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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old Caucasian woman complains of weight loss, steatorrhoea and diarrhoea. Anaemia and metabolic bone disease are detected during investigations. A small intestine biopsy reveals severe villous atrophy, particularly in the proximal segments. The patient responds well to a gluten-free diet for one year, but her symptoms return despite maintaining the diet. A repeat biopsy shows changes similar to the previous one. What condition should be suspected in this patient?
Your Answer: Refractory sprue
Correct Answer: T-cell intestinal lymphoma
Explanation:Considerations for Non-Responsive Coeliac Disease
Coeliac disease, also known as gluten-sensitive enteropathy, is associated with specific human leukocyte antigen subtypes. The hallmark of this disease is the disappearance of clinical features and intestinal histologic findings upon discontinuing gluten in the diet. However, in cases where patients who were previously responding well to a gluten-free diet stop responding, the possibility of intestinal T-cell lymphoma, a complication of coeliac disease, should be strongly considered.
Other conditions, such as tropical sprue, dermatitis herpetiformis, collagenous sprue, and refractory sprue, may also present with similar symptoms but have different responses to gluten restriction. Tropical sprue does not respond to gluten restriction, while dermatitis herpetiformis is a skin disease associated with coeliac disease and does not cause failure of response to a gluten-free diet. Collagenous sprue is characterized by the presence of a collagen layer beneath the basement membrane and does not respond to a gluten-free diet. Refractory sprue, on the other hand, is a subset of coeliac disease where patients do not respond to gluten restriction and may require glucocorticoids or restriction of soy products.
In conclusion, when a patient with coeliac disease stops responding to a gluten-free diet, it is important to consider the possibility of intestinal T-cell lymphoma and differentiate it from other conditions that may present with similar symptoms but have different responses to gluten restriction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man presents with nausea, vomiting, epigastric discomfort and weight loss over the last 2 months. On questioning, he describes postprandial fullness and loss of appetite. He denies any dysphagia, melaena or haematemesis. He has a long-standing history of heartburn. He has no other relevant past medical history. Investigations reveal iron deficiency anaemia. Endoscopy confirms gastric cancer.
What is a risk factor for gastric cancer in this 67-year-old man?Your Answer: Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
Correct Answer: Helicobacter pylori
Explanation:Risk Factors and Protective Measures for Gastric Cancer
Gastric cancer is a prevalent form of cancer worldwide, but its incidence is decreasing. Several factors are associated with an increased risk of developing gastric cancer, including pernicious anaemia, blood group A, smoking, and a diet high in nitrate and salt. However, a diet rich in citrus fruits and leafy green vegetables can decrease the risk. Helicobacter pylori infection is a significant risk factor, with a relative risk of 5.9. However, this bacterium is not a risk factor for cancer of the gastric cardia, which is increasing and associated with long-term gastro-oesophageal reflux disease, smoking, and obesity. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) may have a protective effect in preventing gastric cancer. Blood group B and a higher education/social class are protective factors. A diet rich in fresh fruits and vegetables is also likely to be protective.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 58-year-old-man visits his General Practitioner with concerns of constipation and rectal bleeding. He reports a recent loss of appetite and occasional abdominal pain over the past few months. The patient's blood test results are as follows:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 98 g/l 130 – 180 g/l
Mean corpuscular value (MCV) 93 fl 80 –100 fl
What is the most suitable test to conduct for the diagnosis of this patient?Your Answer: Colonoscopy
Explanation:The patient in this scenario presents with symptoms that suggest a blockage in their bowel and potential signs of cancer, such as a loss of appetite and anemia. Therefore, the most important initial investigation is a colonoscopy. A colonic transit study is not appropriate as it is used for slow colonic transit and this patient has symptoms of obstruction. An abdominal X-ray can be used to investigate faecal impaction and rectal masses, but a colonoscopy should be used first-line for detailed information about colonic masses. While a CT abdomen may be needed, a colonoscopy should be performed as the initial investigation for intestinal luminal obstruction and potential malignancy. Checking thyroid function may be useful if there is suspicion of a secondary cause of constipation, but in this case, the patient’s symptoms suggest colonic obstruction and cancer, making a thyroid function test an inappropriate initial investigation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 43-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner (GP) with four months of difficulty swallowing both liquids and solid food. He also complains of regurgitation of undigested food and retrosternal chest pain when this happens. He no longer looks forward to his meals and thinks he may be starting to lose weight. He has no other medical problems. He has never smoked or drank alcohol and denies drug use. He presented two months ago with similar symptoms and a different GP treated the patient with a proton-pump inhibitor (PPI), which his symptoms did not respond to.
Physical examination is normal. A recent chest radiograph appears to be normal. His electrocardiogram (ECG) does not show any ischaemic changes.
His observations and blood tests results are shown below:
Temperature 36.9 °C
Blood pressure 125/59 mmHg
Heart rate 65 beats per minute
Respiratory rate 14 breaths per minute
Sp(O2) 96% (room air)
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Achalasia
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Dysphagia: Achalasia, Acute Coronary Syndrome, Diffuse Oesophageal Spasm, Oesophageal Carcinoma, and Pill-Induced Oesophagitis
Dysphagia, or difficulty swallowing, can be caused by various conditions. Among the possible diagnoses, achalasia is the most suitable response for a patient who presents with dysphagia to both solids and liquids with regurgitation of food. Achalasia is a rare motility disorder that affects the oesophagus, resulting in the failure of the lower oesophageal sphincter to relax. The patient may also have a normal ECG and no atherosclerotic risk factors, ruling out acute coronary syndrome. Diffuse oesophageal spasm, which causes intermittent and poorly coordinated contractions of the distal oesophagus, is less likely as the patient has continuous symptoms. Oesophageal carcinoma, which typically presents with progressive dysphagia from solids to liquids, is also unlikely as the patient lacks risk factors for the disease. Pill-induced oesophagitis, on the other hand, should be suspected in patients with heartburn or dysphagia and a history of ingestion of medications known to cause oesophageal injury. In summary, the differential diagnosis for dysphagia includes achalasia, acute coronary syndrome, diffuse oesophageal spasm, oesophageal carcinoma, and pill-induced oesophagitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 40-year-old woman from Vietnam presents with abdominal swelling. She has no history of blood transfusion or jaundice in the past and is in a stable relationship with two children. Upon admission, she was found to be icteric. During the investigation, she experienced a bout of haematemesis and was admitted to the High Dependency Unit.
What is the most probable cause of her symptoms?Your Answer: Hepatitis B infection
Explanation:The patient is likely suffering from chronic liver disease and portal hypertension, possibly caused by a hepatitis B infection. This is common in regions such as sub-Saharan Africa and East Asia, where up to 10% of adults may be chronically infected. Acute paracetamol overdose can also cause liver failure, but it does not typically present with haematemesis. Mushroom poisoning can be deadly and cause liver damage, but it is not a cause of chronic liver disease. Hepatitis C is another cause of liver cirrhosis, but it is more common in other regions such as Egypt. Haemochromatosis is a rare autosomal recessive disease that can present with cirrhosis and other symptoms, but it is less likely in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 61-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with acute-onset severe epigastric pain for the last eight hours. The pain radiates to the back and has been poorly controlled with paracetamol. The patient has not had this type of pain before. He also has associated nausea and five episodes of non-bloody, non-bilious vomiting. He last moved his bowels this morning. His past medical history is significant for alcoholism, epilepsy and depression, for which he is not compliant with treatment. The patient has been drinking approximately 25 pints of beer per week for the last 15 years. He has had no previous surgeries.
His observations and blood tests results are shown below. Examination reveals tenderness in the epigastrium, without rigidity.
Investigation Result Normal value
Temperature 37.0 °C
Blood pressure 151/81 mmHg
Heart rate 81 bpm
Respiratory rate 19 breaths/min
Oxygen saturation (SpO2) 99% (room air)
C-reactive protein 102 mg/l 0–10 mg/l
White cell count 18.5 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Amylase 992 U/l < 200 U/l
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Acute pancreatitis
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms and lab results suggest that they have acute pancreatitis, which is commonly seen in individuals with alcoholism or gallstone disease. This condition is characterized by severe epigastric pain that may radiate to the back, and an increase in pancreatic enzymes like amylase within 6-12 hours of onset. Lipase levels can also aid in diagnosis, as they rise earlier and last longer than amylase levels. Acute mesenteric ischemia, perforated peptic ulcer, pyelonephritis, and small bowel obstruction are less likely diagnoses based on the patient’s symptoms and medical history.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 55-year-old man presents to the clinic with abnormal liver function tests (LFTs). He reports drinking no more than 3 units of alcohol per week and has no significant medical history. The patient was prescribed amoxicillin by his primary care physician for a sinus infection two weeks ago.
During the physical examination, the patient's BMI is found to be 40 kg/m2, indicating obesity. The LFTs reveal:
- ALT 120 U/L (5-40)
- AST 130 U/L (10-40)
- Alkaline phosphatase 200 U/L (45-105)
What is the most likely cause of this liver function test derangement?Your Answer: Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease
Explanation:Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease (NAFLD) as a Cause of Liver Enzyme Abnormalities
Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) is a common cause of liver enzyme abnormalities, characterized by the accumulation of fat in the liver leading to inflammation. It is often associated with obesity, hypertension, dyslipidemia, and insulin resistance, which are part of the metabolic syndrome. However, other causes of hepatitis should be ruled out before making a diagnosis of NAFLD.
Patients who are obese and diabetic are advised to lose weight and control their diabetes. A low-fat, low-calorie diet is usually recommended alongside treatment to lower HbA1c. Patients with NAFLD should avoid alcohol or other substances that could be harmful to the liver.
It is important to note that deranged liver enzymes are not listed as side effects for amoxicillin in the British National Formulary. Therefore, if a patient presents with liver enzyme abnormalities, NAFLD should be considered as a possible cause and appropriate investigations should be carried out to confirm the diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old waitress who works at a restaurant in Spain has returned home to see her doctor because she is feeling unwell. She has been experiencing increasing nausea and fatigue and noticed that her urine had darkened a few days ago, and now her stools are pale. Additionally, she has been suffering from severe itching. During the examination, she was found to be jaundiced with scratch marks on her skin and a temperature of 38.1°C.
The following investigations were conducted:
- Haemoglobin: 120 g/l (normal range: 115–155 g/l)
- White cell count (WCC): 11.1 × 109/l (normal range: 4–11 × 109/l)
- Platelets: 170 × 109/l (normal range: 150–400 × 109/l)
- Prothrombin Test (PT): 17.1 s (normal range: 10.6–14.9 s)
- Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR): 48 mm/hr (normal range: 0–10mm in the 1st hour)
- Alanine aminotransferase (ALT): 795 IU/l (normal range: 5–30 IU/l)
- Bilirubin: 100 μmol/l (normal range: 2–17 µmol/l)
- Alkaline phosphatase: 90 IU/l (normal range: 30–130 IU/l)
- Anti hepatitis A IgM markedly elevated
What is the most accurate prognosis for this 24-year-old waitress?Your Answer: She has a chance of progression to cirrhosis of approximately 10%
Correct Answer: She has a chance of progression to cirrhosis of approximately 0%
Explanation:Understanding Hepatitis A Infection
Hepatitis A infection is a common viral infection that spreads through the faeco-oral route, particularly in areas like North Africa. It is usually acquired through exposure to contaminated food or water. The infection typically presents with a prodrome of flu-like symptoms, followed by acute hepatitis with right upper quadrant tenderness, jaundice, pale stools, and dark urine.
Fortunately, hepatitis A is a self-limiting condition, and most people recover within 2-6 months without any significant complications. Death from hepatitis A is rare, occurring in only 0.2% of cases. However, relapsing hepatitis A can occur in up to 20% of cases, with each relapse being milder than the previous one.
Treatment for hepatitis A is mainly supportive, and there is no significant risk of progression to cirrhosis. Unlike hepatitis B and C, which are transmitted through blood products and sexual intercourse, hepatitis A and E are transmitted through the faeco-oral route. Therefore, practicing good hygiene and sanitation is crucial in preventing the spread of the infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old student presents to the University Health Service with jaundice. He had been to a party three nights earlier and since then has been laid up in bed with flu-like symptoms. On examination, he has mild jaundice, but otherwise the examination is normal.
Bloods:
Investigation Result Normal value
Bilirubin 62 μmol/l 2–17 µmol/l
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 21 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 15 IU/l 10–40 IU/l
Haemoglobin 131 g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 4.2 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 320 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this case?Your Answer: Crigler-Najjar syndrome
Correct Answer: Gilbert's syndrome
Explanation:Understanding Gilbert’s Syndrome and Its Differential Diagnosis
Gilbert’s syndrome is a genetic condition that affects the conjugation of bilirubin due to a defect in the bilirubin-uridine diphosphate (UDP) glucuronyl transferase enzyme. This results in an isolated rise in bilirubin levels during times of stress, fatigue, or viral illness. A 48-hour fast can confirm the diagnosis if it is unclear. The condition is benign and does not require specific treatment.
Crigler-Najjar syndrome is another condition that affects UDP glucuronyl transferase, but it presents with jaundice and typically results in death during the neonatal period.
Cholecystitis causes right upper quadrant abdominal pain and fever but does not typically result in jaundice. Acute ethanol poisoning can lead to alcoholic hepatitis, but the mild jaundice and overall well-being of the patient are more consistent with Gilbert’s syndrome.
Viral hepatitis can also cause jaundice, but the clinical picture is more in line with Gilbert’s syndrome. Understanding the differential diagnosis is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment and management for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department with haematemesis. His friends report that he drank a large amount of alcohol earlier and had prolonged vomiting because he is not used to drinking so much. During the examination, his vital signs are: pulse 110 bpm, blood pressure 100/60 mmHg. There are no notable findings during systemic examination.
What is the most likely cause of the haematemesis in this case?Your Answer: Peptic ulcer disease
Correct Answer: Mallory-Weiss tear
Explanation:Causes of haematemesis and their associated symptoms
Haematemesis, or vomiting of blood, can be caused by various conditions affecting the upper gastrointestinal tract. Here we discuss some of the common causes and their associated symptoms.
Mallory-Weiss tear
This type of tear occurs at the junction between the oesophagus and the stomach, and is often due to severe vomiting or retching, especially in people with alcohol problems. The tear can cause internal bleeding and low blood pressure, and is usually accompanied by a history of recent vomiting.Peptic ulcer disease
Peptic ulcers are sores in the lining of the stomach or duodenum, and can cause epigastric pain, especially after eating or when hungry. Bleeding from a peptic ulcer is usually associated with these symptoms, and may be mild or severe.Oesophageal varices
Varices are enlarged veins in the oesophagus that can occur in people with chronic liver disease, especially due to alcohol abuse or viral hepatitis. Variceal bleeding can cause massive haematemesis and is a medical emergency.Barrett’s oesophagus
This condition is a type of metaplasia, or abnormal tissue growth, in the lower oesophagus, often due to chronic acid reflux. Although Barrett’s mucosa can lead to cancer, bleeding is not a common symptom.Gastritis
Gastritis is inflammation of the stomach lining, often due to NSAIDs or infection with Helicobacter pylori. It can cause epigastric pain, nausea, and vomiting, and may be associated with mild bleeding. Treatment usually involves acid suppression and eradication of H. pylori if present.In summary, haematemesis can be caused by various conditions affecting the upper digestive system, and the associated symptoms can help to narrow down the possible causes. Prompt medical attention is needed for severe or recurrent bleeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents to the Gastroenterology Clinic with a history of intermittent dysphagia to both solids and liquids for the past 6 months. She reports that food often gets stuck during meals and she has to drink a lot of water to overcome this. The doctor orders a chest X-ray and barium swallow, which reveal a dilated oesophagus, lack of peristalsis, and bird-beak deformity.
What diagnosis is consistent with these symptoms and test results?Your Answer: Scleroderma
Correct Answer: Achalasia
Explanation:Achalasia is a condition where the lower oesophageal sphincter fails to relax during swallowing, causing difficulty in swallowing both solids and liquids. The cause is often unknown, and diagnosis involves various tests such as chest X-ray, barium swallow, oesophagoscopy, CT scan, and manometry. Treatment options include sphincter dilation using Botox or balloon dilation, and surgery if necessary. Oesophageal web is a thin membrane in the oesophagus that can cause dysphagia to solids and reflux symptoms. Chagas’ disease, scleroderma, and diffuse oesophageal spasm are other conditions that can cause similar symptoms but have different causes and treatments.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old male patient reports experiencing mild jaundice following periods of fasting or exercise. Upon examination, his complete blood count and liver function tests appear normal. What is the recommended course of treatment for this individual?
Your Answer: Prescribe a high-fat diet to prevent further episodes of jaundice.
Correct Answer: No treatment required
Explanation:Gilbert Syndrome
Gilbert syndrome is a common genetic condition that causes mild unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia, resulting in intermittent jaundice without any underlying liver disease or hemolysis. The bilirubin levels are usually less than 6 mg/dL, but most patients exhibit levels of less than 3 mg/dL. The condition is characterized by daily and seasonal variations, and occasionally, bilirubin levels may be normal in some patients. Gilbert syndrome can be triggered by dehydration, fasting, menstrual periods, or stress, such as an intercurrent illness or vigorous exercise. Patients may experience vague abdominal discomfort and fatigue, but these episodes resolve spontaneously, and no treatment is required except supportive care.
In recent years, Gilbert syndrome is believed to be inherited in an autosomal recessive manner, although there are reports of autosomal dominant inheritance. Despite the mild symptoms, it is essential to understand the condition’s triggers and symptoms to avoid unnecessary medical interventions. Patients with Gilbert syndrome can lead a normal life with proper care and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old traveller returns from a long period of travelling in Indonesia. He complains of persistent fever and night sweats, has lost weight and now feels a dull right upper quadrant pain. On further questioning, he admits to having lived very cheaply during his trip and to eating meat from street vendors that may have been undercooked. On examination, he is mildly jaundiced.
Bloods:
Investigation Result Normal value
Bilirubin 98 μmol/l 2–17 µmol/l
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 57 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
Alkaline phosphatase 186 IU/l 30–130 IU/l
Haemoglobin 112g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 12.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 165 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 55 mm/hour 0–10mm in the 1st hour
An abdominal ultrasound scan shows a cystic mass within the right lobe of the liver.
Which of the following represents the most effective treatment for this man?Your Answer: Metronidazole orally (po)
Correct Answer: Drainage and albendazole po
Explanation:Treatment Options for Liver Cysts: Hydatid Disease and Amoebic Liver Abscess
Hydatid disease is a parasitic infection that can occur from consuming undercooked meat sold by street vendors. The majority of cysts occur in the liver, with the remaining cysts isolated to other areas of the body. The preferred treatment is drainage, either surgically or radiologically, along with the use of albendazole to reduce the risk of recurrence. Amoebic liver abscess is a potential differential diagnosis, but ultrasound findings can differentiate between the two. Metronidazole is used to manage amoebic liver cysts, while cefuroxime is used for pyogenic bacterial liver abscess. Definitive management for hydatid disease requires drainage of fluid. For amoebic liver abscess, metronidazole with or without drainage under ultrasound is the preferred treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 14
Correct
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A 10-month-old girl comes to the paediatric outpatient clinic with a four month history of bloating, diarrhoea and failure to gain weight. Her development is otherwise normal. What is the most suitable screening antibody test for her?
Your Answer: Antitissue transglutaminase (anti-TTG)
Explanation:Reliable Antibody Test for Coeliac Disease
Coeliac disease is an autoimmune condition that targets the gliadin epitope in gluten. It often presents in children with symptoms such as failure to thrive and diarrhoea, which can start during weaning. To diagnose coeliac disease, doctors use antibody tests such as anti-TTG, anti-endomysial antibody, and antigliadin. Among these, anti-TTG is the most reliable and is used as a first-line screening test due to its sensitivity of nearly 100%. Anti-endomysial antibodies are more expensive and observer-dependent, so they are not recommended as a first-line screening test. Antigliadin is rarely measured due to its lower accuracy. It is also important to measure IgA levels because IgA-deficient patients may be asymptomatic and cause a false-negative anti-TTG test.
Autoimmune Conditions and Antibody Tests
Autoimmune conditions can cause a variety of symptoms, including diarrhoea and bloating. Graves’ autoimmune thyroid disease, for example, may present with diarrhoea, but bloating is not commonly associated. To diagnose autoimmune conditions, doctors use antibody tests such as ANCA, which is raised in many autoimmune conditions, including some patients with ulcerative colitis. However, ANCA is not raised in coeliac disease. Therefore, it is important to use the appropriate antibody test for each autoimmune condition to ensure an accurate diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old woman has been visiting her doctor frequently over the past year due to recurring episodes of abdominal cramps and diarrhoea. She is concerned about the possibility of bowel cancer, as her father passed away from it at the age of 86. She has no other relevant family history. She also mentions that she needs a refill for her salbutamol inhaler, which she takes for her recently diagnosed asthma. Additionally, she has noticed an increase in hot flashes and wonders if she is experiencing early menopause. She has lost some weight, which she attributes to her healthy diet. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Colorectal adenocarcinoma
Correct Answer: Gastrointestinal neuroendocrine tumour (NET)
Explanation:Diagnosis and Management of Gastrointestinal Neuroendocrine Tumour (NET)
A patient presenting with symptoms of diarrhoea, wheezing, and flushing may have a gastrointestinal neuroendocrine tumour (NET), also known as carcinoid syndrome. It is important to consider NET in the differential diagnosis, even in relatively young patients, as the average delay in diagnosis is 2-3 years.
Appropriate investigations include routine blood tests, gut hormone measurement, 24-hour urinary 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid (5-HIAA) measurement, cross-sectional imaging, and gastrointestinal endoscopy. Management options include somatostatin analogues, peptide receptor radiotargeted therapy (PRRT), and molecularly targeted treatments such as sunitinib or everolimus.
Health/illness-related anxiety, or hypochondriasis, should be a diagnosis of exclusion, and physical causes should be addressed first. Irritable bowel syndrome may cause similar symptoms, but without hot flashes or asthma. Colorectal or gastric adenocarcinoma may also be considered, but the symptoms are more consistent with a NET.
Most gastrointestinal NETs are low grade, and even in metastatic disease, the median overall survival is around 10 years. Early diagnosis and appropriate management can improve outcomes for patients with NET.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 16
Correct
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For which of the following conditions is urgent referral for upper endoscopy necessary?
Your Answer: A 73-year-old male with a three month history of dyspepsia which has failed to respond to a course of proton pump inhibitors
Explanation:Criteria for Urgent Endoscopy Referral
Criteria for urgent endoscopy referral include various symptoms such as dysphagia, dyspepsia, weight loss, anaemia, vomiting, Barrett’s oesophagus, family history of upper gastrointestinal carcinoma, pernicious anaemia, upper GI surgery more than 20 years ago, jaundice, and abdominal mass. Dysphagia is a symptom that requires urgent endoscopy referral at any age. Dyspepsia combined with weight loss, anaemia, or vomiting at any age also requires urgent referral. Dyspepsia in a patient aged 55 or above with onset of dyspepsia within one year and persistent symptoms requires urgent referral. Dyspepsia with one of the mentioned conditions also requires urgent referral.
In the presented cases, the 56-year-old man has dyspepsia with an aortic aneurysm, which requires an ultrasound and vascular opinion. On the other hand, the case of unexplained weight loss, tenesmus, and upper right mass is likely to be a colonic carcinoma. It is important to be aware of these criteria to ensure timely and appropriate referral for urgent endoscopy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man presents with generalised pruritus, right upper quadrant pain and jaundice for the past month. He has a history of recurrent bloody bowel movements and painful defecation and is now being treated with sulfasalazine. His previous colonoscopy has shown superficial mucosal ulceration and inflammation, with many pseudopolyps involving the distal rectum up to the middle third of the transverse colon. On abdominal examination, the liver is slightly enlarged and tender. Total bilirubin level is 102.6 μmol/l and indirect bilirubin level 47.9 μmol/l. Alkaline phosphatase and γ-glutamyltransferase concentrations are moderately increased. Alanine aminotransferase and aspartate aminotransferase levels are mildly elevated.
Which of the following autoantibodies is most likely to be positive in this patient?Your Answer: Anti-dsDNA antibody
Correct Answer: Perinuclear antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (p-ANCA)
Explanation:Serologic Markers of Autoimmune Diseases
There are several serologic markers used to diagnose autoimmune diseases. These markers include perinuclear antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (p-ANCA), anti-dsDNA antibody, antinuclear antibodies (ANA), anti-smooth muscle antibody (ASMA), and anti-Saccharomyces cerevisiae antibody (ASCA).
p-ANCA is elevated in patients with ulcerative colitis and/or primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC). Anti-dsDNA antibody is found in systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). ANA is a sensitive, but not specific, marker for a variety of autoimmune diseases such as SLE, mixed connective tissue disorder (MCTD), and rheumatoid arthritis (RA). ASMA, ANA, and anti-liver–kidney microsomal antibody-1 (LKM-1) are serologic markers of autoimmune hepatitis. Increased levels of ASCA are often associated with Crohn’s disease.
These serologic markers are useful in diagnosing autoimmune diseases, but they are not always specific to a particular disease. Therefore, they should be used in conjunction with other diagnostic tests and clinical evaluation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man presents with a complaint of passing small amounts of fresh red blood with his stool. He also reports a small amount of mucous discharge with his stool and feeling pruritic and sore around his anus for the past couple of days. The patient denies any pain but has been more constipated than usual over the past few months. He denies any recent weight loss and has a BMI of approximately 35. The patient has a history of hypercholesterolaemia and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. He recently completed a 7-day course of amoxicillin for a lower respiratory tract infection 5 days ago. What is the most likely cause of his rectal bleeding?
Your Answer: Diverticulitis
Correct Answer: Haemorrhoids
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Rectal Bleeding: Haemorrhoids, Colon Cancer, Diverticulitis, Anal Fissure, and Ulcerative Colitis
Rectal bleeding can be a concerning symptom for patients and healthcare providers alike. In this case, the patient has multiple risk factors for haemorrhoids, which are the most likely cause of his symptoms. However, it is important to consider other potential diagnoses, such as colon cancer, diverticulitis, anal fissure, and ulcerative colitis.
Haemorrhoids are caused by increased pressure in the blood vessels around the anus, which can be exacerbated by obesity, chronic constipation, and coughing. Symptoms include fresh red blood and mucous after passing stool, a pruritic anus, and soreness around the anus.
Colon cancer is less likely in this case, as it typically presents with a change in bowel habit and blood in the stool, but not with a pruritic, sore anus. However, if there is no evidence of haemorrhoids on examination, colonoscopy may be recommended to rule out cancer.
Diverticulitis is characterised by passing fresh, red blood per rectum, as well as nausea and vomiting, pyrexia, and abdominal pain.
Anal fissure also involves the passage of small amounts of fresh red blood with stools, but is associated with sharp anal pain when stools are passed.
Ulcerative colitis can be associated with passage of blood and mucous with stools, as well as weight loss, diarrhoea, anaemia, and fatigue. The patient has some risk factors for ulcerative colitis, which has two peak ages for diagnosis: 15-35 and 50-70 years old.
In summary, while haemorrhoids are the most likely cause of this patient’s symptoms, it is important to consider other potential diagnoses and perform appropriate testing to rule out more serious conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old man has recently been diagnosed with ulcerative colitis. Investigation has revealed that he has distal disease only. He has a moderate exacerbation of his disease with an average of 4–5 episodes of bloody diarrhoea per day. There is no anaemia. His pulse rate is 80 bpm. He has no fever. His erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and C-reactive protein (CRP) are normal.
Which is the most appropriate medication to use in the first instance in this exacerbation?Your Answer: Codeine phosphate
Correct Answer: Mesalazine
Explanation:Treatment Options for Moderate Exacerbation of Distal Ulcerative Colitis
Distal ulcerative colitis can cause moderate exacerbation, which is characterized by 4-6 bowel movements per day, pulse rate <90 bpm, no anemia, and ESR 30 or below. The first-line therapy for this condition includes topical or oral aminosalicylate, with mesalazine or sulfasalazine being the most commonly used options. However, these medications can cause side-effects such as diarrhea, vomiting, abdominal pain, and hypersensitivity. In rare cases, they may also lead to peripheral neuropathy and blood disorders. Codeine phosphate is not used in the management of ulcerative colitis, while ciclosporin is reserved for acute severe flare-ups that do not respond to corticosteroids. Infliximab, a monoclonal antibody against tumour necrosis α, is used for patients who are intolerant to steroids or have not responded to corticosteroid therapy. However, it can cause hepatitis and interstitial lung disease, and may reactivate tuberculosis and hepatitis B. Steroids such as prednisolone can be used as second-line treatment if the patient cannot tolerate or declines aminosalicylates or if aminosalicylates are contraindicated. Topical corticosteroids are usually preferred, but oral prednisolone can also be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 20
Correct
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A 62-year-old retiree comes to the clinic with complaints of abdominal pain and bloating. He reports recurrent belching after meals and a loss of taste for Chinese food, which he used to enjoy. This has been ongoing for the past 8 years. The patient had an upper GI endoscopy 6 years ago, which was reported as normal. He has tried various over-the-counter remedies and was prescribed medication by his primary care physician, but with little relief. What is the next recommended course of action for this patient?
Your Answer: Upper GI endoscopy
Explanation:Diagnostic and Treatment Options for Non-Ulcer Dyspepsia in Older Patients
Non-ulcer dyspepsia (NUD) is a common condition characterized by upper gastrointestinal (GI) symptoms without any identifiable cause. However, in older patients, these symptoms may be indicative of a more serious underlying condition. Therefore, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines recommend upper GI endoscopy for patients over the age of 55 with treatment-resistant symptoms.
Gastric motility studies are indicated in gastric disorders like gastroparesis but are not necessary for NUD diagnosis. Proton pump inhibitors or H2 blockers may be tried if alarm symptoms are not present. Anti-Helicobacter pylori treatment may also be considered. However, acupuncture is not validated as an effective treatment for NUD.
In summary, older patients with NUD should undergo endoscopic evaluation to rule out any serious underlying conditions. Treatment options include proton pump inhibitors, H2 blockers, and anti-Helicobacter pylori treatment, but acupuncture is not recommended.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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