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  • Question 1 - What is accurate about the management of eating disorders? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is accurate about the management of eating disorders?

      Your Answer: People with an eating disorder who are exercising excessively should not be advised to stop doing so

      Correct Answer: People with an eating disorder who are vomiting should be encouraged to rinse with non-acid mouthwash after vomiting

      Explanation:

      Eating Disorders: NICE Guidelines

      Anorexia:
      For adults with anorexia nervosa, consider individual eating-disorder-focused cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT-ED), Maudsley Anorexia Nervosa Treatment for Adults (MANTRA), of specialist supportive clinical management (SSCM). If these are not acceptable, contraindicated, of ineffective, consider eating-disorder-focused focal psychodynamic therapy (FPT). For children and young people, consider anorexia-nervosa-focused family therapy (FT-AN) of individual CBT-ED. Do not offer medication as the sole treatment.

      Bulimia:
      For adults, the first step is an evidence-based self-help programme. If this is not effective, consider individual CBT-ED. For children and young people, offer bulimia-nervosa-focused family therapy (FT-BN) of individual CBT-ED. Do not offer medication as the sole treatment.

      Binge Eating Disorder:
      The first step is a guided self-help programme. If this is not effective, offer group of individual CBT-ED. For children and young people, offer the same treatments recommended for adults. Do not offer medication as the sole treatment.

      Advice for those with eating disorders:
      Encourage people with an eating disorder who are vomiting to avoid brushing teeth immediately after vomiting, rinse with non-acid mouthwash, and avoid highly acidic foods and drinks. Advise against misusing laxatives of diuretics and excessive exercise.

      Additional points:
      Do not offer physical therapy as part of treatment. Consider bone mineral density scans after 1 year of underweight in children and young people, of 2 years in adults. Do not routinely offer oral of transdermal oestrogen therapy to treat low bone mineral density in children of young people with anorexia nervosa. Consider transdermal 17-β-estradiol of bisphosphonates for women with anorexia nervosa.

      Note: These guidelines are taken from NICE guidelines 2017.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 2 - A 56-year-old man presents with a variety of physical symptoms that have been...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man presents with a variety of physical symptoms that have been present for the past 30 years. Numerous investigations and review by a variety of specialties have indicated no organic basis for his symptoms.

      This is an example of:

      Your Answer: Munchausen's syndrome

      Correct Answer: Bodily distress disorder

      Explanation:

      Somatoform and dissociative disorders are two groups of psychiatric disorders that are characterized by physical symptoms and disruptions in the normal integration of identity, sensations, perceptions, affects, thoughts, memories, control over bodily movements, of behavior. Somatoform disorders are characterized by physical symptoms that are presumed to have a psychiatric origin, while dissociative disorders are characterized by the loss of integration between memories, identity, immediate sensations, and control of bodily movements. The ICD-11 lists two main types of somatoform disorders: bodily distress disorder and body integrity dysphoria. Dissociative disorders include dissociative neurological symptom disorder, dissociative amnesia, trance disorder, possession trance disorder, dissociative identity disorder, partial dissociative identity disorder, depersonalization-derealization disorder, and other specified dissociative disorders. The symptoms of these disorders result in significant impairment in personal, family, social, educational, occupational, of other important areas of functioning. Diagnosis of these disorders involves a thorough evaluation of the individual’s symptoms and medical history, as well as ruling out other possible causes of the symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 3 - What is a factor that increases the likelihood of developing bulimia nervosa? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a factor that increases the likelihood of developing bulimia nervosa?

      Your Answer: Low socio-economic class

      Correct Answer: Male homosexuality

      Explanation:

      Bulimia: Epidemiology and Risk Factors

      Bulimia is a prevalent eating disorder, with an estimated prevalence of 0.63% (Qian, 2021). It is more common in women than men, with a ratio of 10:1. The onset of symptoms typically occurs during adolescence.

      Several risk factors have been identified for bulimia, including childhood sexual abuse, male homosexuality, having an occupation that focuses on weight, and low self-esteem (Rushing, 2003). Additionally, being female is also a risk factor for developing bulimia.

      Overall, understanding the epidemiology and risk factors associated with bulimia is crucial for early identification and intervention to prevent the negative physical and psychological consequences of this disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 4 - You are asked to evaluate a patient who has just begun taking clozapine....

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to evaluate a patient who has just begun taking clozapine. The nurse is worried about his fever and tachycardia, which have persisted for a few hours. The patient reports experiencing some chest discomfort. What is your suspicion regarding his condition?

      Your Answer: Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

      Correct Answer: Myocarditis

      Explanation:

      Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 5 - A man in his 50s with breast cancer has developed moderate depression. He...

    Correct

    • A man in his 50s with breast cancer has developed moderate depression. He is on tamoxifen treatment. Which antidepressant should be avoided?

      Your Answer: Fluoxetine

      Explanation:

      The use of tamoxifen should not be combined with paroxetine and fluoxetine as it may decrease its effectiveness.

      Tamoxifen and Antidepressant Interactions

      Tamoxifen is a medication used to treat breast cancer by reducing relapse rates and increasing overall survival. It works by antagonizing estrogen in the breast, with its anti-estrogen affinity depending on its primary metabolite, endoxifen. However, tamoxifen is metabolized to endoxifen through the liver enzyme CYP2D6, and any drug that inhibits this enzyme can reduce the conversion of tamoxifen to endoxifen.

      Women taking tamoxifen for breast cancer treatment of prevention may also take antidepressants for psychiatric disorders of hot flushes. Some antidepressants have been found to inhibit the metabolism of tamoxifen to its more active metabolites by the CYP2D6 enzyme, thereby decreasing its anticancer effect. Strong CYP2D6 inhibitors include paroxetine, fluoxetine, bupropion, and duloxetine, while moderate inhibitors include sertraline, escitalopram, and doxepin, and venlafaxine is a weak inhibitor.

      Therefore, it is important for healthcare providers to consider potential drug interactions when prescribing antidepressants to women taking tamoxifen for breast cancer treatment of prevention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 6 - How can somatoform disorder be best defined? ...

    Incorrect

    • How can somatoform disorder be best defined?

      Your Answer: Balint syndrome

      Correct Answer: Da Costa's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Psychalgia refers to pain that has a psychological origin.

      Somatoform and dissociative disorders are two groups of psychiatric disorders that are characterized by physical symptoms and disruptions in the normal integration of identity, sensations, perceptions, affects, thoughts, memories, control over bodily movements, of behavior. Somatoform disorders are characterized by physical symptoms that are presumed to have a psychiatric origin, while dissociative disorders are characterized by the loss of integration between memories, identity, immediate sensations, and control of bodily movements. The ICD-11 lists two main types of somatoform disorders: bodily distress disorder and body integrity dysphoria. Dissociative disorders include dissociative neurological symptom disorder, dissociative amnesia, trance disorder, possession trance disorder, dissociative identity disorder, partial dissociative identity disorder, depersonalization-derealization disorder, and other specified dissociative disorders. The symptoms of these disorders result in significant impairment in personal, family, social, educational, occupational, of other important areas of functioning. Diagnosis of these disorders involves a thorough evaluation of the individual’s symptoms and medical history, as well as ruling out other possible causes of the symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 7 - Which trial did not show any advantage of the assertive outreach intensive case...

    Correct

    • Which trial did not show any advantage of the assertive outreach intensive case management system?

      Your Answer: UK700

      Explanation:

      UK700 Trial on Assertive Community Treatment

      Assertive community treatment was created to assist patients who have difficulty staying out of the hospital to live more successfully in the community. The UK700 case management trial aimed to determine if enhanced outcomes could be achieved under CPA by reducing case-load size. The trial tested the hypothesis that reducing CPA case-loads to 10-15 patients (intensive case management) would result in less hospitalization. However, the findings did not support the hypothesis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 8 - Which herbal remedy has sufficient evidence to prove its effectiveness in treating anxiety?...

    Incorrect

    • Which herbal remedy has sufficient evidence to prove its effectiveness in treating anxiety?

      Your Answer: Lavandula angustifolia

      Correct Answer: Piper methysticum

      Explanation:

      Herbal Remedies for Depression and Anxiety

      Depression can be treated with Hypericum perforatum (St John’s Wort), which has been found to be more effective than placebo and as effective as standard antidepressants. However, its use is not advised due to uncertainty about appropriate doses, variation in preparations, and potential interactions with other drugs. St John’s Wort can cause serotonin syndrome and decrease levels of drugs such as warfarin and ciclosporin. The effectiveness of the combined oral contraceptive pill may also be reduced.

      Anxiety can be reduced with Piper methysticum (kava), but it cannot be recommended for clinical use due to its association with hepatotoxicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 9 - What is the first line treatment recommended by NICE for an adult with...

    Incorrect

    • What is the first line treatment recommended by NICE for an adult with OCD and moderate functional impairment?

      Your Answer: CBT alone

      Correct Answer: Choice of CBT of an SSRI

      Explanation:

      Individuals with OCD who experience moderate functional impairment should be presented with the option to choose between undergoing a course of SSRI medication of receiving more intensive CBT.

      Maudsley Guidelines

      First choice: SSRI of clomipramine (SSRI preferred due to tolerability issues with clomipramine)

      Second line:

      – SSRI + antipsychotic
      – Citalopram + clomipramine
      – Acetylcysteine + (SSRI of clomipramine)
      – Lamotrigine + SSRI
      – Topiramate + SSRI

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 10 - What is the diagnosis criteria for depression according to the ICD-11? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the diagnosis criteria for depression according to the ICD-11?

      Your Answer: Irritability alone, in the absence of a depressed mood, does not qualify for a diagnosis of a depressive episode

      Correct Answer: A diagnosis of a 'single episode depressive disorder' (ICD-11 6A70) should never be applied to individuals who have ever experienced a manic or hypomanic episodes

      Explanation:

      Individuals who have ever experienced manic or hypomanic episodes should not be diagnosed with a ‘single episode depressive disorder’ (ICD-11 6A70).

      Depression is diagnosed using different criteria in the ICD-11 and DSM-5. The ICD-11 recognizes single depressive episodes, recurrent depressive disorder, dysthymic disorder, and mixed depressive and anxiety disorder. The DSM-5 recognizes disruptive mood dysregulation disorder, major depressive disorder, persistent depressive disorder, and premenstrual dysphoric disorder.

      For a diagnosis of a single depressive episode, the ICD-11 requires the presence of at least five characteristic symptoms occurring most of the day, nearly every day during a period lasting at least 2 weeks. The DSM-5 requires the presence of at least five symptoms during the same 2-week period, with at least one of the symptoms being either depressed mood of loss of interest of pleasure.

      Recurrent depressive disorder is characterized by a history of at least two depressive episodes separated by at least several months without significant mood disturbance, according to the ICD-11. The DSM-5 requires at least two episodes with an interval of at least 2 consecutive months between separate episodes in which criteria are not met for a major depressive episode.

      Dysthymic disorder is diagnosed when a person experiences persistent depressed mood lasting 2 years of more, according to the ICD-11. The DSM-5 requires depressed mood for most of the day, for more days than not, for at least 2 years, along with the presence of two or more additional symptoms.

      Mixed depressive and anxiety disorder is recognized as a separate code in the ICD-11, while the DSM-5 uses the ‘with anxious distress’ qualifier. The ICD-11 requires the presence of both depressive and anxiety symptoms for most of the time during a period of 2 weeks of more, while the DSM-5 requires the presence of both depressive and anxious symptoms during the same 2-week period.

      Overall, the criteria for diagnosing depression vary between the ICD-11 and DSM-5, but both require the presence of characteristic symptoms that cause significant distress of impairment in functioning.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 11 - What is the estimated percentage of patients with schizophrenia who do not respond...

    Incorrect

    • What is the estimated percentage of patients with schizophrenia who do not respond to treatment?

      Your Answer: 45%

      Correct Answer: 30%

      Explanation:

      Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 12 - What is the recommended course of action for treating mania in a 15...

    Incorrect

    • What is the recommended course of action for treating mania in a 15 year old female?

      Your Answer: Amisulpride

      Correct Answer: Aripiprazole

      Explanation:

      Bipolar Disorder: Diagnosis and Management

      Bipolar disorder is a lifelong condition characterized by episodes of mania or hypomania and episodes of depressed mood. The peak age of onset is 15-19 years, and the lifetime prevalence of bipolar I disorders is estimated to be around 2.1%. The diagnosis of bipolar disorder is based on the presence of manic or hypomanic episodes, which are characterized by elevated of expansive mood, rapid speech, and increased activity of energy. Psychotic symptoms, such as delusions and hallucinations, may also be present.

      Bipolar depression differs from unipolar depression in several ways, including more rapid onset, more frequent episodes, and shorter duration. Rapid cycling is a qualifier that can be applied to bipolar I of bipolar II disorder and is defined as the presence of at least four mood episodes in the previous 12 months that meet the criteria for a manic, hypomanic, of major depressive episode.

      The management of bipolar disorder involves acute and long-term interventions. Acute management of mania or hypomania may involve stopping antidepressants and offering antipsychotics of mood stabilizers. Long-term management may involve psychological interventions and pharmacological treatments such as lithium, valproate, of olanzapine.

      It is important to note that valproate should not be offered to women of girls of childbearing potential for long-term bipolar disorder unless other options are ineffective of not tolerated and a pregnancy prevention program is in place. Aripiprazole is recommended as an option for treating moderate to severe manic episodes in adolescents with bipolar I disorder.

      Overall, the diagnosis and management of bipolar disorder require a comprehensive approach that takes into account the individual’s symptoms, history, and preferences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 13 - Which receptors are believed to be hypersensitive and responsible for causing tardive dyskinesia?...

    Incorrect

    • Which receptors are believed to be hypersensitive and responsible for causing tardive dyskinesia?

      Your Answer: D5

      Correct Answer: D2

      Explanation:

      The development of tardive dyskinesia is thought to be caused by an increased sensitivity of postsynaptic D2 receptors in the nigrostriatal pathway. Therefore, clozapine is recommended as a treatment option since it has minimal binding affinity for D2 receptors.

      Tardive Dyskinesia: Symptoms, Causes, Risk Factors, and Management

      Tardive dyskinesia (TD) is a condition that affects the face, limbs, and trunk of individuals who have been on neuroleptics for months to years. The movements fluctuate over time, increase with emotional arousal, decrease with relaxation, and disappear with sleep. The cause of TD remains theoretical, but the postsynaptic dopamine (D2) receptor supersensitivity hypothesis is the most persistent. Other hypotheses include the presynaptic dopaminergic/noradrenergic hyperactivity hypothesis, the cholinergic interneuron burnout hypothesis, the excitatory/oxidative stress hypothesis, and the synaptic plasticity hypothesis. Risk factors for TD include advancing age, female sex, ethnicity, longer illness duration, intellectual disability and brain damage, negative symptoms in schizophrenia, mood disorders, diabetes, smoking, alcohol and substance misuse, FGA vs SGA treatment, higher antipsychotic dose, anticholinergic co-treatment, and akathisia.

      Management options for TD include stopping any anticholinergic, reducing antipsychotic dose, changing to an antipsychotic with lower propensity for TD, and using tetrabenazine, vitamin E, of amantadine as add-on options. Clozapine is the antipsychotic most likely to be associated with resolution of symptoms. Vesicular monoamine transporter type 2 (VMAT2) inhibitors are agents that cause a depletion of neuroactive peptides such as dopamine in nerve terminals and are used to treat chorea due to neurodegenerative diseases of dyskinesias due to neuroleptic medications (tardive dyskinesia).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 14 - Which condition is believed to be linked to puerperal psychosis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which condition is believed to be linked to puerperal psychosis?

      Your Answer: Borderline personality disorder

      Correct Answer: Bipolar affective disorder

      Explanation:

      Psychiatric Issues in the Postpartum Period

      The period following childbirth, known as the postpartum period, can be a time of significant psychiatric challenges for women. Many women experience a temporary mood disturbance called baby blues, which is characterized by emotional instability, sadness, and tearfulness. This condition typically resolves within two weeks.

      However, a minority of women (10-15%) experience postpartum depression, which is similar to major depression in its clinical presentation. In contrast, a very small number of women (1-2 per 1000) experience postpartum psychosis, also known as puerperal psychosis. This is a severe form of psychosis that occurs in the weeks following childbirth.

      Research suggests that there may be a link between puerperal psychosis and mood disorders, as approximately 50% of women who develop the condition have a family history of mood disorder. Puerperal psychosis typically begins within the first two weeks following delivery. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these potential psychiatric issues and to provide appropriate support and treatment to women during the postpartum period.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 15 - What can be done to distinguish between paranoid personality disorder and schizotypal personality...

    Incorrect

    • What can be done to distinguish between paranoid personality disorder and schizotypal personality disorder?

      Your Answer: Lack of remorse

      Correct Answer: Hypersensitivity to criticism

      Explanation:

      All personality disorders typically develop during childhood of adolescence and share symptoms such as paranoid thoughts and difficulty forming close relationships. However, individuals with schizotypal personality disorder do not typically exhibit an excessive sensitivity to criticism.

      Schizotypal Personality Disorder: Symptoms and Diagnostic Criteria

      Schizotypal personality disorder is a type of personality disorder that is characterized by a pervasive pattern of discomfort with close relationships, distorted thinking and perceptions, and eccentric behavior. This disorder typically begins in early adulthood and is present in a variety of contexts. To be diagnosed with schizotypal personality disorder, an individual must exhibit at least five of the following symptoms:

      1. Ideas of reference (excluding delusions of reference).
      2. Odd beliefs of magical thinking that influences behavior and is inconsistent with subcultural norms.
      3. Unusual perceptual experiences, including bodily illusions.
      4. Odd thinking and speech.
      5. Suspiciousness of paranoid ideation.
      6. Inappropriate or constricted affect.
      7. Behavior of appearance that is odd, eccentric, of peculiar.
      8. Lack of close friends of confidants other than first-degree relatives.
      9. Excessive social anxiety that does not diminish with familiarity and tends to be associated with paranoid fears rather than negative judgments about self.

      It is important to note that the ICD-11 does not have a specific category for schizotypal personality disorder, as it has abandoned the categorical approach in favor of a dimensional one.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 16 - Which of the following statements regarding the onset and progression of Alzheimer's disease...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements regarding the onset and progression of Alzheimer's disease is accurate?

      Your Answer: Schizophrenia is commoner in individuals not in stable relationships

      Explanation:

      The high concordance rate of 50% among monozygotic twins and the 10% likelihood of offspring being affected indicate a significant genetic component in the development of schizophrenia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 17 - A male patient with schizophrenia is started on oral risperidone. After 6 months...

    Incorrect

    • A male patient with schizophrenia is started on oral risperidone. After 6 months of treatment, routine monitoring reveals hyperprolactinemia. Upon further questioning, the patient reports experiencing erectile dysfunction but is unsure for how long this has been an issue. The patient is switched to quetiapine, which results in a good clinical response. One month later, his prolactin levels are rechecked and found to be 130 ng/ml. What would be the most appropriate course of action in this case?

      Your Answer: Stop all antipsychotics and recheck prolactin in 2 months

      Correct Answer: Continue quetiapine and request an MRI

      Explanation:

      If the patient’s prolactin levels have not decreased even after switching to a different antipsychotic medication that has a lower likelihood of increasing prolactin levels, it is possible that there is an underlying cause within the body. One potential cause of hyperprolactinemia is a tumor in the anterior pituitary gland. Therefore, if the patient’s prolactin levels are greater than 118 ng/ml, it is recommended to undergo an MRI to investigate this possibility. It is important to note that a gadolinium-enhanced MRI is necessary to confirm the diagnosis of a prolactinoma, as CT scans do not provide sufficient visualization of the pituitary gland.

      Management of Hyperprolactinaemia

      Hyperprolactinaemia is often associated with the use of antipsychotics and occasionally antidepressants. Dopamine inhibits prolactin, and dopamine antagonists increase prolactin levels. Almost all antipsychotics cause changes in prolactin, but some do not increase levels beyond the normal range. The degree of prolactin elevation is dose-related. Hyperprolactinaemia is often asymptomatic but can cause galactorrhoea, menstrual difficulties, gynaecomastia, hypogonadism, sexual dysfunction, and an increased risk of osteoporosis and breast cancer in psychiatric patients.

      Patients should have their prolactin measured before antipsychotic therapy and then monitored for symptoms at three months. Annual testing is recommended for asymptomatic patients. Antipsychotics that increase prolactin should be avoided in patients under 25, patients with osteoporosis, patients with a history of hormone-dependent cancer, and young women. Samples should be taken at least one hour after eating of waking, and care must be taken to avoid stress during the procedure.

      Treatment options include referral for tests to rule out prolactinoma if prolactin is very high, making a joint decision with the patient about continuing if prolactin is raised but not symptomatic, switching to an alternative antipsychotic less prone to hyperprolactinaemia if prolactin is raised and the patient is symptomatic, adding aripiprazole 5mg, of adding a dopamine agonist such as amantadine of bromocriptine. Mirtazapine is recommended for symptomatic hyperprolactinaemia associated with antidepressants as it does not raise prolactin levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 18 - What is the preferred sedative for patients who have significant liver damage? ...

    Correct

    • What is the preferred sedative for patients who have significant liver damage?

      Your Answer: Oxazepam

      Explanation:

      Sedatives and Liver Disease

      Sedatives are commonly used for their calming effects, but many of them are metabolized in the liver. Therefore, caution must be taken when administering sedatives to patients with liver disease. The Maudsley Guidelines recommend using low doses of the following sedatives in patients with hepatic impairment: lorazepam, oxazepam, temazepam, and zopiclone. It is important to note that zopiclone should also be used with caution and at low doses in this population. Proper management of sedative use in patients with liver disease can help prevent further damage to the liver and improve overall patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 19 - What is the probable diagnosis for a patient with schizophrenia who experiences discomfort...

    Correct

    • What is the probable diagnosis for a patient with schizophrenia who experiences discomfort in their legs, particularly at night, and finds relief by moving their legs?

      Your Answer: Restless leg syndrome

      Explanation:

      Restless Leg Syndrome, also known as Wittmaack-Ekbom syndrome, is a condition that causes an irresistible urge to move in order to alleviate uncomfortable sensations, primarily in the legs but sometimes in other areas of the body. The symptoms are exacerbated by rest and tend to worsen at night. Treatment options for this condition include dopamine agonists, opioids, benzodiazepines, and anticonvulsants. Sibler (2004) has developed an algorithm for managing Restless Leg Syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 20 - What is the estimated occurrence of schizophrenia among individuals with learning disabilities? ...

    Correct

    • What is the estimated occurrence of schizophrenia among individuals with learning disabilities?

      Your Answer: 3%

      Explanation:

      Schizophrenia Epidemiology

      Prevalence:
      – In England, the estimated annual prevalence for psychotic disorders (mostly schizophrenia) is around 0.4%.
      – Internationally, the estimated annual prevalence for psychotic disorders is around 0.33%.
      – The estimated lifetime prevalence for psychotic disorders in England is approximately 0.63% at age 43, consistent with the typically reported 1% prevalence over the life course.
      – Internationally, the estimated lifetime prevalence for psychotic disorders is around 0.48%.

      Incidence:
      – In England, the pooled incidence rate for non-affective psychosis (mostly schizophrenia) is estimated to be 15.2 per 100,000 years.
      – Internationally, the incidence of schizophrenia is about 0.20/1000/year.

      Gender:
      – The male to female ratio is 1:1.

      Course and Prognosis:
      – Long-term follow-up studies suggest that after 5 years of illness, one quarter of people with schizophrenia recover completely, and for most people, the condition gradually improves over their lifetime.
      – Schizophrenia has a worse prognosis with onset in childhood of adolescence than with onset in adult life.
      – Younger age of onset predicts a worse outcome.
      – Failure to comply with treatment is a strong predictor of relapse.
      – Over a 2-year period, one-third of patients with schizophrenia showed a benign course, and two-thirds either relapsed of failed to recover.
      – People with schizophrenia have a 2-3 fold increased risk of premature death.

      Winter Births:
      – Winter births are associated with an increased risk of schizophrenia.

      Urbanicity:
      – There is a higher incidence of schizophrenia associated with urbanicity.

      Migration:
      – There is a higher incidence of schizophrenia associated with migration.

      Class:
      – There is a higher prevalence of schizophrenia among lower socioeconomic classes.

      Learning Disability:
      – Prevalence rates for schizophrenia in people with learning disabilities are approximately three times greater than for the general population.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 21 - What antibiotic is utilized for treating schizophrenia that is resistant to other forms...

    Incorrect

    • What antibiotic is utilized for treating schizophrenia that is resistant to other forms of treatment?

      Your Answer: Neomycin

      Correct Answer: Minocycline

      Explanation:

      Treatment resistant schizophrenia may benefit from minocycline, a medication typically used for pneumonia and acne.

      Treatment Options for Schizophrenia (Resistance)

      Schizophrenia can be a challenging condition to treat, especially when it is resistant to standard therapies. In such cases, clozapine is the preferred treatment option. However, if this medication is not suitable of fails to produce the desired results, there are other options available, although their effectiveness is often limited.

      There is little variation between the alternative treatments, and in practice, olanzapine is typically the first choice, often prescribed at doses higher than those recommended by the manufacturer. If this approach proves ineffective, a second antipsychotic medication may be added to the treatment regimen. Despite these efforts, treatment-resistant schizophrenia remains a significant challenge for clinicians and patients alike.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 22 - What is a factor that increases the risk of agranulocytosis when using clozapine?...

    Incorrect

    • What is a factor that increases the risk of agranulocytosis when using clozapine?

      Your Answer: Being male

      Correct Answer: Being Asian

      Explanation:

      Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 23 - What is the time frame after paracetamol ingestion in which paracetamol levels are...

    Incorrect

    • What is the time frame after paracetamol ingestion in which paracetamol levels are used to determine the appropriate treatment with acetylcysteine in cases of overdose?

      Your Answer: 4-8 hours

      Correct Answer: 4-24 hours

      Explanation:

      The treatment nomogram for acetylcysteine is applicable for a duration of 4-24 hours, but it is important to note that the reliability of the levels decreases beyond 15 hours, as indicated by the dotted line. It is recommended to consider administering acetylcysteine to patients who have overdosed within 24 hours, even if their plasma paracetamol levels are below the treatment threshold on the graph, provided that biochemical tests indicate acute liver injury.

      Self-Harm and its Management

      Self-harm refers to intentional acts of self-poisoning of self-injury. It is prevalent among younger people, with an estimated 10% of girls and 3% of boys aged 15-16 years having self-harmed in the previous year. Risk factors for non-fatal repetition of self-harm include previous self-harm, personality disorder, hopelessness, history of psychiatric treatment, schizophrenia, alcohol abuse/dependence, and drug abuse/dependence. Suicide following an act of self-harm is more likely in those with previous episodes of self-harm, suicidal intent, poor physical health, and male gender.

      Risk assessment tools are not recommended for predicting future suicide of repetition of self-harm. The recommended interventions for self-harm include 4-10 sessions of CBT specifically structured for people who self-harm and considering DBT for adolescents with significant emotional dysregulation. Drug treatment as a specific intervention to reduce self-harm should not be offered.

      In the management of ingestion, activated charcoal can help if used early, while emetics and cathartics should not be used. Gastric lavage should generally not be used unless recommended by TOXBASE. Paracetamol is involved in 30-40% of acute presentations with poisoning. Intravenous acetylcysteine is the treatment of choice, and pseudo-allergic reactions are relatively common. Naloxone is used as an antidote for opioid overdose, while flumazenil can help reduce the need for admission to intensive care in benzodiazepine overdose.

      For superficial uncomplicated skin lacerations of 5 cm of less in length, tissue adhesive of skin closure strips could be used as a first-line treatment option. All children who self-harm should be admitted for an overnight stay at a pediatric ward.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 24 - During which time period is postpartum psychosis most likely to occur? ...

    Incorrect

    • During which time period is postpartum psychosis most likely to occur?

      Your Answer: 8-10 weeks

      Correct Answer: 0-2 weeks

      Explanation:

      The specific onset of puerperal psychosis is a topic of varying information from different sources. It is difficult to determine whether it is more common in the first two weeks of weeks 2-4. However, an article in Advances in Psychiatric Treatment by Brockington in 1998 suggests that the most common time period for onset is within the first two weeks. As this is a widely used resource in college, it is the source we have chosen to rely on.

      Psychiatric Issues in the Postpartum Period

      The period following childbirth, known as the postpartum period, can be a time of significant psychiatric challenges for women. Many women experience a temporary mood disturbance called baby blues, which is characterized by emotional instability, sadness, and tearfulness. This condition typically resolves within two weeks.

      However, a minority of women (10-15%) experience postpartum depression, which is similar to major depression in its clinical presentation. In contrast, a very small number of women (1-2 per 1000) experience postpartum psychosis, also known as puerperal psychosis. This is a severe form of psychosis that occurs in the weeks following childbirth.

      Research suggests that there may be a link between puerperal psychosis and mood disorders, as approximately 50% of women who develop the condition have a family history of mood disorder. Puerperal psychosis typically begins within the first two weeks following delivery. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these potential psychiatric issues and to provide appropriate support and treatment to women during the postpartum period.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 25 - What is the recommended initial treatment for insomnia that has persisted for 2...

    Incorrect

    • What is the recommended initial treatment for insomnia that has persisted for 2 months and is not expected to improve in the near future?

      Your Answer: Temazepam

      Correct Answer: CBT-I

      Explanation:

      Insomnia is a sleep disorder characterized by difficulty falling asleep, staying asleep, waking up too early, of feeling unrefreshed after sleep. The management of insomnia depends on whether it is short-term (lasting less than 3 months) of long-term (lasting more than 3 months). For short-term insomnia, sleep hygiene and a sleep diary are recommended first. If severe daytime impairment is present, a short course of a non-benzodiazepine hypnotic medication may be considered for up to 2 weeks. For long-term insomnia, cognitive behavioral therapy for insomnia (CBT-I) is the first-line treatment.

      Pharmacological therapy should be avoided, but a short-term hypnotic medication may be appropriate for some individuals with severe symptoms of an acute exacerbation. Referral to a sleep clinic of neurology may be necessary if another sleep disorder is suspected of if long-term insomnia has not responded to primary care management. Good sleep hygiene practices include establishing fixed sleep and wake times, relaxing before bedtime, maintaining a comfortable sleeping environment, avoiding napping during the day, avoiding caffeine, nicotine, and alcohol before bedtime, avoiding exercise before bedtime, avoiding heavy meals late at night, and using the bedroom only for sleep and sexual activity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 26 - What is the likelihood of individuals who visit an emergency department after self-harm...

    Correct

    • What is the likelihood of individuals who visit an emergency department after self-harm engaging in self-harm again within a year?

      Your Answer: 15%

      Explanation:

      Approximately 16% of individuals who visit an emergency department after self-harm will engage in self-harm again within the next year.

      Self-Harm and its Management

      Self-harm refers to intentional acts of self-poisoning of self-injury. It is prevalent among younger people, with an estimated 10% of girls and 3% of boys aged 15-16 years having self-harmed in the previous year. Risk factors for non-fatal repetition of self-harm include previous self-harm, personality disorder, hopelessness, history of psychiatric treatment, schizophrenia, alcohol abuse/dependence, and drug abuse/dependence. Suicide following an act of self-harm is more likely in those with previous episodes of self-harm, suicidal intent, poor physical health, and male gender.

      Risk assessment tools are not recommended for predicting future suicide of repetition of self-harm. The recommended interventions for self-harm include 4-10 sessions of CBT specifically structured for people who self-harm and considering DBT for adolescents with significant emotional dysregulation. Drug treatment as a specific intervention to reduce self-harm should not be offered.

      In the management of ingestion, activated charcoal can help if used early, while emetics and cathartics should not be used. Gastric lavage should generally not be used unless recommended by TOXBASE. Paracetamol is involved in 30-40% of acute presentations with poisoning. Intravenous acetylcysteine is the treatment of choice, and pseudo-allergic reactions are relatively common. Naloxone is used as an antidote for opioid overdose, while flumazenil can help reduce the need for admission to intensive care in benzodiazepine overdose.

      For superficial uncomplicated skin lacerations of 5 cm of less in length, tissue adhesive of skin closure strips could be used as a first-line treatment option. All children who self-harm should be admitted for an overnight stay at a pediatric ward.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 27 - A 28-year-old woman confides in you that she experienced protracted and recurrent childhood...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman confides in you that she experienced protracted and recurrent childhood sexual abuse. Which one of the following features is not a characteristic feature of post-traumatic stress disorder?

      Your Answer: Nightmares

      Correct Answer: Loss of inhibitions

      Explanation:

      PTSD can develop from a single traumatic event, such as a car accident, of from ongoing and repeated trauma, such as childhood abuse. The latter is known as complex PTSD. However, there is some discussion about whether complex PTSD and borderline personality disorder are distinct conditions, as they have many similar symptoms.

      Stress disorders, such as Post Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD), are emotional reactions to traumatic events. The diagnosis of PTSD requires exposure to an extremely threatening of horrific event, followed by the development of a characteristic syndrome lasting for at least several weeks, consisting of re-experiencing the traumatic event, deliberate avoidance of reminders likely to produce re-experiencing, and persistent perceptions of heightened current threat. Additional clinical features may include general dysphoria, dissociative symptoms, somatic complaints, suicidal ideation and behaviour, social withdrawal, excessive alcohol of drug use, anxiety symptoms, and obsessions of compulsions. The emotional experience of individuals with PTSD commonly includes anger, shame, sadness, humiliation, of guilt. The onset of PTSD symptoms can occur at any time during the lifespan following exposure to a traumatic event, and the symptoms and course of PTSD can vary significantly over time and individuals. Key differentials include acute stress reaction, adjustment disorder, and complex PTSD. Management of PTSD includes trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR), and supported trauma-focused computerized CBT interventions. Drug treatments, including benzodiazepines, are not recommended for the prevention of treatment of PTSD in adults, but venlafaxine of a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) may be considered for adults with a diagnosis of PTSD if the person has a preference for drug treatment. Antipsychotics such as risperidone may be considered in addition if disabling symptoms and behaviors are present and have not responded to other treatments. Psychological debriefing is not recommended for the prevention of treatment of PTSD. For children and young people, individual trauma-focused CBT interventions of EMDR may be considered, but drug treatments are not recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 28 - A 65-year-old patient on clozapine experiences a seizure, clozapine levels are taken and...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old patient on clozapine experiences a seizure, clozapine levels are taken and are found to be 0.79 mg/l.

      What would be the appropriate next steps in managing this patient's care?

      Your Answer: Withhold clozapine for 1 day, re‐start at half previous dose, and start sodium valproate

      Explanation:

      The discontinuation of clozapine can have a significantly negative impact on the prognosis of patients, therefore it is crucial for them to continue taking the medication if possible. While seizures may occur, the addition of an antiepileptic drug such as sodium valproate can often allow for safe continuation of clozapine. It is important to note that carbamazepine should not be used in conjunction with clozapine due to the increased risk of agranulocytosis.

      Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 29 - What is the most well-supported option for augmentation in cases of schizophrenia that...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most well-supported option for augmentation in cases of schizophrenia that are resistant to clozapine?

      Your Answer: Carbamazepine

      Correct Answer: Lamotrigine

      Explanation:

      Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 30 - What changes in the blood profile are anticipated in a patient diagnosed with...

    Incorrect

    • What changes in the blood profile are anticipated in a patient diagnosed with bulimia nervosa?

      Your Answer: Macrocytic anaemia

      Correct Answer: Hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      Eating Disorders: Lab Findings and Medical Complications

      Eating disorders can lead to a range of medical complications, including renal failure, peripheral edema, sinus bradycardia, QT-prolongation, pericardial effusion, and slowed GI motility. Other complications include constipation, cathartic colon, esophageal esophagitis, hair loss, and dental erosion. Blood abnormalities are also common in patients with eating disorders, including hyponatremia, hypokalemia, hypophosphatemia, and hypoglycemia. Additionally, patients may experience leucopenia, anemia, low albumin, elevated liver enzymes, and vitamin deficiencies. These complications can cause significant morbidity and mortality in patients with eating disorders. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor patients for these complications and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

General Adult Psychiatry (20/30) 67%
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