely used method. A resource for further information on this topic is the article Alcohol Withdrawal Syndrome by Bayard M. in the March 15, 2004 issue of American Family Physician.

      Alcohol withdrawal is characterized by overactivity of the autonomic nervous system, resulting in symptoms such as agitation, tremors, sweating, nausea, vomiting, fever, and tachycardia. These symptoms typically begin 3-12 hours after drinking stops, peak between 24-48 hours, and can last up to 14 days. Withdrawal seizures may occur before blood alcohol levels reach zero, and a small percentage of people may experience delirium tremens (DT), which can be fatal if left untreated. Risk factors for DT include abnormal liver function, old age, severity of withdrawal symptoms, concurrent medical illness, heavy alcohol use, self-detox, previous history of DT, low potassium, low magnesium, and thiamine deficiency.

      Pharmacologically assisted detox is often necessary for those who regularly consume more than 15 units of alcohol per day, and inpatient detox may be needed for those who regularly consume more than 30 units per day. The Clinical Institute Withdrawal Assessment of Alcohol Scale (CIWA-Ar) can be used to assess the severity of withdrawal symptoms and guide treatment decisions. Benzodiazepines are the mainstay of treatment, as chronic alcohol exposure results in decreased overall brain excitability and compensatory decrease of GABA-A neuroreceptor response to GABA. Chlordiazepoxide is a good first-line agent, while oxazepam, temazepam, and lorazepam are useful in patients with liver disease. Clomethiazole is effective but carries a high risk of respiratory depression and is not recommended. Thiamine should be offered to prevent Wernicke’s encephalopathy, and long-acting benzodiazepines can be used as prophylaxis for withdrawal seizures. Haloperidol is the treatment of choice if an antipsychotic is required.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 16 - Which of the following experiences is most similar to the effects of using...

    Correct

    • Which of the following experiences is most similar to the effects of using magic mushrooms?

      Your Answer: LSD

      Explanation:

      Drug Misuse (Law and Scheduling)

      The Misuse of Drugs Act (1971) regulates the possession and supply of drugs, classifying them into three categories: A, B, and C. The maximum penalty for possession varies depending on the class of drug, with Class A drugs carrying a maximum sentence of 7 years.

      The Misuse of Drugs Regulations 2001 further categorizes controlled drugs into five schedules. Schedule 1 drugs are considered to have no therapeutic value and cannot be lawfully possessed of prescribed, while Schedule 2 drugs are available for medical use but require a controlled drug prescription. Schedule 3, 4, and 5 drugs have varying levels of restrictions and requirements.

      It is important to note that a single drug can have multiple scheduling statuses, depending on factors such as strength and route of administration. For example, morphine and codeine can be either Schedule 2 of Schedule 5.

      Overall, the Misuse of Drugs Act and Regulations aim to regulate and control the use of drugs in the UK, with the goal of reducing drug misuse and related harm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 17 - What patient history factors indicate a diagnosis of Marchiafava-Bignami disease? ...

    Correct

    • What patient history factors indicate a diagnosis of Marchiafava-Bignami disease?

      Your Answer: Alcoholism

      Explanation:

      Marchiafava-Bignami Disease: A Rare Disorder Associated with Alcoholism and Malnutrition

      Marchiafava-Bignami disease is a rare condition that is commonly observed in individuals with alcoholism and malnutrition. The disease is characterized by the progressive demyelination and subsequent necrosis of the corpus callosum, which can lead to a range of nonspecific clinical symptoms such as motor of cognitive disturbances. The course of the disease can be either acute of chronic, and patients may experience dementia, spasticity, dysarthria, and an inability to walk. The outcome of the disease is unpredictable, with some patients lapsing into a coma and dying, while others may survive for many years in a demented state, of even recover.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 18 - What is the truth about the use of chlordiazepoxide in alcohol withdrawal? ...

    Correct

    • What is the truth about the use of chlordiazepoxide in alcohol withdrawal?

      Your Answer: It is a good first line treatment

      Explanation:

      Alcohol withdrawal is characterized by overactivity of the autonomic nervous system, resulting in symptoms such as agitation, tremors, sweating, nausea, vomiting, fever, and tachycardia. These symptoms typically begin 3-12 hours after drinking stops, peak between 24-48 hours, and can last up to 14 days. Withdrawal seizures may occur before blood alcohol levels reach zero, and a small percentage of people may experience delirium tremens (DT), which can be fatal if left untreated. Risk factors for DT include abnormal liver function, old age, severity of withdrawal symptoms, concurrent medical illness, heavy alcohol use, self-detox, previous history of DT, low potassium, low magnesium, and thiamine deficiency.

      Pharmacologically assisted detox is often necessary for those who regularly consume more than 15 units of alcohol per day, and inpatient detox may be needed for those who regularly consume more than 30 units per day. The Clinical Institute Withdrawal Assessment of Alcohol Scale (CIWA-Ar) can be used to assess the severity of withdrawal symptoms and guide treatment decisions. Benzodiazepines are the mainstay of treatment, as chronic alcohol exposure results in decreased overall brain excitability and compensatory decrease of GABA-A neuroreceptor response to GABA. Chlordiazepoxide is a good first-line agent, while oxazepam, temazepam, and lorazepam are useful in patients with liver disease. Clomethiazole is effective but carries a high risk of respiratory depression and is not recommended. Thiamine should be offered to prevent Wernicke’s encephalopathy, and long-acting benzodiazepines can be used as prophylaxis for withdrawal seizures. Haloperidol is the treatment of choice if an antipsychotic is required.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 19 - A 35-year old woman reported hearing voices instructing her to harm herself. She...

    Correct

    • A 35-year old woman reported hearing voices instructing her to harm herself. She is currently not employed, having left her job two years ago. What substance is most likely responsible for her dependence?

      Your Answer: Amphetamines

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms suggest the presence of Schneider’s first rank symptom, which is characterized by actions perceived as influenced of made by external agents. It is important to note that amphetamines can cause drug-induced psychosis, which can mimic schizophrenia. While benzodiazepines are not known to induce schizophrenia, there have been reports of auditory hallucinations during benzodiazepine withdrawal. On the other hand, GHB is not associated with drug-induced schizophrenia, and while opiates may cause hallucinations, they do not typically result in Schneider’s first rank symptoms. It is important to consider the possibility of a dual-diagnosis scenario, where the patient may have both a drug dependency and schizophrenia, which may have been triggered by drug use of stress, but is not solely drug-induced.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 20 - A 42-year-old man arrives at the Emergency Department on a Saturday evening seeking...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man arrives at the Emergency Department on a Saturday evening seeking to speak with the on-call psychiatrist regarding his dependence on opioids.
      He explains that he recently relocated to the area and has exhausted his supply of buprenorphine, which he requires to prevent relapse into heroin use.
      He plans to establish care with a primary care physician next week to obtain ongoing prescriptions.
      What is the appropriate course of action for managing this patient's situation?

      Your Answer: Prescribe one week of methadone

      Correct Answer: Request a urine drug screen

      Explanation:

      To ensure safe and appropriate treatment, it is crucial to verify the patient’s history of heroin dependence and methadone treatment through a urine drug screen and obtaining collateral information. Neglecting this step may result in prescribing methadone, which can be misused by the patient and potentially lead to fatal overdose if combined with injectable heroin. Additionally, methadone has a potential street value and can be sold illegally.

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      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 21 - What is a true statement about Wernicke's encephalopathy? ...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement about Wernicke's encephalopathy?

      Your Answer: Global confusion is a common feature

      Explanation:

      Wernicke’s Encephalopathy: Symptoms, Causes, and Treatment

      Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a serious condition that is characterized by confusion, ophthalmoplegia, and ataxia. However, the complete triad is only present in 10% of cases, which often leads to underdiagnosis. The condition results from prolonged thiamine deficiency, which is commonly seen in people with alcohol dependency, but can also occur in other conditions such as anorexia nervosa, malignancy, and AIDS.

      The onset of Wernicke’s encephalopathy is usually abrupt, but it may develop over several days to weeks. The lesions occur in a symmetrical distribution in structures surrounding the third ventricle, aqueduct, and fourth ventricle. The mammillary bodies are involved in up to 80% of cases, and atrophy of these structures is specific for Wernicke’s encephalopathy.

      Treatment involves intravenous thiamine, as oral forms of B1 are poorly absorbed. IV glucose should be avoided when thiamine deficiency is suspected as it can precipitate of exacerbate Wernicke’s. With treatment, ophthalmoplegia and confusion usually resolve within days, but the ataxia, neuropathy, and nystagmus may be prolonged of permanent.

      Untreated cases of Wernicke’s encephalopathy can lead to Korsakoff’s syndrome, which is characterized by memory impairment associated with confabulation. The mortality rate associated with Wernicke’s encephalopathy is 10-20%, making early diagnosis and treatment crucial.

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      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 22 - How does the model of behaviour change proposed by Prochaska and DiClemente define...

    Incorrect

    • How does the model of behaviour change proposed by Prochaska and DiClemente define the ultimate phase of change?

      Your Answer: Action

      Correct Answer: Maintenance

      Explanation:

      The Stages of Change Model does not view relapse as a stage in the process.

      Stages of Change Model

      Prochaska and DiClemente’s Stages of Change Model identifies five stages that individuals go through when making a change. The first stage is pre-contemplation, where the individual is not considering change. There are different types of precontemplators, including those who lack knowledge about the problem, those who are afraid of losing control, those who feel hopeless, and those who rationalize their behavior.

      The second stage is contemplation, where the individual is ambivalent about change and is sitting on the fence. The third stage is preparation, where the individual has some experience with change and is trying to change, testing the waters. The fourth stage is action, where the individual has started to introduce change, and the behavior is defined as action during the first six months of change.

      The final stage is maintenance, where the individual is involved in ongoing efforts to maintain change. Action becomes maintenance once six months have elapsed. Understanding these stages can help individuals and professionals in supporting behavior change.

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      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 23 - What is the percentage of individuals with alcohol dependence who have attempted of...

    Incorrect

    • What is the percentage of individuals with alcohol dependence who have attempted of completed suicide at some point in their lifetime?

      Your Answer: 13%

      Correct Answer: 7%

      Explanation:

      Alcohol Dependence and Suicide Risk

      Alcohol dependence is a significant factor that increases the likelihood of suicidal behavior. According to Inskip’s (1998) research, individuals with alcohol dependence have a lifetime risk of suicide estimated at 7%, which is significantly higher than the general population’s risk of approximately 1%. This finding highlights the importance of addressing alcohol dependence as a risk factor for suicide and providing appropriate interventions and support to individuals struggling with alcohol addiction.

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      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 24 - A middle aged male is brought to the hospital by the police after...

    Correct

    • A middle aged male is brought to the hospital by the police after being found wandering in the city centre. He appears confused and disoriented, and has a strong smell of alcohol. Upon examination, you observe red cheeks and multiple spider angiomas. The patient attempts to leave the department and exhibits significant gait disturbance. Although his neurological examination is challenging due to his level of agitation, you do not detect ophthalmoplegia. What medication would you prescribe for this patient?

      Your Answer: Pabrinex

      Explanation:

      Wernicke’s Encephalopathy: Symptoms, Causes, and Treatment

      Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a serious condition that is characterized by confusion, ophthalmoplegia, and ataxia. However, the complete triad is only present in 10% of cases, which often leads to underdiagnosis. The condition results from prolonged thiamine deficiency, which is commonly seen in people with alcohol dependency, but can also occur in other conditions such as anorexia nervosa, malignancy, and AIDS.

      The onset of Wernicke’s encephalopathy is usually abrupt, but it may develop over several days to weeks. The lesions occur in a symmetrical distribution in structures surrounding the third ventricle, aqueduct, and fourth ventricle. The mammillary bodies are involved in up to 80% of cases, and atrophy of these structures is specific for Wernicke’s encephalopathy.

      Treatment involves intravenous thiamine, as oral forms of B1 are poorly absorbed. IV glucose should be avoided when thiamine deficiency is suspected as it can precipitate of exacerbate Wernicke’s. With treatment, ophthalmoplegia and confusion usually resolve within days, but the ataxia, neuropathy, and nystagmus may be prolonged of permanent.

      Untreated cases of Wernicke’s encephalopathy can lead to Korsakoff’s syndrome, which is characterized by memory impairment associated with confabulation. The mortality rate associated with Wernicke’s encephalopathy is 10-20%, making early diagnosis and treatment crucial.

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      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 25 - A senior citizen who has been on diazepam for a number of years...

    Incorrect

    • A senior citizen who has been on diazepam for a number of years has recently been encouraged to stop them. You see them in clinic soon after they have started a reduction regime and they complain of a number of problems. Which of the following symptoms would most likely be related to them reducing their diazepam?:

      Your Answer: Constipation

      Correct Answer: Weakness

      Explanation:

      Benzodiazepines and Addiction

      Benzodiazepines are known to be addictive and should only be prescribed as a hypnotic or anxiolytic for a maximum of 4 weeks. Withdrawal symptoms can be physical of psychological, including stiffness, weakness, GI disturbance, paraesthesia, flu-like symptoms, visual disturbance, anxiety, insomnia, nightmares, depersonalisation, decreased memory and concentration, delusions, and hallucinations. Patients who wish to withdraw from short-acting benzodiazepines should first be converted to diazepam, which has a longer half-life and produces less severe withdrawal. The table provides approximate equivalent doses for different benzodiazepines. These guidelines are from the Maudsley Guidelines 10th Edition.

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      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 26 - In chronic opiate use, which effect is most likely to continue over time?...

    Correct

    • In chronic opiate use, which effect is most likely to continue over time?

      Your Answer: Miosis

      Explanation:

      Tolerance in Opiate Abuse

      Tolerance is a common phenomenon that occurs in opiate abuse. It develops regarding the analgesic, euphoric, sedative, respiratory depressant, and nauseating effects of opioids. However, it does not develop to their effects on miosis and bowel motility, which can cause constipation. This means that individuals who abuse opioids may require higher doses to achieve the desired effects, leading to an increased risk of overdose and other adverse effects. Understanding the mechanisms involved in tolerance can help in developing effective interventions to prevent and treat opiate abuse.

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      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 27 - What falls under the category of class A according to the Misuse of...

    Incorrect

    • What falls under the category of class A according to the Misuse of Drugs Act?

      Your Answer: Ketamine

      Correct Answer: Magic mushrooms

      Explanation:

      Drug Misuse (Law and Scheduling)

      The Misuse of Drugs Act (1971) regulates the possession and supply of drugs, classifying them into three categories: A, B, and C. The maximum penalty for possession varies depending on the class of drug, with Class A drugs carrying a maximum sentence of 7 years.

      The Misuse of Drugs Regulations 2001 further categorizes controlled drugs into five schedules. Schedule 1 drugs are considered to have no therapeutic value and cannot be lawfully possessed of prescribed, while Schedule 2 drugs are available for medical use but require a controlled drug prescription. Schedule 3, 4, and 5 drugs have varying levels of restrictions and requirements.

      It is important to note that a single drug can have multiple scheduling statuses, depending on factors such as strength and route of administration. For example, morphine and codeine can be either Schedule 2 of Schedule 5.

      Overall, the Misuse of Drugs Act and Regulations aim to regulate and control the use of drugs in the UK, with the goal of reducing drug misuse and related harm.

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      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 28 - Regarding symptoms of withdrawal associated with prolonged alcohol consumption, which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding symptoms of withdrawal associated with prolonged alcohol consumption, which of the following statements is accurate?

      Your Answer: Withdrawal reflects enhanced neurotransmission in type A gamma-aminobutyric acid pathways

      Correct Answer: Carbamazepine is as effective as benzodiazepines in the acute treatment of the symptoms of alcohol withdrawal

      Explanation:

      A study has found that starting with a dose of 800 mg of Carbamazepine per day is just as effective as using Oxazepam for treating acute alcohol withdrawal. However, Phenytoin has been shown to be ineffective in treating seizures related to alcohol withdrawal. The symptoms of alcohol withdrawal are caused by a decrease in neurotransmission through type A gamma-aminobutyric pathways and an increase in neurotransmission through N-methyl-D-aspartate pathways. For more information, refer to the article Management of Drug and Alcohol Withdrawal by Kosten TR and O’Connor PG in the New England Journal of Medicine.

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      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 29 - A 50-year-old man, who has a past of opioid addiction, is interested in...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man, who has a past of opioid addiction, is interested in exploring pharmacological maintenance therapy in conjunction with psychosocial interventions. What would be your recommendation for the most suitable choice?

      Your Answer: Buprenorphine

      Explanation:

      Opioid Maintenance Therapy and Detoxification

      Withdrawal symptoms can occur after as little as 5 days of regular opioid use. Short-acting opioids like heroin have acute withdrawal symptoms that peak in 32-72 hours and last for 3-5 days. Longer-acting opioids like methadone have acute symptoms that peak at day 4-6 and last for 10 days. Buprenorphine withdrawal lasts up to 10 days and includes symptoms like myalgia, anxiety, and increased drug craving.

      Opioids affect the brain through opioid receptors, with the µ receptor being the main target for opioids. Dopaminergic cells in the ventral tegmental area produce dopamine, which is released into the nucleus accumbens upon stimulation of µ receptors, producing euphoria and reward. With repeat opioid exposure, µ receptors become less responsive, causing dysphoria and drug craving.

      Methadone and buprenorphine are maintenance-oriented treatments for opioid dependence. Methadone is a full agonist targeting µ receptors, while buprenorphine is a partial agonist targeting µ receptors and a partial k agonist of functional antagonist. Naloxone and naltrexone are antagonists targeting all opioid receptors.

      Methadone is preferred over buprenorphine for detoxification, and ultra-rapid detoxification should not be offered. Lofexidine may be considered for mild of uncertain dependence. Clonidine and dihydrocodeine should not be used routinely in opioid detoxification. The duration of detoxification should be up to 4 weeks in an inpatient setting and up to 12 weeks in a community setting.

      Pregnant women dependent on opioids should use opioid maintenance treatment rather than attempt detoxification. Methadone is preferred over buprenorphine, and transfer to buprenorphine during pregnancy is not advised. Detoxification should only be considered if appropriate for the women’s wishes, circumstances, and ability to cope. Methadone or buprenorphine treatment is not a contraindication to breastfeeding.

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      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 30 - A woman with alcohol dependency and depression attends clinic and informs you that...

    Incorrect

    • A woman with alcohol dependency and depression attends clinic and informs you that she intends to stop drinking alcohol. She is adamant that she does not want any medication to assist in the detox but is keen to know how long the withdrawal symptoms may last. What would be the accurate estimate of the potential length of the withdrawal?

      Your Answer: 7 days

      Correct Answer: 14 days

      Explanation:

      Alcohol withdrawal is characterized by overactivity of the autonomic nervous system, resulting in symptoms such as agitation, tremors, sweating, nausea, vomiting, fever, and tachycardia. These symptoms typically begin 3-12 hours after drinking stops, peak between 24-48 hours, and can last up to 14 days. Withdrawal seizures may occur before blood alcohol levels reach zero, and a small percentage of people may experience delirium tremens (DT), which can be fatal if left untreated. Risk factors for DT include abnormal liver function, old age, severity of withdrawal symptoms, concurrent medical illness, heavy alcohol use, self-detox, previous history of DT, low potassium, low magnesium, and thiamine deficiency.

      Pharmacologically assisted detox is often necessary for those who regularly consume more than 15 units of alcohol per day, and inpatient detox may be needed for those who regularly consume more than 30 units per day. The Clinical Institute Withdrawal Assessment of Alcohol Scale (CIWA-Ar) can be used to assess the severity of withdrawal symptoms and guide treatment decisions. Benzodiazepines are the mainstay of treatment, as chronic alcohol exposure results in decreased overall brain excitability and compensatory decrease of GABA-A neuroreceptor response to GABA. Chlordiazepoxide is a good first-line agent, while oxazepam, temazepam, and lorazepam are useful in patients with liver disease. Clomethiazole is effective but carries a high risk of respiratory depression and is not recommended. Thiamine should be offered to prevent Wernicke’s encephalopathy, and long-acting benzodiazepines can be used as prophylaxis for withdrawal seizures. Haloperidol is the treatment of choice if an antipsychotic is required.

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      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Substance Misuse/Addictions (20/30) 67%
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