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Question 1
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A child with a history of stomach pain and loose stools is being examined for a potential diagnosis of tapeworm infection.
What is the most suitable test to confirm this diagnosis?Your Answer: Recover eggs from stool sample
Explanation:Two types of tapeworms, Taenia solium and Taenia saginata, can infest humans. Infestation occurs when people consume meat from intermediate hosts that contain the parasite’s tissue stages. Tapeworms compete for nutrients and infestation is often without symptoms. However, in more severe cases, individuals may experience epigastric pain, diarrhea, and vomiting. Diagnosis involves identifying characteristic eggs in the patient’s stool.
Taenia solium infestation can also lead to a condition called cysticercosis. This occurs when larval cysts infiltrate and spread throughout the lung, liver, eye, or brain. Cysticercosis presents with neurological symptoms, seizures, and impaired vision. Confirmation of cysticercosis involves the presence of antibodies and imaging tests such as chest X-rays and CT brain scans.
The treatment for tapeworm infestation is highly effective and involves the use of medications like niclosamide or praziquantel. However, it is important to seek specialist advice when managing Taenia infections in the central nervous system, as severe inflammatory reactions can occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 2
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman is given an antibiotic while pregnant. As a result, the newborn has teeth that are permanently stained yellow and experiences numerous dental cavities throughout their childhood.
Which of the following antibiotics is the most probable culprit for these abnormalities?Your Answer: Tetracycline
Explanation:The use of tetracyclines is not recommended during pregnancy as it can have harmful effects on the developing fetus. When taken during the second half of pregnancy, tetracyclines may lead to permanent yellow-grey discoloration of the teeth and enamel hypoplasia. Children affected by this may also be more prone to cavities. Additionally, tetracyclines have been associated with congenital defects, problems with bone growth, and liver toxicity in pregnant women.
Here is a list outlining the commonly encountered drugs that can have adverse effects during pregnancy:
ACE inhibitors (e.g. ramipril): If taken in the second and third trimesters, ACE inhibitors can cause reduced blood flow, kidney failure, and a condition called oligohydramnios.
Aminoglycosides (e.g. gentamicin): Aminoglycosides can cause ototoxicity, leading to hearing loss in the fetus.
Aspirin: High doses of aspirin can result in first trimester abortions, delayed labor, premature closure of the fetal ductus arteriosus, and a condition called fetal kernicterus. However, low doses (e.g. 75 mg) do not pose significant risks.
Benzodiazepines (e.g. diazepam): When taken late in pregnancy, benzodiazepines can cause respiratory depression in the newborn and a withdrawal syndrome.
Calcium-channel blockers: If taken in the first trimester, calcium-channel blockers can cause abnormalities in the fingers and toes. If taken in the second and third trimesters, they can lead to fetal growth retardation.
Carbamazepine: Carbamazepine has been associated with a condition called hemorrhagic disease of the newborn and an increased risk of neural tube defects.
Chloramphenicol: Chloramphenicol can cause a condition known as grey baby syndrome in newborns.
Corticosteroids: If taken in the first trimester, corticosteroids may increase the risk of orofacial clefts in the fetus.
Danazol: When taken in the first trimester, danazol can cause masculinization of the female fetuses genitals.
Finasteride: Pregnant women should avoid handling finasteride tablets as the drug can be absorbed through the skin and affect the development of male sex organs in the fetus.
Haloperidol: If taken during the first trimester, this medication may increase the risk of limb malformations. If taken during the third trimester, it can lead to an increased risk of extrapyramidal symptoms in the newborn.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 3
Correct
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A 35 year old female presents to the emergency department following a motor vehicle collision. Which system should be utilized to evaluate the potential for cervical spine injury?
Your Answer: Canadian C-spine rules
Explanation:When a 35-year-old female comes to the emergency department after a motor vehicle collision, it is important to assess the potential for cervical spine injury. To do this, the Canadian C-spine rules should be utilized. These rules provide a systematic approach to determine whether imaging, such as X-rays, is necessary to evaluate the cervical spine. The Canadian C-spine rules take into account various factors such as the patient’s age, mechanism of injury, and presence of certain symptoms or physical findings. By following these rules, healthcare professionals can effectively evaluate the potential for cervical spine injury and determine the appropriate course of action for further assessment and management.
Further Reading:
When assessing for cervical spine injury, it is recommended to use the Canadian C-spine rules. These rules help determine the risk level for a potential injury. High-risk factors include being over the age of 65, experiencing a dangerous mechanism of injury (such as a fall from a height or a high-speed motor vehicle collision), or having paraesthesia in the upper or lower limbs. Low-risk factors include being involved in a minor rear-end motor vehicle collision, being comfortable in a sitting position, being ambulatory since the injury, having no midline cervical spine tenderness, or experiencing a delayed onset of neck pain. If a person is unable to actively rotate their neck 45 degrees to the left and right, their risk level is considered low. If they have one of the low-risk factors and can actively rotate their neck, their risk level remains low.
If a high-risk factor is identified or if a low-risk factor is identified and the person is unable to actively rotate their neck, full in-line spinal immobilization should be maintained and imaging should be requested. Additionally, if a patient has risk factors for thoracic or lumbar spine injury, imaging should be requested. However, if a patient has low-risk factors for cervical spine injury, is pain-free, and can actively rotate their neck, full in-line spinal immobilization and imaging are not necessary.
NICE recommends CT as the primary imaging modality for cervical spine injury in adults aged 16 and older, while MRI is recommended as the primary imaging modality for children under 16.
Different mechanisms of spinal trauma can cause injury to the spine in predictable ways. The majority of cervical spine injuries are caused by flexion combined with rotation. Hyperflexion can result in compression of the anterior aspects of the vertebral bodies, stretching and tearing of the posterior ligament complex, chance fractures (also known as seatbelt fractures), flexion teardrop fractures, and odontoid peg fractures. Flexion and rotation can lead to disruption of the posterior ligament complex and posterior column, fractures of facet joints, lamina, transverse processes, and vertebral bodies, and avulsion of spinous processes. Hyperextension can cause injury to the anterior column, anterior fractures of the vertebral body, and potential retropulsion of bony fragments or discs into the spinal canal. Rotation can result in injury to the posterior ligament complex and facet joint dislocation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman is brought into the emergency department after sustaining a single stab wound to the abdomen while attempting to intervene in a fight. The patient's observations are as follows:
Parameter Reading
Blood pressure: 122/84 mmHg
Pulse rate: 88 bpm
Respiration rate: 12 rpm
SpO2: 98% on air
Which two organs are frequently affected in cases of penetrating abdominal trauma?Your Answer: Diaphragm and small bowel
Correct Answer: Liver and small bowel
Explanation:In cases of penetrating abdominal trauma, two organs that are frequently affected are the liver and the small bowel. This means that when a person sustains a stab wound or any other type of injury that penetrates the abdomen, these two organs are at a higher risk of being damaged.
Further Reading:
Abdominal trauma can be classified into two categories: blunt trauma and penetrating trauma. Blunt trauma occurs when compressive or deceleration forces are applied to the abdomen, often resulting from road traffic accidents or direct blows during sports. The spleen and liver are the organs most commonly injured in blunt abdominal trauma. On the other hand, penetrating trauma involves injuries that pierce the skin and enter the abdominal cavity, such as stabbings, gunshot wounds, or industrial accidents. The bowel and liver are the organs most commonly affected in penetrating injuries.
When it comes to imaging in blunt abdominal trauma, there are three main modalities that are commonly used: focused assessment with sonography in trauma (FAST), diagnostic peritoneal lavage (DPL), and computed tomography (CT). FAST is a non-invasive and quick method used to detect free intraperitoneal fluid, aiding in the decision on whether a laparotomy is needed. DPL is also used to detect intraperitoneal blood and can be used in both unstable blunt abdominal trauma and penetrating abdominal trauma. However, it is more invasive and time-consuming compared to FAST and has largely been replaced by it. CT, on the other hand, is the gold standard for diagnosing intra-abdominal pathology and is used in stable abdominal trauma patients. It offers high sensitivity and specificity but requires a stable and cooperative patient. It also involves radiation and may have delays in availability.
In the case of penetrating trauma, it is important to assess these injuries with the help of a surgical team. Penetrating objects should not be removed in the emergency department as they may be tamponading underlying vessels. Ideally, these injuries should be explored in the operating theater.
In summary, abdominal trauma can be classified into blunt trauma and penetrating trauma. Blunt trauma is caused by compressive or deceleration forces and commonly affects the spleen and liver. Penetrating trauma involves injuries that pierce the skin and commonly affect the bowel and liver. Imaging modalities such as FAST, DPL, and CT are used to assess and diagnose abdominal trauma, with CT being the gold standard. Penetrating injuries should be assessed by a surgical team and should ideally be explored in the operating theater.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old woman undergoes a blood transfusion after giving birth. Soon after starting the transfusion, she experiences hives and itching all over her body. She is in good health otherwise and shows no signs of any problems with her airway or breathing.
What is the most probable cause of this reaction to the blood transfusion?Your Answer: Rhesus incompatibility
Correct Answer: Presence of foreign plasma proteins
Explanation:Blood transfusion is a crucial treatment that can save lives, but it also comes with various risks and potential problems. These include immunological complications, administration errors, infections, and immune dilution. While there has been an improvement in safety procedures and a reduction in transfusion use, errors and serious adverse reactions still occur and often go unreported.
Mild allergic reactions during blood transfusion are relatively common and typically occur within a few minutes of starting the transfusion. These reactions happen when patients have antibodies that react with foreign plasma proteins in the transfused blood components. Symptoms of mild allergic reactions include urticaria, Pruritus, and hives.
Anaphylaxis, on the other hand, is much rarer and occurs when an individual has previously been sensitized to an allergen present in the blood. When re-exposed to the allergen, the body releases IgE or IgG antibodies, leading to severe symptoms such as bronchospasm, laryngospasm, abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, hypotension, shock, and loss of consciousness. Anaphylaxis can be fatal.
Mild allergic reactions can be managed by slowing down the transfusion rate and administering antihistamines. If there is no progression after 30 minutes, the transfusion may continue. Patients who have experienced repeated allergic reactions to transfusion should be given pre-treatment with chlorpheniramine. In cases of anaphylaxis, the transfusion should be stopped immediately, and the patient should receive oxygen, adrenaline, corticosteroids, and antihistamines following the ALS protocol.
The table below summarizes the main transfusion reactions and complications, along with their features and management:
Complication | Features | Management
Febrile transfusion reaction | 1 degree rise in temperature, chills, malaise | Supportive care, paracetamol
Acute haemolytic reaction | Fever, chills, pain at transfusion site, nausea, vomiting, dark urine | STOP THE TRANSFUSION, administer IV fluids, diuretics if necessary
Delayed haemolytic reaction | Fever, anaemia, jaundice, haemoglobinuria | Monitor anaemia and renal function, treat as required
Allergic reaction | Urticaria, Pruritus, hives | Symptomatic treatment with ant -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 72 year old is brought to the emergency department by ambulance due to sudden onset of confusion. The patient's spouse is concerned the sudden decrease in consciousness is due to a hemorrhage as the patient is on blood thinners. Neurological examination reveals flaccid paralysis. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation is initiated before CT scan as the patient experiences a respiratory arrest. Which of the following syndromes is this patient most likely suffering from?
Your Answer: Transtentorial (uncal) herniation
Correct Answer: Tonsillar herniation
Explanation:Tonsillar herniation occurs when the cerebellar tonsils are pushed through the foramen magnum. This condition is characterized by a decrease in consciousness, respiratory arrest, and flaccid paralysis.
Further Reading:
Intracranial pressure (ICP) refers to the pressure within the craniospinal compartment, which includes neural tissue, blood, and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). Normal ICP for a supine adult is 5-15 mmHg. The body maintains ICP within a narrow range through shifts in CSF production and absorption. If ICP rises, it can lead to decreased cerebral perfusion pressure, resulting in cerebral hypoperfusion, ischemia, and potentially brain herniation.
The cranium, which houses the brain, is a closed rigid box in adults and cannot expand. It is made up of 8 bones and contains three main components: brain tissue, cerebral blood, and CSF. Brain tissue accounts for about 80% of the intracranial volume, while CSF and blood each account for about 10%. The Monro-Kellie doctrine states that the sum of intracranial volumes is constant, so an increase in one component must be offset by a decrease in the others.
There are various causes of raised ICP, including hematomas, neoplasms, brain abscesses, edema, CSF circulation disorders, venous sinus obstruction, and accelerated hypertension. Symptoms of raised ICP include headache, vomiting, pupillary changes, reduced cognition and consciousness, neurological signs, abnormal fundoscopy, cranial nerve palsy, hemiparesis, bradycardia, high blood pressure, irregular breathing, focal neurological deficits, seizures, stupor, coma, and death.
Measuring ICP typically requires invasive procedures, such as inserting a sensor through the skull. Management of raised ICP involves a multi-faceted approach, including antipyretics to maintain normothermia, seizure control, positioning the patient with a 30º head up tilt, maintaining normal blood pressure, providing analgesia, using drugs to lower ICP (such as mannitol or saline), and inducing hypocapnoeic vasoconstriction through hyperventilation. If these measures are ineffective, second-line therapies like barbiturate coma, optimised hyperventilation, controlled hypothermia, or decompressive craniectomy may be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old construction worker comes in with a few weeks of lower back pain. He is currently experiencing discomfort and wants to know which pain medication would be most effective. You give him a self-help guide and discuss his treatment choices.
According to the latest NICE guidelines, what is the recommended initial pharmacological treatment for lower back pain? Choose ONE option.Your Answer: Paracetamol
Correct Answer: Ibuprofen
Explanation:The current guidelines from NICE provide recommendations for managing low back pain. It is suggested to consider using oral non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) such as ibuprofen, while taking into account the potential risks of gastrointestinal, liver, and cardio-renal toxicity, as well as the person’s individual risk factors and age. When prescribing oral NSAIDs, it is important to conduct appropriate clinical assessments, monitor risk factors regularly, and consider the use of gastroprotective treatment. It is advised to prescribe the lowest effective dose of oral NSAIDs for the shortest duration possible. In cases where NSAIDs are contraindicated, not tolerated, or ineffective, weak opioids (with or without paracetamol) may be considered for managing acute low back pain. However, NICE does not recommend the use of paracetamol alone, opioids for chronic low back pain, serotonin reuptake inhibitors, serotonin-noradrenaline reuptake inhibitors, tricyclic antidepressants for non-neuropathic pain, anticonvulsants, or benzodiazepines for muscle spasm associated with acute low back pain. For more information, you can refer to the NICE guidance on low back pain and sciatica in individuals over 16 years old, as well as the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary on low back pain without radiculopathy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
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Question 8
Correct
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A 4 week old female is brought into the emergency department by worried parents. They inform you that the patient had vomited a few times after feeds over the past week, but in the last day or two, the patient has been vomiting 30-45 minutes after every feed. The vomiting is non-bilious and projectile. You observe that the child is solely bottle fed.
What investigation would be the most helpful in confirming the suspected diagnosis?Your Answer: Abdominal ultrasound
Explanation:The diagnostic criteria for hypertrophic pyloric stenosis (HPS) on ultrasound are as follows: the thickness of the pyloric muscle should be greater than 3 mm, the longitudinal length of the pylorus should be greater than 15-17 mm, the volume of the pylorus should be greater than 1.5 cm3, and the transverse diameter of the pylorus should be greater than 13 mm.
Further Reading:
Pyloric stenosis is a condition that primarily affects infants, characterized by the thickening of the muscles in the pylorus, leading to obstruction of the gastric outlet. It typically presents between the 3rd and 12th weeks of life, with recurrent projectile vomiting being the main symptom. The condition is more common in males, with a positive family history and being first-born being additional risk factors. Bottle-fed children and those delivered by c-section are also more likely to develop pyloric stenosis.
Clinical features of pyloric stenosis include projectile vomiting, usually occurring about 30 minutes after a feed, as well as constipation and dehydration. A palpable mass in the upper abdomen, often described as like an olive, may also be present. The persistent vomiting can lead to electrolyte disturbances, such as hypochloremia, alkalosis, and mild hypokalemia.
Ultrasound is the preferred diagnostic tool for confirming pyloric stenosis. It can reveal specific criteria, including a pyloric muscle thickness greater than 3 mm, a pylorus longitudinal length greater than 15-17 mm, a pyloric volume greater than 1.5 cm3, and a pyloric transverse diameter greater than 13 mm.
The definitive treatment for pyloric stenosis is pyloromyotomy, a surgical procedure that involves making an incision in the thickened pyloric muscle to relieve the obstruction. Before surgery, it is important to correct any hypovolemia and electrolyte disturbances with intravenous fluids. Overall, pyloric stenosis is a relatively common condition in infants, but with prompt diagnosis and appropriate management, it can be effectively treated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Emergencies
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Question 9
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman is brought into resus following a car accident. She is experiencing difficulty breathing, and you are unable to hear breath sounds on the left-hand side. Her trachea is deviated to the right, and her neck veins are distended. You make a clinical diagnosis of a tension pneumothorax and decide to perform a needle thoracocentesis.
At which anatomical landmark should this procedure be performed?Your Answer: 5th intercostal space midaxillary line
Explanation:A tension pneumothorax occurs when there is an air leak from the lung or chest wall that acts like a one-way valve. This causes air to build up in the pleural space without any way to escape. As a result, pressure in the pleural space increases and pushes the mediastinum into the opposite hemithorax. If left untreated, this can lead to cardiovascular instability, shock, and cardiac arrest.
The clinical features of tension pneumothorax include respiratory distress and cardiovascular instability. Tracheal deviation away from the side of the injury, unilateral absence of breath sounds on the affected side, and a hyper-resonant percussion note are also characteristic. Other signs include distended neck veins and cyanosis, which is a late sign. It’s important to note that both tension pneumothorax and massive haemothorax can cause decreased breath sounds on auscultation. However, percussion can help differentiate between the two conditions. Hyper-resonance suggests tension pneumothorax, while dullness suggests a massive haemothorax.
Tension pneumothorax is a clinical diagnosis and should not be delayed for radiological confirmation. Requesting a chest X-ray in this situation can delay treatment and put the patient at risk. Immediate decompression through needle thoracocentesis is the recommended treatment. Traditionally, a large-bore needle or cannula is inserted into the 2nd intercostal space in the midclavicular line of the affected hemithorax. However, studies on cadavers have shown better success in reaching the thoracic cavity when the 4th or 5th intercostal space in the midaxillary line is used in adult patients. ATLS now recommends this location for needle decompression in adults. The site for needle thoracocentesis in children remains the same, using the 2nd intercostal space in the midclavicular line. It’s important to remember that needle thoracocentesis is a temporary measure, and the insertion of a chest drain is the definitive treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Resus
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Question 10
Correct
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A 65 year old patient arrives at the emergency department complaining of a productive cough and fever. The patient's primary care physician had prescribed antibiotics a few days ago to treat a suspected respiratory infection. The patient's INR is tested as they are on warfarin for atrial fibrillation. The INR comes back as 6.7.
Which of the following antibiotics is most likely to result in an extended INR?Your Answer: Erythromycin
Explanation:Macrolide antibiotics, such as clarithromycin and erythromycin, are widely known to prolong the International Normalized Ratio (INR). Several drugs can increase the potency of warfarin, and the macrolides, along with ciprofloxacin and metronidazole, are the antibiotics that have the most significant impact on enhancing the effect of warfarin.
Further Reading:
Management of High INR with Warfarin
Major Bleeding:
– Stop warfarin immediately.
– Administer intravenous vitamin K 5 mg.
– Administer 25-50 u/kg four-factor prothrombin complex concentrate.
– If prothrombin complex concentrate is not available, consider using fresh frozen plasma (FFP).
– Seek medical attention promptly.INR > 8.0 with Minor Bleeding:
– Stop warfarin immediately.
– Administer intravenous vitamin K 1-3mg.
– Repeat vitamin K dose if INR remains high after 24 hours.
– Restart warfarin when INR is below 5.0.
– Seek medical advice if bleeding worsens or persists.INR > 8.0 without Bleeding:
– Stop warfarin immediately.
– Administer oral vitamin K 1-5 mg using the intravenous preparation orally.
– Repeat vitamin K dose if INR remains high after 24 hours.
– Restart warfarin when INR is below 5.0.
– Seek medical advice if any symptoms or concerns arise.INR 5.0-8.0 with Minor Bleeding:
– Stop warfarin immediately.
– Administer intravenous vitamin K 1-3mg.
– Restart warfarin when INR is below 5.0.
– Seek medical advice if bleeding worsens or persists.INR 5.0-8.0 without Bleeding:
– Withhold 1 or 2 doses of warfarin.
– Reduce subsequent maintenance dose.
– Monitor INR closely and seek medical advice if any concerns arise.Note: In cases of intracranial hemorrhage, prothrombin complex concentrate should be considered as it is faster acting than fresh frozen plasma (FFP).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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