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  • Question 1 - A 42-year-old teacher visits her GP, complaining of hot flashes and night sweats....

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old teacher visits her GP, complaining of hot flashes and night sweats. She suspects that she may be experiencing symptoms of menopause. Can you identify which set of results below are consistent with postmenopausal values?

      A: FSH (follicular phase 2.9-8.4 U/L) 0.5
      LH (follicular phase 1.3-8.4 U/L) 1.1
      Oestrogen (pmol/L) 26
      Progesterone (pmol/L) <5

      B: FSH (follicular phase 2.9-8.4 U/L) 0.5
      LH (follicular phase 1.3-8.4 U/L) 1.2
      Oestrogen (pmol/L) 120
      Progesterone (pmol/L) 18

      C: FSH (follicular phase 2.9-8.4 U/L) 68
      LH (follicular phase 1.3-8.4 U/L) 51
      Oestrogen (pmol/L) 42
      Progesterone (pmol/L) <5

      D: FSH (follicular phase 2.9-8.4 U/L) 1.0
      LH (follicular phase 1.3-8.4 U/L) 0.8
      Oestrogen (pmol/L) 250
      Progesterone (pmol/L) 120

      E: FSH (follicular phase 2.9-8.4 U/L) 8.0
      LH (follicular phase 1.3-8.4 U/L) 7.2
      Oestrogen (pmol/L) 144
      Progesterone (pmol/L) <5

      Your Answer: C

      Explanation:

      postmenopausal Blood Tests

      postmenopausal blood tests often reveal elevated levels of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH), as well as low levels of estrogen. These changes in hormone levels are responsible for most of the symptoms associated with menopause, which can be difficult to diagnose. However, once characteristic symptoms are well-established, gonadotrophin levels are typically significantly elevated.

      The menopause is defined as the date of a woman’s last period, without further menses for at least a year. As such, the diagnosis can only be made retrospectively. Prior to menopause, women may experience irregular menstruation, heavy bleeding, and mood-related symptoms. While fertility is greatly reduced during this time, there is still some risk of pregnancy, and many healthcare providers recommend continuing contraception for a year after the last menstrual period.

      In summary, postmenopausal blood tests can provide valuable information about a woman’s hormone levels and help diagnose menopause. However, it’s important to recognize that menopause is a gradual process that can be accompanied by a range of symptoms. Women should work closely with their healthcare providers to manage these symptoms and ensure their ongoing health and well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 2 - A 50-year-old woman from the UK presents with lethargy, and dizziness when she...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman from the UK presents with lethargy, and dizziness when she gets out of bed in the mornings and stands from sitting. She has noticed that her appetite has been reduced for the last month but has not noticed any weight loss. On examination you notice that she has an area of hypopigmented skin on her back, but hyperpigmented skin around her mouth, and you suspect a diagnosis of Addison’s disease.
      What is the most common cause of Addison’s disease in the UK?

      Your Answer: Autoimmune destruction

      Explanation:

      Addison’s disease is most commonly caused by autoimmune destruction in the UK, accounting for up to 80% of cases. Therefore, it is crucial to screen individuals with Addison’s for other autoimmune conditions like thyroid diseases and diabetes. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia is a rare cause of Addison’s that typically presents in childhood with symptoms such as failure to thrive and grow. While tuberculosis is the most common cause of Addison’s worldwide, it is not the primary cause in the UK. Adrenal haemorrhage, which can result from severe bacterial infections like meningococcal, can also lead to Addison’s disease in a condition known as Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome. Finally, metastatic cancer is a rare but significant cause of addisonism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 3 - A 55-year-old man with a history of hypertension presents with pruritus and lethargy....

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man with a history of hypertension presents with pruritus and lethargy. His serum biochemistry results show low calcium, high phosphate, and raised parathyroid hormone levels. His blood test results are as follows:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Sodium (Na+) 138 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.8 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Urea 15.5 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 590 μmol/l 50–120 mmol/l

      What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Chronic renal failure due to hypertension

      Correct Answer: Secondary hyperparathyroidism

      Explanation:

      Causes of Secondary Hyperparathyroidism in a Patient with Chronic Renal Failure

      Secondary hyperparathyroidism can occur in patients with chronic renal failure due to imbalances in phosphorus and calcium levels. In this case, the patient has hyperphosphatemia and hypocalcemia, leading to overproduction of parathyroid hormone (PTH) by the parathyroid gland.

      Loop diuretic overuse can also affect PTH levels, but it would result in additional electrolyte imbalances such as hyponatremia and hypokalemia. The role of hypertension in causing chronic renal failure is unclear in this patient.

      Primary hyperparathyroidism, where the parathyroid gland overproduces PTH resulting in high serum calcium, is not present in this case. Tertiary hyperparathyroidism, which occurs after a chronic period of secondary hyperparathyroidism and results in dysregulation of calcium homeostasis and high serum calcium levels, is also not present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 4 - At a routine occupational health check, a 30-year-old man is found to have...

    Correct

    • At a routine occupational health check, a 30-year-old man is found to have mild hypercalcaemia. He is anxious because the problem failed to resolve in his father, despite neck surgery. 24-hour urinary calcium excretion levels are low.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Familial hypocalciuric hypercalcaemia (FHH)

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Hypercalcaemia Causes: A Comparison

      Hypercalcaemia can be caused by various conditions, including familial hypocalciuric hypercalcaemia (FHH), primary hyperparathyroidism, sarcoidosis, secondary hyperparathyroidism, and hypercalcaemia of malignancy. To differentiate these causes, 24-hour urinary calcium excretion levels are measured.

      In FHH, urinary calcium excretion levels are low, while in primary hyperparathyroidism, they are elevated. Sarcoidosis can also cause hypercalcaemia, but with elevated urinary calcium excretion levels. On the other hand, secondary hyperparathyroidism is associated with hypocalcaemia. Lastly, hypercalcaemia of malignancy is characterized by elevated urinary calcium excretion levels.

      Therefore, measuring 24-hour urinary calcium excretion levels is crucial in determining the underlying cause of hypercalcaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 5 - A floppy 1-month-old infant presented with vomiting, weight loss and circulatory collapse. Blood...

    Incorrect

    • A floppy 1-month-old infant presented with vomiting, weight loss and circulatory collapse. Blood tests demonstrated hyponatraemia and hyperkalaemia. Further tests confirmed metabolic acidosis and hypoglycaemia. The paediatrician noticed that the penis was enlarged and the scrotum pigmented. The child was treated with both a glucocorticoid and a mineralocorticoid.
      What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Addisonian crisis

      Correct Answer: Congenital adrenal hyperplasia

      Explanation:

      Congenital adrenal hyperplasia is a group of genetic conditions that affect the production of hormones and steroids from the adrenal glands. The most common cause is a deficiency in the enzyme 21-hydroxylase. This leads to overactivity of the steroid-producing cells and inadequate cortisol production, resulting in an excess of mineralocorticoids and androgens/oestrogens. Symptoms can include ambiguous genitalia at birth in females, hyperpigmentation and penile enlargement in males, and biochemical abnormalities such as hyponatraemia and hyperkalaemia. Treatment involves hormone replacement therapy. Addisonian crisis is a potentially fatal episode caused by glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid deficiency, usually occurring in adulthood and precipitated by stress. It presents with hyponatraemia, hyperkalaemia, hypoglycaemia and hypercalcaemia, and is managed with urgent administration of glucocorticoids. Conn syndrome is associated with primary hyperaldosteronism and presents with hypernatraemia and hypokalaemia. Cushing syndrome is due to cortisol excess and presents with weight gain, hypertension, oedema, hyperglycaemia, hypokalaemia and skin pigmentation. Thyrotoxic crisis is a life-threatening condition associated with excessive production of thyroid hormones, presenting with a range of symptoms including tachycardia, hypertension, fever, poor feeding, weight loss, diarrhoea, nausea, vomiting, seizures and coma. Prompt treatment is essential to prevent serious complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 6 - Which test can be used to distinguish between insulinoma and exogenous insulin administration...

    Correct

    • Which test can be used to distinguish between insulinoma and exogenous insulin administration in a patient experiencing hypoglycaemia?

      Your Answer: Plasma C peptide

      Explanation:

      The Role of C Peptide in Distinguishing Between Exogenous and Endogenous Insulin

      Plasma C peptide levels are useful in differentiating between the presence of exogenous insulin and excess endogenous insulin during hypoglycemia. If there is an excess of exogenous insulin, the C peptide level will be suppressed, but the insulin level will still be detectable or elevated. However, it is important to note that not all clinical laboratory assays can detect the new insulin analogues.

      C peptide also has other uses, such as checking for pancreatic insulin reserve. This information can help distinguish between type 1 diabetes, which is caused by autoimmune destruction of the pancreas, and type 2 diabetes, which is caused by insulin resistance or relative insulin insufficiency.

      Proinsulin is the storage form of insulin, and only a small amount enters systemic circulation. It is cleaved into insulin and a connecting (C) peptide, which are secreted in equal amounts. However, there is more measurable C peptide in circulation due to its longer half-life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 7 - A 20-year-old female comes to the clinic complaining of secondary amenorrhoea for the...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old female comes to the clinic complaining of secondary amenorrhoea for the past six months. She recently experienced moderate vaginal bleeding and abdominal pain. Additionally, she has gained around 14 pounds in weight during this time. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Polycystic ovarian syndrome

      Correct Answer: Pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Secondary Amenorrhea and Miscarriage: A Possible Sign of Pregnancy

      Secondary amenorrhea, or the absence of menstrual periods for at least three consecutive months in women who have previously had regular cycles, can be a sign of pregnancy. In cases where a patient with secondary amenorrhea experiences a miscarriage, it is important to consider the possibility of pregnancy. This information is highlighted in the book Williams Gynecology, 4th edition, authored by Barbara L. Hoffman, John O. Schorge, Lisa M. Halvorson, Cherine A. Hamid, Marlene M. Corton, and Joseph I. Schaffer.

      The authors emphasize the importance of considering pregnancy as a possible cause of secondary amenorrhea, especially in cases where a miscarriage has occurred. This highlights the need for healthcare providers to be vigilant in their assessment of patients with secondary amenorrhea and to consider pregnancy as a possible diagnosis. Early detection of pregnancy can help ensure appropriate prenatal care and management, which can improve outcomes for both the mother and the baby.

      In conclusion, secondary amenorrhea followed by a miscarriage should raise suspicion of pregnancy. Healthcare providers should be aware of this possibility and consider pregnancy as a potential diagnosis in patients with secondary amenorrhea. Early detection and appropriate management of pregnancy can improve outcomes for both the mother and the baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 8 - These results were obtained from a 43-year-old female. Her serum levels showed an...

    Correct

    • These results were obtained from a 43-year-old female. Her serum levels showed an elevated level of aldosterone and a low level of renin. Specifically, her Na+ level was 154 mmol/l (135–145 mmol/l) and her K+ level was 3.7 mmol/l (3.5–5 mmol/l). What condition are these results consistent with?

      Your Answer: Conn’s syndrome

      Explanation:

      Electrolyte Imbalances in Various Conditions and Treatments

      Conn’s Syndrome and Hyperaldosteronism
      Conn’s syndrome is a type of primary hyperaldosteronism caused by the overproduction of aldosterone in the adrenal glands due to an adrenal adenoma. This results in elevated levels of aldosterone, causing water retention and increased excretion of potassium. Renin levels are low in this condition due to the raised sodium and plasma volume. Patients with Conn’s syndrome are typically hypertensive, but it is important to note that some patients may have normal potassium levels.

      Addison’s Disease and Adrenal Gland Failure
      Addison’s disease is caused by adrenal gland failure, resulting in a deficiency of glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids. This leads to sodium loss and potassium retention.

      Renal Artery Stenosis and Secondary Hyperaldosteronism
      Patients with renal artery stenosis may also exhibit elevated sodium and low potassium levels. However, in this case, renin levels are elevated due to reduced renal perfusion, leading to secondary hyperaldosteronism.

      Bartter Syndrome and Congenital Salt-Wasting
      Bartter syndrome is a congenital condition that causes salt-wasting due to a defective channel in the loop of Henle. This results in sodium and chloride leakage, leading to hypokalemia and metabolic alkalosis. Renin and aldosterone production are increased in response to sodium and volume depletion.

      Furosemide Treatment and Loop Diuretics
      Furosemide is a loop diuretic that promotes sodium and chloride excretion, leading to potassium loss. Patients undergoing furosemide treatment may exhibit hyponatremia and hypokalemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 9 - A 76-year-old woman presents with lethargy. She has a history of Graves’ disease...

    Incorrect

    • A 76-year-old woman presents with lethargy. She has a history of Graves’ disease and thyrotoxicosis. Her thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) levels are found to be 7.3 μU/l (normal range: 0.17–3.2 μU/l). A full blood count is performed and reveals the following: haemoglobin (Hb) is low, mean corpuscular volume (MCV) is high, platelet count is normal, white cell count (WCC) is normal.
      What is the most likely cause of her anaemia?

      Your Answer: Pernicious anaemia

      Correct Answer: Hypothyroidism

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis of macrocytic anaemia in a patient with a history of Graves’ disease

      This patient presents with a macrocytic anaemia, which can have various causes. Given her history of Graves’ disease and autoimmune hyperthyroidism, it is important to consider hypothyroidism as a possible cause, despite the usual association of hyperthyroidism with a suppressed TSH. Pernicious anaemia, another autoimmune disease that can lead to vitamin B12 deficiency, should also be considered. However, in this case, the high TSH makes hypothyroidism more likely. Vitamin B12 deficiency and folate deficiency can also cause macrocytic anaemia, but the patient’s history and laboratory findings suggest hypothyroidism as the primary diagnosis. Haemolysis is not a likely cause in this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 10 - You are researching the effects of ageing on the various body systems as...

    Incorrect

    • You are researching the effects of ageing on the various body systems as part of your geriatrics rotation.
      Which of the following are consistent with normal ageing with respect to the endocrine system in individuals over 70 years old?

      Your Answer: Low thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) in men and women

      Correct Answer: Increased incidence of auto-immune disease

      Explanation:

      Ageing and Hormonal Changes: Common Issues in Older Adults

      As we age, our bodies undergo various changes that can lead to hormonal imbalances and health issues. One common problem is an increased incidence of autoimmune diseases, such as rheumatoid arthritis, which can be caused by a combination of genetic and environmental factors. However, immunosuppression is not a normal part of ageing.

      Another issue is azoospermia in men, which refers to the absence of sperm in semen. While postmenopausal women are infertile, over 50% of men over 70 years old still have the ability to father children.

      In both men and women, low levels of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinising hormone (LH) are common in the early postmenopausal period. However, postmenopausal women typically have high levels of FSH and LH, while older men have normal levels.

      Additionally, older adults may experience low levels of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and morning cortisol, which are typically normal but may be reduced due to a decreased stress response. These hormonal changes can contribute to various health issues and should be monitored by healthcare professionals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 11 - A 28-year-old woman visited her GP with complaints of low mood, weight gain,...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman visited her GP with complaints of low mood, weight gain, and irregular menstrual cycles. The GP conducted some tests and referred her to the hospital. The results of the investigations are as follows:
      - Sodium: 150 mmol/l (normal value: 135-145 mmol/l)
      - Potassium: 2.5 mmol/l (normal value: 3.5-5.0 mmol/l)
      - Fasting blood glucose: 7.7 mmol/l (normal value: <7 mmol/l)
      - 24-hour urinary cortisol excretion: 840 nmol/24 h
      - Plasma ACTH (0900 h): 132 ng/l (normal value: 0-50 ng/l)
      - Dexamethasone suppression test:
      - 0800 h serum cortisol after dexamethasone 0.5 mg/6 h orally (po) for two days: 880 nmol/l (<50 nmol/l).
      - 0800 h serum cortisol after dexamethasone 2 mg/6 h PO for two days: 875 nmol/l (<50 nmol/l).

      What is the most likely diagnosis for this 28-year-old woman?

      Your Answer: Conn’s syndrome

      Correct Answer: Paraneoplastic syndrome secondary to small cell carcinoma of the lung

      Explanation:

      Paraneoplastic Syndrome Secondary to Small Cell Carcinoma of the Lung Causing Cushing Syndrome

      Cushing syndrome is a clinical state resulting from chronic glucocorticoid excess and lack of normal feedback mechanisms of the hypothalamo-pituitary-adrenal axis. While Cushing’s disease, paraneoplastic syndrome secondary to small cell carcinoma of the lung, and adrenocortical tumor are specific conditions resulting in Cushing syndrome, this patient’s symptoms are caused by paraneoplastic syndrome secondary to small cell carcinoma of the lung.

      In some cases of small cell carcinoma of the lung, ectopic adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) production occurs, leading to elevated plasma ACTH and cortisol levels. The mineralocorticoid activity of cortisol results in sodium retention and potassium excretion, leading to glucose intolerance and hyperglycemia. The differentiation between Cushing’s disease and ectopic ACTH secretion is made by carrying out low- and high-dose dexamethasone suppression tests. In cases of ectopic ACTH secretion, there is usually no response to dexamethasone, as pituitary ACTH secretion is already maximally suppressed by high plasma cortisol levels.

      The absence of response to dexamethasone suggests an ectopic source of ACTH production, rather than Cushing’s disease. Other differential diagnoses for Cushing syndrome include adrenal neoplasia, Conn’s syndrome, and premature menopause. However, in this case, the blood test results suggest ectopic production of ACTH, indicating paraneoplastic syndrome secondary to small cell lung carcinoma as the most likely cause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 12 - An investigator intended to test the antiglycaemic action of a new drug, which...

    Correct

    • An investigator intended to test the antiglycaemic action of a new drug, which acts by increasing the peripheral uptake of glucose and reduces postprandial glucose level. He noted that in the elderly control group, subjects receiving an oral glucose load have higher postprandial insulin concentrations and more rapid glucose clearance, compared to subjects receiving isoglycaemic intravenous glucose infusion.
      Which of the following is the most likely mediator of this effect?

      Your Answer: Glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1)

      Explanation:

      Gastrointestinal Hormones and their Functions

      The gastrointestinal tract secretes various hormones that play important roles in digestion and metabolism. One such hormone is glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1), which is an incretin hormone that enhances insulin secretion in response to oral glucose intake. On the other hand, cholecystokinin induces gallbladder contraction and bile release, while secretin increases pancreatic and biliary bicarbonate secretion and reduces gastric acid secretion. Gastrin, on the other hand, stimulates gastric acid secretion. Lastly, somatostatin inhibits the secretion of gastric acid and other gastrointestinal hormones. Understanding the functions of these hormones is crucial in maintaining a healthy digestive system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 13 - A 42-year-old woman complains of fatigue after experiencing flu-like symptoms two weeks ago....

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman complains of fatigue after experiencing flu-like symptoms two weeks ago. Upon examination, she has a smooth, small goiter and a pulse rate of 68 bpm. Her lab results show a Free T4 level of 9.3 pmol/L (normal range: 9.8-23.1) and a TSH level of 49.3 mU/L (normal range: 0.35-5.50). What additional test would you perform to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Thyroid peroxidase (TPO) antibodies

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Management of Primary Hypothyroidism

      The patient’s test results indicate a case of primary hypothyroidism, characterized by low levels of thyroxine (T4) and elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH). The most likely cause of this condition is Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, which is often accompanied by the presence of thyroid peroxidase antibodies. While the patient has a goitre, it appears to be smooth and non-threatening, so a thyroid ultrasound is not necessary. Additionally, a radio-iodine uptake scan is unlikely to show significant uptake and is therefore not recommended. Positive TSH receptor antibodies are typically associated with Graves’ disease, which is not the likely diagnosis in this case. For further information on Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, patients can refer to Patient.info.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 14 - A 32-year-old woman presents with sudden onset of abdominal pain. She has a...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents with sudden onset of abdominal pain. She has a medical history of polycystic kidney disease and is currently taking alfacalcidol, ramipril, Renagel, and EPO injections. Her eGFR upon admission is 24 ml/min/1.73 m2. What analgesic would you recommend for her pain?

      Your Answer: Fentanyl 25 mcg/hr topical patch

      Correct Answer: Paracetamol 1 g QDS

      Explanation:

      Medication Considerations for Patients with Renal Dysfunction

      Patients with renal dysfunction should avoid taking NSAIDs as they can worsen their condition and increase the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding, which is already a common complication of chronic renal failure. Instead, alternative pain management options should be explored. If opiates are necessary, they should be prescribed with caution as they can accumulate in the body due to reduced renal excretion, especially in patients who have not previously taken them. It is important for healthcare providers to carefully consider the potential risks and benefits of any medication before prescribing it to a patient with renal dysfunction. Proper medication management can help prevent further damage to the kidneys and improve overall patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 15 - A 14-year-old boy presents with bilateral gynaecomastia. He stands at a height of...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old boy presents with bilateral gynaecomastia. He stands at a height of 150 cm and weighs 60 kg, which is at the 50th centile. His sexual maturity rating is stage 2. What is the most probable cause of his gynaecomastia?

      Your Answer: Pubertal gynaecomastia

      Explanation:

      Pubertal Gynaecomastia in Young Boys

      Pubertal gynaecomastia is a common occurrence in young boys, with unilateral disease being more prevalent than bilateral. However, it typically disappears within two years. While prolactinomas can cause gynaecomastia, they are not the most likely cause and are rare in this age group. It is important to note that the height and weight of the child are within normal range.

      Overall, pubertal gynaecomastia is a temporary condition that affects many young boys during puberty. While it can be concerning for parents and children, it is typically not a cause for alarm and will resolve on its own. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider to rule out any underlying medical conditions, but in most cases, no treatment is necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 16 - A 52-year-old man comes to his General Practice for a routine check-up of...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old man comes to his General Practice for a routine check-up of his type 2 diabetes. He was diagnosed with diabetes eight months ago and has been taking metformin 1 g twice daily. His BMI is 30 kg/m2. The results of his laboratory tests are as follows:
      Investigation Result Normal range
      HbA1C 62 mmol/mol < 53 mmol/mol (<7.0%)
      Creatinine 80 µmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) 92 ml/min > 90 ml/min
      What would be the most appropriate choice for managing this patient's diabetes?

      Your Answer: Sulfonylurea

      Correct Answer: Dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP4) inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Comparing Anti-Diabetic Medications: Choosing the Best Option for a Patient with High BMI

      When selecting an anti-diabetic medication for a patient with a high BMI, it is important to consider the potential for weight gain and hypoglycaemia. Here, we compare four options:

      1. Dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP4) inhibitor: This medication sustains the release of insulin and lowers blood sugar levels without causing weight gain.

      2. Sulfonylurea: This medication stimulates the release of insulin and is often used as a second-line agent, but can cause weight gain.

      3. Acarbose: This medication does not significantly improve glucose control and can exacerbate gastrointestinal side-effects when used with metformin.

      4. Insulin basal bolus regimen and pre-mixed insulin 70:30: These options provide optimal glucose control but carry the risk of hypoglycaemia and weight gain.

      For this patient, a DPP4 inhibitor is the best option as it provides additional glucose control without causing weight gain. Sulfonylurea may also be considered, but the risk of weight gain should be monitored. Insulin regimens are not necessary at this time, but may be considered in the future if oral medications do not provide adequate control.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 17 - A 38-year-old patient presents with excessive thirst and abdominal pain.
    Bloods show:
    Investigation Result Normal...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old patient presents with excessive thirst and abdominal pain.
      Bloods show:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Calcium (Ca2+) 3.02 mmol/l 2.20–2.60 mmol/l
      Phosphate (PO43–) 0.42 mmol/l 0.70–1.40 mmol/l
      Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) 324 IU/l 30–130 IU/l
      Looking at these blood results, which of the following is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer: Excessive vitamin D

      Correct Answer: Primary hyperparathyroidism

      Explanation:

      Causes and Clinical Presentations of Hyperparathyroidism, Bone Metastases, Excessive Vitamin D, Renal Failure, and Hypoparathyroidism

      Hyperparathyroidism is a condition where the parathyroid glands secrete an excessive amount of parathyroid hormone, leading to increased serum calcium levels. This can be caused by a solitary parathyroid adenoma of parathyroid hyperplasia. The clinical presentation includes excessive bone resorption, kidney stone formation, gastrointestinal symptoms, and neurological effects.

      Bone metastases also present with hypercalcaemia and a high alkaline phosphatase level, but phosphate levels will be normal. Vitamin D excess can also cause hypercalcaemia with a normal or high phosphate level, but alkaline phosphatase will be normal.

      In chronic renal failure, there is a reduction in the excretion of phosphate and a low glomerular filtration rate, leading to secondary hyperparathyroidism with hypocalcaemia and hyperphosphataemia.

      Hypoparathyroidism is associated with a decreased production of parathyroid hormone, leading to cramping and paraesthesiae due to low circulating calcium levels. Biochemical abnormalities include low circulating parathyroid hormone and calcium levels, raised phosphate levels, and normal alkaline phosphatase levels.

      Overall, understanding the causes and clinical presentations of these conditions is important for accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 18 - What test is utilized to examine for primary adrenal insufficiency, also known as...

    Incorrect

    • What test is utilized to examine for primary adrenal insufficiency, also known as Addison's disease?

      Your Answer: Oral glucose tolerance test

      Correct Answer: Short ACTH stimulation (Synacthen®) test

      Explanation:

      Medical Tests for Hormonal Disorders

      There are several medical tests used to diagnose hormonal disorders. One such test is the Synacthen test, which measures serum cortisol levels before and after administering synthetic ACTH. If cortisol levels rise appropriately, Addison’s disease can be excluded. However, an insufficient response may indicate adrenal gland atrophy or destruction.

      Another test used to investigate hormonal disorders is the dexamethasone suppression test, which is used to diagnose Cushing’s syndrome. Additionally, the oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) is used to screen for diabetes mellitus. In the UK, the OGTT involves administering 75 g of oral anhydrous glucose and measuring plasma glucose levels at 0 minutes (fasting) and 120 minutes. This test is also used to investigate suspected acromegaly by measuring the suppression of growth hormone following an oral glucose load.

      Lastly, a glucose challenge is used during pregnancy to screen for gestational diabetes. This test involves administering 50 g of oral glucose and measuring plasma glucose levels after 30 minutes. By utilizing these medical tests, healthcare professionals can accurately diagnose and treat hormonal disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 19 - A 16-year-old athlete attends a routine check-up. Her past medical history is significant...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old athlete attends a routine check-up. Her past medical history is significant for type 1 diabetes since the age of 7. Her glucose is well controlled with self-administration of insulin. She reports that she is training for the upcoming national championship. She has specific questions regarding the effects and actions of insulin.
      Which of the following is correct regarding the action of insulin?

      Your Answer: Insulin increases protein synthesis in muscle

      Explanation:

      The Effects of Insulin on the Body: Promoting Protein Synthesis, Sodium Secretion, and More

      Insulin is a crucial hormone synthesized in pancreatic β cells that plays a vital role in the metabolism of carbohydrates and lipids in the body. This peptide hormone promotes glycogen synthesis, increases potassium uptake, and reduces lipolysis and proteolysis in cells. Additionally, insulin is known to increase protein synthesis in muscle and decrease triglyceride synthesis and storage in adipocytes.

      One of the lesser-known effects of insulin is its ability to promote sodium secretion in the renal tubules. Insulin is also responsible for increasing tubular sodium reabsorption in the kidney, which halves sodium excretion.

      Furthermore, insulin is used in the management of hyperkalaemia as it increases serum potassium levels by causing a shift of potassium into the cells, thereby lowering circulating potassium and increasing intracellular potassium concentration.

      However, insulin does decrease glycogen storage in cells by activating enzymes involved in glycogen synthesis in the liver and tissues, causing the conversion of glucose to glycogen.

      In summary, insulin has a wide range of effects on the body, from promoting protein synthesis to regulating potassium and sodium levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 20 - A 50-year-old woman comes to you with a thyroid lump and you suspect...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman comes to you with a thyroid lump and you suspect she may have follicular carcinoma of the thyroid. What is the most appropriate course of action in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Spreads mainly via blood

      Explanation:

      Thyroid Carcinoma: Diagnosis and Management

      Thyroid carcinoma is a type of cancer that affects the thyroid gland. There are different types of thyroid carcinoma, including follicular, papillary, anaplastic, and medullary carcinomas. The spread of the cancer varies depending on the type of carcinoma.

      Follicular carcinoma spreads mainly via the bloodstream, while papillary and medullary carcinomas spread via the lymphatic system. Anaplastic cancer spreads locally. The prognosis for thyroid carcinoma is generally good, with a 90% survival rate at 10 years, especially in young people without local or metastatic spread.

      The initial treatment for differentiated thyroid carcinoma, such as follicular and papillary carcinomas, is total or near-total thyroidectomy. Fine needle aspiration cytology can help differentiate between follicular adenoma and carcinoma, but a thyroid lobectomy is often necessary to confirm the diagnosis. The distinguishing features of follicular carcinoma are vascular invasion and capsule invasion, which can only be seen accurately on a full histological specimen.

      Solitary thyroid nodules are best investigated using a combination of clinical examination, thyroid function tests, ultrasound and radio-isotope scans, and often FNA. Thyroid tumours can be classified as adenomas, carcinomas, and lymphomas. Carcinomas can be further sub-classified as papillary, follicular, anaplastic, or medullary.

      In conclusion, the diagnosis and management of thyroid carcinoma require a multidisciplinary approach. Early detection and treatment can lead to a good prognosis, but accurate diagnosis is crucial for effective management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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