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Question 1
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You intend to administer Midazolam to sedate a patient before reducing a dislocated shoulder. Where does the metabolism of Midazolam occur?
Your Answer: Liver
Explanation:When administering treatment to patients with hepatic impairment, it is crucial to consider that midazolam is metabolized in the liver.
Further Reading:
Procedural sedation is commonly used by emergency department (ED) doctors to minimize pain and discomfort during procedures that may be painful or distressing for patients. Effective procedural sedation requires the administration of analgesia, anxiolysis, sedation, and amnesia. This is typically achieved through the use of a combination of short-acting analgesics and sedatives.
There are different levels of sedation, ranging from minimal sedation (anxiolysis) to general anesthesia. It is important for clinicians to understand the level of sedation being used and to be able to manage any unintended deeper levels of sedation that may occur. Deeper levels of sedation are similar to general anesthesia and require the same level of care and monitoring.
Various drugs can be used for procedural sedation, including propofol, midazolam, ketamine, and fentanyl. Each of these drugs has its own mechanism of action and side effects. Propofol is commonly used for sedation, amnesia, and induction and maintenance of general anesthesia. Midazolam is a benzodiazepine that enhances the effect of GABA on the GABA A receptors. Ketamine is an NMDA receptor antagonist and is used for dissociative sedation. Fentanyl is a highly potent opioid used for analgesia and sedation.
The doses of these drugs for procedural sedation in the ED vary depending on the drug and the route of administration. It is important for clinicians to be familiar with the appropriate doses and onset and peak effect times for each drug.
Safe sedation requires certain requirements, including appropriate staffing levels, competencies of the sedating practitioner, location and facilities, and monitoring. The level of sedation being used determines the specific requirements for safe sedation.
After the procedure, patients should be monitored until they meet the criteria for safe discharge. This includes returning to their baseline level of consciousness, having vital signs within normal limits, and not experiencing compromised respiratory status. Pain and discomfort should also be addressed before discharge.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Anaesthetics
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman with a known history of HIV presents with multiple new small lumps around her anus and genitalia. During examination, two clusters of small lumps are observed. The lumps range in size from 1 to 5 mm, with two being pedunculated. They have a firm texture and exhibit colors ranging from grey to brown.
What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Condylomata lata
Correct Answer: Verruca acuminata
Explanation:Verruca acuminata, also known as Condylomata acuminata, are genital warts. These warts are typically transmitted through sexual activity and are primarily caused by different subtypes of the human papillomavirus (HPV). They usually appear in clusters, can be pedunculated, and vary in size between 1-5 mm. Immunosuppression increases the risk, and some studies suggest that 25% of affected patients will acquire a second sexually transmitted infection.
Condylomata lata, on the other hand, are warty-plaque like lesions found on the genitals and perianal area during secondary syphilis.
Verruca vulgaris, commonly known as common warts, present as raised warts with a roughened surface. They are most frequently observed on the hands.
Verruca planae, which are smooth and flattened flesh-colored warts, can occur in large numbers. They are commonly seen on the face, hands, neck, wrists, and knees.
Lastly, Verruca plantaris, also known as plantar warts or verrucas, manifest as hard and painful lumps, often with black specks in the center. These warts are typically found only on pressure points on the soles of the feet.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 3
Correct
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A 25-year-old engineering student returns from a hiking trip in South America with a high temperature, body pains, and shivering. After further examination, they are diagnosed with malaria.
Which of the following statements about malaria is correct?Your Answer: Haemoglobinuria and renal failure following treatment is suggestive of Plasmodium falciparum
Explanation:Plasmodium ovale has the longest incubation period, which can extend up to 40 days. On the other hand, Plasmodium falciparum has a shorter incubation period of 7-14 days. The transmission of malaria occurs through the female mosquitoes belonging to the Anopheles genus.
Blackwater fever, which is caused by Plasmodium falciparum, can be indicated by the presence of haemoglobinuria and renal failure following treatment. This condition is a result of an autoimmune reaction between the parasite and quinine, leading to haemolysis, haemoglobinuria, jaundice, and renal failure. It is a potentially fatal complication. The diagnosis of malaria is typically done using the Indirect Fluorescence Antibody Test (IFAT).
Currently, the recommended treatment for P. falciparum malaria is artemisinin-based combination therapy (ACT). This involves combining fast-acting artemisinin-based compounds with a drug from a different class. Some companion drugs used in ACT include lumefantrine, mefloquine, amodiaquine, sulfadoxine/pyrimethamine, piperaquine, and chlorproguanil/dapsone. Artemisinin derivatives such as dihydroartemisinin, artesunate, and artemether are also used.
In cases where artemisinin combination therapy is not available, oral quinine or atovaquone with proguanil hydrochloride can be used as an alternative. However, quinine is highly effective but not well-tolerated in prolonged treatment, so it is usually combined with another drug, typically oral doxycycline (or clindamycin in pregnant women and young children).
Severe or complicated falciparum malaria requires management in a high dependency unit or intensive care setting. Intravenous artesunate is recommended for all patients with severe or complicated falciparum malaria, or those at high risk of developing severe disease (e.g., if more than 2% of red blood cells are parasitized), or if the patient is unable to take oral treatment. After a minimum of 24 hours of intravenous artesunate treatment and improvement in the patient’s condition, a full course of artemisinin combination therapy should be administered orally.
The benign malarias, namely P. vivax, P. malariae, and P. ovale,
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 4
Correct
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A 45-year-old woman has been involved in a car accident. She needs a blood transfusion as part of her treatment and experiences a transfusion reaction.
What is the most frequent type of transfusion reaction?Your Answer: Febrile transfusion reaction
Explanation:Febrile transfusion reactions, also known as non-haemolytic transfusion reactions, occur when there is an unexpected increase in body temperature (≥ 38ºC or ≥ 1ºC above the baseline, if the baseline is ≥ 37ºC) during or shortly after a blood transfusion. This temperature rise is usually the only symptom, although sometimes it may be accompanied by chills.
Febrile transfusion reactions are the most common type of transfusion reaction, happening in approximately 1 out of every 8 transfusions.
The main cause of febrile transfusion reactions is believed to be the accumulation of cytokines during the storage of blood components, particularly in platelet units. Cytokines are substances released by white blood cells, and the risk of symptoms can be reduced by removing these cells before storage.
In addition to cytokine accumulation, febrile transfusion reactions can also be triggered by recipient antibodies that have been produced as a result of previous transfusions or pregnancies. These antibodies react to specific antigens, such as human leukocyte antigen (HLA), found on the donor’s lymphocytes, granulocytes, or platelets.
Treatment for febrile transfusion reactions is mainly supportive. Other potential causes of fever should be ruled out, and antipyretic medications like paracetamol can be used to reduce the fever. If another cause is suspected, the transfusion should be temporarily stopped, but it can be resumed at a slower rate once other potential causes of fever have been ruled out.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man presents with occasional episodes of excessive sweating, rapid heartbeat, and a sense of panic and anxiety. He measured his blood pressure at home during one of these episodes and found it to be 190/110 mmHg. You measure it today and find it to be normal at 118/72 mmHg. He mentions that his brother has a similar condition, but he can't recall the name of it.
What is the most suitable initial investigation for this patient?Your Answer: Plasma renin and aldosterone levels
Correct Answer: Radioimmunoassay for urinary/plasma metanephrines
Explanation:This patient is displaying symptoms and signs that are consistent with a diagnosis of phaeochromocytoma. Phaeochromocytoma is a rare functional tumor that originates from chromaffin cells in the adrenal medulla. There are also less common tumors called extra-adrenal paragangliomas, which develop in the ganglia of the sympathetic nervous system. Both types of tumors secrete catecholamines, leading to symptoms and signs associated with hyperactivity of the sympathetic nervous system.
The most common initial symptom is hypertension, which can be either sustained or paroxysmal. Other symptoms tend to be intermittent and can occur frequently or infrequently. As the disease progresses, these symptoms usually become more severe and frequent.
In addition to hypertension, patients with phaeochromocytoma may experience the following clinical features: headache, profuse sweating, palpitations or rapid heartbeat, tremors, fever, nausea and vomiting, anxiety and panic attacks, a sense of impending doom, epigastric or flank pain, constipation, hypertensive retinopathy, postural hypotension due to volume contraction, cardiomyopathy, and café au lait spots.
To confirm a suspected diagnosis of phaeochromocytoma, elevated levels of metanephrines (catecholamine metabolites) can be measured in the blood or urine. This can be done through methods such as a 24-hour urine collection for free catecholamines, vanillylmandelic acid (VMA), and metanephrines, high-performance liquid chromatography for catecholamines in plasma and/or urine, or radioimmunoassay (RIA) for urinary/plasma metanephrines.
Once the diagnosis of phaeochromocytoma is biochemically confirmed, imaging methods can be used to locate the tumor. The first imaging modality to be used is a CT scan, which has an overall sensitivity of 89%. An MRI scan is the most sensitive modality for identifying the tumor, especially in cases of extra-adrenal tumors or metastatic disease, with an overall sensitivity of 98%. In cases where CT or MRI does not show a tumor, a nuclear medicine scan such as MIBG scintigraphy can be useful.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman has been brought into the Emergency Department, experiencing seizures that have lasted for 15 minutes before her arrival. On arrival, she is still having a tonic-clonic seizure. She is known to be homeless and has a long history of alcohol abuse. The paramedics administered a single dose of rectal diazepam on the way, approximately 12 minutes ago. Her vital signs are as follows: HR 110, BP 100/60, SaO2 98% on high flow oxygen, temperature is 37.2°C.
Which of the following medications would be most appropriate to administer next?Your Answer: Intravenous thiamine
Explanation:Status epilepticus is a condition characterized by continuous seizure activity lasting for 5 minutes or more without the return of consciousness, or recurrent seizures (2 or more) without a period of neurological recovery in between. In this particular patient’s case, his history of chronic alcohol abuse, homelessness, and likely impaired nutrition necessitates the administration of intravenous thiamine in the form of Pabrinex. Additionally, a second dose of benzodiazepine should be given, and his blood glucose levels should be urgently checked.
The management of status epilepticus involves several general measures, which are outlined in the following table:
1st stage (Early status, 0-10 minutes):
– Secure the airway and provide resuscitation
– Administer oxygen
– Assess cardiorespiratory function
– Establish intravenous access2nd stage (0-30 minutes):
– Implement regular monitoring
– Consider the possibility of non-epileptic status
– Initiate emergency antiepileptic drug (AED) therapy
– Perform emergency investigations
– Administer glucose (50 ml of 50% solution) and/or intravenous thiamine as Pabrinex if there are indications of alcohol abuse or impaired nutrition
– Treat severe acidosis if present3rd stage (0-60 minutes):
– Determine the underlying cause of status epilepticus
– Notify the anaesthetist and intensive care unit (ITU)
– Identify and treat any medical complications
– Consider pressor therapy when appropriate4th stage (30-90 minutes):
– Transfer the patient to the intensive care unit
– Establish intensive care and EEG monitoring
– Initiate intracranial pressure monitoring if necessary
– Start initial long-term, maintenance AED therapyEmergency investigations include blood tests for gases, glucose, renal and liver function, calcium and magnesium levels, full blood count (including platelets), blood clotting, and AED drug levels. Serum and urine samples should be saved for future analysis, including toxicology if the cause of convulsive status epilepticus is uncertain. A chest radiograph may be performed to evaluate the possibility of aspiration. Additional investigations, such as brain imaging or lumbar puncture, depend on the clinical circumstances.
Monitoring during the management of status epilepticus involves regular neurological observations and measurements of pulse, blood pressure, and temperature.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A patient is experiencing upper gastrointestinal bleeding after receiving heparin. You determine that protamine sulfate should be used to reverse the anticoagulation. How much protamine sulfate is needed to neutralize 200 IU of heparin?
Your Answer: 4 mg
Correct Answer: 2 mg
Explanation:Protamine sulphate is a potent base that forms a stable salt complex with heparin, an acidic substance. This complex renders heparin inactive, making protamine sulphate a useful tool for neutralizing the effects of heparin. Additionally, protamine sulphate can be used to reverse the effects of LMWHs, although it is not as effective, providing only about two-thirds of the relative effect.
It is important to note that protamine sulphate also possesses its own weak intrinsic anticoagulant effect. This effect is believed to stem from its ability to inhibit the formation and activity of thromboplastin.
When administering protamine sulphate, it is typically done through slow intravenous injection. The dosage should be adjusted based on the amount of heparin that needs to be neutralized, the time that has passed since heparin administration, and the aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time). As a general guideline, 1 mg of protamine can neutralize 100 IU of heparin. However, it is crucial to adhere to a maximum adult dose of 50 mg within a 10-minute period.
It is worth mentioning that protamine sulphate can have some adverse effects. It acts as a myocardial depressant, potentially leading to bradycardia (slow heart rate) and hypotension (low blood pressure). These effects may arise due to complement activation and leukotriene release.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 8
Correct
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You evaluate a 42-year-old woman with a history of Sjögren’s syndrome. She has undergone a series of liver function tests, and the results are as follows:
Bilirubin: 18 mmol (3-20)
ALT: 38 IU/L (5-40)
ALP: 356 IU/L (20-140)
IgM: 4.0 g/L (0.5-2.5)
pANCA: negative
cANCA: negative
ANA: positive
SMA: negative
Antimitochondrial antibodies: positive
Currently, she is asymptomatic, and her Sjögren’s syndrome is well managed with hydroxychloroquine.
What is the most likely diagnosis in this case?Your Answer: Primary biliary cirrhosis
Explanation:This patient has been diagnosed with primary biliary cirrhosis (PBC). PBC is a liver disease caused by an autoimmune response, leading to the progressive destruction of the small bile ducts in the liver. The damage primarily affects the intralobular ducts. As a result, the patient experiences cholestatic jaundice, followed by liver fibrosis and cirrhosis. PBC is more common in females, with 90% of patients being women. It typically occurs between the ages of 30 and 65. Liver function tests show elevated levels of alkaline phosphatase (ALP), often before any symptoms appear. Antimitochondrial antibodies are positive in 95% of cases. Around 50% of patients have smooth muscle antibodies (SMA), and approximately 20% have antinuclear antibodies (ANA). IgM levels are raised in over 80% of cases.
Autoimmune hepatitis is liver inflammation caused by a decrease in regulatory T-cells (Treg cells), leading to the production of autoantibodies against hepatocyte surface antigens. It mainly affects women (70%) between the ages of 15 and 40. The condition causes chronic, progressive hepatitis, which eventually progresses to cirrhosis. Patients typically present with non-specific symptoms of malaise, although in some cases, the disease may be more advanced, resulting in jaundice and severe illness. In later stages, liver function tests show significantly elevated levels of transaminases (ALT and AST), often exceeding ten times the normal range. Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) levels are usually normal or slightly elevated. Antinuclear antibodies (ANA) are positive in approximately 80% of cases, while smooth muscle antibodies (SMA) are positive in around 70% of cases. Antimitochondrial antibodies are typically low or absent.
Primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC) is a condition that causes progressive inflammation and obstruction of the bile ducts. It is characterized by recurrent episodes of cholangitis and the gradual scarring of the bile ducts. PSC can eventually lead to liver cirrhosis, liver failure, and hepatocellular carcinoma. There is a known association between PSC and ulcerative colitis, with over 80% of PSC patients also having ulcerative colitis.
Hepatic damage caused by hydroxychloroquine is extremely rare.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 68 year old male attends the emergency department with a member of staff from his nursing home who is concerned that the patient has had diarrhea for the past 2 days. The patient complains of cramping pains to the lower abdomen. The carer tells you the patient has been having frequent episodes of watery foul smelling diarrhea. There is no associated vomiting and no blood in the stool. You note the patient has recently completed a 5 day course of amoxicillin for a respiratory infection that failed to resolve with a 3 day course of azithromycin treatment. The patient's regular medications are:
Lansoprazole 30 mg once daily
Acetaminophen 1g four times daily
Ibuprofen 400 mg three times daily as required for joint pain
On examination the patient's abdomen is soft with some tenderness on deep palpation of the lower quadrants but no guarding or rigidity. The patient's observations are shown below:
Temperature 37.3ºC
Blood pressure 144/84 mmHg
Pulse 88 bpm
Respiratory rate 18 bpm
Oxygen saturations 97% on air
What organism is most likely to be causing this patient's symptoms?Your Answer: Clostridium difficile
Explanation:This patient is showing signs and symptoms that align with a C.diff infection. They also have several risk factors that increase their likelihood of developing this infection, including being over the age of 65, residing in a nursing home or being hospitalized for an extended period, recent use of antibiotics, and regular use of PPI medication.
Further Reading:
Clostridium difficile (C.diff) is a gram positive rod commonly found in hospitals. Some strains of C.diff produce exotoxins that can cause intestinal damage, leading to pseudomembranous colitis. This infection can range from mild diarrhea to severe illness. Antibiotic-associated diarrhea is often caused by C.diff, with 20-30% of cases being attributed to this bacteria. Antibiotics such as clindamycin, cephalosporins, fluoroquinolones, and broad-spectrum penicillins are frequently associated with C.diff infection.
Clinical features of C.diff infection include diarrhea, distinctive smell, abdominal pain, raised white blood cell count, and in severe cases, toxic megacolon. In some severe cases, diarrhea may be absent due to the infection causing paralytic ileus. Diagnosis is made by detecting Clostridium difficile toxin (CDT) in the stool. There are two types of exotoxins produced by C.diff, toxin A and toxin B, which cause mucosal damage and the formation of a pseudomembrane in the colon.
Risk factors for developing C.diff infection include age over 65, antibiotic treatment, previous C.diff infection, exposure to infected individuals, proton pump inhibitor or H2 receptor antagonist use, prolonged hospitalization or residence in a nursing home, and chronic disease or immunosuppression. Complications of C.diff infection can include toxic megacolon, colon perforation, sepsis, and even death, especially in frail elderly individuals.
Management of C.diff infection involves stopping the causative antibiotic if possible, optimizing hydration with IV fluids if necessary, and assessing the severity of the infection. Treatment options vary based on severity, ranging from no antibiotics for mild cases to vancomycin or fidaxomicin for moderate cases, and hospital protocol antibiotics (such as oral vancomycin with IV metronidazole) for severe or life-threatening cases. Severe cases may require admission under gastroenterology or GI surgeons.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old woman is prescribed haloperidol for a psychiatric condition in the 2nd-trimester of her pregnancy. As a result of this treatment, the newborn develops a malformation.
Which of the following malformations is the most likely to occur as a result of using this medication during pregnancy?Your Answer: Haemorrhagic disease of the newborn
Correct Answer: Extrapyramidal syndrome
Explanation:Haloperidol, when administered during the third trimester of pregnancy, can lead to extrapyramidal symptoms in the newborn. These symptoms may include agitation, poor feeding, excessive sleepiness, and difficulty breathing. The severity of these side effects can vary, with some infants requiring intensive care and extended hospital stays. It is important to closely monitor exposed neonates for signs of extrapyramidal syndrome or withdrawal. Haloperidol should only be used during pregnancy if the benefits clearly outweigh the risks to the fetus.
Below is a list outlining commonly encountered drugs that have adverse effects during pregnancy:
ACE inhibitors (e.g. ramipril): If given during the second and third trimesters, these drugs can cause hypoperfusion, renal failure, and the oligohydramnios sequence.
Aminoglycosides (e.g. gentamicin): These drugs can cause ototoxicity and deafness in the fetus.
Aspirin: High doses of aspirin can lead to first-trimester abortions, delayed onset of labor, premature closure of the fetal ductus arteriosus, and fetal kernicterus. However, low doses (e.g. 75 mg) do not pose significant risks.
Benzodiazepines (e.g. diazepam): When administered late in pregnancy, these drugs can cause respiratory depression and a neonatal withdrawal syndrome.
Calcium-channel blockers: If given during the first trimester, these drugs can cause phalangeal abnormalities. If given during the second and third trimesters, they can result in fetal growth retardation.
Carbamazepine: This drug can lead to hemorrhagic disease of the newborn and neural tube defects.
Chloramphenicol: Administration of chloramphenicol can cause gray baby syndrome in newborns.
Corticosteroids: If given during the first trimester, corticosteroids may cause orofacial clefts in the fetus.
Danazol: When administered during the first trimester, danazol can cause masculinization of the female fetuses genitals.
Finasteride: Pregnant women should avoid handling finasteride as crushed or broken tablets can be absorbed through the skin and affect male sex organ development.
Haloperidol: If given during the first trimester, haloperidol may cause limb malformations. If given during the third trimester, there is an increased risk of extrapyramidal symptoms in the neonate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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