In any alveolar unit, the V/Q ratio affects alveolar oxygen (PAO2) and carbon dioxide tension (PACO2).

The partial pressure of alveolar carbon dioxide (PACO2) is plotted against the partial pressure of alveolar oxygen in a Ventilation-Perfusion (V/Q) ratio graph (PAO2). Given a set of model assumptions, the curve represents all of the possible values for PACO2 and PAO2 that an individual alveolus could have.

In the case of an infinity V/Q ratio (ventilation but no perfusion or dead space), the PACO2 of the alveolus will equal zero, while the PAO2 will approach that of external air (150mmmHg). At the apex of the lung, the V/Q ratio is 3.3, compared to 0.67 at the base.

PACO2 and PAO2 approach the partial pressures for these gases in the venous blood when the V/Q ratio is zero (no ventilation but perfusion). At the base of the lung, the V/Q ratio is 0.67, whereas at the apex, it is 3.3.

PAO2 at the apex is typically 132mmHg, and PACO2 is typically 28mmHg.

The average PAO2 at the base is 89 mmHg, while the average PACO2 is 42 mmHg.

Iron is a necessary micronutrient for proper erythropoietic function, oxidative metabolism, and cellular immune responses. Although dietary iron absorption (1-2 mg/d) is tightly controlled, it is only just balanced by losses.

The adult body contains 35-45 mg/kg iron (about 4-5 g)

Iron can be found in a variety of forms, including haemoglobin, ferritin, haemosiderin, myoglobin, haem enzymes, and transferrin bound proteins.

In an adult, the trachea is approximately 15 cm long. It extends at the level of the 6th cervical vertebra, from the lower border of the cricoid cartilage.

The trachea terminates between T4 and T6 at the carina or bronchial bifurcation. This variation is because of changes during respiration.

The trachea has 16-20 C-shaped cartilaginous rings that maintain its patency.

The trachea is first of the 23 generations of air passages in the tracheobronchial tree (not 25), from the trachea to the alveoli..

The inferior thyroid arteries which are branches of the thyrocervical trunk, arise from the first part of the subclavian artery and supplies the trachea.

Dorsal column (ascending tract) – Proprioception, vibration, discriminative

Spinocerebellar (ascending tract) – Subconscious muscle position and tone

Corticospinal (descending tract) – Voluntary muscle

Rubrospinal (descending tract) – Flexor muscle tone

Vestibulospinal (descending tract) – Reflexes and muscle tone

Reticulospinal(descending tract) – Voluntary movements, head position.-

Autonomic – Descending tract.

Mapleson breathing system (or circuit) analysed five different arrangements of components of the breathing system:
Mapleson A – It is the most efficient for spontaneous respiration. The flow of fresh gas required is 70-85 ml/kg/min, i.e., approximately 5-6 lit./min fresh gas flow for an average adult.
Mapleson B and C – inefficient for both SV and PPV; requires gas flow of two to three times minute volume (100 ml/kg/min). Not commonly used but category C may be used for emergency resuscitation.
Mapleson D – efficient for PPV at gas flow equivalent to patient’s minute volume; the Bain’s circuit is a coaxial version of the Mapleson D
Mapleson E and F – for paediatric use; requires gas flow at two to three times the patient’s minute volume. The Mapleson F consists of an open-ended reservoir bag (Jackson-Rees modification).

Bilirubin is formed by metabolizing heme, mostly from haemoglobin in red blood cells.

Bilirubin is conjugated to glucuronic acid in the hepatocytes by the glucuronyl transferase enzyme in order to enable it to become soluble and allow for its secretion across the canalicular membrane and into bile.

The conjugation process is increased by rifampicin and decreased by valproate.

Gilbert’s syndrome is caused by a decrease in glucuronyl transferase in the hepatic system, decreasing the transport of bilirubin into the hepatocyte, causing unconjugated bilirubinaemia.

Crigler-Najjer syndrome is caused by mutations in the genes responsible for hepatic glucuronyl transferase, decreasing the activity of the enzyme, meaning bilirubin cannot be conjugated, causing unconjugated bilirubinaemia.

Dubin-Johnson syndrome does not cause an impairment in the conjugation of bilirubin, but it blocks the transport of bilirubin out of the hepatocyte resulting in conjugated bilirubinaemia.

The arterial blood gas analysis indicates presence of acute respiratory acidosis.

Central chemoreceptors are located in the ventral medulla and respond directly to presence of hydrogen ions in the CSF. When stimulated, it causes an increase in respiratory rate.

It is believed that hydrogen ions may be the only important direct stimulus for these neurons, however, CO2 is believed to stimulate these neurons secondarily by changing the hydrogen ion concentration.

Changes in O2 concentration have virtually no direct effect on the respiratory centre itself to alter respiratory drive. Although, O2 changes do have an indirect effect by acting through the peripheral chemoreceptors.

When a drug is given via intravenous infusion, the plasma concentration rises exponentially as a wash-in curve until it reaches steady-state concentration (the point at which the infusion rate is balanced by the elimination rate or clearance). To reach this steady state, the drug will take 4-5 half-lives.

Cpss (target plasma concentration at steady state) and clearance (CL) in ml/minute or litre/hour are the two factors that determine the infusion rate or dose (ID) in mg/hour of a drug.

ID = Cpss × CL

We know the infusion rate is 20 ml/hour in this case. The drug’s concentration is 5 mg/mL. The patient is receiving 100 mg of the drug per hour, with a 20 L/hour clearance rate.

ID = Cpss × 20

Therefore,

Cpss = 100 mg/20000 ml

Cpss = 0.005 mg/mL or 5 mcg/mL

Hawthorne effect explains the change in any behavioural aspect owing to the awareness that the person is being observed.
Simpson’s Paradox explains the association developed when the data from several groups is combined to form a single larger group.

The remaining terms are made up.

Understanding of the cardiac action potential helps with the understanding of the ECG which measures the electrical activity of the heart. This is reflected in its waveform.
The rapid depolarisation phase is reflected in the QRS complex. After this phase comes the plateau phase which is represented by the ST segment. Lastly, the T wave shows repolarisation, phase 3.

The cardiac action potential has several phases which have different mechanisms of action as seen below:
Phase 0: Rapid depolarisation – caused by a rapid sodium influx.
These channels automatically deactivate after a few ms

Phase 1: caused by early repolarisation and an efflux of potassium.

Phase 2: Plateau – caused by a slow influx of calcium. (ST segment)

Phase 3 – Final repolarisation – caused by an efflux of potassium. (T wave)

Phase 4 – Restoration of ionic concentrations – The resting potential is restored by Na+/K+ATPase.
There is slow entry of Na+into the cell which decreases the potential difference until the threshold potential is reached. This then triggers a new action potential

Of note, cardiac muscle remains contracted 10-15 times longer than skeletal muscle.

Different sites have different conduction velocities:
1. Atrial conduction – Spreads along ordinary atrial myocardial fibres at 1 m/sec

2. AV node conduction – 0.05 m/sec

3. Ventricular conduction – Purkinje fibres are of large diameter and achieve velocities of 2-4 m/sec, the fastest conduction in the heart. This allows a rapid and coordinated contraction of the ventricles

Glycolysis occurs in the cytoplasm of the cell. It converts 1 glucose molecule (6-carbon) to pyruvate (two 3-carbon molecules) and produces 4 ATP molecules and 2NADH but uses 2 ATP in the process with an overall net energy production of 2 ATP.

Pyruvate is then oxidised to acetyl coenzyme A (generating 2 NADH per pyruvate molecule). This takes place in the mitochondria and then enters the Krebs cycle (citric acid cycle). It produces 2 ATP, 8 NADH and 2 FADH2 per glucose molecule.

Electron transport phosphorylation takes place in the mitochondria. The aim of this process is to break down NADH and FADH2 and also to pump H+ into the outer compartment of the mitochondria. It produces 32 ATP with an overall net production of 36ATP.

In anaerobic respiration which occurs in the cytoplasm, pyruvate is reduced to NAD producing 2 ATP.

A mercury barometer can be used to determine absolute pressure. A glass tube with one closed end serves as the barometer. The open end is inserted into a mercury-filled open vessel. The mercury in the container is pushed into the tube by atmospheric pressure exerted on its surface. Absolute pressure is the distance between the tube’s meniscus and the mercury surface.

Pressure is defined as force in newtons per unit area (F) (A). 

Mass of mercury = area (A) × density (�) × length (L)
Pressure = ((A × � × L) × 9.8 m/s2)/A
Pressure = � × L x 9.8
Pressure is proportional to L

The numerator and denominator of the above equation, area (A), cancel out. The constants are density and the gravitational acceleration value.

The length is proportional to the applied pressure.

The normal distribution is a symmetrical, bell-shaped distribution in which the mean, median and mode are all equal.

Warfarin prevents reductive metabolism of the inactive vitamin K epoxide back to its active hydroquinone form. Thus, warfarin inhibits the synthesis of vitamin K dependent clotting factors: X, IX, VII, II (prothrombin), and of the anticoagulants protein C and protein S. The therapeutic range for oral anticoagulant therapy is defined in terms of an international normalized ratio (INR). The INR is the prothrombin time ratio (patient prothrombin time/mean of normal prothrombin time for lab)ISI, where the ISI exponent refers to the International Sensitivity Index and is dependent on the specific reagents and instruments used for the determination. A prolonged INR is widely used as an indication of integrity of the coagulation system in liver disease and other disorders, it has been validated only in patients in steady state on chronic warfarin therapy.

Prothrombin complex concentrate (PCC) is used to replace congenital or acquired vitamin-K deficiency warfarin-induced anticoagulant effect, particularly in the emergent setting.

Intravenous vitamin K has a slower onset of action compared to PCC, but is useful for long term therapy.

Fresh frozen plasma (FFP) prepared from freshly donated blood is the usual source of the vitamin K-dependent factors and is the only source of factor V. The factors needed, however, are found in small quantities compared to PCC.

Cryoprecipitate is indicated for hypofibrinogenemia/dysfibrinogenemia, von Willebrand disease, haemophilia A, factor XIII deficiency, and management of bleeding related to thrombolytic therapy.

For the local anaesthetic base to be stable in solution, it is formulated as a hydrochloride salt. As such, the molecules exist in a quaternary, water-soluble state at the time of injection. However, this form will not penetrate the neuron. The time for onset of local anaesthesia is therefore predicated on the proportion of molecules that convert to the tertiary, lipid-soluble structure when exposed to physiologic pH (7.4).

The ionization constant (pKa) for the anaesthetic predicts the proportion of molecules that exists in each of these states. By definition, the pKa of a molecule represents the pH at which 50% of the molecules exist in the lipid-soluble tertiary form and 50% in the quaternary, water-soluble form. The pKa of all local anaesthetics is >7.4 (physiologic pH), and therefore a greater proportion the molecules exists in the quaternary, water-soluble form when injected into tissue having normal pH of 7.4.

Furthermore, the acidic environment associated with inflamed tissues favours the quaternary, water-soluble configuration even further. Presumably, this accounts for difficulty when attempting to anesthetize inflamed or infected tissues; fewer molecules exist as tertiary lipid-soluble forms that can penetrate nerves.

Ketamine is usually used as a racemic mixture, i.e. (R/S)-ketamine. For over 20 years, use of the more potent (S)-enantiomer by anaesthesiologists has become a preferred option due to the assumption of increased anaesthetic and analgesic properties, a more suitable control of anaesthesia, and of an improved recovery from anaesthesia.

The use of ketamine in anaesthesia and psychiatry may be accompanied by the manifestation of somatic and especially psychomimetic symptoms such as perceptual disturbances, experiences of dissociation, euphoria, and anxiety.

Moderately high doses of dopamine produce a positive inotropic (direct β1 and D1 action + that due to Noradrenaline release), but the little chronotropic effect on the heart.

Vasoconstriction (α1 action) occurs only when large doses are infused.

At doses normally employed, it raises cardiac output and systolic BP with little effect on diastolic BP. It has practically no effect on nonvascular α and β receptors; does not penetrate the blood-brain barrier€”no CNS effects.

The minimal alveolar concentration (MAC) is the concentration of an inhalation anaesthetic agent in the lung alveoli required to stop a response to the surgical stimulus in 50% of the patient.

Following factors don’t affect the MAC of the inhaled anaesthetic agents:

Gender, acidosis, alkalosis, hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, body weight, serum potassium level, and the duration of the anaesthesia.

MAC increase in children, elevated temperature, high metabolic rate, sympathetic increase and chronic alcoholism.

MAC decrease in low temperature, low oxygen level, old age, hypotension ( 120mmHg is being used in anesthetic-Hinkman as an additive effect to decrease MAC, however, increase concentration of CO2 activates the sympathetic system resulting the MAC increases.

Incidence tells us about the number of new cases that have been reported while prevalence gives us the idea of existing cases.

In this particular instance, the parameter of the study i.e. the total number of cases has not changed thus the prevalence of the disease remains same. Although, more cases have been reported in the second instance as a result of which incidence has increased.

Microshock refers to ventricular fibrillation caused by miniscule amounts of currents or voltages (100-150 microamperes) passing through the myocardial tissue from external cables arising from electrical components within the cardiac muscle, for example, pacemaker electrodes or saline filled venous catheters.
The risk of shock changes with the construction of electrical equipment in question. The main classes of electrical equipment include: I: Appliances have a protective earth connected to an outer casing which prevents live elements from coming in contact with conductive elements. A fault in this equipment class will result in live elements coming in contact with the outer casing and allowing electrical flow into the protective earth. This triggers the protective fuse to disconnect the electric supply to the appliance.
II: These appliances have reinforced insulation. In the event of a fault which causes the first layer of insulation to fail, the second layer is able to prevent contact of live elements with outer casing.
III: These appliances have no insulation to provide safety, and rely solely on the use of separated extra low voltage source (SELV) which limits voltage to 25V AC or 60V DC allowing for a person to come in contact with it without risk of a shock under normal dry conditions. Under wet conditions, voltage supply should be lowered to reduce risk of shock. These devices have no risk of macroshocks, but some risk of microshocks.
Class I and II electrical appliances are further divided into subtypes developed to limit current leakage in the event of a singular fault:
B (body): Upper limit of current leakage is 500 µA. This current can cause skin tingling and microshocks, but is not sufficient to cause injury.
BF (body floating): These appliances have an isolating capacitor or transformer which separate the secondary circuit from the protective earth. The upper limit of current leakage is the same as type B.
CF (cardiac floating): Upper limit of leakage current during a singular fault is 50 microamps. It is least likely to result in a microshock.

After ingestion of more than 150 mg/kg paracetamol within 24 hours, hepatotoxicity can occur but can also develop rarely after ingestion of doses as low as 75 mg/kg within 24 hours. Hepatocellular damage will not occur in this patient and therefore no need to engage management pathway for paracetamol overdose. If his weight was <33 kg or he already had a history of impaired liver function, then the management would bde different.

Subsequent post-operative doses will be a standard dose of 1 g 6 hourly.

This is a drug administration error and should be reported as an incident even though the patient will not be harmed.

Only on rare occasions has it been found that the prevalence and incidence were same. Incidence can be greater than prevalence in acute cases only. In case of chronic diseases prevalence is far greater than incidence. One needs to have a deeper understanding of both the concepts to understand the health literature.

Cardiac muscle contraction strength is dependent on the action of adrenaline and noradrenaline, but these hormones contribute to cardiac contractility, not to Starling’s law.

Stroke volume (via a cardiac monitor) and/or pulse pressure (via an arterial line) should be measured to assess the effects of a passive leg raise. An increase in stroke volume by 9% or in pulse pressure by 10% are considered indicative of fluid responsiveness.

A passive leg raise can lead to transient increases in blood pressure and stroke volume as it increased the amount of venous return to the heart. Venous return increases in this situation as it transfers a larger volume of blood from the lower limbs to the right heart. It therefore mimics a fluid challenge. However its effects are short lasting and often lead to minimal increases in blood pressure. It therefore should not be used to treat shock in isolation. The passive leg raise is useful in determining the likelihood that a patient with shock will respond to fluid resuscitation.

Sarcomeres, which can be in cardiac, smooth or skeletal muscle, function optimally when stretched to a specific point.
Blood that enters the ventricles during diastole causing stretching of sarcomeres within cardiac muscle. The extent to which they stretch is proportional to the strength of ventricular muscle contraction. Therefore, the venous return (amount of blood returned to the heart) is proportional to stroke volume. The end diastolic volume is determined by venous return and is also proportional to stroke volume.

The research study conducted by Atkinson et al makes the most compelling case for the drug as it indicates the relative risk levels to be lower than 1. Also the study employs large square and a narrow confidence interval that are an indicative of a well performed study.

Static lung compliance refers to the change in volume within the lung per given change in unit pressure. It is usually measured when air flow is absent, such as during pauses in inhalation and exhalation.

It is a combination of:

Chest wall compliance: normal value is 200 mL/cmH2O
Lung tissue compliance: normal value is 200 mL/ cmH2O

It is represented mathematically as:

1/Crs = 1/Cl + 1/Ccw

Where,

Crs = total compliance of the respiratory system
Cl = compliance of the lung
Ccw = compliance of the chest wall

Therefore in this case:

1/Crs = 1/200 + 1/200

1/Crs = 0.005 + 0.005 = 0.01

1/Ct = 0.01

Rearranging equation gives:

Ct = 1/0.01 = 100 mL/cmH2O.

Awareness during general anaesthesia is a frightening experience, which may result in serious emotional injury and post-traumatic stress disorder.

The incidence of awareness during general anaesthesia with current anaesthetic agents and techniques has been reported as 0.2-0.4% in nonobstetric and noncardiac surgery, as 0.4% during caesarean section, and as 1.5% in cardiac surgery.

The incidence during major trauma surgery is higher. Incidence of recall has been reported to be as high as 11-43% in major trauma cases.

The statement Epinephrine is formulated as 1 in 1000 solution means 1 gm epinephrine is present in 1000 ml of solution.

The ileocolic artery is the terminal branch of the superior mesenteric artery. It supplies:
1. terminal ileum
2. proximal right colon
3. cecum
4. appendix (via its branch of the appendicular artery)

As veins accompany arteries in the mesentery and are lined by lymphatics, high ligation is the norm in cancer resections€”the ileocolic artery branches off the SMA near the duodenum.

Oxytocin is structurally similar to Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH) and thus oxytocin cause water intoxication (due to ADH like action)

Oxytocin is secreted by the posterior pituitary along with ADH. It increases the uterine contractions with complete relaxation in between. It increases the contraction of the upper segment (fundus and body) of the uterus whereas the lower segment is relaxed facilitating the expulsion of the foetus

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) also called vasopressin is released from the posterior pituitary in response to hypertonicity and increases fluid reabsorption from the kidney.

Serum specific IgE assays against allergen sources/molecules are the most commonly used in vitro diagnostic approach. The measurement of specific IgE recognizing allergenic epitopes can be achieved both through the usage of single reagents (singleplex) or with a pre-defined panel of a number of molecules to be tested simultaneously (multiplex).

Several clinical entities have been described and those occurring immediately after drug exposure are immunoglobulin E (IgE)-mediated and explored by skin testing and by the in vitro measurement of serum-specific IgE. The sensitivity of these tests is not 100% and even for patients with a clear positive history, a drug provocation test may be required in order to confirm the diagnosis. The advantages of the in vitro determination of specific IgE antibodies when compared with in vivo testing are that the former poses no direct risk to the patient and does not require personnel with expertise. Even though in vitro tests are recommended in immediate hypersensitivity reactions, their exact place in the diagnostic procedure is not clear and certain authors do not use this method in daily practice. In one study, in terms of sensitivity, 11 of 26 patients (42%) with negative skin tests and a positive drug provocation challenge (or repeated clinical history) had specific IgE to benzylpenicilloyl or amoxicilloyl (4). The specificity of the test was 95€“100%. Therefore, IgE measurements can avoid a potentially harmful drug provocation test.

An elevated serum tryptase does not differentiate between type 1 and type 2 hypersensitivity reaction. It indicates mast cell degranulation.

RAST is a useful aid to improve the overall diagnosis of drug allergies by using radioactive detection. This, however, is now rarely used.

Quantification of basophil activation by CD63 expression can be done by flow cytometry, which forms the basis of experimental drug-induced basophil stimulation tests.