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  • Question 1 - A 35-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a brief history of...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a brief history of headaches, which are more severe in the morning, and blurred vision and ringing in the ears. Her headache is worse than usual today, and she has vomited multiple times. She has no significant medical history but does take the combined oral contraceptive pill. On examination, you find her to be overweight, and her neurological system examination reveals a sixth cranial nerve palsy, but no other focal neurology and fundoscopy reveals bilateral papilloedema.

      What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Idiopathic intracranial hypertension

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis in this case is idiopathic intracranial hypertension, also known as benign intracranial hypertension or pseudotumour cerebri. This condition typically affects overweight women in their 20s and 30s.

      The clinical features of idiopathic intracranial hypertension include:
      – Headache: The headache is usually worse in the morning and evenings, relieved by standing, and worsened when lying down. It can also be aggravated by coughing and sneezing. Some patients may experience pain around the shoulder girdle.
      – Nausea and vomiting
      – Visual field defects: These develop gradually over time.
      – 6th nerve palsy and diplopia
      – Bilateral papilloedema

      To investigate this condition, the patient should undergo a CT scan and/or MRI of the brain, as well as a lumbar puncture to measure the opening pressure and analyze the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).

      The primary treatment goal for idiopathic intracranial hypertension is to prevent visual loss. This can be achieved through one of the following strategies:
      – Repeated lumbar puncture to control intracranial pressure (ICP)
      – Medical treatment with acetazolamide
      – Surgical decompression of the optic nerve sheath

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      200.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 5 year old girl is brought into the emergency room. Her mother...

    Correct

    • A 5 year old girl is brought into the emergency room. Her mother witnessed her putting something in her mouth. She believes it was a small object, but the girl swallowed it and within 5 minutes her face began to swell. You determine that she is experiencing anaphylaxis and start administering the necessary first-line medications. After stabilizing her condition, you decide to administer cetirizine. What is the appropriate dosage of cetirizine for this patient?

      Your Answer: Cetirizine 2.5–5 mg

      Explanation:

      Antihistamines do not help in treating the life-threatening aspects of anaphylaxis and should not be used instead of adrenaline. However, they can be used to relieve symptoms such as skin reactions and itching once the patient’s condition has stabilized. The appropriate dose of cetirizine for children between the ages of 2 and 6 is 2.5-5 mg. It is important to note that chlorpheniramine is no longer recommended. The recommended doses of oral cetirizine for different age groups are as follows: less than 2 years – 250 micrograms/kg, 2-6 years – 2.5-5 mg, 6-11 years – 5-10 mg, 12 years and older – 10-20 mg.

      Further Reading:

      Anaphylaxis is a severe and life-threatening allergic reaction that affects the entire body. It is characterized by a rapid onset and can lead to difficulty breathing, low blood pressure, and loss of consciousness. In paediatrics, anaphylaxis is often caused by food allergies, with nuts being the most common trigger. Other causes include drugs and insect venom, such as from a wasp sting.

      When treating anaphylaxis, time is of the essence and there may not be enough time to look up medication doses. Adrenaline is the most important drug in managing anaphylaxis and should be administered as soon as possible. The recommended doses of adrenaline vary based on the age of the child. For children under 6 months, the dose is 150 micrograms, while for children between 6 months and 6 years, the dose remains the same. For children between 6 and 12 years, the dose is increased to 300 micrograms, and for adults and children over 12 years, the dose is 500 micrograms. Adrenaline can be repeated every 5 minutes if necessary.

      The preferred site for administering adrenaline is the anterolateral aspect of the middle third of the thigh. This ensures quick absorption and effectiveness of the medication. It is important to follow the Resuscitation Council guidelines for anaphylaxis management, as they have recently been updated.

      In some cases, it can be challenging to determine if a patient had a true episode of anaphylaxis. In such cases, serum tryptase levels may be measured, as they remain elevated for up to 12 hours following an acute episode of anaphylaxis. This can help confirm the diagnosis and guide further management.

      Overall, prompt recognition and administration of adrenaline are crucial in managing anaphylaxis in paediatrics. Following the recommended doses and guidelines can help ensure the best outcomes for patients experiencing this severe allergic reaction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Emergencies
      140
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 25-year-old male is brought to the emergency department after intentionally ingesting 70...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old male is brought to the emergency department after intentionally ingesting 70 amitriptyline tablets. You administer activated charcoal to the patient. Which other medication, listed as an antidote on the RCEM/NPIS, can be used to treat tricyclic overdose?

      Your Answer: Sodium bicarbonate

      Explanation:

      In the latest guideline published in 2021 by RCEM and NPIS regarding antidote availability for emergency departments, it is emphasized that immediate access to sodium bicarbonate is essential for treating TCA overdose. It is worth noting that previous versions of the guideline included glucagon as a recommended treatment for TCA overdose, but this reference has been omitted in the latest edition.

      Further Reading:

      Salicylate poisoning, particularly from aspirin overdose, is a common cause of poisoning in the UK. One important concept to understand is that salicylate overdose leads to a combination of respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis. Initially, the overdose stimulates the respiratory center, leading to hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis. However, as the effects of salicylate on lactic acid production, breakdown into acidic metabolites, and acute renal injury occur, it can result in high anion gap metabolic acidosis.

      The clinical features of salicylate poisoning include hyperventilation, tinnitus, lethargy, sweating, pyrexia (fever), nausea/vomiting, hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia, seizures, and coma.

      When investigating salicylate poisoning, it is important to measure salicylate levels in the blood. The sample should be taken at least 2 hours after ingestion for symptomatic patients or 4 hours for asymptomatic patients. The measurement should be repeated every 2-3 hours until the levels start to decrease. Other investigations include arterial blood gas analysis, electrolyte levels (U&Es), complete blood count (FBC), coagulation studies (raised INR/PTR), urinary pH, and blood glucose levels.

      To manage salicylate poisoning, an ABC approach should be followed to ensure a patent airway and adequate ventilation. Activated charcoal can be administered if the patient presents within 1 hour of ingestion. Oral or intravenous fluids should be given to optimize intravascular volume. Hypokalemia and hypoglycemia should be corrected. Urinary alkalinization with intravenous sodium bicarbonate can enhance the elimination of aspirin in the urine. In severe cases, hemodialysis may be necessary.

      Urinary alkalinization involves targeting a urinary pH of 7.5-8.5 and checking it hourly. It is important to monitor for hypokalemia as alkalinization can cause potassium to shift from plasma into cells. Potassium levels should be checked every 1-2 hours.

      In cases where the salicylate concentration is high (above 500 mg/L in adults or 350 mg/L in children), sodium bicarbonate can be administered intravenously. Hemodialysis is the treatment of choice for severe poisoning and may be indicated in cases of high salicylate levels, resistant metabolic acidosis, acute kidney injury, pulmonary edema, seizures and coma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      50.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 45-year-old patient has sustained an injury to their left upper limb, resulting...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old patient has sustained an injury to their left upper limb, resulting in a peripheral neuropathy. Upon examination, the patient presents with clawing of their hand, with hyperextension of the metacarpophalangeal joints and flexion of the distal and proximal interphalangeal joints of the little and ring fingers. However, their wrist flexion remains normal. Sensory loss is observed over the palmar surface of the medial one and a half fingers, while sensation in the rest of the hand and forearm, including the palm and dorsal aspect of all fingers, is normal. Additionally, Froment's sign is positive.

      Which specific nerve has been affected in this case?

      Your Answer: Ulnar nerve at the wrist

      Explanation:

      The ulnar nerve originates from the medial cord of the brachial plexus, specifically from the C8-T1 nerve roots. It may also carry fibers from C7 on occasion. This nerve has both motor and sensory functions.

      In terms of motor function, the ulnar nerve innervates the muscles of the hand, excluding the thenar muscles and the lateral two lumbricals (which are supplied by the median nerve). It also innervates two muscles in the anterior forearm: the flexor carpi ulnaris and the medial half of the flexor digitorum profundus.

      Regarding sensory function, the ulnar nerve provides innervation to the anterior and posterior surfaces of the medial one and a half fingers, as well as the associated palm and dorsal hand area. There are three sensory branches responsible for the cutaneous innervation of the ulnar nerve. Two of these branches arise in the forearm and travel into the hand: the palmar cutaneous branch, which innervates the skin of the medial half of the palm, and the dorsal cutaneous branch, which innervates the dorsal skin of the medial one and a half fingers and the associated dorsal hand. The third branch arises in the hand and is called the superficial branch, which innervates the palmar surface of the medial one and a half fingers.

      When the ulnar nerve is damaged at the elbow, the flexor carpi ulnaris and the medial half of the flexor digitorum profundus muscles in the anterior forearm will be spared. However, if the ulnar nerve is injured at the wrist, these muscles will be affected. Additionally, when the ulnar nerve is damaged at the elbow, flexion of the wrist can still occur due to the intact median nerve, but it will be accompanied by abduction as the flexor carpi ulnaris adducts the hand. On the other hand, wrist flexion will be unaffected when the ulnar nerve is damaged at the wrist.

      The sensory function also differs depending on the site of damage. When the ulnar nerve is damaged at the elbow, all three cutaneous branches will be affected, resulting in complete sensory loss in the areas innervated by the ulnar nerve. However, if the damage occurs at the wrist, the two branches that arise in the forearm may be spared.

      Damage to the ulnar nerve at either the elbow or wrist leads to a characteristic claw hand appearance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      321.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - You are requested to evaluate a 42-year-old individual with a knee injury sustained...

    Correct

    • You are requested to evaluate a 42-year-old individual with a knee injury sustained from leaping off a tall wall and landing on a leg that was completely extended. It is suspected that the patient may have experienced a quadriceps tendon rupture. Which of the subsequent observations would indicate this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Loss of of active knee extension

      Explanation:

      When a complete quadriceps rupture occurs, it leads to the inability to actively extend the knee. Please refer to the following notes for more detailed information.

      Further Reading:

      A quadriceps tendon tear or rupture is a traumatic lower limb and joint injury that occurs when there is heavy loading on the leg, causing forced contraction of the quadriceps while the foot is planted and the knee is partially bent. These tears most commonly happen at the osteotendinous junction between the tendon and the superior pole of the patella. Quadriceps tendon ruptures are more common than patellar tendon ruptures.

      When a quadriceps tendon tear occurs, the patient usually experiences a tearing sensation and immediate pain. They will then typically complain of pain around the knee and over the tendon. Clinically, there will often be a knee effusion and weakness or inability to actively extend the knee.

      In cases of complete quadriceps tears, the patella will be displaced distally, resulting in a low lying patella or patella infera, also known as patella baja. Radiological measurements, such as the Insall-Salvati ratio, can be used to measure patella height. The Insall-Salvati ratio is calculated by dividing the patellar tendon length by the patellar length. A normal ratio is between 0.8 to 1.2, while a low lying patella (patella baja) is less than 0.8 and a high lying patella (patella alta) is greater than 1.2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      55.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 62-year-old woman presents, confused and trembling. She has a strong smell of...

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old woman presents, confused and trembling. She has a strong smell of alcohol and her appearance is unkempt. She informs you that she typically consumes large amounts of alcohol (>1 L vodka per day) but has not had any since yesterday. Upon examination, you observe that she has jaundice and abdominal distension. There are numerous spider naevi on her abdomen. Her initial blood results are as follows:

      AST: 492 IU/L (5-40)
      ALT: 398 IU/L (5-40)
      ALP: 320 IU/L (20-140)
      Gamma GT: 712 IU/L (5-40)
      Bilirubin: 104 mmol (3-20)

      What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Alcohol-induced hepatitis

      Explanation:

      This patient presents with elevated transaminases and gamma GT, along with mildly elevated ALP and hyperbilirubinemia. These findings strongly indicate a diagnosis of alcohol-induced hepatitis. Additionally, the patient’s history and examination features strongly suggest a history of chronic alcohol abuse and withdrawal, further supporting this diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology & Hepatology
      185.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - You review a child with hypocalcaemia with your consultant. She performs an examination...

    Incorrect

    • You review a child with hypocalcaemia with your consultant. She performs an examination and taps along the course of the facial nerve as part of this. This causes contraction of the muscles of the eye, mouth, and nose on the same side.

      Which SINGLE sign has the consultant demonstrated?

      Your Answer: Gower’s sign

      Correct Answer: Chvostek’s sign

      Explanation:

      Chvostek’s sign is an indication of latent tetany and is observed in individuals with hypocalcaemia. When the angle of the jaw is tapped, the facial muscles on the same side of the face will momentarily contract.

      Trousseau’s sign is another indication of latent tetany seen in hypocalcaemia. To test for this sign, a blood pressure cuff is placed around the subject’s arm and inflated to 20 mmHg above systolic blood pressure. This occludes arterial blood flow to the hand for a period of 3 to 5 minutes. In the presence of hypocalcaemia, carpopedal spasm will occur, characterized by flexion at the wrist and MCP joints, extension of the IP joints, and adduction of the thumb and fingers.

      Blumberg’s sign is a diagnostic tool for peritonitis. It is considered positive when rebound tenderness is felt in the abdominal wall upon slow compression and rapid release.

      Froment’s sign is a test used to assess ulnar nerve palsy, specifically evaluating the action of the adductor pollicis muscle. The patient is instructed to hold a piece of paper between their thumb and index finger. The examiner then attempts to pull the paper from between the thumb and index finger. A patient with ulnar nerve palsy will struggle to maintain a grip and may compensate by flexing the flexor pollicis longus muscle to sustain the pinching effect.

      Gower’s sign is observed in children with Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy. When attempting to stand up from the ground, these children will start with both hands and feet on the floor and gradually use their hands to work up their legs until they achieve an upright posture.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      468.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 60-year-old woman presents with recent weight loss, difficulty breathing, and chest pain....

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old woman presents with recent weight loss, difficulty breathing, and chest pain. She has a long history of smoking and has been diagnosed with COPD. A chest X-ray reveals a large mass in the left lung consistent with cancer. You recommend that she be referred to a specialist for further evaluation and treatment, but she refuses and does not want her family to know about her condition. She also states that she does not want to hear any negative news. After assessing her mental capacity and determining that she is competent and has capacity, which of the following statements is true regarding her ongoing care?

      Your Answer: You should document that the patient has declined information

      Explanation:

      There is no indication for an independent psychiatric evaluation of this patient. However, it is important to clearly document in his medical records that you have assessed his mental capacity and determined that he is capable of making decisions. It would not be appropriate in this case to refer him to a specialist against his wishes or to breach confidentiality by discussing his illness with his family or next of kin. According to the guidelines set by the General Medical Council (GMC), it is necessary to document the fact that the patient has declined relevant information. It is also important to avoid pressuring the patient to change their mind in these circumstances.

      For further information, please refer to the GMC guidelines on treatment and care towards the end of life: good practice in decision making.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Palliative & End Of Life Care
      2562.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 32-year-old woman with a history of schizophrenia describes a sensation in which...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman with a history of schizophrenia describes a sensation in which she feels that other people can hear what she is thinking. She is finding the sensation very distressing.
      Which ONE of the following thought disorders is she exhibiting?

      Your Answer: Thought broadcast

      Explanation:

      Thought broadcast is one of the primary symptoms of schizophrenia identified by Schneider. This symptom refers to the patient’s belief that their thoughts can be perceived by others.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      23.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 57-year-old man comes in with a fever, difficulty breathing, and a cough...

    Correct

    • A 57-year-old man comes in with a fever, difficulty breathing, and a cough with phlegm. During the examination, you notice crackling sounds in his lower left lung. You diagnose him with community-acquired pneumonia.
      Which of the following statements is accurate about the CURB-65 scoring system?

      Your Answer: A serum urea of 7.5 mmol/l scores 1 point

      Explanation:

      The CURB criteria, also referred to as the CURB-65 criteria, is a clinical prediction rule that has been scientifically proven to predict mortality in cases of community-acquired pneumonia. These criteria consist of five factors: confusion of new onset (AMTS <8), urea level greater than 7 mmol/l, respiratory rate exceeding 30 per minute, blood pressure below 90 mmHg systolic or 60 mmHg diastolic, and age over 65 years. Based on the score obtained from these criteria, the risk level can be determined. A score of 0-1 indicates a low-risk situation, where outpatient treatment is recommended. A score of 2-3 suggests a moderate risk, and either inpatient treatment or an ambulatory care pathway is recommended. A score of 4-5 indicates a high risk, requiring hospitalization and potentially critical care involvement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      64
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Neurology (2/2) 100%
Paediatric Emergencies (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology & Poisoning (1/1) 100%
Trauma (1/1) 100%
Gastroenterology & Hepatology (1/1) 100%
Nephrology (0/1) 0%
Palliative & End Of Life Care (1/1) 100%
Mental Health (1/1) 100%
Respiratory (1/1) 100%
Passmed