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  • Question 1 - A 50-year-old female patient visits the clinic complaining of an itchy rash. During...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old female patient visits the clinic complaining of an itchy rash. During the examination, the doctor observes several purple papular rashes on the flexural surface of her wrists. Additionally, a similar rash is present at the edges of a laceration wound she suffered a week ago. What is the recommended initial treatment for this condition?

      Your Answer: Hydrocortisone cream

      Explanation:

      Lichen planus is present in this woman, but it appears to be limited in scope. The initial treatment for lichen planus is potent topical steroids. Oral azathioprine or prednisolone is only prescribed if the condition is widespread. Coal tar cream and calcitriol ointment are not effective treatments for lichen planus.

      Understanding Lichen Planus

      Lichen planus is a skin condition that is believed to be caused by an immune response, although the exact cause is unknown. It is characterized by an itchy, papular rash that typically appears on the palms, soles, genitalia, and flexor surfaces of the arms. The rash often has a polygonal shape and a distinctive white-lines pattern on the surface, known as Wickham’s striae. In some cases, new skin lesions may appear at the site of trauma, a phenomenon known as the Koebner phenomenon.

      Oral involvement is common in around 50% of patients, with a white-lace pattern often appearing on the buccal mucosa. Nail changes may also occur, including thinning of the nail plate and longitudinal ridging. Lichenoid drug eruptions can be caused by certain medications, such as gold, quinine, and thiazides.

      The main treatment for lichen planus is potent topical steroids. For oral lichen planus, benzydamine mouthwash or spray is recommended. In more extensive cases, oral steroids or immunosuppression may be necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      4.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 28-year-old bartender presents to the Emergency Department after ingesting a mix of...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old bartender presents to the Emergency Department after ingesting a mix of pills following an argument with her current partner. She has a history of tumultuous relationships and struggles to maintain friendships or romantic relationships due to this. She also admits to experiencing intense emotions, frequently fluctuating between extreme happiness and anxiety or anger. She has a history of self-harm and frequently drinks to excess. A psychiatric evaluation is requested to assess for a potential personality disorder. What is the most likely personality disorder diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Emotionally unstable personality disorder

      Explanation:

      Understanding Personality Disorders: Emotionally Unstable Personality Disorder

      Personality disorders are complex and severe disturbances in an individual’s character and behavior, often leading to personal and social disruption. These disorders are challenging to treat, but psychological and pharmacological interventions can help manage symptoms. One of the most common types of personality disorder is borderline personality disorder, characterized by intense emotions, unstable relationships, impulsive behavior, and anxieties about abandonment. Schizoid personality disorder, avoidant personality disorder, dependent personality disorder, and narcissistic personality disorder are other types of personality disorders, each with their own unique symptoms. However, the patient in this scenario is most consistent with borderline personality disorder. Understanding personality disorders is crucial in providing appropriate treatment and support for individuals struggling with these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      2.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - As a junior GP in a bustling surgery, you are approached by the...

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    • As a junior GP in a bustling surgery, you are approached by the son (next-of-kin) of one of your middle-aged patients who brings her in for evaluation. The patient appears to be in a state of agitation and is expressing bizarre delusions and paranoid beliefs, causing a disturbance in the surgery by shouting. She is uncooperative during the consultation and frequently pleads to be allowed to leave. Both you and the son agree that urgent psychiatric assessment is necessary.

      Which section of the Mental Health Act (1983) would allow a GP to detain a patient for emergency psychiatric evaluation?

      Your Answer: Section 4

      Explanation:

      In cases where there is a need for urgent psychiatric assessment, GPs may utilize Section 4 of the Mental Health Act. This can be done with the assistance of an AMHP or NR, and allows for the emergency transfer of the patient. Unlike Section 2, which requires the agreement of two psychiatrists, Section 4 is used when there is a risk of unacceptable delay in the patient’s care. It provides a 72-hour window for assessment, after which it is typically converted to a Section 2. Additionally, the police have the authority under Section 135 and 136 to take a patient to a safe location for psychiatric evaluation.

      Sectioning under the Mental Health Act is a legal process used for individuals who refuse voluntary admission. This process excludes patients who are under the influence of drugs or alcohol. There are several sections under the Mental Health Act that allow for different types of admission and treatment.

      Section 2 allows for admission for assessment for up to 28 days, which is not renewable. An Approved Mental Health Professional (AMHP) or the nearest relative (NR) can make the application on the recommendation of two doctors, one of whom should be an approved consultant psychiatrist. Treatment can be given against the patient’s wishes.

      Section 3 allows for admission for treatment for up to 6 months, which can be renewed. An AMHP and two doctors, both of whom must have seen the patient within the past 24 hours, can make the application. Treatment can also be given against the patient’s wishes.

      Section 4 is used as an emergency 72-hour assessment order when a section 2 would involve an unacceptable delay. A GP and an AMHP or NR can make the application, which is often changed to a section 2 upon arrival at the hospital.

      Section 5(2) allows a doctor to legally detain a voluntary patient in hospital for 72 hours, while section 5(4) allows a nurse to detain a voluntary patient for 6 hours.

      Section 17a allows for Supervised Community Treatment (Community Treatment Order) and can be used to recall a patient to the hospital for treatment if they do not comply with the conditions of the order in the community, such as taking medication.

      Section 135 allows for a court order to be obtained to allow the police to break into a property to remove a person to a Place of Safety. Section 136 allows for someone found in a public place who appears to have a mental disorder to be taken by the police to a Place of Safety. This section can only be used for up to 24 hours while a Mental Health Act assessment is arranged.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      2.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 32-year-old woman with a 9-month history of weight loss, intermittent bloody mucus...

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    • A 32-year-old woman with a 9-month history of weight loss, intermittent bloody mucus stools and abdominal pain undergoes a colonoscopy, which shows a mucosal ‘cobblestone’ pattern and skip lesions. She drinks approximately four units of alcohol a week and has a smoking history of five pack years.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate lifestyle advice for this patient?

      Your Answer: Stop smoking

      Explanation:

      Lifestyle Advice for Patients with Inflammatory Bowel Disease

      Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) is a chronic inflammatory process that can affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract. Patients with IBD may experience symptoms such as diarrhoea, abdominal pain, and bleeding. Here are some lifestyle advice for patients with IBD:

      Stop smoking: Research suggests that smoking can make Crohn’s disease worse. Smokers with Crohn’s disease have more severe symptoms and complications, require more medication, and are more likely to need surgery.

      Eat a balanced diet: Patients with IBD may need to be careful about the amount and type of fibre in their diet. During flare-ups, it may be helpful to reduce the amount of insoluble fibre consumed, but, once the flare-up is over, it is important to increase fibre intake again.

      Avoid alcohol: Although there is no evidence that alcohol consumption worsens IBD symptoms, alcohol can affect the lining of the gastrointestinal tract and interact with certain medications.

      Quit smoking: Although smoking may delay or even prevent ulcerative colitis, the health risks of smoking outweigh any benefits seen in UC, and strongly discourage smoking in everyone, whether or not they have IBD.

      Consider probiotics: The role of probiotics in IBD is not fully understood, but their use can be discussed with a General Practitioner or dietitian. More research is needed on their general effectiveness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      7.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 28-year-old female patient visits the GP clinic complaining of left eye redness,...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old female patient visits the GP clinic complaining of left eye redness, a sensation of grittiness, and a foreign body feeling in the left eye for the past three days. She also reports experiencing significant photophobia and a watering eye. The patient has a history of using contact lenses. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Keratitis

      Explanation:

      Keratitis, which is likely caused by contact lens wear, is characterized by a red eye, sensitivity to light, and a feeling of grittiness. Episcleritis typically does not cause pain or light sensitivity. Blepharitis is inflammation of the eyelid and does not typically result in light sensitivity. Conjunctivitis usually causes minimal pain or light sensitivity.

      Understanding Keratitis: Inflammation of the Cornea

      Keratitis is a condition that refers to the inflammation of the cornea. While conjunctivitis is a common eye infection that is not usually serious, microbial keratitis can be sight-threatening and requires urgent evaluation and treatment. The causes of keratitis can vary, with bacterial infections typically caused by Staphylococcus aureus and Pseudomonas aeruginosa commonly seen in contact lens wearers. Fungal and amoebic infections can also cause keratitis, with acanthamoebic keratitis accounting for around 5% of cases. Parasitic infections such as onchocercal keratitis can also cause inflammation of the cornea.

      Other factors that can cause keratitis include viral infections such as herpes simplex keratitis, environmental factors like photokeratitis (e.g. welder’s arc eye), and exposure keratitis. Clinical features of keratitis include a red eye with pain and erythema, photophobia, a foreign body sensation, and the presence of hypopyon. Referral is necessary for contact lens wearers who present with a painful red eye, as an accurate diagnosis can only be made with a slit-lamp examination.

      Management of keratitis involves stopping the use of contact lenses until symptoms have fully resolved, as well as the use of topical antibiotics such as quinolones. Cycloplegic agents like cyclopentolate can also be used for pain relief. Complications of keratitis can include corneal scarring, perforation, endophthalmitis, and visual loss. Understanding the causes and symptoms of keratitis is important for prompt diagnosis and treatment to prevent serious complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      9.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 42-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department. He reports experiencing sudden blurred...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department. He reports experiencing sudden blurred vision and difficulty speaking. He denies any history of head injury or trauma and does not have a headache. On examination, he exhibits exaggerated reflexes and upward plantars. Fundoscopy reveals no abnormalities. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Multiple sclerosis

      Explanation:

      Neurological Conditions and Upper Motor Neurone Signs

      Upper motor neurone signs, such as spasticity, hyperreflexia, clonus, and the Babinski reflex, are indicative of certain neurological conditions. Multiple sclerosis, a demyelinating disease, is one such condition that causes these signs. On the other hand, a stroke in a young person is relatively unlikely to cause upper motor neurone signs. Cerebral venous thrombosis could cause these signs, but it would be highly unlikely without a headache and normal fundoscopy. Guillain–Barré syndrome (GBS) is a relatively symmetrical, ascending lower motor neurone disease that does not typically present with blurred vision and speech disturbances. Poliomyelitis, a lower motor neurone condition, is characterised by hypotonia and hyporeflexia and would not cause the Babinski reflex.

      Understanding Upper Motor Neurone Signs in Neurological Conditions

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      3.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 35-year-old man presents with malaise, fever, backache and joint pains of 1-week...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man presents with malaise, fever, backache and joint pains of 1-week duration. On examination, arthritis is present asymmetrically in the lower limbs, involving the knees and metatarsophalangeal (MTP) and toe joints. An eye examination reveals conjunctival congestion, and there is a vesicular crusting lesion on his left sole. Investigations reveal an erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) of 60 mm/h (normal <20 mm/h) and C-reactive protein (CRP) of 50 u/l (normal <5 u/l). Rheumatoid factor is negative and HLA-B27 positive.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
      Select the SINGLE most appropriate diagnosis from the list below. Select ONE option only.

      Your Answer: Reactive arthritis

      Explanation:

      Reactive arthritis is a type of joint inflammation that occurs after an infection, often caused by dysentery or a sexually transmitted infection. It is more common in men who have the HLA-B27 gene. Reactive arthritis is part of a group of diseases called spondyloarthropathies, which also includes ankylosing spondylitis, psoriatic arthritis, enteropathic arthritis, and undifferentiated arthritis. Unlike rheumatoid arthritis, reactive arthritis is not associated with rheumatoid factor. Symptoms of reactive arthritis include sudden, asymmetrical lower limb joint pain, which can occur a few days to weeks after the initial infection. Enthesitis, or inflammation where tendons and ligaments attach to bones, is also common and can cause plantar fasciitis or Achilles tendonitis. In some cases, reactive arthritis can also cause back pain and inflammation of the sacroiliac joint, as well as a sterile conjunctivitis. Treatment involves addressing the initial infection and may include medications such as sulfasalazine or methotrexate for relapsing cases. It is important to trace and treat sexual partners if necessary. Gout, rheumatoid arthritis, psoriatic arthritis, and ankylosing spondylitis are other types of joint inflammation that have different symptoms and causes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - In a 20-year-old man with primary generalised epilepsy, what is the most suitable...

    Correct

    • In a 20-year-old man with primary generalised epilepsy, what is the most suitable initial oral treatment option?

      Your Answer: Valproate

      Explanation:

      First-Line Treatments for Seizures: A Guide to Medications

      When it comes to treating seizures, there are several medications available. However, not all medications are suitable for every type of seizure. Here is a breakdown of some commonly used medications and their recommended uses:

      Valproate: This medication is recommended as a first-line treatment for children, young people, and adults with newly diagnosed generalized tonic-clonic seizures. However, it is important to be aware of the teratogenic and developmental risks associated with valproate.

      Carbamazepine: This medication is recommended as a first-line treatment for new-onset focal seizures, but not for generalized seizures.

      Topiramate: While topiramate is not routinely used as a first-line treatment for any type of seizure, it can be used as an adjunct.

      Phenytoin: This medication is useful as a rescue medication in status epilepticus, but should not be considered first-line for any seizure type due to troublesome long-term side effects.

      Phenobarbital: This medication is now rarely used for seizures due to its unacceptable side effects when compared to more modern alternatives.

      Overall, the first-choice treatments for primary generalized epilepsy are lamotrigine and valproate. For partial (localization-related) epilepsy, carbamazepine, valproate, lamotrigine, and oxcarbazepine are all reasonable first choices.

      In summary, it is important to work closely with a healthcare provider to determine the best medication for an individual’s specific type of seizure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      1.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 28-year-old man with a history of ulcerative colitis presents to the hospital...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old man with a history of ulcerative colitis presents to the hospital with a flare-up of his condition. He has been experiencing up to five bloody stools per day for the past three days, and has developed abdominal pain and a low-grade fever in the last 24 hours. His blood work shows the following results:
      - Hemoglobin: 13.9 g/dL
      - Platelets: 422 * 10^9/L
      - White blood cells: 10.1 * 10^9/L
      - Erythrocyte sedimentation rate: 88 mm/hr
      - C-reactive protein: 198 mg/L

      What is the most crucial investigation to conduct next?

      Your Answer: Abdominal x-ray

      Explanation:

      It is possible that this individual has developed toxic megacolon, which is characterized by a transverse colon diameter exceeding 6 cm and accompanying symptoms of systemic distress. Treatment for toxic megacolon typically involves intensive medical intervention for a period of 24-72 hours. If there is no improvement in the patient’s condition during this time, a colectomy may be necessary.

      Understanding Ulcerative Colitis Flares

      Ulcerative colitis is a chronic inflammatory bowel disease that can cause flares or periods of worsening symptoms. While most flares occur without a clear trigger, there are several factors that are often associated with them. These include stress, certain medications such as NSAIDs and antibiotics, and even quitting smoking.

      Flares of ulcerative colitis can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe based on the frequency and severity of symptoms. Mild flares may involve fewer than four stools a day with or without blood, while moderate flares may include four to six stools a day with minimal systemic disturbance. Severe flares, on the other hand, may involve more than six stools a day containing blood, as well as evidence of systemic disturbance such as fever, tachycardia, abdominal tenderness, distension, reduced bowel sounds, anemia, and hypoalbuminemia.

      Patients with evidence of severe disease should be admitted to the hospital for close monitoring and treatment. Understanding the triggers and symptoms of ulcerative colitis flares can help patients manage their condition and seek appropriate medical care when necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      2.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 57-year-old male presents to eye casualty with a one-day history of a...

    Correct

    • A 57-year-old male presents to eye casualty with a one-day history of a painful red eye. He has a past medical history of hypertension and type II diabetes mellitus. He wears glasses for his hypermetropia.

      Upon examination of the right eye, a ciliary injection accompanies a fixed mid-dilated pupil. The pain is exacerbated when assessing pupillary reaction, which is non-reactive. His visual acuity is markedly reduced in his right eye compared to his left.

      Gonioscopy was performed, and the trabecular meshwork was not visualised. What is the first-line management for this likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Administer pilocarpine, timolol, and brimonidine eye drops

      Explanation:

      The appropriate treatment for a patient with acute angle closure glaucoma (AACG) is to administer pilocarpine, timolol, and brimonidine eye drops. This condition is characterized by ocular pain, decreased visual acuity, worsened symptoms with mydriasis, and haloes around lights. AACG is more common in individuals with hypermetropia. The presence of a fixed mid-dilated pupil and inability to visualize the trabecular meshwork are consistent with AACG. Pilocarpine, timolol, and brimonidine are all used to reduce intra-ocular pressure (IOP) and protect the optic nerve.

      Administering gentamicin eye drops is not appropriate for this patient as it is an antibiotic used to treat eye infections such as microbial keratitis. The patient does not have risk factors for an eye infection and the examination findings are more consistent with AACG.

      Prescribing prednisolone eye drops is also not appropriate as it is a steroid used to manage inflammatory eye diseases such as anterior uveitis. While anterior uveitis may present with a painful red eye, the examination findings for this patient are more suggestive of angle closure.

      Similarly, prescribing cyclopentolate eye drops is not appropriate as it is a mydriatic eye drop that may worsen the patient’s symptoms by reducing the angle. Mydriatic eye drops may be used in the management of anterior uveitis, but the examination findings for this patient are more consistent with AACG.

      Glaucoma is a group of disorders that cause optic neuropathy due to increased intraocular pressure (IOP). However, not all patients with raised IOP have glaucoma, and vice versa. Acute angle-closure glaucoma (AACG) is a type of glaucoma where there is a rise in IOP due to impaired aqueous outflow. Factors that increase the risk of AACG include hypermetropia, pupillary dilatation, and lens growth associated with age. Symptoms of AACG include severe pain, decreased visual acuity, haloes around lights, and a hard, red-eye. Management of AACG is an emergency and requires urgent referral to an ophthalmologist. Emergency medical treatment is necessary to lower the IOP, followed by definitive surgical treatment once the acute attack has subsided.

      There are no specific guidelines for the initial medical treatment of AACG, but a combination of eye drops may be used, including a direct parasympathomimetic, a beta-blocker, and an alpha-2 agonist. Intravenous acetazolamide may also be administered to reduce aqueous secretions. Definitive management of AACG involves laser peripheral iridotomy, which creates a small hole in the peripheral iris to allow aqueous humour to flow to the angle. It is important to seek medical attention immediately if symptoms of AACG are present to prevent permanent vision loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      2
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Dermatology (1/1) 100%
Psychiatry (2/2) 100%
Gastroenterology/Nutrition (2/2) 100%
Ophthalmology (2/2) 100%
Neurology (2/2) 100%
Musculoskeletal (1/1) 100%
Passmed