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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 35 year old male is seen in clinic with depression. He has no past psychiatric history and has never self-harmed. He denies suicidal ideation. He is commenced on citalopram. After what period of time do NICE guidelines suggest he is reviewed?
Your Answer: 1 week
Correct Answer: 2 weeks
Explanation:Depression Treatment Guidelines by NICE
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) provides guidelines for the treatment of depression. The following are some general recommendations:
– Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are preferred when prescribing antidepressants.
– Antidepressants are not the first-line treatment for mild depression.
– After remission, continue antidepressant treatment for at least six months.
– Continue treatment for at least two years if at high risk of relapse of have a history of severe or prolonged episodes of inadequate response.
– Use a stepped care approach to depression treatment, starting at the appropriate level based on the severity of depression.The stepped care approach involves the following steps:
– Step 1: Assessment, support, psychoeducation, active monitoring, and referral for further assessment and interventions.
– Step 2: Low-intensity psychosocial interventions, psychological interventions, medication, and referral for further assessment and interventions.
– Step 3: Medication, high-intensity psychological interventions, combined treatments, collaborative care, and referral for further assessment and interventions.
– Step 4: Medication, high-intensity psychological interventions, electroconvulsive therapy, crisis service, combined treatments, multiprofessional and inpatient care.Individual guided self-help programs based on cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) principles should be supported by a trained practitioner and last 9 to 12 weeks. Physical activity programs should consist of three sessions per week of moderate duration over 10 to 14 weeks.
NICE advises against using antidepressants routinely to treat persistent subthreshold depressive symptoms of mild depression. However, they may be considered for people with a past history of moderate or severe depression, initial presentation of subthreshold depressive symptoms that have been present for a long period, of subthreshold depressive symptoms of mild depression that persist after other interventions.
NICE recommends a combination of antidepressant medication and a high-intensity psychological intervention (CBT of interpersonal therapy) for people with moderate of severe depression. Augmentation of antidepressants with lithium, antipsychotics, of other antidepressants may be appropriate, but benzodiazepines, buspirone, carbamazepine, lamotrigine, of valproate should not be routinely used.
When considering different antidepressants, venlafaxine is associated with a greater risk of death from overdose compared to other equally effective antidepressants. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) except for lofepramine are associated with the greatest risk in overdose. Higher doses of venlafaxine may exacerbate cardiac arrhythmias, and venlafaxine and duloxetine may exacerbate hypertension. TCAs may cause postural hypotension and arrhythmias, and mianserin requires hematological monitoring in elderly people.
The review frequency depends on the age and suicide risk of the patient. If the patient is over 30 and has no suicide risk, see them after two weeks and then at intervals of 2-4 weeks for the first three months. If the patient is under 30 and has a suicide risk, see them after one week.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 2
Correct
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What is the definition of a condition that involves a decline in memory and at least one other cognitive domain, leading to interference with social and occupational function in an alert individual?
Your Answer: Dementia
Explanation:Dementia: An Overview
Dementia is a syndrome that results in a decline in memory and at least one other cognitive domain, such as language, visuospatial of executive functioning. This decline is significant enough to interfere with social and occupational function in an alert person. The diagnosis of dementia is based on evidence of neurocognitive impairment, which is demonstrated by standardized neuropsychological of cognitive testing. Behavioural changes may also be present, and the symptoms result in significant impairment in personal, family, social, educational, occupational, of other important areas of functioning.
Epidemiology
The total population prevalence of dementia among over 65s is 7.1%, which equals 1.3% of the entire UK population. Alzheimer’s disease is the most common cause of dementia in the UK, followed by vascular and Lewy body dementia. These conditions may coexist. The proportions of dementia severity among people with late-onset dementia are as follows: 55.4% have mild dementia, 32.1% have moderate dementia, and 12.5% have severe dementia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 3
Correct
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A young woman with bipolar disorder who takes lithium has become pregnant. Despite the potential teratogenic effects on the baby, she refuses to stop lithium as it has been the only medication that has effectively managed her symptoms in the past. What course of action would you recommend in this situation?
Your Answer: Continue on the current dose of lithium and monitor monthly until week 36 and then weekly thereafter
Explanation:It is important to take the patient’s wishes into consideration and simply telling her to stop taking lithium is not appropriate. Providing her with all the necessary information and assisting her in making a decision is the best course of action. According to the NICE Guidelines, it is recommended to continue the current dose of lithium and monitor levels monthly until week 36, and then weekly thereafter. It is common for levels to decrease during pregnancy, so adjustments to the dose may be necessary to maintain therapeutic levels.
Bipolar Disorder in Women of Childbearing Potential
Prophylaxis is recommended for women with bipolar disorder, as postpartum relapse rates are high. Women without prophylactic pharmacotherapy during pregnancy have a postpartum relapse rate of 66%, compared to 23% for women with prophylaxis. Antipsychotics are recommended for pregnant women with bipolar disorder, according to NICE Guidelines (CG192) and the Maudsley. Women taking valproate, lithium, carbamazepine, of lamotrigine should discontinue treatment and start an antipsychotic, especially if taking valproate. If a woman with bipolar disorder is taking lithium and becomes pregnant, she should gradually stop lithium over a 4 week period and start an antipsychotic. If this is not possible, lithium levels must be taken regularly, and the dose adjusted accordingly. For acute mania, an antipsychotic should be considered. For mild depressive symptoms, self-help approaches, brief psychological interventions, and antidepressant medication can be considered. For moderate to severe depressive symptoms, psychological treatment (CBT) for moderate depression and combined medication and structured psychological interventions for severe depression should be considered.
Reference: Wesseloo, R., Kamperman, A. M., Munk-Olsen, T., Pop, V. J., Kushner, S. A., & Bergink, V. (2016). Risk of postpartum relapse in bipolar disorder and postpartum psychosis: a systematic review and meta-analysis. The American Journal of Psychiatry, 173(2), 117-127.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 4
Correct
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Which antipsychotic is known to have the most significant impact on the seizure threshold?
Your Answer: Clozapine
Explanation:Psychotropics and Seizure Threshold in People with Epilepsy
People with epilepsy are at an increased risk for various mental health conditions, including depression, anxiety, psychosis, and suicide. It is important to note that the link between epilepsy and mental illness is bidirectional, as patients with mental health conditions also have an increased risk of developing new-onset epilepsy. Psychotropic drugs are often necessary for people with epilepsy, but they can reduce the seizure threshold and increase the risk of seizures. The following tables provide guidance on the seizure risk associated with different classes of antidepressants, antipsychotics, and ADHD medications. It is important to use caution and carefully consider the risks and benefits of these medications when treating people with epilepsy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 5
Incorrect
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Which of the following is an atypical characteristic of paranoid personality disorder?
Your Answer: Reluctance to confide in others
Correct Answer: Indifference to praise and criticism
Explanation:Paranoid Personality Disorder is a type of personality disorder where individuals have a deep-seated distrust and suspicion of others, often interpreting their actions as malevolent. This disorder is characterized by a pattern of negative interpretations of others’ words, actions, and intentions, leading to a reluctance to confide in others and holding grudges for long periods of time. The DSM-5 criteria for this disorder include at least four of the following symptoms: unfounded suspicions of exploitation, harm, of deception by others, preoccupation with doubts about the loyalty of trustworthiness of friends of associates, reluctance to confide in others due to fear of malicious use of information, reading negative meanings into benign remarks of events, persistent grudges, perceiving attacks on one’s character of reputation that are not apparent to others and reacting angrily of counterattacking, and recurrent suspicions of infidelity in a partner without justification. The ICD-11 does not have a specific category for paranoid personality disorder but covers many of its features under the negative affectivity qualifier under the element of mistrustfulness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Which drug interacts with a G-coupled receptor to exert its effects?
Your Answer: Ketamine
Correct Answer: Heroin
Explanation:The mechanism of action of heroin involves attaching to opiate receptors, which are G-coupled. This attachment results in the suppression of cellular activity through stimulation.
Mechanisms of action for illicit drugs can be classified based on their effects on ionotropic receptors of ion channels, G coupled receptors, of monoamine transporters. Cocaine and amphetamine both increase dopamine levels in the synaptic cleft, but through different mechanisms. Cocaine directly blocks the dopamine transporter, while amphetamine binds to the transporter and increases dopamine efflux through various mechanisms, including inhibition of vesicular monoamine transporter 2 and monoamine oxidase, and stimulation of the intracellular receptor TAAR1. These mechanisms result in increased dopamine levels in the synaptic cleft and reuptake inhibition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 7
Correct
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Under what circumstances has SPECT demonstrated a decrease in D2 receptor density?
Your Answer: Lewy body dementia
Explanation:The neuroleptic sensitivity observed in Lewy body dementia could be attributed to the decreased density of dopamine receptors found in the condition.
Dementia is a condition that can be diagnosed and supported with the use of neuroimaging techniques. In Alzheimer’s disease, MRI and CT scans are used to assess volume changes in specific areas of the brain, such as the mesial temporal lobe and temporoparietal cortex. SPECT and PET scans can also show functional changes, such as hypoperfusion and glucose hypometabolism. Vascular dementia can be detected with CT and MRI scans that show atrophy, infarcts, and white matter lesions, while SPECT scans reveal a patchy multifocal pattern of hypoperfusion. Lewy body dementia tends to show nonspecific and subtle changes on structural imaging, but SPECT and PET scans can reveal posterior deficits and reduced D2 receptor density. Frontotemporal dementia is characterized by frontal lobe atrophy, which can be seen on CT and MRI scans, while SPECT scans show anterior perfusion deficits. NICE recommends the use of MRI for early diagnosis and detection of subcortical vascular changes, SPECT for differentiating between Alzheimer’s disease, vascular dementia, and frontotemporal dementia, and DaTscan for establishing a diagnosis of dementia with Lewy bodies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 8
Incorrect
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What tool is utilized to assess for the presence of personality disorder?
Your Answer: PCL-R
Correct Answer: IPDE
Explanation:There are several screening tools available for personality disorder, including SAPAS, FFMRF, IPDE, PDQ-R, IPDS, and IIP-PD. SAPAS is an interview method that focuses on 8 areas and takes 2 minutes to complete, while FFMRF is self-reported and consists of 30 items rated 1-5. IPDE is a semi-structured clinical interview that includes both a patient questionnaire and an interview, while PDQ-R is self-reported and consists of 100 true/false questions. IPDS is an interview method that consists of 11 criteria and takes less than 5 minutes, while IIP-PD is self-reported and contains 127 items rated 0-4. A score of 3 of more on SAPAS warrants further assessment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Forensic Psychiatry
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Question 9
Incorrect
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What is the average suicide rate in the general population of England?
Your Answer: 5 in 100
Correct Answer: 1 in 10,000
Explanation:The suicide rate for mental health service users in England is ten times higher than the average suicide rate for the general population, with 1 in 1000 individuals taking their own lives.
2021 National Confidential Inquiry into Suicide and Safety in Mental Health (NCISH) report reveals key findings on suicide rates in the UK from 2008-2018. The rates have remained stable over the years, with a slight increase following the 2008 recession and another rise since 2015/2016. Approximately 27% of all general population suicides were patients who had contact with mental health services within 12 months of suicide. The most common methods of suicide were hanging/strangulation (52%) and self-poisoning (22%), mainly through prescription opioids. In-patient suicides have continued to decrease, with most of them occurring on the ward itself from low lying ligature points. The first three months after discharge remain a high-risk period, with 13% of all patient suicides occurring within this time frame. Nearly half (48%) of patient suicides were from patients who lived alone. In England, suicide rates are higher in males (17.2 per 100,000) than females (5.4 per 100,000), with the highest age-specific suicide rate for males in the 45-49 years age group (27.1 deaths per 100,000 males) and for females in the same age group (9.2 deaths per 100,000). Hanging remains the most common method of suicide in the UK, accounting for 59.4% of all suicides among males and 45.0% of all suicides among females.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 10
Correct
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In the initial phases of Parkinson's disease, what type of hallucinations are more commonly observed?
Your Answer: Passage hallucinations
Explanation:Parkinson’s Disease: Presentation, Aetiology, Medical Treatment, and Psychiatric Aspects
Parkinson’s disease is a degenerative disease of the brain that is characterised by motor symptoms such as rigidity, bradykinesia, and tremor. It has a long prodromal phase and early symptoms generally present asymmetrically. The tremor associated with Parkinson’s disease is classically described as ‘pill rolling’. The principle abnormality is the degeneration of dopaminergic neurons in the pars compacta of the substantia nigra, which leads to an accumulation of alpha-synuclein in these abnormal dopaminergic cells. The majority of cases of Parkinson’s disease are idiopathic, but single gene mutations occur in a minority of cases. Pesticide, herbicide, and heavy metal exposures are linked to an increased risk of Parkinson’s disease in some epidemiologic studies, whereas smoking and caffeine use are associated with decreased risks.
Treatment for Parkinson’s disease predominantly focuses on symptomatic relief with drugs aiming to either restore the level of dopamine in the striatum of to act on striatal postsynaptic dopamine receptors. However, as dopamine is not the only neurotransmitter involved in Parkinson’s disease, many other drugs are also being used to target specific symptoms, such as depression of dementia. Psychiatric symptoms are common in Parkinson’s disease and range from mild to severe. Factors associated with severe symptoms include age, sleep disturbance, dementia, and disease severity. Hallucinations are common in Parkinson’s disease and tend to be visual but can be auditory of tactile. In the majority of patients, psychotic symptoms are thought to be secondary to dopaminergic medication rather than due to the Parkinson’s disease itself. Anticholinergics and dopamine agonists seem to be associated with a higher risk of inducing psychosis than levodopa of catechol-O-methyltransferase inhibitors. Medications used for psychotic symptoms may worsen movement problems. Risperidone and the typicals should be avoided completely. Low dose quetiapine is the best tolerated. Clozapine is the most effective antipsychotic drug for treating psychosis in Parkinson’s disease but its use in clinical practice is limited by the need for monitoring and the additional physical risks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 11
Correct
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A 35-year-old man repeatedly visits his GP due to distress over his physical appearance. He believes that his ears are too large and this causes him to constantly check his appearance in the mirror and consider ear surgery. Upon examination, there is no obvious physical abnormality of his ears. You determine that his beliefs are overvalued ideas rather than delusional and there is no evidence of depression.
What would be your recommended approach for managing his concerns?Your Answer: Fluvoxamine + CBT
Explanation:Referral for surgical correction of the deformity is not advisable as it may not address the underlying issue of non-delusional body dysmorphic disorder and the patient may shift their focus to another body part. Instead, treatment options such as SSRIs, clomipramine, and CBT should be considered. Antipsychotics may be more appropriate for delusional BDD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 12
Incorrect
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What database is most suitable for finding scholarly material that has not undergone official publication?
Your Answer: EMBASE
Correct Answer: SIGLE
Explanation:SIGLE is a database that contains unpublished of ‘grey’ literature, while CINAHL is a database that focuses on healthcare and biomedical journal articles. The Cochrane Library is a collection of databases that includes the Cochrane Reviews, which are systematic reviews and meta-analyses of medical research. EMBASE is a pharmacological and biomedical database, and PsycINFO is a database of abstracts from psychological literature that is created by the American Psychological Association.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 13
Correct
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Based on the AUCs shown below, which screening test had the highest overall performance in differentiating between the presence of absence of bulimia?
Test - AUC
Test 1 - 0.42
Test 2 - 0.95
Test 3 - 0.82
Test 4 - 0.11
Test 5 - 0.67Your Answer: Test 2
Explanation:Understanding ROC Curves and AUC Values
ROC (receiver operating characteristic) curves are graphs used to evaluate the effectiveness of a test in distinguishing between two groups, such as those with and without a disease. The curve plots the true positive rate against the false positive rate at different threshold settings. The goal is to find the best trade-off between sensitivity and specificity, which can be adjusted by changing the threshold. AUC (area under the curve) is a measure of the overall performance of the test, with higher values indicating better accuracy. The conventional grading of AUC values ranges from excellent to fail. ROC curves and AUC values are useful in evaluating diagnostic and screening tools, comparing different tests, and studying inter-observer variability.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 14
Correct
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What is an unlikely finding in the blood test results of a patient with anorexia?
Your Answer: Low cortisol
Explanation:Anorexia is marked by prolonged hypercortisolism, with increased levels of free cortisol in both the plasma and CSF. Dexamethasone typically fails to suppress cortisol in individuals with anorexia.
Eating Disorders: Lab Findings and Medical Complications
Eating disorders can lead to a range of medical complications, including renal failure, peripheral edema, sinus bradycardia, QT-prolongation, pericardial effusion, and slowed GI motility. Other complications include constipation, cathartic colon, esophageal esophagitis, hair loss, and dental erosion. Blood abnormalities are also common in patients with eating disorders, including hyponatremia, hypokalemia, hypophosphatemia, and hypoglycemia. Additionally, patients may experience leucopenia, anemia, low albumin, elevated liver enzymes, and vitamin deficiencies. These complications can cause significant morbidity and mortality in patients with eating disorders. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor patients for these complications and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 15
Correct
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What is the recommended duration for a therapeutic trial of methylphenidate of lisdexamfetamine?
Your Answer: 6 weeks
Explanation:ADHD (Diagnosis and Management in Children)
ADHD is a behavioural syndrome characterised by symptoms of inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsivity. The DSM-5 and ICD-11 provide diagnostic criteria for the condition, with both recognising three subtypes: predominantly inattentive, predominantly hyperactive-impulsive, and combined.
Treatment for children under 5 involves offering an ADHD-focused group parent-training programme as a first-line option. Medication should only be considered after obtaining advice from a specialist ADHD service. For children and young people aged 5-18, advice and support should be given, along with an ADHD-focused group parent-training programme. Medication should only be offered if ADHD symptoms persist after environmental modifications have been implemented and reviewed. Cognitive behavioural therapy may also be considered for those who have benefited from medication but still experience significant impairment.
NICE advises against elimination diets, dietary fatty acid supplementation, and the use of the ‘few foods diet’. Methylphenidate of lisdexamfetamine is the first-line medication option, with dexamphetamine considered for those who respond to lisdexamfetamine but cannot tolerate the longer effect profile. Atomoxetine of guanfacine may be offered for those who cannot tolerate methylphenidate of lisdexamfetamine. Clonidine and atypical antipsychotics should only be used with advice from a tertiary ADHD service.
Drug holidays may be considered for children and young people who have not met the expected height for their age due to medication. However, NICE advises that withdrawal from treatment is associated with a risk of symptom exacerbation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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Question 16
Correct
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Which of the following is not typically linked to conduct disorder?
Your Answer: Social phobia
Explanation:ADHD, depression, learning disabilities, substance misuse, psychosis, and autism are frequently observed alongside conduct disorders.
Disruptive Behaviour of Dissocial Disorders
Conduct disorders are the most common reason for referral of young children to mental health services. These disorders are characterized by a repetitive and persistent pattern of antisocial, aggressive, of defiant conduct that goes beyond ordinary childish mischief of adolescent rebelliousness. Oppositional defiant disorder (ODD) shares some negative attributes but in a more limited fashion.
ICD-11 terms the disorder as ‘Conduct-dissocial disorder’, while DSM-5 recognizes three separate conditions related to emotional/behavioral problems seen in younger people: conduct disorder, oppositional defiant disorder, and intermittent explosive disorder. Conduct disorder is about poorly controlled behavior, intermittent explosive disorder is about poorly controlled emotions, and ODD is in between. Conduct disorders are further divided into childhood onset (before 10 years) and adolescent onset (10 years of older).
The behavior pattern of conduct disorders must be persistent and recurrent, including multiple incidents of aggression towards people of animals, destruction of property, deceitfulness of theft, and serious violations of rules. The pattern of behavior must result in significant impairment in personal, family, social, educational, occupational, of other important areas of functioning.
Oppositional defiant disorder represents a less severe form of conduct disorder, where there is an absence of more severe dissocial of aggressive acts. The behavior pattern of ODD includes persistent difficulty getting along with others, provocative, spiteful, of vindictive behavior, and extreme irritability of anger.
The prevalence of conduct disorders increases throughout childhood and is more common in boys than girls. The most frequent comorbid problem seen with conduct disorder is hyperactivity. The conversion rate from childhood conduct disorder to adult antisocial personality disorder varies from 40 to 70% depending on the study.
NICE recommends group parent-based training programs of parent and child training programs for children with complex needs for ages 3-11, child-focused programs for ages 9-14, and multimodal interventions with a family focus for ages 11-17. Medication is not recommended in routine practice, but risperidone can be used where other approaches fail and they are seriously aggressive.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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Question 17
Incorrect
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You record the age of all of your students in your class. You notice that your data set is skewed. What method would you use to describe the typical age of your students?
Your Answer: Interquartile range
Correct Answer: Median
Explanation:When dealing with a data set that is quantitative and measured on a ratio scale, the mean is typically the preferred measure of central tendency. However, if the data is skewed, the median may be a better choice as it is less affected by the skewness of the data.
Measures of Central Tendency
Measures of central tendency are used in descriptive statistics to summarize the middle of typical value of a data set. There are three common measures of central tendency: the mean, median, and mode.
The median is the middle value in a data set that has been arranged in numerical order. It is not affected by outliers and is used for ordinal data. The mode is the most frequent value in a data set and is used for categorical data. The mean is calculated by adding all the values in a data set and dividing by the number of values. It is sensitive to outliers and is used for interval and ratio data.
The appropriate measure of central tendency depends on the measurement scale of the data. For nominal and categorical data, the mode is used. For ordinal data, the median of mode is used. For interval data with a normal distribution, the mean is preferable, but the median of mode can also be used. For interval data with skewed distribution, the median is used. For ratio data, the mean is preferable, but the median of mode can also be used for skewed data.
In addition to measures of central tendency, the range is also used to describe the spread of a data set. It is calculated by subtracting the smallest value from the largest value.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 18
Correct
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On which principle does the Id operate?
Your Answer: Pleasure
Explanation:Freud’s Structural Theory: Understanding the Three Areas of the Mind
According to Freud’s structural model, the human mind is divided into three distinct areas: the Id, the Ego, and the Superego. The Id is the part of the mind that contains instinctive drives and operates on the ‘pleasure principle’. It functions without a sense of time and is governed by ‘primary process thinking’. The Ego, on the other hand, attempts to modify the drives from the Id with external reality. It operates on the ‘reality principle’ and has conscious, preconscious, and unconscious aspects. It is also home to the defense mechanisms. Finally, the Superego acts as a critical agency, constantly observing a person’s behavior. Freud believed that it developed from the internalized values of a child’s main caregivers. The Superego contains the ‘ego ideal’, which represents ideal attitudes and behavior. It is often referred to as the conscience. Understanding these three areas of the mind is crucial to understanding Freud’s structural theory.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychotherapy
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Question 19
Correct
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What is a true statement about the NICE Guidelines for rTMS?
Your Answer: rTMS shows no major safety concerns
Explanation:According to NICE 2015, there are no significant safety issues associated with repetitive transcranial magnetic stimulation for depression. While the evidence for its effectiveness in the short-term is sufficient, the clinical response may vary. Therefore, it is acceptable to use this treatment with standard clinical governance and monitoring procedures.
Neurostimulation is a treatment that uses electromagnetic energy targeted at the brain. There are several forms of neurostimulation, including TMS, deep brain stimulation, and ECT. TMS is a non-invasive, non-convulsive technique used to stimulate neural tissue. It involves the placement of an electromagnetic coil on the patient’s scalp to deliver a short, powerful magnetic field pulse through the scalp and induce electric current in the brain. TMS is used to treat depression when standard treatments have failed. Deep brain stimulation is a neurosurgical technique that involves placing an electrode within the brain to deliver a high-frequency current in a specific subcortical of deep cortical structure. It has been used to treat Parkinson’s, dysthymia, OCD, and Tourette syndrome. There is RCT evidence to demonstrate its effectiveness in OCD, but conflicting results in depression and Tourette’s. DBS is also being trailed in other conditions such as anorexia, bipolar, and additions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Organisation And Delivery Of Psychiatric Services
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Question 20
Correct
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What is the term used to describe the scarring on the knuckles of a young lady with an eating disorder that you observed during an outpatient visit?
Your Answer: Russell's sign
Explanation:Battle’s sign is a clinical indicator of a basal skull fracture, while Babinski’s sign is indicative of an upper motor neuron lesion. Hoover’s sign is a sign of non-organic paralysis of the leg. Kernig’s sign is a clinical indicator of meningeal irritation.
Skin Changes in Anorexia Nervosa
Anorexia nervosa is an eating disorder characterized by a distorted body image and an intense fear of gaining weight. In addition to the physical effects of malnutrition, anorexia can also cause various skin changes. These changes include xerosis of dry skin, cheilitis of inflammation of the lips, gingivitis of inflammation of the gums, hypertrichiosis of excess hair growth in areas that do not normally have hair, hyperpigmentation, Russell’s sign of scarring on knuckles and back of hand, carotenoderma of yellow/orange skin color, acne, nail changes, acrocyanosis of persistent blue, cyanotic discoloration of the digits, and seborrheic dermatitis. These skin changes can be a sign of underlying malnutrition and should be addressed as part of the treatment plan for anorexia nervosa.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 21
Correct
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What is the average suicide rate in the UK population?
Your Answer: 1 in 10,000
Explanation:The suicide rate in England is typically 1 in 10,000, while for individuals who use mental health services in England, the suicide rate is 1 in 1000.
2021 National Confidential Inquiry into Suicide and Safety in Mental Health (NCISH) report reveals key findings on suicide rates in the UK from 2008-2018. The rates have remained stable over the years, with a slight increase following the 2008 recession and another rise since 2015/2016. Approximately 27% of all general population suicides were patients who had contact with mental health services within 12 months of suicide. The most common methods of suicide were hanging/strangulation (52%) and self-poisoning (22%), mainly through prescription opioids. In-patient suicides have continued to decrease, with most of them occurring on the ward itself from low lying ligature points. The first three months after discharge remain a high-risk period, with 13% of all patient suicides occurring within this time frame. Nearly half (48%) of patient suicides were from patients who lived alone. In England, suicide rates are higher in males (17.2 per 100,000) than females (5.4 per 100,000), with the highest age-specific suicide rate for males in the 45-49 years age group (27.1 deaths per 100,000 males) and for females in the same age group (9.2 deaths per 100,000). Hanging remains the most common method of suicide in the UK, accounting for 59.4% of all suicides among males and 45.0% of all suicides among females.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 22
Correct
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A medical colleague contacts you for advice regarding the management of a teenage patient with HIV. You have previously looked after this patient due to her having borderline personality disorder and mania. The patient has a long history of self-harm and remains at high risk of suicide. Which of the following antiretrovirals would you suggest your colleague specifically avoid in this case?:
Your Answer: Efavirenz
Explanation:For exams, it is important to be aware that Efavirenz, an antiretroviral, has been associated with both mania and fatal suicide.
HIV and Mental Health: Understanding the Relationship and Treatment Options
Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is a blood-borne virus that causes cellular immune deficiency, resulting in a decrease in the number of CD4+ T-cells. People with severe mental illness are at increased risk of contracting and transmitting HIV, and the prevalence of HIV infection among them is higher than in the general population. Antiretroviral drugs are used to manage HIV, but they are not curative.
Depression is the most common mental disorder in the HIV population, and it can result from HIV of the psycho-social consequences of having the condition. HIV-associated neurocognitive disorder (HAND) is the umbrella term for the spectrum of neurocognitive impairment induced by HIV, ranging from mild impairment through to dementia. Poor episodic memory is the most frequently reported cognitive difficulty in HIV-positive individuals.
Treatment options for mental health issues in people with HIV include atypical antipsychotics for psychosis, SSRIs for depression and anxiety, valproate for bipolar disorder, and antiretroviral therapy for HAND. It is important to avoid benzodiazepines for delirium and MAOIs for depression. Understanding the relationship between HIV and mental health and providing appropriate treatment options can improve the quality of life for people living with HIV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A teenager complains that her boyfriend is extremely conceited, believes he is the center of the universe, and will go to any lengths to achieve his desires. What personality disorder is he most likely suffering from?
Your Answer: Histrionic personality disorder
Correct Answer: Narcissistic personality disorder
Explanation:The inclination to prioritize one’s own desires over others, regardless of the consequences, is a shared characteristic of both antisocial and narcissistic personality disorders. Nevertheless, the conceitedness and exaggerated belief in one’s own significance are particularly indicative of narcissistic personality disorder.
Personality Disorder (Narcissistic)
Narcissistic personality disorder is a mental illness characterized by individuals having an exaggerated sense of their own importance, an intense need for excessive attention and admiration, troubled relationships, and a lack of empathy towards others. The DSM-5 diagnostic manual outlines the criteria for this disorder, which includes a pervasive pattern of grandiosity, a need for admiration, and a lack of empathy. To be diagnosed with this disorder, an individual must exhibit at least five of the following traits: a grandiose sense of self-importance, preoccupation with fantasies of unlimited success, belief in being special and unique, excessive admiration requirements, a sense of entitlement, interpersonal exploitation, lack of empathy, envy towards others, and arrogant of haughty behaviors. While the previous version of the ICD included narcissistic personality disorder, the ICD-11 does not have a specific reference to this condition, but it can be coded under the category of general personality disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 24
Correct
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Based on the NICE Guidelines, which factor is linked to a greater likelihood of experiencing discontinuation symptoms?
Your Answer: Paroxetine
Explanation:According to NICE, paroxetine has a greater likelihood of causing discontinuation symptoms compared to other SSRIs.
Depression Treatment Guidelines by NICE
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) provides guidelines for the treatment of depression. The following are some general recommendations:
– Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are preferred when prescribing antidepressants.
– Antidepressants are not the first-line treatment for mild depression.
– After remission, continue antidepressant treatment for at least six months.
– Continue treatment for at least two years if at high risk of relapse of have a history of severe or prolonged episodes of inadequate response.
– Use a stepped care approach to depression treatment, starting at the appropriate level based on the severity of depression.The stepped care approach involves the following steps:
– Step 1: Assessment, support, psychoeducation, active monitoring, and referral for further assessment and interventions.
– Step 2: Low-intensity psychosocial interventions, psychological interventions, medication, and referral for further assessment and interventions.
– Step 3: Medication, high-intensity psychological interventions, combined treatments, collaborative care, and referral for further assessment and interventions.
– Step 4: Medication, high-intensity psychological interventions, electroconvulsive therapy, crisis service, combined treatments, multiprofessional and inpatient care.Individual guided self-help programs based on cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) principles should be supported by a trained practitioner and last 9 to 12 weeks. Physical activity programs should consist of three sessions per week of moderate duration over 10 to 14 weeks.
NICE advises against using antidepressants routinely to treat persistent subthreshold depressive symptoms of mild depression. However, they may be considered for people with a past history of moderate or severe depression, initial presentation of subthreshold depressive symptoms that have been present for a long period, of subthreshold depressive symptoms of mild depression that persist after other interventions.
NICE recommends a combination of antidepressant medication and a high-intensity psychological intervention (CBT of interpersonal therapy) for people with moderate of severe depression. Augmentation of antidepressants with lithium, antipsychotics, of other antidepressants may be appropriate, but benzodiazepines, buspirone, carbamazepine, lamotrigine, of valproate should not be routinely used.
When considering different antidepressants, venlafaxine is associated with a greater risk of death from overdose compared to other equally effective antidepressants. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) except for lofepramine are associated with the greatest risk in overdose. Higher doses of venlafaxine may exacerbate cardiac arrhythmias, and venlafaxine and duloxetine may exacerbate hypertension. TCAs may cause postural hypotension and arrhythmias, and mianserin requires hematological monitoring in elderly people.
The review frequency depends on the age and suicide risk of the patient. If the patient is over 30 and has no suicide risk, see them after two weeks and then at intervals of 2-4 weeks for the first three months. If the patient is under 30 and has a suicide risk, see them after one week.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 25
Incorrect
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What surgical procedure would be the most suitable for managing OCD that is unresponsive to other treatments?
Your Answer: Cingulotomy
Correct Answer: Anterior capsulotomy
Explanation:Capsulotomy is a procedure that creates lesions on both sides of the anterior limb of the internal capsule and is commonly used to treat OCD and depression. Cingulotomy is another procedure used to treat refractory anxiety, pain, depression, and OCD. SST is primarily used for depression but can also be used for anxiety and OCD. Limbic leucopathy is a combination of SST and cingulotomy and is used to treat depression, anxiety, and OCD. Although amygdalotomy was originally developed to treat aggression, it is now rarely used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Organisation And Delivery Of Psychiatric Services
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Question 26
Correct
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What does the standardized mortality ratio indicate for individuals with schizophrenia?
Your Answer: 2-Mar
Explanation:Schizophrenia and Mortality
Schizophrenia is associated with a reduced life expectancy, according to a meta-analysis of 37 studies. The analysis found that people with schizophrenia have a mean SMR (standardised mortality ratio) of 2.6, meaning that their risk of dying over the next year is 2.6 times higher than that of people without the condition. Suicide and accidents contribute significantly to the increased SMR, while cardiovascular disease is the leading natural cause of death. SMR decreases with age due to the early peak of suicides and the gradual rise in population mortality. There is no sex difference in SMR, but patients who are unmarried, unemployed, and of lower social class have higher SMRs. The majority of deaths in people with schizophrenia are due to natural causes, with circulatory disease being the most common. Other linked causes include diabetes, epilepsy, and respiratory disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 27
Incorrect
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In a healthy right-handed man, which structure is typically larger in the left hemisphere compared to the right hemisphere?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Planum temporale
Explanation:Cerebral Asymmetry in Planum Temporale and its Implications in Language and Auditory Processing
The planum temporale, a triangular region in the posterior superior temporal gyrus, is a highly lateralized brain structure involved in language and music processing. Studies have shown that the planum temporale is up to ten times larger in the left cerebral hemisphere than the right, with this asymmetry being more prominent in men. This asymmetry can be observed in gestation and is present in up to 70% of right-handed individuals.
Recent research suggests that the planum temporale also plays an important role in auditory processing, specifically in representing the location of sounds in space. However, reduced planum temporale asymmetry has been observed in individuals with dyslexia, stuttering, and schizophrenia. These findings highlight the importance of cerebral asymmetry in the planum temporale and its implications in language and auditory processing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 28
Incorrect
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What is the truth about controlled drugs in the UK?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Controlled drug prescriptions are required for drugs under schedules 2 and 3
Explanation:Drug Misuse (Law and Scheduling)
The Misuse of Drugs Act (1971) regulates the possession and supply of drugs, classifying them into three categories: A, B, and C. The maximum penalty for possession varies depending on the class of drug, with Class A drugs carrying a maximum sentence of 7 years.
The Misuse of Drugs Regulations 2001 further categorizes controlled drugs into five schedules. Schedule 1 drugs are considered to have no therapeutic value and cannot be lawfully possessed of prescribed, while Schedule 2 drugs are available for medical use but require a controlled drug prescription. Schedule 3, 4, and 5 drugs have varying levels of restrictions and requirements.
It is important to note that a single drug can have multiple scheduling statuses, depending on factors such as strength and route of administration. For example, morphine and codeine can be either Schedule 2 of Schedule 5.
Overall, the Misuse of Drugs Act and Regulations aim to regulate and control the use of drugs in the UK, with the goal of reducing drug misuse and related harm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 29
Incorrect
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One of the following statements that describes a type I error is the rejection of a true null hypothesis.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The null hypothesis is rejected when it is true
Explanation:Making a false positive conclusion by rejecting the null hypothesis.
Understanding Hypothesis Testing in Statistics
In statistics, it is not feasible to investigate hypotheses on entire populations. Therefore, researchers take samples and use them to make estimates about the population they are drawn from. However, this leads to uncertainty as there is no guarantee that the sample taken will be truly representative of the population, resulting in potential errors. Statistical hypothesis testing is the process used to determine if claims from samples to populations can be made and with what certainty.
The null hypothesis (Ho) is the claim that there is no real difference between two groups, while the alternative hypothesis (H1 of Ha) suggests that any difference is due to some non-random chance. The alternative hypothesis can be one-tailed of two-tailed, depending on whether it seeks to establish a difference of a change in one direction.
Two types of errors may occur when testing the null hypothesis: Type I and Type II errors. Type I error occurs when the null hypothesis is rejected when it is true, while Type II error occurs when the null hypothesis is accepted when it is false. The power of a study is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false, and it can be increased by increasing the sample size.
P-values provide information on statistical significance and help researchers decide if study results have occurred due to chance. The p-value is the probability of obtaining a result that is as large of larger when in reality there is no difference between two groups. The cutoff for the p-value is called the significance level (alpha level), typically set at 0.05. If the p-value is less than the cutoff, the null hypothesis is rejected, and if it is greater or equal to the cut off, the null hypothesis is not rejected. However, the p-value does not indicate clinical significance, which may be too small to be meaningful.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old woman who is eight months pregnant is referred to you by the obstetrics team at the local hospital. She has previously received treatment from a private eating disorders service.
The obstetrics team are concerned about the well-being of the fetus as her BMI is 15.5 and she is restricting her eating. She seems to have overvalued ideas of being overweight and a fear of fatness.
You share the obstetric team's concern.
What is the most probable outcome for this baby?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Have a low APGAR score
Explanation:Infants born to mothers with anorexia nervosa have significantly lower APGAR scores and birth weights compared to infants born to healthy women. Additionally, mothers with anorexia nervosa have higher rates of caesarean delivery, postnatal complications, and postpartum depression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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