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  • Question 1 - A 60-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a gradual loss of...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a gradual loss of hearing and ringing in her right ear for the past 4 weeks. Upon examination, her ear canal and tympanic membrane appear normal. Rinne's test shows air conduction is better than bone conduction on both sides, but Weber's test reveals that the sound is heard best in her left ear. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acoustic neuroma

      Explanation:

      Understanding Vestibular Schwannoma (Acoustic Neuroma)

      Vestibular schwannoma, also known as acoustic neuroma, is a type of brain tumor that accounts for 5% of intracranial tumors and 90% of cerebellopontine angle tumors. The condition is characterized by a combination of symptoms such as vertigo, hearing loss, tinnitus, and an absent corneal reflex. The affected cranial nerves can predict the features of the condition. For instance, cranial nerve VIII can cause vertigo, unilateral sensorineural hearing loss, and unilateral tinnitus. On the other hand, cranial nerve V can lead to an absent corneal reflex, while cranial nerve VII can cause facial palsy.

      Bilateral vestibular schwannomas are often seen in neurofibromatosis type 2. The diagnosis of vestibular schwannoma is made through an MRI of the cerebellopontine angle, and audiometry is also important since only 5% of patients have a normal audiogram.

      The management of vestibular schwannoma involves surgery, radiotherapy, or observation. The choice of treatment depends on the size and location of the tumor, the patient’s age and overall health, and the severity of symptoms. In conclusion, understanding vestibular schwannoma is crucial in managing the condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      24.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 28-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner for investigation, as she and...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner for investigation, as she and her partner have not become pregnant after eight months of regular sexual intercourse. She is usually healthy and is not taking any regular medications. The pelvic examination is normal.
      What would be the next most appropriate step in this patient's management?

      Your Answer: Watch and wait

      Explanation:

      Fertility Management in Men: Appropriate Investigations and Management Options

      When it comes to fertility management in men, it is important to follow the guidelines set by the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE). According to NICE, couples who have been trying to conceive for a year with regular intercourse should be referred to fertility services. However, earlier investigation may be necessary if there is an underlying medical reason for conception difficulties. This means that watching and waiting for 12 months is the appropriate management option in most cases.

      One of the investigations that may be necessary is a semen analysis, which is indicated after a year of trying to conceive. Testicular biopsy, on the other hand, is only necessary if there is a potential testicular carcinoma or for sperm retrieval for in-vitro fertilisation (IVF) procedures.

      While screening for anti-sperm antibodies may be necessary in secondary care, it is not usually arranged in primary care. Similarly, screening for gonorrhoea is not part of the investigations for reduced fertility as it does not have a significant effect on a patient’s ability to conceive and is not usually asymptomatic. However, excluding asymptomatic chlamydia infection is an important part of the investigation for patients who are struggling with reduced fertility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      22.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 42-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of a persistent tremor....

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of a persistent tremor. During examination, it is observed that there is a symmetrical bilateral tremor of his arms which worsens when they are outstretched. His father also had a similar problem. What is the most appropriate initial treatment?

      Your Answer: Propranolol

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Essential Tremor: Understanding the Differences from Parkinson’s Disease

      Essential tremor is a neurological disorder that causes involuntary shaking, typically in the hands, head, and voice. It is important to differentiate between essential tremor and Parkinson’s disease (PD) as the treatment options differ. Propranolol is considered the first-line treatment for essential tremor, while levodopa is used for PD.

      To distinguish between the two conditions, it is important to note that essential tremor worsens with movement and is often symmetrical, while PD tremors occur mostly at rest and are asymmetrical. Additionally, essential tremor often has a family history component.

      Other medications, such as diazepam, fluoxetine, and gabapentin, are not typically used for essential tremor. Diazepam is used for acute muscle spasms and anxiety, fluoxetine is used for depression and other mental health conditions, and gabapentin is used for seizure disorders and neuropathic pain.

      In summary, understanding the differences between essential tremor and PD is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment options. Propranolol is the preferred medication for essential tremor, while levodopa is used for PD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 55-year-old woman presents to your clinic with complaints of hot flashes that...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman presents to your clinic with complaints of hot flashes that are disrupting her sleep. She is experiencing irregular and lighter periods. She has not undergone a hysterectomy and is interested in hormone replacement therapy (HRT). What would be the most suitable HRT regimen for her?

      Your Answer: Systemic combined cyclical HRT

      Explanation:

      What are the main factors to consider when determining the appropriate HRT regime? How would you classify a patient who is still having periods? What is the recommended HRT regime for this patient?

      To determine the correct HRT regime, it is important to consider whether the patient has a uterus, whether they are perimenopausal or menopausal, and whether a systemic or local effect is needed. A patient who is still having periods is considered perimenopausal, as menopause is defined as 12 months after the last menstrual period. For this patient, the recommended HRT regime would be combined oestrogen and progestogen cyclical HRT. Cyclical HRT is preferred in perimenopausal women as it produces predictable withdrawal bleeding, while continuous regimens can cause unpredictable bleeding. Systemic oestrogen-only HRT is not appropriate for a woman with a uterus as it increases the risk of endometrial cancer. Oestrogen cream or pessary would only provide a local effect and would be useful for urogenital symptoms such as vaginal dryness or dyspareunia.

      Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) involves a small dose of oestrogen and progestogen to alleviate menopausal symptoms. The indications for HRT have changed due to the long-term risks, and it is primarily used for vasomotor symptoms and preventing osteoporosis in younger women. HRT consists of natural oestrogens and synthetic progestogens, and can be taken orally or transdermally. Transdermal is preferred for women at risk of venous thromboembolism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      18.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 32-year-old female with rheumatoid arthritis visits her GP for advice on starting...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old female with rheumatoid arthritis visits her GP for advice on starting a family. She and her partner are eager to conceive and she has been taking folic acid for the past four weeks. The patient has no other medical history and is currently taking methotrexate, paracetamol, ibuprofen, and lansoprazole. She is aware that her sister had to stop some of her rheumatoid arthritis medications before getting pregnant and wants to know if she needs to do the same.

      What is the appropriate management advice for this patient?

      Your Answer: Stop methotrexate at least three months before conception

      Correct Answer: Stop methotrexate at least six months before conception

      Explanation:

      When it comes to methotrexate, it is important to discontinue the drug at least six months before attempting to conceive, regardless of gender. This is because methotrexate can potentially harm sperm in males and cause early abortion in females. By allowing for a full wash-out period, the risk of DNA changes in both gametes can be minimized. While some studies suggest that paternal exposure to methotrexate within 90 days before pregnancy may not lead to congenital malformations, stillbirths, or preterm births, current guidelines recommend avoiding the drug for six months to ensure proper folic acid repletion. Therefore, options suggesting stopping methotrexate for only one or three months before conception are incorrect.

      Managing Rheumatoid Arthritis During Pregnancy

      Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is a condition that commonly affects women of reproductive age, making issues surrounding conception and pregnancy a concern. While there are no official guidelines for managing RA during pregnancy, expert reviews suggest that patients with early or poorly controlled RA should wait until their disease is more stable before attempting to conceive.

      During pregnancy, RA symptoms tend to improve for most patients, but only a small minority experience complete resolution. After delivery, patients often experience a flare-up of symptoms. It’s important to note that certain medications used to treat RA are not safe during pregnancy, such as methotrexate and leflunomide. However, sulfasalazine and hydroxychloroquine are considered safe.

      Interestingly, studies have shown that the use of TNF-α blockers during pregnancy does not significantly increase adverse outcomes. However, many patients in these studies stopped taking the medication once they found out they were pregnant. Low-dose corticosteroids may also be used to control symptoms during pregnancy.

      NSAIDs can be used until 32 weeks, but should be withdrawn after that due to the risk of early closure of the ductus arteriosus. Patients with RA should also be referred to an obstetric anaesthetist due to the risk of atlanto-axial subluxation. Overall, managing RA during pregnancy requires careful consideration and consultation with healthcare professionals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      18.7
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  • Question 6 - A 75-year-old patient presents to you with a query about discontinuing her alendronic...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old patient presents to you with a query about discontinuing her alendronic acid medication. She has been taking it for six years since she suffered a distal radial fracture after tripping over an uneven kerb. She has not experienced any other fractures before or after this incident. Her DEXA scan six years ago revealed a T-score of -2.4. The patient has no significant medical history and has not had any recent falls. She is a non-smoker. What would be the appropriate course of action to discuss with the patient?

      Your Answer: Repeat DEXA scan and FRAX score now and stop the bisphosphonate if low risk, T score is now >-2.5, and review in two years

      Explanation:

      The topic of bisphosphonate holidays has gained attention due to recent evidence from the National Osteoporosis Guideline Group (NOGG) in January 2016. The guidance recommends that after a five-year period of taking oral bisphosphonates (or three years for IV zoledronate), patients should undergo a re-assessment of their treatment. This includes an updated FRAX score and DEXA scan to determine if ongoing treatment is necessary.

      Patients are divided into high and low-risk groups based on certain criteria. To be considered high-risk, patients must meet one of the following criteria: age over 75, receiving glucocorticoid therapy, previous hip/vertebral fractures, further fractures while on treatment, high-risk FRAX score, or a T score of less than -2.5 after treatment. If any of these criteria apply, treatment should be continued indefinitely or until the criteria no longer apply.

      For patients in the low-risk group, treatment may be discontinued and re-assessed after two years or if a further fracture occurs. In the case of a patient without high-risk factors, a recent DEXA scan should be conducted to determine if a two-year break from treatment is appropriate, provided their T score is greater than -2.5.

      Bisphosphonates: Uses and Adverse Effects

      Bisphosphonates are drugs that mimic the action of pyrophosphate, a molecule that helps prevent bone demineralization. They work by inhibiting osteoclasts, which are cells that break down bone tissue. This reduces the risk of bone fractures and can be used to treat conditions such as osteoporosis, hypercalcemia, Paget’s disease, and pain from bone metastases.

      However, bisphosphonates can have adverse effects, including oesophageal reactions such as oesophagitis and ulcers, osteonecrosis of the jaw, and an increased risk of atypical stress fractures of the proximal femoral shaft in patients taking alendronate. Patients may also experience an acute phase response, which can cause fever, myalgia, and arthralgia. Hypocalcemia, or low calcium levels, can also occur due to reduced calcium efflux from bone, but this is usually not clinically significant.

      To minimize the risk of adverse effects, patients taking oral bisphosphonates should swallow the tablets whole with plenty of water while sitting or standing. They should take the medication on an empty stomach at least 30 minutes before breakfast or other oral medications and remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the tablet. Hypocalcemia and vitamin D deficiency should be corrected before starting bisphosphonate treatment, and calcium supplements should only be prescribed if dietary intake is inadequate. The duration of bisphosphonate treatment varies depending on the patient’s level of risk, and some authorities recommend stopping treatment after five years for low-risk patients with a femoral neck T-score of > -2.5.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      29.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 45-year-old history teacher has contacted his doctor reporting a one-hour episode of...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old history teacher has contacted his doctor reporting a one-hour episode of weakness in his left arm and leg earlier today, which has since resolved. He denies any facial drooping, residual weakness, or slurred speech. He insists that he feels completely healthy and only called because his wife urged him to. The patient has a previous diagnosis of a pulmonary embolism and is currently taking apixaban. What is the initial approach to managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Urgent admission to the emergency department for urgent CT head

      Explanation:

      Immediate admission for imaging to rule out a hemorrhage is necessary if a patient with suspected TIA is on warfarin, a DOAC, or has a bleeding disorder.

      A transient ischaemic attack (TIA) is a brief period of neurological deficit caused by a vascular issue, lasting less than an hour. The original definition of a TIA was based on time, but it is now recognized that even short periods of ischaemia can result in pathological changes to the brain. Therefore, a new ’tissue-based’ definition is now used. The clinical features of a TIA are similar to those of a stroke, but the symptoms resolve within an hour. Possible features include unilateral weakness or sensory loss, aphasia or dysarthria, ataxia, vertigo, or loss of balance, visual problems, and sudden transient loss of vision in one eye (amaurosis fugax).

      NICE recommends immediate antithrombotic therapy with aspirin 300 mg unless the patient has a bleeding disorder or is taking an anticoagulant. If the patient has had more than one TIA or has a suspected cardioembolic source or severe carotid stenosis, specialist review is necessary. Urgent assessment is required within 24 hours for patients who have had a suspected TIA in the last 7 days. Referral for specialist assessment is necessary as soon as possible within 7 days for patients who have had a suspected TIA more than a week previously. Neuroimaging and carotid imaging are recommended, and antithrombotic therapy is necessary. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if the carotid stenosis is greater than 70% according to ECST criteria or greater than 50% according to NASCET criteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      3783.3
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  • Question 8 - A 30-year-old man presents with worsening pain on the left side of the...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man presents with worsening pain on the left side of the floor of the mouth. He has been experiencing pain intermittently for the past three weeks, especially during meals. However, the pain has escalated significantly over the last 48 hours.
      During examination, his temperature is 38.2°C. There is a smooth swelling along the floor of the mouth. Intra-oral examination reveals inadequate dental hygiene and pus seeping into the floor of the mouth anteriorly.
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Dental abscess

      Correct Answer: Left submandibular gland infection

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Left Submandibular Gland Infection from Other Conditions

      Left submandibular gland infection is a condition that occurs when a submandibular gland calculus obstructs the submandibular duct, leading to stasis of duct contents and infection. It is important to differentiate this condition from other similar conditions to ensure proper diagnosis and treatment.

      Sialolithiasis, another condition that affects the submandibular gland, typically presents with dull pain around the gland that worsens during mealtimes or when lemon juice is squirted onto the tongue. Dental abscess, on the other hand, causes localized tooth pain without pus draining into the floor of the mouth.

      Uncomplicated sialolithiasis does not present with fever and pus oozing into the floor of the mouth, which are common symptoms of left submandibular gland infection. Ludwig’s angina, a serious and potentially life-threatening infection of the soft tissues of the floor of the mouth, typically follows a dental infection and presents with marked oedema and tenderness of submandibular, sublingual, and submental spaces.

      Mumps parotitis, which typically affects younger patients, presents with bilateral smooth, enlarged parotid glands and a viral-like illness. Unlike left submandibular gland infection, pus is not seen draining into the floor of the mouth.

      In summary, differentiating left submandibular gland infection from other similar conditions is crucial in ensuring proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      50.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 75-year-old man with a long-standing history of schizophrenia is being seen by...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old man with a long-standing history of schizophrenia is being seen by his psychiatrist. He was admitted to the psychiatry unit six months ago due to delusions that he was being tracked by spies. At the time of admission, he was taking quetiapine, but it was changed to aripiprazole 400 mg monthly depot. Recently, he has been expressing to his wife that he believes his food is poisoned. His wife thinks that his new medication is not effective. What is the most suitable course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Clozapine

      Explanation:

      Clozapine is the appropriate choice for patients with schizophrenia who have not responded adequately to at least two antipsychotics. In this case, the patient has already tried quetiapine and aripiprazole without success, making clozapine a suitable option. However, it requires careful monitoring and titration. Continuing aripiprazole is not recommended as the patient has been on the highest dose for six months and is still experiencing delusional ideas. Haloperidol is a typical antipsychotic that can be used for schizophrenia, but atypical antipsychotics are preferred due to fewer side effects. Lorazepam is not a long-term antipsychotic and is only useful for managing severe agitation in patients with schizophrenia.

      Atypical antipsychotics are now recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia, as per the 2005 NICE guidelines. These medications have the advantage of significantly reducing extrapyramidal side-effects. However, they can also cause adverse effects such as weight gain, hyperprolactinaemia, and in the case of clozapine, agranulocytosis. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued warnings about the increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients. Examples of atypical antipsychotics include clozapine, olanzapine, risperidone, quetiapine, amisulpride, and aripiprazole.

      Clozapine, one of the first atypical antipsychotics, carries a significant risk of agranulocytosis and requires full blood count monitoring during treatment. Therefore, it should only be used in patients who are resistant to other antipsychotic medication. The BNF recommends introducing clozapine if schizophrenia is not controlled despite the sequential use of two or more antipsychotic drugs, one of which should be a second-generation antipsychotic drug, each for at least 6-8 weeks. Adverse effects of clozapine include agranulocytosis, neutropaenia, reduced seizure threshold, constipation, myocarditis, and hypersalivation. Dose adjustment of clozapine may be necessary if smoking is started or stopped during treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      19.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 15-year-old girl presents to her GP with her father, reporting a rash...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old girl presents to her GP with her father, reporting a rash and fatigue. She has been feeling generally unwell for the past week since returning from a trip to Europe. During the examination, a circular rash is observed, with a more pronounced appearance in the center and edges. The rash is warm and red but does not cause any pain. What possible illnesses should be considered in this patient?

      Your Answer: Lyme disease

      Explanation:

      Lyme disease is caused by the bacteria Borrelia, which is transmitted to humans through tick bites. The most common symptom of Lyme disease is a characteristic rash that appears at the site of the tick bite. Other symptoms of the disease are general and can include fever, headache, fatigue, and even paralysis.

      Understanding Lyme Disease

      Lyme disease is a bacterial infection caused by Borrelia burgdorferi and is transmitted through tick bites. The early symptoms of Lyme disease include erythema migrans, a characteristic bulls-eye rash that appears at the site of the tick bite. This rash is painless, slowly increases in size, and can be more than 5 cm in diameter. Other early symptoms include headache, lethargy, fever, and joint pain.

      If erythema migrans is present, Lyme disease can be diagnosed clinically, and antibiotics should be started immediately. The first-line test for Lyme disease is an enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) to detect antibodies to Borrelia burgdorferi. If the ELISA is negative but Lyme disease is still suspected, it should be repeated 4-6 weeks later. If Lyme disease is suspected in patients who have had symptoms for 12 weeks or more, an immunoblot test should be done.

      Tick bites can cause significant anxiety, but routine antibiotic treatment is not recommended by NICE. If the tick is still present, it should be removed using fine-tipped tweezers, and the area should be washed. In cases of suspected or confirmed Lyme disease, doxycycline is the preferred treatment for early disease, while ceftriaxone is used for disseminated disease. A Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction may occur after initiating therapy, which can cause fever, rash, and tachycardia.

      In summary, Lyme disease is a bacterial infection transmitted through tick bites. Early symptoms include erythema migrans, headache, lethargy, fever, and joint pain. Diagnosis is made through clinical presentation and ELISA testing, and treatment involves antibiotics. Tick bites do not require routine antibiotic treatment, and ticks should be removed using fine-tipped tweezers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      12.2
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  • Question 11 - A 26-year-old male patient presents to the emergency department after falling on his...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old male patient presents to the emergency department after falling on his left hand. He reports experiencing pain in his hand, specifically in the anatomical snuffbox. Despite an x-ray being taken 2 hours after the fall, no fractures were detected in any of his carpal bones, and he was discharged with pain relief. However, he returns 10 days later, complaining of persistent pain and extreme tenderness in the anatomical snuffbox of his left hand. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Scaphoid fracture

      Explanation:

      Fractures in the anatomical snuffbox area can be difficult to detect on x-rays immediately after a fall on the outstretched hand. However, the fracture line may become visible several days later, and patients may experience persistent pain in the area. It is crucial to identify these fractures promptly to prevent non-union and avascular necrosis. It is important to note that a Colles fracture, which also occurs after a fall on the outstretched hand, does not cause pain in the anatomical snuffbox. Similarly, a Barton’s fracture, which is intraarticular in nature, can be seen clearly on initial x-rays and does not cause pain in the anatomical snuffbox.

      Upper limb fractures can occur due to various reasons, such as falls or impacts. One such fracture is Colles’ fracture, which is caused by a fall onto extended outstretched hands. This fracture is characterized by a dinner fork type deformity and has three features, including a transverse fracture of the radius, one inch proximal to the radio-carpal joint, and dorsal displacement and angulation. Another type of fracture is Smith’s fracture, which is a reverse Colles’ fracture and is caused by falling backwards onto the palm of an outstretched hand or falling with wrists flexed. This fracture results in volar angulation of the distal radius fragment, also known as the Garden spade deformity.

      Bennett’s fracture is an intra-articular fracture at the base of the thumb metacarpal, caused by an impact on a flexed metacarpal, such as in fist fights. On an X-ray, a triangular fragment can be seen at the base of the metacarpal. Monteggia’s fracture is a dislocation of the proximal radioulnar joint in association with an ulna fracture, caused by a fall on an outstretched hand with forced pronation. It requires prompt diagnosis to avoid disability. Galeazzi fracture is a radial shaft fracture with associated dislocation of the distal radioulnar joint, occurring after a fall on the hand with a rotational force superimposed on it. Barton’s fracture is a distal radius fracture (Colles’/Smith’s) with associated radiocarpal dislocation, caused by a fall onto an extended and pronated wrist.

      Scaphoid fractures are the most common carpal fractures and occur due to a fall onto an outstretched hand, with the tubercle, waist, or proximal 1/3 being at risk. The surface of the scaphoid is covered by articular cartilage, with a small area available for blood vessels, increasing the risk of fracture. The main physical signs of scaphoid fractures are swelling and tenderness in the anatomical snuff box, pain on wrist movements, and longitudinal compression of the thumb. An ulnar deviation AP is needed for visualization of scaphoid, and immobilization of scaphoid fractures can be difficult. Finally, a radial head fracture is common in young adults and is usually caused by a fall on the outstretched hand. It is characterized by marked local tenderness over

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      20.6
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  • Question 12 - A 32-year-old man visits the general practice surgery as he is experiencing sudden-onset...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man visits the general practice surgery as he is experiencing sudden-onset vertigo when standing up from a seated position. Episodes last about 30 seconds and he denies any ear pain or hearing loss. His examination is unremarkable.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment option?

      Your Answer: Epley’s manoeuvre

      Explanation:

      Understanding BPPV and Treatment Options

      Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) is a common condition that causes dizziness and vertigo. The Epley manoeuvre is a recommended treatment option for BPPV, involving repositioning the patient’s head and neck to remove calcium crystals from the semicircular canals. However, it should not be performed in patients with certain medical conditions. Symptomatic drug treatment is not recommended for BPPV, and patients should seek further medical advice if symptoms persist. The Dix-Hallpike manoeuvre is a diagnostic test for BPPV, while Brandt-Daroff exercises can be considered as an alternative treatment option. Understanding these options can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate care for patients with BPPV.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      37.3
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  • Question 13 - A 65-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department (ED) following a fall...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department (ED) following a fall at home. During examination in the ED, there is no evidence of external bleeding, but her blood pressure is 100/50 mmHg, and her heart rate is 110 bpm. She has distended neck veins and muffled heart sounds. What is the most probable finding on an echocardiogram?

      Your Answer: Haemothorax

      Correct Answer: Pericardial effusion

      Explanation:

      Medical Conditions and Trauma: Understanding the Differences

      Pericardial Effusion: A Serious Condition

      When a patient presents with hypotension, tachycardia, and Beck’s triad (hypotension, distended neck veins, and muffled heart sounds), it is suggestive of pericardial effusion. This condition occurs when fluid accumulates in the pericardial space, compressing the heart and causing low cardiac output. Trauma to the chest is a common cause of pericardial effusion, leading to bleeding into the pericardial space.

      Haemothorax, Mitral Regurgitation, Pleural Effusion, and Pneumothorax: Other Trauma-Related Conditions

      While haemothorax refers to blood in the pleural space, it would not cause Beck’s triad or be detected on an echocardiogram. Mitral regurgitation could be detected on an echocardiogram, but it would not likely lead to Beck’s triad as blood would remain within the heart chambers. Pleural effusion refers to any fluid in the pleural space and would not cause Beck’s triad, nor would it be detected on echocardiography. Pneumothorax, which refers to air in the pleural space, can also occur with trauma. Tension pneumothorax may cause Beck’s triad, but it would not be detected on an echocardiogram.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      110.9
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - ACE inhibitors can cause cough as a side effect. Which of the following...

    Correct

    • ACE inhibitors can cause cough as a side effect. Which of the following statements is true about the cause of this cough? Please select one option.

      Your Answer: They affect the breakdown of bradykinin within the lungs

      Explanation:

      The Effects of ACE Inhibitors on the Lungs

      ACE inhibitors are a class of medications commonly used to treat hypertension and heart failure. While they are generally well-tolerated, they can have some effects on the lungs. Here are some key points to keep in mind:

      – ACE inhibitors can increase the concentration of bradykinin within the lungs, which can lead to a persistent dry cough in some patients.
      – Unlike beta blockers, ACE inhibitors do not cause bronchospasm. In fact, they may be a good choice for patients with asthma or other respiratory conditions.
      – Dysgeusia, or a metallic taste in the mouth, is a possible side effect of ACE inhibitors. This is more common with captopril than with other drugs in this class.
      – ACE inhibitors do not increase bronchial mucus secretion.
      – While ACE inhibitors do cause vasodilation, which can lower blood pressure, they are not associated with pulmonary congestion.

      Overall, ACE inhibitors are generally safe and effective medications for treating hypertension and heart failure. However, patients should be aware of these potential effects on the lungs and discuss any concerns with their healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      8.1
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  • Question 15 - A 35-year-old woman came to your GP clinic with a cold sore and...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman came to your GP clinic with a cold sore and left eye discomfort. She reported experiencing a red, painful eye with watering and sensitivity to light for the past 3 days. During fluorescein examination, you observed a dendritic ulcer on the cornea that was stained with fluorescein.

      What is the primary treatment for this condition?

      Your Answer: Topical aciclovir drops

      Explanation:

      The appropriate treatment for herpes simplex keratitis is the use of topical aciclovir. Antibiotics are ineffective against viral infections and should not be used. The use of steroids can worsen the condition and should be avoided. If the patient is already using topical steroids for another eye condition, the dosage should be decreased.

      Understanding Herpes Simplex Keratitis

      Herpes simplex keratitis is a condition that affects the cornea of the eye and is caused by the herpes simplex virus. The most common symptom of this condition is a dendritic corneal ulcer, which can cause a red, painful eye, photophobia, and epiphora. In some cases, visual acuity may also be decreased. Fluorescein staining may show an epithelial ulcer, which can help with diagnosis. One common treatment for this condition is topical aciclovir, which can help to reduce the severity of symptoms and prevent further damage to the cornea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      15
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  • Question 16 - ß-blockers (ß-adrenergic agents) are used in the treatment of angina due to their...

    Incorrect

    • ß-blockers (ß-adrenergic agents) are used in the treatment of angina due to their specific properties. Which property from the list below is utilized for this purpose?

      Your Answer: Increase the left atrial volume and pressure

      Correct Answer: Decrease the heart rate and myocardial contractility

      Explanation:

      The Effects of Beta Blockers on the Heart and Vasculature

      Beta blockers are medications that inhibit the actions of adrenaline and noradrenaline on the heart and vasculature. By blocking beta-1 receptors, they decrease heart rate and myocardial contractility, resulting in a reduction in cardiac workload and oxygen demand. This negative chronotropic and inotropic effect also helps control heart rate and decreases cardiac contractility.

      While beta-2 receptors can cause vascular muscle dilation, the effect is overshadowed by the more dominant vasoconstricting alpha-1 receptors. Therefore, beta blockers may cause some vascular constriction, but the greatest effect remains in the heart.

      Beta blockers also have anti-arrhythmic effects by depressing sinus node function and atrioventricular node conduction. They can decrease left atrium diameter and volume, alleviating high pressure in the left atrium. However, a 2017 study found that beta-blocker use is associated with impaired left atrium function in hypertension.

      Overall, beta blockers have been shown to decrease mortality rates, reduce hospitalizations and the risk of sudden death, improve left ventricular function and exercise tolerance, and reduce heart failure functional class.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 3-day-old infant delivered via caesarean section at 38 weeks gestation presents with...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-day-old infant delivered via caesarean section at 38 weeks gestation presents with limb hypoplasia, rudimentary digits, and microcephaly. What is the probable prenatal infection that the baby was exposed to?

      Your Answer: Rubella

      Correct Answer: Varicella zoster virus

      Explanation:

      During pregnancy, if a woman shows signs of primary infection with varicella zoster, it is considered a classical indication. The risk to the fetus is highest before 20 weeks of gestation and can lead to skin scarring, limb underdevelopment, microcephaly, and eye defects. If there is any uncertainty about a pregnant woman’s history of chickenpox, she should be tested for varicella antibodies and given varicella zoster immunoglobulins if she is not immune. Cytomegalovirus infection during pregnancy can result in cerebral calcification, microcephaly, and sensorineural deafness. HIV does not pose any physical risk to the developing fetus, but there is a risk of perinatal transmission. Rubella infections during pregnancy are linked to deafness, congenital cataracts, and cardiac complications.

      Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy can pose risks to both the mother and fetus, including fetal varicella syndrome. Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) with varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) or antivirals should be given to non-immune pregnant women, with timing dependent on gestational age. If a pregnant woman develops chickenpox, specialist advice should be sought and oral aciclovir may be given if she is ≥ 20 weeks and presents within 24 hours of onset of the rash.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - During a routine General Practitioner (GP) clinic, a mother attends with her 8-year-old...

    Correct

    • During a routine General Practitioner (GP) clinic, a mother attends with her 8-year-old daughter who has worsening dry, itchy skin, mainly affecting the flexor surfaces, particularly on the legs. She has tried regular liberal use emollient cream with limited success.
      What would be the most appropriate next step in the management of the child’s eczema?

      Your Answer: Prescribe hydrocortisone cream 1%

      Explanation:

      Managing Eczema in Children: Treatment Options and Considerations

      Eczema is a common condition in children that can be effectively managed with the right treatment approach. When a child presents with eczema symptoms, the first step is often to use emollient cream to moisturize the affected area. However, if the symptoms persist or worsen, a topical corticosteroid cream may be prescribed to help manage the flare-up. It is important to use this medication sparingly and in conjunction with emollients.

      If the eczema symptoms continue to be troublesome despite these measures, it may be appropriate to refer the child to a dermatology clinic. However, it is important to note that oral corticosteroids should be used with caution in children and only under the direction of a dermatologist.

      While emollient creams are often effective, in some cases, an emollient ointment may be more moisturizing and helpful. However, if the eczema flare-up is not resolving with emollients alone, a short course of topical corticosteroid is likely necessary.

      Watchful waiting is not appropriate in this situation, as the child has already presented to the GP and symptoms are worsening despite reasonable management by the mother. By understanding the various treatment options and considerations for managing eczema in children, healthcare providers can help ensure the best possible outcomes for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      14.1
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 78-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a cough that has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a cough that has been producing green sputum and shortness of breath for the past three days. During the examination, the GP detects the presence of rhonchi. The patient's vital signs are stable. Given his medical history of type 2 diabetes, which is being managed with metformin, and heart failure, for which he is taking ramipril, bisoprolol, and furosemide, the GP suspects acute bronchitis. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Admission for IV co-amoxiclav

      Correct Answer: Oral doxycycline

      Explanation:

      Antibiotics may be prescribed for acute bronchitis if the patient has co-existing co-morbidities or is at high risk of complications. NICE guidelines advise against the use of antibiotics for those who are not systemically very unwell and not at high risk of complications. However, if the patient is very unwell or at risk of complications, antibiotics should be offered. In this case, the patient’s age, diabetes, and heart failure put him at high risk, so antibiotics should be offered in accordance with NICE guidelines. While local guidelines should be consulted, NICE recommends oral doxycycline as the first-line treatment. Inhaled bronchodilators should not be offered unless the patient has an underlying airway disease such as asthma. Oral flucloxacillin is not commonly used for respiratory tract infections, and IV co-amoxiclav is not necessary in this stable patient who can be managed without admission.

      Acute bronchitis is a chest infection that typically resolves on its own within three weeks. It occurs when the trachea and major bronchi become inflamed, leading to swollen airways and the production of sputum. The primary cause of acute bronchitis is viral infection, with most cases occurring in the autumn or winter. Symptoms include a sudden onset of cough, sore throat, runny nose, and wheezing. While most patients have a normal chest examination, some may experience a low-grade fever or wheezing. It is important to differentiate acute bronchitis from pneumonia, which presents with different symptoms and chest examination findings.

      Diagnosis of acute bronchitis is typically based on clinical presentation, but CRP testing may be used to determine if antibiotic therapy is necessary. Management involves pain relief and ensuring adequate fluid intake. Antibiotics may be considered for patients who are systemically unwell, have pre-existing health conditions, or have a CRP level between 20-100mg/L. Doxycycline is the recommended first-line treatment, but it cannot be used in children or pregnant women. Alternatives include amoxicillin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      416.3
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 35-year-old woman presents with hearing loss on the left and persistent tinnitus...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman presents with hearing loss on the left and persistent tinnitus for a few weeks. On examination, an absent corneal reflex is noted.

      Which of the following is the most appropriate diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acoustic neuroma

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Causes of Hearing Loss and Tinnitus: A Guide

      When patients present with hearing loss and tinnitus, it is important to consider the various potential causes in order to provide appropriate treatment. One possible cause is acoustic neuroma, a rare tumor that affects the Schwann cells of the nerve sheath in the cerebellopontine angle. Patients with acoustic neuroma typically experience unilateral hearing loss and tinnitus, but vertigo is rare. Examination may reveal facial numbness, weakness, or ataxia, as well as absence of the corneal reflex.

      Another potential cause is Ménière’s disease, which is characterized by sudden attacks of tinnitus, vertigo, a sensation of fullness in the ear, and fluctuating sensorineural hearing loss. However, an absent corneal reflex is not associated with this condition.

      Otosclerosis is a form of conductive hearing loss that often presents in early adulthood, with symptoms including tinnitus and transient vertigo. Again, an absent corneal reflex is not typically observed.

      Vestibular neuronitis, which follows a febrile illness and causes sudden vertigo, vomiting, and prostration exacerbated by head movement, is not associated with hearing loss, tinnitus, or absent corneal reflexes.

      Finally, while impacted ear wax can cause tinnitus and hearing loss, it would not result in an absent corneal reflex on examination. By considering these various potential causes, healthcare providers can more accurately diagnose and treat patients with hearing loss and tinnitus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      16
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 43-year-old woman complains of muscle cramps and fatigue. Upon examination, her neck's...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year-old woman complains of muscle cramps and fatigue. Upon examination, her neck's front is tender and swollen to touch. She has no medical history and does not take any regular medication. Her blood results show a TSH level of 12.3 mU/L (0.5-5.5) and a free T4 level of 4.2 pmol/L (9.0 - 18). What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hashimoto's thyroiditis

      Correct Answer: Subacute thyroiditis (de Quervain's)

      Explanation:

      Subacute thyroiditis can be differentiated from Hashimoto’s thyroiditis as a cause of hypothyroidism by the presence of tenderness in the thyroid gland. The symptoms are indicative of hypothyroidism, which is confirmed by elevated TSH levels and low T4 levels in the thyroid function tests. The occurrence of a painful goitre points towards subacute thyroiditis as the most probable diagnosis. Graves’ disease, on the other hand, leads to hyperthyroidism and not hypothyroidism. Although Hashimoto’s thyroiditis can also cause hypothyroidism, it is typically painless. Riedel thyroiditis can cause hypothyroidism and may be painful, but it is less likely than subacute thyroiditis.

      Understanding the Causes of Hypothyroidism

      Hypothyroidism is a condition that affects a small percentage of women in the UK, with females being more susceptible than males. The most common cause of hypothyroidism is Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, an autoimmune disease that may be associated with other conditions such as IDDM, Addison’s or pernicious anaemia. Other causes of hypothyroidism include subacute thyroiditis, Riedel thyroiditis, thyroidectomy or radioiodine treatment, drug therapy, and dietary iodine deficiency. It is important to note that some of these causes may have an initial thyrotoxic phase.

      In rare cases, hypothyroidism may also be caused by pituitary failure, which is known as secondary hypothyroidism. Additionally, there are certain conditions that may be associated with hypothyroidism, such as Down’s syndrome, Turner’s syndrome, and coeliac disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      102.6
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 35-year-old woman presents with amenorrhoea and occasional breast discharge. She has never...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents with amenorrhoea and occasional breast discharge. She has never been pregnant and has not been sexually active for the past year. She is not on any regular medications and has had regular menstrual cycles in the past. On breast examination, there are no palpable abnormalities and she has normal secondary sexual characteristics. What is the most appropriate initial investigation?

      Your Answer: Skull computed tomography (CT)

      Correct Answer: Prolactin level

      Explanation:

      Investigating Hyperprolactinaemia: Tests and Imaging

      Hyperprolactinaemia is a condition characterized by elevated levels of prolactin, often caused by a microadenoma in the pituitary gland. While no single test can determine the cause of hyperprolactinaemia, a prolactinoma is likely if the prolactin level is above 250 ng/ml. Inhibitory effects of raised prolactin may result in low levels of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), but this is not diagnostic. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is the preferred imaging technique for investigating the cause of hyperprolactinaemia, rather than a skull computed tomography (CT) or X-ray, which may only show enlarged pituitary fossa with large adenomas. Additionally, thyroid function tests may be necessary to investigate mildly raised prolactin levels in the absence of pituitary pathology.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      18.4
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which one of the following clinical features would be least consistent with a...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following clinical features would be least consistent with a diagnosis of severe pre-eclampsia?

      Your Answer: Reflexes difficult to elicit

      Explanation:

      Hyperreflexia and clonus are commonly observed in patients with severe pre-eclampsia, while a decrease in platelet count may indicate the onset of HELLP syndrome.

      Pre-eclampsia is a condition that occurs during pregnancy and is characterized by high blood pressure, proteinuria, and edema. It can lead to complications such as eclampsia, neurological issues, fetal growth problems, liver involvement, and cardiac failure. Severe pre-eclampsia is marked by hypertension, proteinuria, headache, visual disturbances, and other symptoms. Risk factors for pre-eclampsia include hypertension in a previous pregnancy, chronic kidney disease, autoimmune disease, diabetes, chronic hypertension, first pregnancy, and age over 40. Aspirin may be recommended for women with high or moderate risk factors. Treatment involves emergency assessment, admission for observation, and medication such as labetalol, nifedipine, or hydralazine. Delivery of the baby is the most important step in management, with timing depending on the individual case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 32-year-old female presents with a purpuric rash on the back of her...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old female presents with a purpuric rash on the back of her legs, frequent nose bleeds, and menorrhagia. She is currently taking Microgynon 30. A full blood count reveals Hb of 11.7 g/dl, platelets of 62 * 109/l, and WCC of 5.3 * 109/l. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Antiphospholipid syndrome

      Correct Answer: Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura

      Explanation:

      A diagnosis of ITP is suggested by the presence of isolated thrombocytopenia in a healthy patient. Blood dyscrasias are not typically caused by the use of combined oral contraceptive pills.

      Understanding Immune Thrombocytopenia (ITP) in Adults

      Immune thrombocytopenia (ITP) is a condition where the immune system attacks and reduces the number of platelets in the blood. This is caused by antibodies targeting the glycoprotein IIb/IIIa or Ib-V-IX complex. While children with ITP usually experience acute thrombocytopenia after an infection or vaccination, adults tend to have a more chronic form of the condition. ITP is more common in older females and may be detected incidentally during routine blood tests. Symptoms may include petechiae, purpura, and bleeding, but catastrophic bleeding is not a common presentation.

      To diagnose ITP, a full blood count and blood film are typically performed. While a bone marrow examination is no longer routinely used, antiplatelet antibody testing may be done, although it has poor sensitivity and does not affect clinical management. The first-line treatment for ITP is oral prednisolone, but pooled normal human immunoglobulin (IVIG) may also be used if active bleeding or an urgent invasive procedure is required. Splenectomy is now less commonly used as a treatment option.

      In some cases, ITP may be associated with autoimmune haemolytic anaemia (AIHA), which is known as Evan’s syndrome. It is important for individuals with ITP to work closely with their healthcare provider to manage their condition and prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      12.4
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 16-year-old female comes in for a follow-up. Three days ago she visited...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old female comes in for a follow-up. Three days ago she visited her physician with complaints of a severe sore throat, fatigue, and headache. The doctor prescribed amoxicillin to treat an upper respiratory tract infection. However, two days ago she developed a pruritic maculopapular rash that has spread throughout her body. Additionally, her initial symptoms have not improved. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Infectious mononucleosis

      Explanation:

      Patients with infectious mononucleosis should not be prescribed amoxicillin. Instead, supportive treatment is recommended for their care.

      Understanding Infectious Mononucleosis

      Infectious mononucleosis, also known as glandular fever, is a viral infection caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) in 90% of cases. It is most commonly seen in adolescents and young adults. The classic triad of symptoms includes sore throat, pyrexia, and lymphadenopathy, which are present in around 98% of patients. Other symptoms include malaise, anorexia, headache, palatal petechiae, splenomegaly, hepatitis, lymphocytosis, haemolytic anaemia, and a maculopapular rash. The symptoms typically resolve after 2-4 weeks.

      The diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis is confirmed through a heterophil antibody test (Monospot test) in the second week of the illness. Management is supportive and includes rest, drinking plenty of fluids, avoiding alcohol, and taking simple analgesia for any aches or pains. It is recommended to avoid playing contact sports for 4 weeks after having glandular fever to reduce the risk of splenic rupture.

      Interestingly, there is a correlation between EBV and socioeconomic groups. Lower socioeconomic groups have high rates of EBV seropositivity, having frequently acquired EBV in early childhood when the primary infection is often subclinical. However, higher socioeconomic groups show a higher incidence of infectious mononucleosis, as acquiring EBV in adolescence or early adulthood results in symptomatic disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      19.5
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 35-year-old female comes to your clinic complaining of vomiting that has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old female comes to your clinic complaining of vomiting that has been ongoing for the past day. She reports feeling nauseous at present, with her last episode of vomiting occurring just 5 minutes ago. She mentions attending a barbecue the day before and is concerned that the sausages she ate may not have been cooked thoroughly. The patient has a medical history of Addison's disease and is currently taking oral hydrocortisone and fludrocortisone.

      What advice would be most appropriate to give to this patient?

      Your Answer: Take IM fludrocortisone until her vomiting stops

      Correct Answer: Take IM hydrocortisone until her vomiting stops

      Explanation:

      If a person with Addison’s disease experiences vomiting, they should take IM hydrocortisone until the vomiting stops. This is especially important if the vomiting is caused by food poisoning from undercooked meat. IM hydrocortisone is a glucocorticoid steroid hormone that is used to manage Addison’s disease and prevent an Addisonian crisis. It is important to note that doubling the fludrocortisone dose or pausing hydrocortisone is not the correct approach in this situation. The patient requires extra hydrocortisone to prevent an Addisonian crisis, not extra fludrocortisone. While drinking plenty of fluids is generally good advice for someone who is vomiting, it is not sufficient for a person with Addison’s disease in this situation.

      Addison’s disease is a condition that requires patients to undergo both glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid replacement therapy. This treatment usually involves taking a combination of hydrocortisone and fludrocortisone. Hydrocortisone is typically given in 2 or 3 divided doses, with patients requiring 20-30 mg per day, mostly in the first half of the day. Patient education is crucial, and it is essential to emphasize the importance of not missing glucocorticoid doses. Additionally, patients should consider wearing MedicAlert bracelets and steroid cards, and they should be provided with hydrocortisone for injection with needles and syringes to treat an adrenal crisis.

      During an intercurrent illness, it is crucial to manage the glucocorticoid dose properly. In simple terms, the glucocorticoid dose should be doubled, while the fludrocortisone dose should remain the same. The Addison’s Clinical Advisory Panel has produced guidelines that detail specific scenarios, and patients should refer to these guidelines for more information. It is essential to discuss how to adjust the glucocorticoid dose during an intercurrent illness with a healthcare professional. Proper management of Addison’s disease is crucial to ensure that patients can lead healthy and fulfilling lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      18.1
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 65-year-old man is brought to the emergency department due to self-neglect and...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man is brought to the emergency department due to self-neglect and suspected neurological event causing motor function loss. Upon examination, he presents with hypothermia and weakness on the right side. The patient reports discontinuing his regular medications and experiencing dizziness, restlessness, and electric shock sensations throughout his body. Which medication cessation is most likely responsible for these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Paroxetine

      Explanation:

      Discontinuation syndrome, characterized by dizziness, electric shock sensations, and anxiety, is a common occurrence when SSRIs are abruptly stopped. This is why it is recommended to gradually taper off the medication. The patient in this scenario stopped their medication abruptly due to a suspected neurological event, leading to the onset of discontinuation syndrome. Atorvastatin, bisoprolol, and gabapentin are not typically associated with these symptoms when stopped abruptly.

      Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly used as the first-line treatment for depression. Citalopram and fluoxetine are the preferred SSRIs, while sertraline is recommended for patients who have had a myocardial infarction. However, caution should be exercised when prescribing SSRIs to children and adolescents. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and patients taking SSRIs are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients should also be aware of the possibility of increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.

      The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has issued a warning regarding the use of citalopram due to its association with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. As a result, citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.

      When initiating antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. Patients under the age of 25 years or at an increased risk of suicide should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, including mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.

      When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, the benefits and risks should be weighed. Use during the first trimester may increase the risk of congenital heart defects, while use during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Paroxetine has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      14.2
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 25-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner (GP) with a 1-day history...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner (GP) with a 1-day history of itching and watery discharge from both eyes.
      On examination, the vision is 6/9 in both eyes. Both pupils are equally reactive to light. The conjunctivae are both chemosed with mild diffuse injection. The eyelids are slightly oedematous.
      Her past medical history includes eczema. Her vital observations are as follows:
      Blood pressure 110/70 mmHg
      Heart rate 65 bpm
      Respiratory rate 12
      Temperature 36.7 °C
      Oxygen saturation 99% on air
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bacterial conjunctivitis

      Correct Answer: Allergic conjunctivitis

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Different Types of Eye Infections: A Case Study

      The presentation points towards the diagnosis of allergic conjunctivitis. This is due to the patient’s history of itchiness, watery discharge, slightly swollen eyelids, and atopy. It was ruled out that the patient had bacterial conjunctivitis, as it typically presents with more purulent discharges bilaterally. Orbital cellulitis was also ruled out, as the eyelids and orbit would be very swollen and red with restriction and pain in eye movements, and the vital observations were normal. Preseptal cellulitis can present with oedematous eyelids, but the eye itself should be quiet and white. While viral conjunctivitis can present with watery discharges, the patient’s history of atopy and itchiness made allergic conjunctivitis the more likely diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      115.5
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 42-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with polyuria, weight loss and...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with polyuria, weight loss and tiredness for six months. Full blood count, urea and electrolytes (U&Es), liver function tests, thyroid function test and calcium are all normal. Glycosylated haemoglobin (HbA1c) is 48 mmol/mol and repeat sample is 50 mmol/mol. On examination, her body mass index is 35 kg/m2, she is normotensive and urinalysis is normal.
      Which of the following investigations should be arranged urgently?
      Select ONE investigation from the list below.

      Your Answer: Computed tomography (CT) abdomen

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for a Patient with Suspected Type II Diabetes Mellitus

      Computed Tomography (CT) Abdomen:
      A CT abdomen is recommended for any patient over the age of 60 with weight loss combined with a new onset of diabetes or abdominal or back pain, nausea, vomiting or change in bowel habit. This is because new-onset type II diabetes can be a presenting feature of pancreatic cancer in patients over the age of 60, especially those who have also experienced weight loss.

      Pancreatic Autoantibodies:
      Pancreatic autoantibodies include anti-glutamic acid decarboxylase, insulin autoantibodies and islet-cell antibodies, the presence of which would support a diagnosis of type I diabetes. These tests are usually carried out in secondary care for atypical presentations such as suspected type II diabetes in a child or a non-overweight person.

      Glucose Tolerance Test:
      Glucose tolerance test has a limited role in diagnosing type II diabetes now that HbA1c is an accepted diagnostic investigation. It is still used routinely to investigate pregnant women at risk of gestational diabetes.

      Short Synacthen Test:
      A short synacthen test is used to diagnose adrenal insufficiency. The history and investigation results do not suggest this as a likely diagnosis, so this test would not be indicated.

      Ultrasound of the Urinary Tract:
      Ultrasound is not indicated unless a structural problem is suspected. Although this man is experiencing polyuria, his urinalysis and PSA are both normal, which makes a urological cause for his symptoms less likely than the newly diagnosed diabetes. Diabetes can cause renal impairment, but this should be monitored with annual urine albumin : creatinine measurement and regular U&Es blood test.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      23.7
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 28-year-old female presents to the GP office with a complaint of unusual...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old female presents to the GP office with a complaint of unusual vaginal discharge. The discharge is described as frothy and green-yellow in color. She is sexually active and does not use any form of birth control. Her most recent sexual encounter was with a new partner two weeks ago. During speculum examination, a strawberry cervix is observed. She is in good health and not taking any medications. A pregnancy test came back negative. What is the recommended course of action for the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Oral metronidazole

      Explanation:

      The recommended treatment for the patient’s likely diagnosis of trichomoniasis is oral metronidazole, either as a 7-day course of 200mg or a one-time dose of 2g. Intramuscular ceftriaxone, benzathine benzylpenicillin, and oral doxycycline are not indicated for the treatment of trichomoniasis. Oral azithromycin is also not effective for this condition.

      Understanding Trichomonas vaginalis and its Comparison to Bacterial Vaginosis

      Trichomonas vaginalis is a type of protozoan parasite that is highly motile and flagellated. It is known to cause trichomoniasis, which is a sexually transmitted infection. The infection is characterized by symptoms such as offensive, yellow/green, frothy vaginal discharge, vulvovaginitis, and strawberry cervix. The pH level is usually above 4.5, and in men, it may cause urethritis.

      To diagnose trichomoniasis, a wet mount microscopy is conducted to observe the motile trophozoites. The treatment for trichomoniasis involves oral metronidazole for 5-7 days, although a one-off dose of 2g metronidazole may also be used.

      When compared to bacterial vaginosis, trichomoniasis has distinct differences. Bacterial vaginosis is caused by an overgrowth of bacteria in the vagina, while trichomoniasis is caused by a protozoan parasite. The symptoms of bacterial vaginosis include a thin, grayish-white vaginal discharge with a fishy odor, and a pH level above 4.5. Unlike trichomoniasis, bacterial vaginosis is not considered a sexually transmitted infection.

      In conclusion, understanding the differences between trichomoniasis and bacterial vaginosis is crucial in diagnosing and treating these conditions effectively. Proper diagnosis and treatment can help prevent complications and improve overall health and well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      14.5
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Neurology (3/3) 100%
Reproductive Medicine (3/4) 75%
Pharmacology/Therapeutics (2/3) 67%
Musculoskeletal (2/2) 100%
ENT (2/3) 67%
Psychiatry (2/2) 100%
Infectious Diseases (1/2) 50%
Cardiovascular (0/1) 0%
Ophthalmology (1/2) 50%
Dermatology (2/2) 100%
Respiratory Medicine (0/1) 0%
Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease (1/3) 33%
Haematology/Oncology (0/1) 0%
Gastroenterology/Nutrition (0/1) 0%
Passmed