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  • Question 1 - A 26-year-old female patient presents to the gastroenterology clinic for a follow-up appointment...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old female patient presents to the gastroenterology clinic for a follow-up appointment six weeks after being discharged from the hospital due to abdominal symptoms. During her hospital stay, she reported experiencing frequent bloody diarrhea, severe abdominal pain, and a 10 kg weight loss over a period of six weeks. Endoscopy revealed pan-colitis with histological features consistent with Crohn's disease, and a CT scan showed a localized abscess near the proximal colon that required percutaneous drainage and IV antibiotics.

      The patient was treated with IV hydrocortisone followed by a reducing course of prednisolone (initially 40 mg daily, tapered over 8 weeks), which initially improved her symptoms. Azathioprine was also initiated to maintain remission during the weaning of oral steroids. However, the patient reported experiencing recurrent abdominal pains and frequent bloody diarrhea (although less severe than at presentation) when she reduced her prednisolone dose below 15 mg daily. She also reported experiencing pain to the left side of her anus when defecating.

      During the examination, the patient exhibited lower abdominal tenderness without peritonitis features. External examination revealed an ulceration one centimeter lateral to the anus.

      The patient's laboratory results showed a hemoglobin level of 95 g/dL, mean cell volume of 98 fL, white cell count of 16.9 x 10>3/microliter, neutrophils of 12.6 x 10>3/microliter, platelets of 451 x 10>3/microliter, urea of 8.0 mmol/L, creatinine of 97 micromol/L, sodium of 143 mmol/L, potassium of 3.9 mmol/L, and CRP of 125 mg/L.

      What is the most appropriate next line of treatment to induce remission in this 26-year-old female patient?

      Your Answer: Methotrexate

      Correct Answer: Infliximab

      Explanation:

      Crohn’s disease is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that can affect any part of the digestive tract. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published guidelines for managing this condition. Patients are advised to quit smoking, as it can worsen Crohn’s disease. While some studies suggest that NSAIDs and the combined oral contraceptive pill may increase the risk of relapse, the evidence is not conclusive.

      To induce remission, glucocorticoids are typically used, but budesonide may be an alternative for some patients. Enteral feeding with an elemental diet may also be used, especially in young children or when there are concerns about steroid side effects. Second-line options include 5-ASA drugs, such as mesalazine, and add-on medications like azathioprine or mercaptopurine. Infliximab is useful for refractory disease and fistulating Crohn’s, and metronidazole is often used for isolated peri-anal disease.

      Maintaining remission involves stopping smoking and using azathioprine or mercaptopurine as first-line options. Methotrexate is a second-line option. Surgery is eventually required for around 80% of patients with Crohn’s disease, depending on the location and severity of the disease. Complications of Crohn’s disease include small bowel cancer, colorectal cancer, and osteoporosis. Before offering azathioprine or mercaptopurine, it is important to assess thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT) activity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      414.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 35-year-old construction worker presents to the Emergency Department with severe pain in...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old construction worker presents to the Emergency Department with severe pain in his left side and dark urine. He denies fever but reports seeing his primary care physician a few days ago for urinary frequency and burning, and was prescribed trimethoprim which resolved the symptoms. The pain suddenly onset and is so intense that he cannot walk. He also experiences nausea and has vomited twice. The pain radiates to his groin. Vital signs are temperature 37.5°C, blood pressure 120/80 mmHg, pulse rate 100 bpm, and respiratory rate 16 breaths per minute. Physical examination of the chest and heart is normal. The abdomen is soft and non-tender, with no guarding. Analgesia is administered.

      Lab results show:
      - Creatinine (Cr): 90 µmol/l (normal range: 60-110 µmol/l)
      - Urea: 6.0 mmol/l (normal range: 2.5-7.5 mmol/l)
      - Hemoglobin (Hb): 130 g/l (normal range: 135-175 g/l)
      - Potassium (K+): 3.8 mmol/l (normal range: 3.5-5.0 mmol/l)
      - Corrected calcium: 2.50 mmol/l (normal range: 2.2-2.7 mmol/l)
      - White cell count (WCC): 12 × 109/l (normal range: 4.0-11.0 × 109/l)
      - Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR): 15 mm/h (normal range: 1-20 mm/h)

      What is the most appropriate initial treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Hydration

      Explanation:

      Kidney stones can form when there is an excess of calcium, oxalate, or uric acid in the urine, a lack of citrate, or insufficient water in the kidneys to dissolve waste products. Dehydration can lead to the formation of crystals that gradually build up into kidney stones. Urine typically contains chemicals that prevent crystal formation, but low levels of these inhibitors can contribute to stone formation. Most kidney stones pass on their own, but some patients may require hospitalization due to severe pain, inability to retain fluids, infection, or inability to pass the stone. Treatment involves hydration and pain relief, with methods of stone removal considered for those who do not pass the stone naturally. Intravenous furosemide and broad-spectrum antibiotics are not recommended unless there is a specific indication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine
      70.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 55-year-old male presents with 48 hours of general malaise. 20 years ago,...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old male presents with 48 hours of general malaise. 20 years ago, he underwent a resection of a pituitary mass and has since been compliant on desmopressin, levothyroxine and hydrocortisone, up until his last dose earlier in the morning. He has no other past medical history. His wife reports the patient to have had reduced oral intake for the past 2 days while he has been unwell. He has no reported head injuries, rigors or pyrexia.

      On examination, his GCS is E3 V2 M5. He is cool peripherally and a temperature demonstrates 33.4 degrees under his tongue. His spot blood glucose is 2.2 mmol/l. His blood pressure is 86/50 mmhg heart rate 110/min and sinus rhythm. Blood tests demonstrate a sodium of 158 mmol/l and potassium of 4.2 mmol/l. What is your first action(s)?

      Your Answer: Administer IV hydrocortisone

      Explanation:

      If a patient with a history of long-term steroid use suddenly experiences hypotension, hypothermia, and hypoglycemia, it is important to treat them for an Addisonian crisis. It is important to note that while textbooks often mention hyponatremia and hyperkalemia as the classic biochemical presentation, this may not always be the case in real-life situations. While the patient may also have thyroid deficiency, it is not the most immediate concern and thyroid function tests or intravenous free T3 should not be the first treatment option. Additionally, a random cortisol test may not be useful in interpreting the situation if the patient has recently taken hydrocortisone outside of the hospital.

      Addison’s disease is a condition that requires patients to undergo glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid replacement therapy. This treatment involves taking a combination of hydrocortisone and fludrocortisone. Hydrocortisone is usually given in 2 or 3 divided doses, with patients requiring 20-30 mg per day, mostly in the first half of the day. Fludrocortisone is also included in the treatment regimen. Patient education is crucial in managing Addison’s disease. Patients should be reminded not to miss glucocorticoid doses, and they may consider wearing Medic Alert bracelets and steroid cards. Additionally, patients should be provided with hydrocortisone for injection with needles and syringes to treat an adrenal crisis. It is also important to discuss how to adjust the glucocorticoid dose during an intercurrent illness.

      During an intercurrent illness, the glucocorticoid dose should be doubled, while the fludrocortisone dose remains the same. The Addison’s Clinical Advisory Panel has produced guidelines that detail specific scenarios for managing intercurrent illness. These guidelines can be found on the CKS link for more information. Proper management of Addison’s disease is essential to ensure that patients receive the appropriate treatment and care they need to manage their condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
      60.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 59-year-old woman presents to the acute medical unit with hypertension and headaches....

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old woman presents to the acute medical unit with hypertension and headaches. She denies any history of fever, neck stiffness, limb weakness, seizures, or vision changes. On examination, her pulse rate is 70 beats per minute and blood pressure is 200/110 mmHg. All other physical exam findings are unremarkable, including normal fundoscopy.

      Lab results show Hb 138g/l, platelets 238 * 109/l, WBC 6.2 * 109/l, Na+ 135 mmol/l, K+ 3.8 mmol/l, urea 6.4 mmol/l, and creatinine 75 µmol/l. ECG and chest x-ray are normal, and CT head and urinalysis are unremarkable.

      What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Intravenous sodium nitroprusside

      Correct Answer: Oral amlodipine

      Explanation:

      When a person experiences hypertensive urgency, their blood pressure rises to a severe level (systolic >180 mmHg or diastolic >110 mmHg) without causing damage to their organs. Symptoms may include nosebleeds, shortness of breath, or headaches. The goal of treatment is to lower blood pressure within 24-48 hours using oral antihypertensive medication, such as a calcium channel blocker like amlodipine. Hospitalization is typically not necessary. In contrast, hypertensive emergencies require immediate blood pressure reduction, often within minutes to hours, and may involve intravenous antihypertensives like labetalol or glyceryltrinitrate. These emergencies can include conditions like hypertensive encephalopathy or aortic dissection.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      111.2
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  • Question 5 - A 55-year-old woman presents with a persistent headache that has lasted for 4...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman presents with a persistent headache that has lasted for 4 months. She recently experienced a discharge from her left ear, which was diagnosed as Aspergillus fumigatus and treated with eardrops. However, she now reports double vision and sciatic pain in her left leg. She has a history of breast cancer and is currently taking Tamoxifen. On examination, she has bilateral papilloedema, paretic lateral recti, and a mild facial paresis on the left side. Her ankle jerk is hypoactive and planters are flexors on both sides. Further investigations reveal scattered leptomeningeal enhancement on an MRI brain scan and elevated levels of ALT and ESR. The CSF analysis shows elevated protein and lymphocytes, but no malignant cells or evidence of infection. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Tuberculous meningitis

      Correct Answer: Carcinomatous meningitis

      Explanation:

      Carcinomatous meningitis is a condition that occurs in about 5% of cases of adenocarcinoma in various parts of the body, such as the breast, lung, gastrointestinal tract, melanoma, and lymphoma. The symptoms can vary and include headache, sciatic pain, cauda equina syndrome, multiple cranial nerve palsies, confusion, seizures, focal neurological deficits, or poly-radiculoneuropathy. Diagnosis can be challenging, but it is established by identifying tumor cells in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) using various techniques. It may take several CSF examinations to arrive at a diagnosis, and the prognosis is poor, with a median survival of 6 months. Intrathecal chemotherapy is the main treatment option. Other conditions, such as idiopathic intracranial hypertension, fungal meningitis, tuberculous meningitis, and Lyme’s disease, are less likely to be the cause of symptoms in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      209.6
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  • Question 6 - You evaluate a 27-year-old female patient at the gastroenterology clinic who has previously...

    Correct

    • You evaluate a 27-year-old female patient at the gastroenterology clinic who has previously received treatment for Helicobacter pylori (H. pylori) with omeprazole, amoxicillin, and clarithromycin. Despite being on PPI therapy, she still experiences epigastric discomfort, leading you to suspect that she may have an ongoing H. pylori infection. What is the estimated sensitivity of urea breath testing for the diagnosis of H. pylori?

      Your Answer: 90%

      Explanation:

      Non-Invasive Tests for Helicobacter pylori

      Tests for Helicobacter pylori that do not involve taking a tissue sample from the stomach lining include serology, urea breath testing, and stool antigen tests. These non-invasive tests are preferred by patients as they do not require an endoscopy. The urea breath test is a reliable method for detecting H. pylori, with a sensitivity of 90% and specificity of 96%. This test involves drinking a solution containing urea and then breathing into a special bag. The breath sample is then analyzed to determine the presence of H. pylori. Stool antigen tests and serology are also effective methods for detecting H. pylori, but they may not be as accurate as the urea breath test. Overall, non-invasive tests for H. pylori are a convenient and reliable way to diagnose this common bacterial infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      24.3
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  • Question 7 - A 55-year-old woman, originally from Thailand, presents with a 4 week history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman, originally from Thailand, presents with a 4 week history of haemoptysis, a dry irritating cough and progressive shortness of breath that has reduced her ability to climb stairs and walk distances greater than roughly 50 meters. She has no other medical history of note apart from an appendectomy when younger. She takes no regular medication except for over the counter herbal remedies that she gets from a local Chinese medicine shop, although she cannot remember what these are called. She smokes 10 cigarettes per day and does not drink alcohol.

      Examination reveals heart sounds 1 and 2 present with no added sounds. Some crackles across the chest. Observations are normal.

      Blood tests reveal:

      Hb 99 g/l
      MCV 74 fL
      Platelets 196 * 109/l
      WBC 14.8 * 109/l
      Na+ 133 mmol/l
      K+ 5.0 mmol/l
      Urea 15 mmol/l
      Creatinine 193 µmol/l
      ESR 92 mm/hr

      A chest x-ray is performed which reveals some diffuse alveolar infiltrates but no focal areas of consolidation. A sputum sample is analysed for MC and S and shows no malignant cells.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Churg-Strauss syndrome

      Correct Answer: Goodpasture's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Polyarteritis Nodosa rarely involves the lungs, while Churg-Strauss syndrome typically manifests as vasculitis and asthma. Pulmonary embolism and sarcoidosis are also not consistent with the symptoms described. The most probable diagnosis is Goodpasture’s syndrome, which is characterized by pulmonary bleeding, microcytic anemia, and difficulty breathing due to antibodies circulating in the alveolar basement membrane. The disease may progress to crescentic glomerulonephritis, leading to renal complications.

      Anti-glomerular basement membrane (GBM) disease, previously known as Goodpasture’s syndrome, is a rare form of small-vessel vasculitis that is characterized by both pulmonary haemorrhage and rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis. This condition is caused by anti-GBM antibodies against type IV collagen and is more common in men, with a bimodal age distribution. Goodpasture’s syndrome is associated with HLA DR2.

      The features of this disease include pulmonary haemorrhage and rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis, which can lead to acute kidney injury. Nephritis can result in proteinuria and haematuria. Renal biopsy typically shows linear IgG deposits along the basement membrane, while transfer factor is raised secondary to pulmonary haemorrhages.

      Management of anti-GBM disease involves plasma exchange (plasmapheresis), steroids, and cyclophosphamide. One of the main complications of this condition is pulmonary haemorrhage, which can be exacerbated by factors such as smoking, lower respiratory tract infection, pulmonary oedema, inhalation of hydrocarbons, and young males.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine
      500.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 65-year-old man presented to his GP with a six-month history of hoarse...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man presented to his GP with a six-month history of hoarse voice and choking episodes. In the last few weeks, he had also experienced pulsatile ringing in his left ear with some associated hearing loss. He denied any headache, weight loss, or vomiting and had not noticed any problems with his arms or legs.

      The patient had a past medical history of renal stones and hypertension and took allopurinol. He was a smoker of 25 cigarettes per day and did not drink alcohol.

      During the examination, the patient had a husky voice with a nasal quality to his speech. There was a left Horner's syndrome, but pupils were reactive to light and ocular movements were full. Facial movements were normal, and there was no obvious reduction in hearing. On examining the throat, there was sluggish movement of the palate on the left and evidence of left-sided tongue wasting. There also appeared to be some difficulty in shrugging the left shoulder with weakness of chin movement to the right. The remainder of the neurological examination was normal.

      Based on the patient's history and clinical findings, what is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Glomus jugulare tumour

      Explanation:

      The patient has left sided 9th, 10th, 11th and 12th nerve palsies, pulsatile tinnitus, and subjective hearing loss in the left ear, indicating a lesion in the jugular foramen, most likely caused by a glomus jugulare tumor. Foramen magnum syndrome presents with lower cranial nerve dysfunction and long tract signs, while hypoglossal canal syndrome causes isolated 12th nerve palsy. Motor neurone disease causes upper and lower motor neurone signs with absent sensory disturbance, and nasopharyngeal carcinoma presents with localizing features such as epistaxis and nasal obstruction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      310.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 55-year-old man with a history of smoking presents with haemoptysis and weight...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man with a history of smoking presents with haemoptysis and weight loss. Upon examination, he is found to have clubbing and clinical evidence of right pleural effusion. His serum calcium levels are elevated at 3.2 mM (2.2-2.6 mmol/L), and a bone scan shows no abnormalities. Based on these findings, what is the most likely histological type of lung cancer he is suffering from?

      Your Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Non-metastatic Manifestations of Lung Cancer

      Hypercalcaemia, a condition where there is an excess of calcium in the blood, can occur in about 15% of squamous cell lung carcinoma cases due to the production of parathyroid hormone related protein (PTHrP). Interestingly, this can happen even in the absence of bony metastases, which are typically associated with cancer spreading to the bones. This is considered a non-metastatic manifestation of malignancy.

      On the other hand, small cell lung cancer can lead to the inappropriate secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), which can cause hyponatraemia or low sodium levels in the blood. Additionally, ectopic adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) production can occur, leading to Cushing’s syndrome.

      Clubbing, a condition where the fingers and toes become swollen and the nails curve abnormally, is more commonly associated with squamous cell cancers and occasionally adenocarcinoma. These non-metastatic manifestations of lung cancer can provide important clues for diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
      145.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 35-year-old homeless woman presents to the Emergency Department. Six hours previously, she...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old homeless woman presents to the Emergency Department. Six hours previously, she had been seen in her usual state.
      On admission, she has a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 5, is afebrile, pulse 90 bpm, blood pressure 70/40 mmHg and RR 20/min. Her pupils are dilated and unreactive. Her fundi have blurred disc edges, and her breath smells sweet.
      Investigations reveal the following:

      Urinalysis ketones +
      Glucose 2.5 mmol/l 3.5–5.5 mmol/l
      Lactate 3.5 mmol/l 0.5–2.2 mmol/l
      Plasma osmolar gap 30
      Sodium (Na+) 142 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 3.0 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Urea 8.0 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine (Cr) 200 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Chloride (Cl-) 106 mmol/l 98–106 mmol/l
      Bicarbonate (HCO32-) 15 mmol/l 24–30 mmol/l
      Corrected calcium (Ca2+) 2.30 mmol/l 2.20–2.60 mmol/l
      Prothrombin time (PT) 12.9 s 10.6–14.9 s
      Salicylate Not detected
      Arterial blood gas (ABG) pa(O2) 12.5 kPa, pa(CO2) 2.5 kPa
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Methanol poisoning

      Explanation:

      Methanol poisoning is suspected in a woman who presents with sudden collapse and a profound metabolic acidosis with a prolonged anion gap. The absence of diabetic ketoacidosis and normal coagulation rules out paracetamol poisoning. Lactic acidosis is unlikely due to the absence of a lactate level of 5.0 mmol/l. The high anion gap and plasma osmolar gap suggest ingestion of an exogenous osmolar agent. The presence of optic disc changes and normal calcium levels point towards methanol rather than ethylene glycol poisoning. Methanol levels can confirm the diagnosis. Urgent treatment with intravenous ethanol or fomepizole, if available, is required, along with possible haemodialysis. However, even with rapid treatment, sight loss is common.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Pharmacology And Therapeutics
      322.4
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gastroenterology And Hepatology (1/2) 50%
Renal Medicine (1/2) 50%
Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine (1/1) 100%
Cardiology (0/1) 0%
Neurology (1/2) 50%
Oncology (1/1) 100%
Clinical Pharmacology And Therapeutics (1/1) 100%
Passmed