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  • Question 1 - The FY1 doctor seeks your guidance concerning an elderly patient they are managing...

    Incorrect

    • The FY1 doctor seeks your guidance concerning an elderly patient they are managing who has experienced a head injury. They are uncertain whether to request a CT head scan for their patient. What clinical criteria would necessitate an immediate CT head scan in an elderly individual?

      Your Answer: GCS 13 on initial assessment in the emergency department

      Correct Answer: Haemotympanum

      Explanation:

      Patients with head injuries who show any signs of basal skull fracture, such as haemotympanum, ‘panda’ eyes, cerebrospinal fluid leakage from the ear or nose, or Battle’s sign, should undergo urgent CT imaging. Additionally, the following indications also warrant a CT scan: a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of less than 13 on initial assessment in the emergency department (ED), a GCS score of less than 15 at 2 hours after the injury on assessment in the ED, suspected open or depressed skull fracture, post-traumatic seizure, new focal neurological deficit, greater than 1 episode of vomiting, or the patient being on anticoagulation. If any of these signs are present, a CT scan should be performed within 1 hour, except for patients on anticoagulation who should have a CT scan within 8 hours if they do not have any other signs. However, if patients on anticoagulation do have any of the other signs, the CT scan should be performed within 1 hour.

      Further Reading:

      Indications for CT Scanning in Head Injuries (Adults):
      – CT head scan should be performed within 1 hour if any of the following features are present:
      – GCS < 13 on initial assessment in the ED
      – GCS < 15 at 2 hours after the injury on assessment in the ED
      – Suspected open or depressed skull fracture
      – Any sign of basal skull fracture (haemotympanum, ‘panda’ eyes, cerebrospinal fluid leakage from the ear or nose, Battle’s sign)
      – Post-traumatic seizure
      – New focal neurological deficit
      – > 1 episode of vomiting

      Indications for CT Scanning in Head Injuries (Children):
      – CT head scan should be performed within 1 hour if any of the features in List 1 are present:
      – Suspicion of non-accidental injury
      – Post-traumatic seizure but no history of epilepsy
      – GCS < 14 on initial assessment in the ED for children more than 1 year of age
      – Paediatric GCS < 15 on initial assessment in the ED for children under 1 year of age
      – At 2 hours after the injury, GCS < 15
      – Suspected open or depressed skull fracture or tense fontanelle
      – Any sign of basal skull fracture (haemotympanum, ‘panda’ eyes, cerebrospinal fluid leakage from the ear or nose, Battle’s sign)
      – New focal neurological deficit
      – For children under 1 year, presence of bruise, swelling or laceration of more than 5 cm on the head

      – CT head scan should be performed within 1 hour if none of the above features are present but two or more of the features in List 2 are present:
      – Loss of consciousness lasting more than 5 minutes (witnessed)
      – Abnormal drowsiness
      – Three or more discrete episodes of vomiting
      – Dangerous mechanism of injury (high-speed road traffic accident, fall from a height.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      491.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A child under your supervision is diagnosed with a reportable illness.
    Select from the...

    Correct

    • A child under your supervision is diagnosed with a reportable illness.
      Select from the options below the one condition that is NOT currently a reportable illness.

      Your Answer: Leptospirosis

      Explanation:

      The Health Protection (Notification) Regulations currently require the reporting of certain diseases. These diseases include acute encephalitis, acute infectious hepatitis, acute meningitis, acute poliomyelitis, anthrax, botulism, brucellosis, cholera, COVID-19, diphtheria, enteric fever (typhoid or paratyphoid fever), food poisoning, haemolytic uraemic syndrome (HUS), infectious bloody diarrhoea, invasive group A streptococcal disease, Legionnaires’ Disease, leprosy, malaria, measles, meningococcal septicaemia, mumps, plague, rabies, rubella, SARS, scarlet fever, smallpox, tetanus, tuberculosis, typhus, viral haemorrhagic fever (VHF), whooping cough, and yellow fever.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      50.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A patient with a history of recurrent episodes of painless rectal bleeding is...

    Correct

    • A patient with a history of recurrent episodes of painless rectal bleeding is found to have a Meckel's diverticulum during a colonoscopy.

      What is the most common location for Meckel's diverticulum?

      Your Answer: Ileum

      Explanation:

      A Meckel’s diverticulum is a leftover part of the vitellointestinal duct, which is no longer needed in the body. It is the most common abnormality in the gastrointestinal tract, found in about 2% of people. Interestingly, it is twice as likely to occur in men compared to women.

      When a Meckel’s diverticulum is present, it is usually located in the lower part of the small intestine, specifically within 60-100 cm (2 feet) of the ileocaecal valve. These diverticula are typically 3-6 cm (approximately 2 inches) long and may have a larger opening than the ileum.

      Meckel’s diverticula are often discovered incidentally, especially during an appendectomy. Most of the time, they do not cause any symptoms. However, they can lead to complications such as bleeding (25-50% of cases), intestinal blockage (10-40% of cases), diverticulitis, or perforation.

      These diverticula run in the opposite direction of the intestine’s natural folds but receive their blood supply from the ileum mesentery. They can be identified by a specific blood vessel called the vitelline artery. Typically, they are lined with the same type of tissue as the ileum, but they often contain abnormal tissue, with gastric tissue being the most common (50%) and pancreatic tissue being the second most common (5%). In rare cases, colonic or jejunal tissue may be present.

      To remember some key facts about Meckel’s diverticulum, the rule of 2s can be helpful:
      – It is found in 2% of the population.
      – It is more common in men, with a ratio of 2:1 compared to women.
      – It is located 2 feet away from the ileocaecal valve.
      – It is approximately 2 inches long.
      – It often contains two types of abnormal tissue: gastric and pancreatic.
      – The most common age for clinical presentation is 2 years old.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgical Emergencies
      132
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 35-year-old man comes in with swelling of his face, particularly his upper...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man comes in with swelling of his face, particularly his upper lip, and his hands. He has a confirmed diagnosis of hereditary angioedema.
      Which of the following statements about hereditary angioedema is correct?

      Your Answer: Long-term prophylaxis can be achieved with tranexamic acid

      Explanation:

      Hereditary angioedema is a condition caused by a lack of C1 esterase inhibitor, a protein that is part of the complement system. It is typically inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. Symptoms usually start in childhood and continue sporadically into adulthood. Attacks can be triggered by minor surgical procedures, dental work, and stress. The main clinical signs of hereditary angioedema include swelling of the skin and mucous membranes, with the face, tongue, and extremities being the most commonly affected areas. There is often a tingling sensation before an attack, sometimes accompanied by a non-itchy rash.

      Angioedema and anaphylaxis resulting from C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency do not respond to adrenaline, steroids, or antihistamines. Treatment requires the use of C1 esterase inhibitor concentrate or fresh frozen plasma, both of which contain C1 esterase inhibitor. In situations that may trigger an attack, short-term prophylaxis can be achieved by administering C1 esterase inhibitor or fresh frozen plasma infusions prior to the event. For long-term prevention, androgenic steroids like stanozolol or antifibrinolytic drugs such as tranexamic acid can be used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy
      74.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 35-year-old man presents with recurring episodes of intense chest pain. These attacks...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents with recurring episodes of intense chest pain. These attacks have been happening in clusters during the past few weeks and consistently occur at night. An exercise tolerance test has been scheduled, and the results came back completely normal.
      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Decubitus angina

      Correct Answer: Prinzmetal angina

      Explanation:

      Prinzmetal angina is a rare form of angina that typically occurs during periods of rest, specifically between midnight and early morning. The attacks can be severe and happen in clusters. This condition is caused by spasms in the coronary arteries, even though patients may have normal arteries. The main treatment options for controlling these spasms are calcium-channel blockers and nitrates. The spasms often follow a cyclical pattern and may disappear after a few months, only to reappear later on.

      Unstable angina may present similarly to Prinzmetal angina, but it does not exclusively occur at night and the exercise tolerance test results are typically abnormal.

      Decubitus angina, on the other hand, is angina that occurs when lying down. It is often a result of cardiac failure caused by increased intravascular volume, which puts extra strain on the heart.

      Takotsubo cardiomyopathy, also known as acute stress cardiomyopathy, can present in a manner similar to an acute myocardial infarction. The cause of this condition is unknown, but it tends to occur in individuals who have recently experienced significant emotional or physical stress. The term Takotsubo refers to the shape the left ventricle takes on, resembling an octopus pot with a narrow neck and round bottom. ECGs often show characteristic changes, such as ST-elevation, but subsequent angiograms reveal normal coronary arteries. The diagnosis is confirmed when the angiogram shows the distinctive octopus pot shape of the left ventricle.

      There is no indication of a psychogenic cause in this particular case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      105
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 32-year-old individual arrives at the emergency department complaining of bloody diarrhea that...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old individual arrives at the emergency department complaining of bloody diarrhea that has been ongoing for two days. The patient mentions experiencing a similar episode six months ago, although it was less severe and resolved within a week. The possibility of inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) crosses your mind. Which of the following statements about IBD is accurate?

      Your Answer: The terminal ileum is the most common site affected by Crohn's

      Explanation:

      Crohn’s disease is characterized by skip lesions, which are not present in ulcerative colitis. Unlike ulcerative colitis, Crohn’s disease causes inflammation throughout the entire thickness of the intestinal wall, not just the mucosa. Interestingly, smoking increases the risk of developing Crohn’s disease but decreases the risk of ulcerative colitis. Additionally, having an appendicectomy before adulthood is believed to protect against ulcerative colitis, whereas it actually increases the risk of developing Crohn’s disease for about 5 years after the surgery.

      Further Reading:

      Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) is a chronic condition characterized by inflammation of the intestinal tract and an imbalance of the intestinal microbiota. The two main forms of IBD are Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis (UC). In some cases, it is not possible to differentiate between Crohn’s disease and UC, and the term inflammatory bowel disease type-unclassified may be used.

      Crohn’s disease is a chronic, relapsing-remitting inflammatory disease that can affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract, from the mouth to the anus. It most commonly involves the ileum and colon. The inflammation in Crohn’s disease affects all layers of the intestinal wall, leading to complications such as strictures, fistulas, and adhesions. Risk factors for developing Crohn’s disease include a family history, smoking, infectious gastroenteritis, appendicectomy, and the use of NSAIDs and oral contraceptive drugs. Symptoms of Crohn’s disease can vary but often include diarrhea, abdominal pain, weight loss, and perianal disease. Extraintestinal features, such as arthritis, erythema nodosum, and uveitis, can also occur.

      Ulcerative colitis is a chronic, relapsing-remitting inflammatory disease that primarily affects the large bowel. The inflammation in UC is limited to the intestinal mucosa and does not involve skip lesions like in Crohn’s disease. Risk factors for developing UC include a family history, not smoking, and no appendix. Symptoms of UC include bloody diarrhea, urgency, tenesmus, and abdominal pain. Extraintestinal features, such as arthritis and uveitis, can also occur. Complications of UC include toxic megacolon, bowel obstruction, bowel perforation, strictures, fistula formation, anemia, malnutrition, and colorectal cancer.

      Diagnosing IBD involves various investigations, including blood tests, stool microscopy and culture, fecal calprotectin testing, endoscopy with biopsy, and imaging modalities such as CT and MR enterography. The management of Crohn’s disease and UC is complex and may involve corticosteroids, immunosuppressive drugs, biologic therapy, surgery, and nutritional support. Patients with IBD should also be monitored for nutritional deficiencies, colorectal cancer, and osteoporosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology & Hepatology
      431.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 2-year-old girl presents with vomiting and diarrhea due to viral gastroenteritis. Upon...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-year-old girl presents with vomiting and diarrhea due to viral gastroenteritis. Upon examination, she is found to be mildly dehydrated. You suggest treating her with oral rehydration therapy (ORT).
      Which SINGLE statement regarding the use of ORT in the management of gastroenteritis is FALSE?

      Your Answer: ORT is hypo-osmolar

      Correct Answer: ORT is sugar-free

      Explanation:

      Oral rehydration therapy (ORT) is a method used to prevent or treat dehydration by replacing fluids in the body. It is a less invasive approach compared to other methods and has been successful in reducing the mortality rate of diarrhea in developing nations.

      ORT includes glucose, such as 90 mmol/L in Dioralyte, which helps improve the absorption of sodium and water in the intestines and prevents low blood sugar levels. It also contains essential mineral salts.

      According to current guidelines from the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), for mild dehydration, it is recommended to administer 50 mL/kg of ORT over a period of 4 hours.

      Once a child has been rehydrated, they should continue their normal daily fluid intake and consume an additional 200 ml of ORT after each loose stool. For infants, ORT should be given at 1-1.5 times their regular feeding volume, while adults should consume 200-400 mL of ORT after each loose stool.

      For more information, you can refer to the NICE guidelines on the diagnosis and management of diarrhea and vomiting caused by gastroenteritis in children under 5 years old.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology & Hepatology
      91.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 45 year old male patient is brought into the emergency department with...

    Correct

    • A 45 year old male patient is brought into the emergency department with a suspected severe pulmonary embolism. It is decided to intubate him pending transfer to the intensive care unit. Your consultant requests you prepare the patient for rapid sequence intubation. You start pre-oxygenating the patient. What is the recommended minimum duration for sufficient pre-oxygenation?

      Your Answer: 3 minutes

      Explanation:

      Inspired oxygen primarily works by removing nitrogen from the lungs, which would otherwise take up a significant portion of the lung capacity. This nitrogen is replaced with oxygen, leading to improved oxygenation of the tissues and an increased oxygen reserve. As a result, the patient can safely hold their breath for a longer period of time. It is recommended to preoxygenate the patient for at least 3 minutes.

      Further Reading:

      Rapid sequence induction (RSI) is a method used to place an endotracheal tube (ETT) in the trachea while minimizing the risk of aspiration. It involves inducing loss of consciousness while applying cricoid pressure, followed by intubation without face mask ventilation. The steps of RSI can be remembered using the 7 P’s: preparation, pre-oxygenation, pre-treatment, paralysis and induction, protection and positioning, placement with proof, and post-intubation management.

      Preparation involves preparing the patient, equipment, team, and anticipating any difficulties that may arise during the procedure. Pre-oxygenation is important to ensure the patient has an adequate oxygen reserve and prolongs the time before desaturation. This is typically done by breathing 100% oxygen for 3 minutes. Pre-treatment involves administering drugs to counter expected side effects of the procedure and anesthesia agents used.

      Paralysis and induction involve administering a rapid-acting induction agent followed by a neuromuscular blocking agent. Commonly used induction agents include propofol, ketamine, thiopentone, and etomidate. The neuromuscular blocking agents can be depolarizing (such as suxamethonium) or non-depolarizing (such as rocuronium). Depolarizing agents bind to acetylcholine receptors and generate an action potential, while non-depolarizing agents act as competitive antagonists.

      Protection and positioning involve applying cricoid pressure to prevent regurgitation of gastric contents and positioning the patient’s neck appropriately. Tube placement is confirmed by visualizing the tube passing between the vocal cords, auscultation of the chest and stomach, end-tidal CO2 measurement, and visualizing misting of the tube. Post-intubation management includes standard care such as monitoring ECG, SpO2, NIBP, capnography, and maintaining sedation and neuromuscular blockade.

      Overall, RSI is a technique used to quickly and safely secure the airway in patients who may be at risk of aspiration. It involves a series of steps to ensure proper preparation, oxygenation, drug administration, and tube placement. Monitoring and post-intubation care are also important aspects of RSI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Anaesthetics
      33.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 42 year old male presents to the emergency department with complaints of...

    Correct

    • A 42 year old male presents to the emergency department with complaints of vertigo that appears to be triggered by head movements. The patient first noticed these symptoms upon waking up in the morning. You suspect benign paroxysmal positional vertigo.

      What is the most probable location of the underlying pathology causing this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Posterior semicircular canal

      Explanation:

      Otoliths are commonly found in the inferior semicircular canal of patients, while their presence in the anterior semicircular canal is extremely uncommon.

      Further Reading:

      Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) is a common cause of vertigo, characterized by sudden dizziness and vertigo triggered by changes in head position. It typically affects individuals over the age of 55 and is less common in younger patients. BPPV is caused by dysfunction in the inner ear, specifically the detachment of otoliths (calcium carbonate particles) from the utricular otolithic membrane. These loose otoliths move through the semicircular canals, triggering a sensation of movement and resulting in conflicting sensory inputs that cause vertigo.

      The majority of BPPV cases involve otoliths in the posterior semicircular canal, followed by the inferior semicircular canal. BPPV in the anterior semicircular canals is rare. Clinical features of BPPV include vertigo triggered by head position changes, such as rolling over in bed or looking upwards, accompanied by nausea. Episodes of vertigo typically last 10-20 seconds and can be diagnosed through positional nystagmus, which is a specific eye movement, observed during diagnostic maneuvers like the Dix-Hallpike maneuver.

      Hearing loss and tinnitus are not associated with BPPV. The prognosis for BPPV is generally good, with spontaneous resolution occurring within a few weeks to months. Symptomatic relief can be achieved through the Epley maneuver, which is successful in around 80% of cases, or patient home exercises like the Brandt-Daroff exercises. Medications like Betahistine may be prescribed but have limited effectiveness in treating BPPV.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      37.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 65-year-old man comes in with a chief complaint of sudden vision loss...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man comes in with a chief complaint of sudden vision loss in his right eye over the past couple of hours. During fundoscopic examination, you observe engorgement of the retinal veins and notice multiple flame-shaped hemorrhages and cotton wool spots scattered throughout the entire retina.
      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Central retinal vein occlusion

      Explanation:

      Central retinal vein occlusion (CRVO) is a condition that usually leads to painless, one-sided vision loss. When examining the retina, it may appear similar to a ‘pizza thrown against a wall’, with swollen retinal veins, swelling of the optic disc, numerous flame-shaped hemorrhages, and cotton wool spots. Hypertension is present in about 65% of CRVO cases and is more common in individuals aged 65 and above.

      On the other hand, branch retinal vein occlusion (BRVO) typically affects only one section of the retina, resulting in visual field deficits in that specific quadrant rather than complete vision loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      61
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Trauma (0/1) 0%
Infectious Diseases (1/1) 100%
Surgical Emergencies (1/1) 100%
Allergy (1/1) 100%
Cardiology (0/1) 0%
Gastroenterology & Hepatology (1/2) 50%
Basic Anaesthetics (1/1) 100%
Ear, Nose & Throat (1/1) 100%
Ophthalmology (1/1) 100%
Passmed