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  • Question 1 - A 45-year-old patient arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of a severe headache....

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old patient arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of a severe headache. This individual is a known heavy drinker, consuming 15-20 units of alcohol daily. It is currently 3 pm, and the patient is visibly intoxicated. Despite the need for assessment, the patient adamantly refuses and insists on leaving.
      What course of action would be most suitable in this situation?

      Your Answer: Arrange for a CT scan of his head

      Correct Answer: Suggest a referral to the community drug and alcohol team

      Explanation:

      When considering the management of long-term conditions and promoting patient self-care, it is important to explore various factors. However, out of the given options, the only safe and viable choice is to refer the patient to the community drug and alcohol team. Without further information about the patient’s headache, a CT scan is not necessary. It would be unwise to advise the patient to stop drinking or to allow them to leave the department without assessing their capacity and obtaining their signature on a self-discharge form. At this point, there is insufficient information to make a referral to the medical team.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      83.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 32-year-old woman was involved in a car accident where her car collided...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman was involved in a car accident where her car collided with a tree at high speed. She was not wearing a seatbelt and was thrown forward onto the steering wheel of her car. She has bruising over her anterior chest wall and is experiencing chest pain. A helical contrast-enhanced CT scan of the chest reveals a traumatic aortic injury. After receiving analgesia, which has effectively controlled her pain, her vital signs are as follows: HR 95, BP 128/88, SaO2 97% on room air, temperature is 37.4ºC.
      Which of the following medications would be most appropriate to administer next?

      Your Answer: Esmolol

      Explanation:

      Traumatic aortic rupture, also known as traumatic aortic disruption or transection, occurs when the aorta is torn or ruptured due to physical trauma. This condition often leads to sudden death because of severe bleeding. Motor vehicle accidents and falls from great heights are the most common causes of this injury.

      The patients with the highest chances of survival are those who have an incomplete tear near the ligamentum arteriosum of the proximal descending aorta, close to where the left subclavian artery branches off. The presence of an intact adventitial layer or contained mediastinal hematoma helps maintain continuity and prevents immediate bleeding and death. If promptly identified and treated, survivors of these injuries can recover. In cases where traumatic aortic rupture leads to sudden death, approximately 50% of patients have damage at the aortic isthmus, while around 15% have damage in either the ascending aorta or the aortic arch.

      Initial chest X-rays may show signs consistent with a traumatic aortic injury. However, false-positive and false-negative results can occur, and sometimes there may be no abnormalities visible on the X-ray. Some of the possible X-ray findings include a widened mediastinum, hazy left lung field, obliteration of the aortic knob, fractures of the 1st and 2nd ribs, deviation of the trachea to the right, presence of a pleural cap, elevation and rightward shift of the right mainstem bronchus, depression of the left mainstem bronchus, obliteration of the space between the pulmonary artery and aorta, and deviation of the esophagus or NG tube to the right.

      A helical contrast-enhanced CT scan of the chest is the preferred initial investigation for suspected blunt aortic injury. It has proven to be highly accurate, with close to 100% sensitivity and specificity. CT scanning should be performed liberally, as chest X-ray findings can be unreliable. However, hemodynamically unstable patients should not be placed in a CT scanner. If the CT results are inconclusive, aortography or trans-oesophageal echo can be performed for further evaluation.

      Immediate surgical intervention is necessary for these injuries. Endovascular repair is the most common method used and has excellent short-term outcomes. Open repair may also be performed depending on the circumstances. It is important to control heart rate and blood pressure during stabilization to reduce the risk of rupture. Pain should be managed with appropriate analgesic

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      513.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 35-year-old weightlifter who admits to heavy use of anabolic steroids presents with...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old weightlifter who admits to heavy use of anabolic steroids presents with extremely severe acne. He has numerous disfiguring, ulcerated, nodular lesions covering his face, back, and chest. Many of the lesions have bleeding crusts, and he has significant scarring. Some of the lesions have also connected and formed sinuses. He is also experiencing general malaise, joint pain, and a feverish feeling. You take his temperature and it is currently 39°C.
      What is the MOST appropriate course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer for hospital admission

      Explanation:

      Acne conglobata is an extremely severe form of acne where acne nodules come together and create sinuses. Acne fulminans, on the other hand, is a rare and severe complication of acne conglobata that is accompanied by systemic symptoms. It is linked to elevated levels of androgenic hormones, specific autoimmune conditions, and a genetic predisposition.

      The typical clinical characteristics of acne fulminans are as follows:

      – Sudden and abrupt onset
      – Inflammatory and ulcerated nodular acne primarily found on the chest and back
      – Often painful lesions
      – Ulcers on the upper trunk covered with bleeding crusts
      – Severe acne scarring
      – Fluctuating fever
      – Painful joints and arthropathy
      – General feeling of illness (malaise)
      – Loss of appetite and weight loss
      – Enlarged liver and spleen (hepatosplenomegaly)

      It is crucial to refer patients immediately for a specialist evaluation and hospital admission. Treatment options for acne fulminans include systemic corticosteroids, dapsone, ciclosporin, and high-dose intravenous antibiotics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 4 - A 32-year-old woman comes in with a painful, red left eye. She is...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman comes in with a painful, red left eye. She is also experiencing bilateral knee discomfort. Her medical history includes frequent and recurring mouth and genital ulcers. Upon examination of her eye, there is circumlimbal redness and a hypopyon is visible. Her left pupil has a poor reaction to light.

      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Behçet’s syndrome

      Explanation:

      Behçet’s syndrome is a systemic vasculitis that is mediated by the immune system. It is characterized by various symptoms, including polyarthritis, which primarily affects large joints. Additionally, patients with Behçet’s syndrome often experience recurrent oral and genital ulcers. Ocular disease is also common, with manifestations such as uveitis, hypopyon, and iridocyclitis. Furthermore, neurological involvement can occur, leading to demyelination, parkinsonism, and dementia. In this particular case, the patient’s eye examination reveals features consistent with anterior uveitis and the presence of a hypopyon. While several conditions can cause anterior uveitis, the patient’s history of joint pain in large joints and recurrent oral and genital ulcers strongly suggest Behçet’s syndrome as the most likely diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 5 - A 25-year-old male is brought to the emergency department after intentionally ingesting 70...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male is brought to the emergency department after intentionally ingesting 70 amitriptyline tablets. You administer activated charcoal to the patient. Which other medication, listed as an antidote on the RCEM/NPIS, can be used to treat tricyclic overdose?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sodium bicarbonate

      Explanation:

      In the latest guideline published in 2021 by RCEM and NPIS regarding antidote availability for emergency departments, it is emphasized that immediate access to sodium bicarbonate is essential for treating TCA overdose. It is worth noting that previous versions of the guideline included glucagon as a recommended treatment for TCA overdose, but this reference has been omitted in the latest edition.

      Further Reading:

      Salicylate poisoning, particularly from aspirin overdose, is a common cause of poisoning in the UK. One important concept to understand is that salicylate overdose leads to a combination of respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis. Initially, the overdose stimulates the respiratory center, leading to hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis. However, as the effects of salicylate on lactic acid production, breakdown into acidic metabolites, and acute renal injury occur, it can result in high anion gap metabolic acidosis.

      The clinical features of salicylate poisoning include hyperventilation, tinnitus, lethargy, sweating, pyrexia (fever), nausea/vomiting, hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia, seizures, and coma.

      When investigating salicylate poisoning, it is important to measure salicylate levels in the blood. The sample should be taken at least 2 hours after ingestion for symptomatic patients or 4 hours for asymptomatic patients. The measurement should be repeated every 2-3 hours until the levels start to decrease. Other investigations include arterial blood gas analysis, electrolyte levels (U&Es), complete blood count (FBC), coagulation studies (raised INR/PTR), urinary pH, and blood glucose levels.

      To manage salicylate poisoning, an ABC approach should be followed to ensure a patent airway and adequate ventilation. Activated charcoal can be administered if the patient presents within 1 hour of ingestion. Oral or intravenous fluids should be given to optimize intravascular volume. Hypokalemia and hypoglycemia should be corrected. Urinary alkalinization with intravenous sodium bicarbonate can enhance the elimination of aspirin in the urine. In severe cases, hemodialysis may be necessary.

      Urinary alkalinization involves targeting a urinary pH of 7.5-8.5 and checking it hourly. It is important to monitor for hypokalemia as alkalinization can cause potassium to shift from plasma into cells. Potassium levels should be checked every 1-2 hours.

      In cases where the salicylate concentration is high (above 500 mg/L in adults or 350 mg/L in children), sodium bicarbonate can be administered intravenously. Hemodialysis is the treatment of choice for severe poisoning and may be indicated in cases of high salicylate levels, resistant metabolic acidosis, acute kidney injury, pulmonary edema, seizures and coma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
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  • Question 6 - You assess a 68-year-old woman with chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL).
    Which ONE of the...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 68-year-old woman with chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL).
      Which ONE of the following statements about CLL is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is most commonly discovered as an incidental finding

      Explanation:

      Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL) is the most common form of leukaemia in adults. It occurs when mature lymphocytes multiply uncontrollably. B-cell lineage accounts for about 95% of cases. CLL is typically slow-growing and is often discovered incidentally during routine blood tests. As the disease progresses, patients may experience swollen lymph nodes, enlarged liver and spleen, low red blood cell count, and increased susceptibility to infections. This condition primarily affects adult males, with over 75% of CLL patients being men over the age of 50.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 7 - A 42-year-old chronic smoker comes in with a chronic productive cough, difficulty breathing,...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old chronic smoker comes in with a chronic productive cough, difficulty breathing, and wheezing. Blood tests reveal an elevated packed cell volume (PCV). A chest X-ray shows more than 6 ribs visible above the diaphragm in the midclavicular line. An arterial blood gas indicates slightly low pO2 levels.

      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: COPD

      Explanation:

      Based on the provided information, it is highly probable that this patient is suffering from chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). This conclusion is supported by several factors. Firstly, the patient has a history of chronic productive cough and wheezing, which are common symptoms of COPD. Additionally, the patient has a long-term smoking history, which is a major risk factor for developing this condition.

      Furthermore, the patient’s raised packed cell volume (PCV) is likely a result of chronic hypoxemia, a common complication of COPD. This indicates that the patient’s body is trying to compensate for the low oxygen levels in their blood.

      Moreover, the chest X-ray reveals evidence of hyperinflation, which is a characteristic finding in patients with COPD. This suggests that the patient’s lungs are overinflated and not functioning optimally.

      Lastly, the arterial blood gas analysis shows hypoxemia, indicating that the patient has low levels of oxygen in their blood. This is another significant finding that aligns with a diagnosis of COPD.

      In summary, based on the patient’s history, smoking habits, raised PCV, chest X-ray findings, and arterial blood gas results, it is highly likely that they have COPD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 8 - A 32-year-old individual comes in with a recent onset of low back pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old individual comes in with a recent onset of low back pain that is more severe in the mornings. They mention that their mother has ankylosing spondylitis and are concerned about the possibility of having the same condition.
      What is a red flag symptom that suggests spondyloarthritis as the underlying cause of back pain?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Buttock pain

      Explanation:

      Spondyloarthritis is a term that encompasses various inflammatory conditions affecting both the joints and the entheses, which are the attachment sites of ligaments and tendons to the bones. The primary cause of spondyloarthritis is ankylosing spondylitis, but it can also be triggered by reactive arthritis, psoriatic arthritis, and enteropathic arthropathies.

      If individuals below the age of 45 experience four or more of the following symptoms, they should be referred for a potential diagnosis of spondyloarthritis:

      – Presence of low back pain and being younger than 35 years old
      – Waking up in the second half of the night due to pain
      – Buttock pain
      – Pain that improves with movement or within 48 hours of using nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
      – Having a first-degree relative with spondyloarthritis
      – History of current or past arthritis, psoriasis, or enthesitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
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  • Question 9 - A 28 year old IV drug user comes to the emergency department with...

    Incorrect

    • A 28 year old IV drug user comes to the emergency department with complaints of feeling sick. Considering the history of IV drug abuse, there is concern for infective endocarditis. Which structure is most likely to be impacted in this individual?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tricuspid valve

      Explanation:

      The tricuspid valve is the most commonly affected valve in cases of infective endocarditis among intravenous drug users. This means that when IV drug users develop infective endocarditis, it is most likely to affect the tricuspid valve. On the other hand, in cases of native valve endocarditis and prosthetic valve endocarditis, the mitral valve is the valve that is most commonly affected.

      Further Reading:

      Infective endocarditis (IE) is an infection that affects the innermost layer of the heart, known as the endocardium. It is most commonly caused by bacteria, although it can also be caused by fungi or viruses. IE can be classified as acute, subacute, or chronic depending on the duration of illness. Risk factors for IE include IV drug use, valvular heart disease, prosthetic valves, structural congenital heart disease, previous episodes of IE, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, immune suppression, chronic inflammatory conditions, and poor dental hygiene.

      The epidemiology of IE has changed in recent years, with Staphylococcus aureus now being the most common causative organism in most industrialized countries. Other common organisms include coagulase-negative staphylococci, streptococci, and enterococci. The distribution of causative organisms varies depending on whether the patient has a native valve, prosthetic valve, or is an IV drug user.

      Clinical features of IE include fever, heart murmurs (most commonly aortic regurgitation), non-specific constitutional symptoms, petechiae, splinter hemorrhages, Osler’s nodes, Janeway’s lesions, Roth’s spots, arthritis, splenomegaly, meningism/meningitis, stroke symptoms, and pleuritic pain.

      The diagnosis of IE is based on the modified Duke criteria, which require the presence of certain major and minor criteria. Major criteria include positive blood cultures with typical microorganisms and positive echocardiogram findings. Minor criteria include fever, vascular phenomena, immunological phenomena, and microbiological phenomena. Blood culture and echocardiography are key tests for diagnosing IE.

      In summary, infective endocarditis is an infection of the innermost layer of the heart that is most commonly caused by bacteria. It can be classified as acute, subacute, or chronic and can be caused by a variety of risk factors. Staphylococcus aureus is now the most common causative organism in most industrialized countries. Clinical features include fever, heart murmurs, and various other symptoms. The diagnosis is based on the modified Duke criteria, which require the presence of certain major and minor criteria. Blood culture and echocardiography are important tests for diagnosing IE.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 10 - A 25 year old woman is brought to the emergency department by her...

    Incorrect

    • A 25 year old woman is brought to the emergency department by her roommate after intentionally overdosing on amitriptyline. What is a typical clinical sign of toxicity in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dilated pupils

      Explanation:

      An overdose of Amitriptyline can lead to the development of an anticholinergic toxidrome. This toxidrome is characterized by various symptoms, which can be remembered using the phrase ‘mad as a hatter, hot as hell, red as a beat, dry as a bone, and blind as a bat’. Some of these symptoms include a dry mouth and an elevated body temperature.

      Further Reading:

      Tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) overdose is a common occurrence in emergency departments, with drugs like amitriptyline and dosulepin being particularly dangerous. TCAs work by inhibiting the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin in the central nervous system. In cases of toxicity, TCAs block various receptors, including alpha-adrenergic, histaminic, muscarinic, and serotonin receptors. This can lead to symptoms such as hypotension, altered mental state, signs of anticholinergic toxicity, and serotonin receptor effects.

      TCAs primarily cause cardiac toxicity by blocking sodium and potassium channels. This can result in a slowing of the action potential, prolongation of the QRS complex, and bradycardia. However, the blockade of muscarinic receptors also leads to tachycardia in TCA overdose. QT prolongation and Torsades de Pointes can occur due to potassium channel blockade. TCAs can also have a toxic effect on the myocardium, causing decreased cardiac contractility and hypotension.

      Early symptoms of TCA overdose are related to their anticholinergic properties and may include dry mouth, pyrexia, dilated pupils, agitation, sinus tachycardia, blurred vision, flushed skin, tremor, and confusion. Severe poisoning can lead to arrhythmias, seizures, metabolic acidosis, and coma. ECG changes commonly seen in TCA overdose include sinus tachycardia, widening of the QRS complex, prolongation of the QT interval, and an R/S ratio >0.7 in lead aVR.

      Management of TCA overdose involves ensuring a patent airway, administering activated charcoal if ingestion occurred within 1 hour and the airway is intact, and considering gastric lavage for life-threatening cases within 1 hour of ingestion. Serial ECGs and blood gas analysis are important for monitoring. Intravenous fluids and correction of hypoxia are the first-line therapies. IV sodium bicarbonate is used to treat haemodynamic instability caused by TCA overdose, and benzodiazepines are the treatment of choice for seizure control. Other treatments that may be considered include glucagon, magnesium sulfate, and intravenous lipid emulsion.

      There are certain things to avoid in TCA overdose, such as anti-arrhythmics like quinidine and flecainide, as they can prolonged depolarization.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Mental Health (0/1) 0%
Trauma (1/1) 100%
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