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  • Question 1 - A 44-year-old man with schizophrenia was admitted to psychiatry due to a change...

    Correct

    • A 44-year-old man with schizophrenia was admitted to psychiatry due to a change in his medication. He had previously been taking quetiapine, but his behavior had become more erratic and he developed new delusions. Upon receiving his discharge letter, it was requested that the practice perform full blood counts every week for a total of 18 weeks, followed by every 2 weeks until 1 year of treatment. In addition to this new medication regimen, the patient has also been prescribed hyoscine hydrobromide to manage the side effect of hypersalivation. What is the name of the antipsychotic medication that has been prescribed for this patient?

      Your Answer: Clozapine

      Explanation:

      Clozapine is the correct answer, as it carries a risk of neutropenia and agranulocytosis. It is prescribed for patients with Schizophrenia who do not respond to conventional antipsychotics. Monitoring for olanzapine should include regular checks of blood glucose, lipids, and weight. Haloperidol is not commonly used for schizophrenia, but a baseline ECG is recommended before starting treatment. The BNF doesn’t specify any particular monitoring requirements for paliperidone or aripiprazole.

      Antipsychotics are a type of medication used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. However, they are known to cause extrapyramidal side-effects such as Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. These side-effects can be managed with procyclidine. Other side-effects of typical antipsychotics include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients due to an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 2 - A 36-year-old woman comes in for a follow-up appointment. She had previously visited...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old woman comes in for a follow-up appointment. She had previously visited with complaints of worsening headaches and insomnia, which you diagnosed as tension-type headaches after ruling out any red flags. Her sleep pattern has continued to deteriorate over the past few months, with early morning waking being a prominent issue. She denies any substance misuse or excessive alcohol consumption.

      During today's visit, she reports experiencing a few episodes of palpitations and occasional dizziness. These symptoms do not occur during exercise, and there are no red flags present. Her cardiovascular and neurological exams are unremarkable, and her blood pressure is normal.

      All of her blood tests, including full blood count, urea and electrolytes, liver function tests, and thyroid function tests, come back normal.

      What would be the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Commence treatment with a beta-blocker

      Correct Answer: Consider generalised anxiety disorder as a potential underlying diagnosis and explore if psychological distress present

      Explanation:

      Generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) can manifest in various ways, including presenting solely with physical symptoms. Patients with GAD may experience headaches, muscle tension, gastrointestinal symptoms, back pain, and insomnia, without reporting any psychological distress or worry. Therefore, it is important to explore the presence of psychological distress during consultations.

      Based on the history and examination provided, there is no indication for urgent cardiology referral, and it would not be an appropriate use of resources.

      While beta-blockers may be a suitable treatment option for GAD, further discussion with the patient is necessary before reaching a diagnosis, especially in the presence of somatic symptoms.

      Similarly, SSRI may be an appropriate treatment option, but it is important to have a thorough discussion with the patient before prescribing.

      In this case, prescribing a sleeping tablet is not the most appropriate option. Secondary insomnia resulting from GAD should be treated, and a sleeping tablet should only be prescribed at the lowest possible dose for the shortest period of time, with regular review. Treatment should not exceed 2-4 weeks due to the risk of tolerance and addiction. Depending on the circumstances, other treatment options such as individual guided self-help, psychological interventions, or cognitive behavioural therapy may be considered.

      Anxiety is a common disorder that can manifest in various ways. According to NICE, the primary feature is excessive worry about multiple events associated with heightened tension. It is crucial to consider potential physical causes when diagnosing psychiatric disorders such as anxiety. Hyperthyroidism, cardiac disease, and medication-induced anxiety are important alternative causes. Medications that may trigger anxiety include salbutamol, theophylline, corticosteroids, antidepressants, and caffeine.

      NICE recommends a stepwise approach for managing generalised anxiety disorder (GAD). The first step is education about GAD and active monitoring. The second step involves low-intensity psychological interventions such as individual non-facilitated self-help, individual guided self-help, or psychoeducational groups. The third step includes high-intensity psychological interventions such as cognitive behavioural therapy or applied relaxation, or drug treatment. Sertraline is the first-line SSRI recommended by NICE. If sertraline is ineffective, an alternative SSRI or a serotonin–noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) such as duloxetine or venlafaxine may be offered. If the person cannot tolerate SSRIs or SNRIs, pregabalin may be considered. For patients under the age of 30 years, NICE recommends warning them of the increased risk of suicidal thinking and self-harm and weekly follow-up for the first month.

      The management of panic disorder also follows a stepwise approach. The first step is recognition and diagnosis, followed by treatment in primary care. NICE recommends either cognitive behavioural therapy or drug treatment. SSRIs are the first-line treatment. If contraindicated or no response after 12 weeks, imipramine or clomipramine should be offered. The third step involves reviewing and considering alternative treatments, followed by review and referral to specialist mental health services in the fourth and fifth steps, respectively.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 3 - A 20-year-old patient with panic attacks is evaluated after being on a selective...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old patient with panic attacks is evaluated after being on a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) for 3 months. The patient reports no significant improvement in the frequency of the episodes. According to NICE, what is the recommended second-line pharmacological treatment for panic disorder?

      Your Answer: Diazepam

      Correct Answer: Imipramine

      Explanation:

      Anxiety is a common disorder that can manifest in various ways. According to NICE, the primary feature is excessive worry about multiple events associated with heightened tension. It is crucial to consider potential physical causes when diagnosing psychiatric disorders such as anxiety. Hyperthyroidism, cardiac disease, and medication-induced anxiety are important alternative causes. Medications that may trigger anxiety include salbutamol, theophylline, corticosteroids, antidepressants, and caffeine.

      NICE recommends a stepwise approach for managing generalised anxiety disorder (GAD). The first step is education about GAD and active monitoring. The second step involves low-intensity psychological interventions such as individual non-facilitated self-help, individual guided self-help, or psychoeducational groups. The third step includes high-intensity psychological interventions such as cognitive behavioural therapy or applied relaxation, or drug treatment. Sertraline is the first-line SSRI recommended by NICE. If sertraline is ineffective, an alternative SSRI or a serotonin–noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) such as duloxetine or venlafaxine may be offered. If the person cannot tolerate SSRIs or SNRIs, pregabalin may be considered. For patients under the age of 30 years, NICE recommends warning them of the increased risk of suicidal thinking and self-harm and weekly follow-up for the first month.

      The management of panic disorder also follows a stepwise approach. The first step is recognition and diagnosis, followed by treatment in primary care. NICE recommends either cognitive behavioural therapy or drug treatment. SSRIs are the first-line treatment. If contraindicated or no response after 12 weeks, imipramine or clomipramine should be offered. The third step involves reviewing and considering alternative treatments, followed by review and referral to specialist mental health services in the fourth and fifth steps, respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 4 - A 55-year-old man is hospitalized for acute pancreatitis and has a weekly alcohol...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man is hospitalized for acute pancreatitis and has a weekly alcohol intake of 90 units. What is the timeframe for the highest occurrence of delirium tremens after ceasing alcohol consumption?

      Your Answer: 2 hours

      Correct Answer: 72 hours

      Explanation:

      Symptoms of alcohol withdrawal can occur within 6-12 hours, seizures may occur after 36 hours, and delirium tremens can also be a potential complication.

      Alcohol withdrawal occurs when an individual who has been consuming alcohol chronically suddenly stops or reduces their intake. This is due to the fact that chronic alcohol consumption enhances GABA-mediated inhibition in the central nervous system (CNS), similar to benzodiazepines, and inhibits NMDA-type glutamate receptors. When alcohol consumption is stopped, the opposite occurs, resulting in decreased inhibitory GABA and increased NMDA glutamate transmission.

      Symptoms of alcohol withdrawal typically start within 6-12 hours and include tremors, sweating, tachycardia, and anxiety. Seizures are most likely to occur at around 36 hours, while delirium tremens, which is characterized by coarse tremors, confusion, delusions, auditory and visual hallucinations, fever, and tachycardia, is most likely to occur at around 48-72 hours.

      Patients with a history of complex withdrawals from alcohol, such as delirium tremens, seizures, or blackouts, should be admitted to the hospital for monitoring until their withdrawals stabilize. The first-line treatment for alcohol withdrawal is long-acting benzodiazepines, such as chlordiazepoxide or diazepam, which are typically given as part of a reducing dose protocol. Lorazepam may be preferable in patients with hepatic failure. Carbamazepine is also effective in treating alcohol withdrawal, while phenytoin is said not to be as effective in the treatment of alcohol withdrawal seizures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 5 - A 42-year-old woman presents after a severe panic attack when she was about...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman presents after a severe panic attack when she was about to board a plane. She reports general uneasiness about travelling in any form of transport and has started avoiding it if possible. Six months earlier, she sustained minor injuries in a fatal plane crash. She has also become irritable and intolerant to noise, has been awoken by dreams about accidents and admits to being depressed.
      Which of the following is the most suitable management option?

      Your Answer: Watchful waiting

      Correct Answer: Trauma-focused cognitive behaviour therapy

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder

      Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a condition that requires appropriate treatment. Trauma-focused cognitive behavioural therapy is the recommended first-line treatment for those with severe symptoms or persistent symptoms beyond the first month after the event. This therapy includes exposure therapy, cognitive therapy, and stress management. Eye movement desensitisation and reprocessing is an alternative therapy for prolonged symptoms. Antidepressants may be used as an adjunct to psychological therapy or if patients decline or fail to respond to psychological therapy.

      Hypnotics such as temazepam may be considered for short-term use, but they are not first-line treatment for PTSD. Mirtazapine is a suitable second-line treatment if cognitive therapy is unsuitable or ineffective. Relaxation and non-directive therapy should not be routinely offered as they do not address traumatic memories.

      For mild symptoms present for less than four weeks after the event, watchful waiting should be considered, with follow-up within one month. It is important to seek appropriate treatment for PTSD to improve symptoms and overall quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 6 - A 38-year-old man presents to your clinic with a complaint of persistent epigastric...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old man presents to your clinic with a complaint of persistent epigastric pain for the past three months. He denies any weight loss, haematemesis, or melaena. On examination, there is tenderness in the epigastrium, but otherwise, the abdominal examination is unremarkable. The patient is currently taking Citalopram 20 mg, Lisinopril 20 mg OD, Aspirin 75 mg OD, and Bendroflumethiazide 2.5 mg. He recently had a painful knee and has been taking Ibuprofen at least three times a day. He has a history of severe depressive disorder, which has been effectively controlled on Citalopram for the past 9 months. What is the most appropriate initial management plan for this patient?

      Your Answer: Stop his Ibuprofen, and discuss weaning him off his Citalopram if he feels ready to do this

      Correct Answer: Reduce his Ibuprofen and change his antidepressant

      Explanation:

      Medication Review for Patient with Multiple Symptoms

      This patient is experiencing symptoms that are likely caused by the combination of aspirin, ibuprofen, and citalopram. Co-prescribing NSAIDs and SSRIs can increase the risk of gastric bleeding, so it is important to alter the medication rather than refer for endoscopy. The patient should be closely monitored and may benefit from a PPI for gastroprotection.

      Although citalopram may be contributing to the symptoms, it has been effective in managing the patient’s recurrent depressive episodes. Patients with a history of depression should remain on antidepressants for at least 2 years into remission.

      To ensure the patient responds well to the altered medication, a review should be scheduled in two weeks. It may also be appropriate to check the patient’s Hb level for anaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 7 - A 56-year-old man presents with a range of physical symptoms that have been...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man presents with a range of physical symptoms that have been ongoing for the past 7 years. Despite multiple investigations and consultations with various specialists, no organic cause has been found for his symptoms. What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Hypochondrial disorder

      Correct Answer: Somatisation disorder

      Explanation:

      The appropriate diagnosis for a patient who is experiencing persistent, unexplained symptoms is somatisation disorder, as they are primarily concerned with the symptoms rather than a specific underlying diagnosis like cancer (which would be indicative of hypochondria). It is important to note that intentional production of symptoms, such as self-poisoning, would fall under the category of Munchausen’s syndrome.

      Unexplained Symptoms in Psychiatry

      In psychiatry, there are several terms used to describe patients who present with physical or psychological symptoms for which no organic cause can be found. Somatisation disorder is characterized by the presence of multiple physical symptoms that persist for at least two years, and the patient refuses to accept reassurance or negative test results. Illness anxiety disorder, also known as hypochondriasis, involves a persistent belief in the presence of an underlying serious disease, such as cancer, despite negative test results. Conversion disorder typically involves the loss of motor or sensory function, and the patient doesn’t consciously feign the symptoms or seek material gain. Dissociative disorder involves the process of separating off certain memories from normal consciousness, and may present with psychiatric symptoms such as amnesia, fugue, or stupor. Factitious disorder, also known as Munchausen’s syndrome, involves the intentional production of physical or psychological symptoms, while malingering refers to the fraudulent simulation or exaggeration of symptoms for financial or other gain. These terms help clinicians to better understand and diagnose patients with unexplained symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 8 - A 35-year-old woman visits her GP clinic with complaints of difficulty sleeping. Upon...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman visits her GP clinic with complaints of difficulty sleeping. Upon further inquiry, she reveals that she refrains from going out as she is afraid of being stared at. Additionally, she experienced a sudden episode of rapid heartbeat, shortness of breath, and intense fear while dining at a restaurant two weeks ago.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Panic disorder

      Correct Answer: Social phobia

      Explanation:

      Social phobia is a condition where a person experiences anxiety in public, especially when they feel like they are being judged or criticized. It is a common psychological condition, ranking third after depression and alcoholism. While everyone experiences some level of social anxiety, it becomes a disease when it starts to interfere with daily life. This condition is characterized by an exaggerated fear of social situations, which can become pathological. Agoraphobia, on the other hand, is a fear of situations where escape is not possible. In this case, the patient’s anxiety seems to stem from feeling scrutinized in a restaurant setting. To diagnose panic disorder, the panic attack must occur unexpectedly, and the patient must experience fear of recurrence or behavioral changes for at least a month after the attack. While anxiety is often associated with depression, there are no specific features of depression in this scenario. Sleep disturbance can occur in both anxiety and depression, but the nature of the disturbance differs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 9 - The five stages of change for addictive behaviours are Action, Contemplation, Maintenance, precontemplation,...

    Correct

    • The five stages of change for addictive behaviours are Action, Contemplation, Maintenance, precontemplation, and Preparation. What is the correct rank order for these stages?

      Your Answer: 42513

      Explanation:

      The Stages of Change: Understanding Behavioural Transformation

      Behavioural change is a process that involves several stages. The precontemplation stage is characterized by a lack of awareness of the problem and no intention to change. In the contemplation stage, individuals acknowledge the problem and consider overcoming it but have not yet committed to taking action. The preparation stage involves intention and behavioural plans, with individuals intending to take action soon. The action stage is where individuals modify their behaviour, experiences, and environment to overcome their problems. The maintenance stage involves preventing relapse and consolidating gains attained during action. It is common for individuals to recycle through these stages several times before terminating the addiction. Understanding where a person is in relation to the stages of change can be helpful to doctors in promoting and supporting change.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 10 - At her routine check-up, a 75 year old woman is discovered to have...

    Incorrect

    • At her routine check-up, a 75 year old woman is discovered to have a serum sodium level of 128 mmol/L. Despite feeling fine, she is found to have hyponatraemia. What medication is the probable culprit for her condition?

      Your Answer: Gabapentin

      Correct Answer: Sertraline

      Explanation:

      Hyponatraemia is often associated with the use of SSRIs.

      The production or action of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) can be increased by many drugs, leading to hyponatraemia. Commonly implicated drugs include thiazide diuretics, SSRIs, haloperidol, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatories, and carbamazepine.

      SSRIs can cause the release of ADH, resulting in hyponatraemia. This side effect typically occurs within the first few weeks of treatment and resolves within two weeks of discontinuing the drug. The risk of hyponatraemia is higher in older patients and those taking diuretics in conjunction with SSRIs.

      Side-Effects of SSRIs

      SSRIs, or selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, are commonly prescribed antidepressants. However, they can cause adverse effects, with gastrointestinal symptoms being the most common. Patients taking SSRIs are also at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding, especially if they are also taking NSAIDs. To prevent this, a proton pump inhibitor should be prescribed. Hyponatraemia is another potential side-effect, and patients should be vigilant for increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.

      Citalopram, a type of SSRI, has been associated with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has advised that citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose for citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.

      SSRIs can also interact with other medications, such as NSAIDs, warfarin/heparin, aspirin, and triptans. NICE guidelines recommend avoiding SSRIs and considering mirtazapine for patients taking warfarin/heparin. Triptans should be avoided with SSRIs.

      When starting antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. For patients under the age of 30 years or at increased risk of suicide, they should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse.

      When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, which can include mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 11 - For which condition has St John's wort (Hypericum perforatum) been proven to be...

    Incorrect

    • For which condition has St John's wort (Hypericum perforatum) been proven to be beneficial?

      Your Answer: Multiple sclerosis

      Correct Answer: Dysthymia

      Explanation:

      St John’s Wort for Depression: Clinical Evidence and Considerations

      There is clinical evidence to support the use of St John’s wort in treating mild to moderate depression and dysthymia. However, the active ingredient and mechanism of action are still unclear from the latest psychiatry evidence. Hyperforin is responsible for St John’s wort’s enzyme induction effect, but it is not yet shown to be directly active in lifting mood.

      A Cochrane review of 29 clinical trials found that St John’s wort was superior to placebo for treating mild to moderate depression but not severe depression. However, most of the studies were from German-speaking countries, and some were small. There is also evidence for efficacy in Gram-negative infection and improving symptoms in Parkinson’s disease. However, there is no reference for its use in multiple sclerosis (MS).

      It is important to note that the latest NICE guidance on depression advises against prescribing or advising St John’s wort due to the differing potencies of different formulations and potentially serious interactions with other medicines, such as anticonvulsants and the oral contraceptive pill. Therefore, it is crucial to ask patients if they are taking any herbal or natural remedies and dispel the myth that natural and safe are synonymous.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 12 - A 26-year-old female patient visits her GP with concerns about her interpersonal relationships...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old female patient visits her GP with concerns about her interpersonal relationships at work and in her personal life. She reports that this has been an ongoing issue since her teenage years. The patient finds it challenging to collaborate with others and describes herself as a perfectionist. Additionally, others have described her as rigid. What personality disorder is indicated by these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder

      Explanation:

      The correct diagnosis for individuals who exhibit rigidity in their morals, ethics, and values and are hesitant to delegate work to others is obsessive-compulsive personality disorder. These individuals are often described as perfectionists who adhere to strict rules and have difficulty adapting to different ways of doing things. Avoidant personality disorder, borderline personality disorder, paranoid personality disorder, and schizotypal personality disorder are incorrect diagnoses as they present with different symptoms such as low self-esteem, unstable relationships, paranoia, and eccentric behavior.

      Personality disorders are a set of maladaptive personality traits that interfere with normal functioning in life. They are categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes odd or eccentric disorders such as paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes dramatic, emotional, or erratic disorders such as antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes anxious and fearful disorders such as obsessive-compulsive, avoidant, and dependent. These disorders affect around 1 in 20 people and can be difficult to treat. However, psychological therapies such as dialectical behaviour therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions have been shown to help patients.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 13 - You encounter a 49-year-old woman displaying signs of depression. She had previously undergone...

    Incorrect

    • You encounter a 49-year-old woman displaying signs of depression. She had previously undergone effective pharmacological treatment for a major depressive episode using paroxetine, but experienced severe withdrawal symptoms upon discontinuing it. To avoid such symptoms, you decide to initiate fluoxetine therapy. What is the reason for fluoxetine having a lower incidence of withdrawal symptoms?

      Your Answer: Fluoxetine is an SNRI, which are less associated with withdrawal symptoms

      Correct Answer: Fluoxetine has a longer half life than other SSRIs

      Explanation:

      Compared to other commonly used SSRIs, fluoxetine has a longer half-life of 6-7 days, which results in fewer withdrawal symptoms. However, when switching from fluoxetine to other antidepressants, a longer transition period is necessary. It should be noted that fluoxetine’s potency as an enzyme inhibitor is not relevant in this context, and the other options are incorrect.

      Guidelines for Switching Antidepressants

      When switching antidepressants, it is important to follow specific guidelines to ensure a safe and effective transition. If switching from citalopram, escitalopram, sertraline, or paroxetine to another selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), the first SSRI should be gradually withdrawn before starting the alternative SSRI. However, if switching from fluoxetine to another SSRI, a gap of 4-7 days should be left after withdrawal due to its long half-life.

      When switching from an SSRI to a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA), cross-tapering is recommended. This involves slowly reducing the current drug dose while slowly increasing the dose of the new drug. The exception to this is fluoxetine, which should be withdrawn before starting TCAs.

      If switching from citalopram, escitalopram, sertraline, or paroxetine to venlafaxine, it is important to cross-taper cautiously. Starting with a low dose of venlafaxine (37.5 mg daily) and increasing very slowly is recommended. The same approach should be taken when switching from fluoxetine to venlafaxine.

      Overall, following these guidelines can help minimize the risk of adverse effects and ensure a smooth transition when switching antidepressants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 14 - What symptom is most indicative of anorexia nervosa? ...

    Incorrect

    • What symptom is most indicative of anorexia nervosa?

      Your Answer: Excessive exercise

      Correct Answer: Weighing oneself every few days

      Explanation:

      Anorexia Nervosa: Key Features

      Anorexia nervosa is a serious eating disorder characterized by an intense fear of gaining weight, even if the individual is already underweight. The following are key features of anorexia nervosa, as summarized from Clinical Pharmacist:

      – Body weight maintained at least 15% below that expected
      – Weight loss is self-induced through avoidance of fattening foods and one or more of the following: self-induced vomiting, self-induced purging, excessive exercise, use of appetite suppressants and/or diuretics
      – Body image distortion whereby dread of becoming fat persists as an intrusive, overvalued idea, with self-imposed low weight threshold
      – Widespread endocrine disorder involving hypothalamic pituitary gonadal axis
      – If onset before puberty, normal development is delayed or ceased

      It is important to recognize these key features in order to diagnose and treat anorexia nervosa effectively.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 15 - A 35-year-old man admits to drinking 40-50 units of alcohol per week, sometimes...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man admits to drinking 40-50 units of alcohol per week, sometimes more.
      Which of the following would suggest a diagnosis of alcohol dependence?

      Your Answer: Drinking alcohol early in the morning after waking

      Correct Answer: Withdrawal symptoms

      Explanation:

      Signs of Alcohol Dependence

      The patient is consuming alcohol in excess of the recommended safe level and is likely to have at least two positive responses to the CAGE questionnaire, indicating potential alcohol dependence. Abnormal liver function tests may also be present. According to DSMV-IV criteria, at least three of the following must be present over the preceding 12 months to diagnose alcohol dependence: tolerance to alcohol, withdrawal symptoms, increased use, unsuccessful attempts to cut down, spending time obtaining or recovering from alcohol, giving up social/occupational/recreational pursuits, and continued use despite knowledge of potential harm. The need for an Eye-opener (CAGE) suggests dependence and withdrawal symptoms in the morning.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 16 - A 25-year-old cleaner is brought in to see you by her mother and...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old cleaner is brought in to see you by her mother and husband because they are worried that she may commit suicide.

      In recent months, the couple have lost their home due to debt and are living back home with her parents and her two young sons (aged 4 and 2). She has never attempted suicide before but has expressed fleeting suicidal thoughts, having been depressed for weeks about their current circumstances.

      Which one of the following features from this history is a risk factor for suicide?

      Your Answer: Age <30

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Suicide Risk Factors in Depressed Patients

      When managing depressed patients, clinicians should always ask about suicidal intent. It is important to have knowledge of risk factors for suicide during the assessment process. Protective factors include good family support and responsibility for children. However, there are several risk factors that increase the likelihood of suicidal thoughts and behaviors. These include being male, under 30 years old or advancing in age, single, living alone, having a history of substance abuse, and experiencing feelings of hopelessness. By understanding these risk factors, clinicians can better assess and manage the care of depressed patients who may be at risk for suicide.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 17 - A 36-year-old woman, accompanied by her husband, visits her GP with unusual behavior....

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old woman, accompanied by her husband, visits her GP with unusual behavior. Her husband reports that the changes have occurred mostly in the past week and he has never seen this behavior before. He often wakes up to find her walking around the house and talking to people who are not there. During the consultation, the patient appears distracted and occasionally smiles and waves at the wall behind the doctor. There is no history of psychiatric illness in the patient or her family. The patient doesn't seem distressed and politely asks if she can leave as she believes the appointment is a waste of time.

      The patient takes loratadine 10 mg once daily for hay-fever, salbutamol and beclomethasone inhalers for asthma, and has recently started a combined oral contraceptive pill for contraception. She is also taking a course of prednisolone tablets following a recent exacerbation of her asthma.

      Which medication is most likely responsible for her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Salbutamol inhaler

      Correct Answer: Prednisolone

      Explanation:

      When a person experiences sudden onset psychosis after taking corticosteroids, it is important to consider the possibility of steroid-induced psychosis. Although both the beclomethasone inhaler and prednisolone are corticosteroids, the higher dose of prednisolone makes it the more likely culprit for the patient’s symptoms.

      Understanding Psychosis: Symptoms and Associated Features

      Psychosis is a term used to describe a person’s experience of perceiving things differently from those around them. This can manifest in a variety of ways, including hallucinations, delusions, thought disorganization, alogia, tangentiality, clanging, and word salad. These symptoms can be associated with agitation, aggression, neurocognitive impairment, depression, and thoughts of self-harm.

      Psychotic symptoms can occur in a number of conditions, including schizophrenia, depression, bipolar disorder, puerperal psychosis, brief psychotic disorder, neurological conditions like Parkinson’s disease and Huntington’s disease, and as a result of prescribed drugs or certain illicit drugs like cannabis and phencyclidine.

      The peak age of first-episode psychosis is around 15-30 years. It is important to understand the symptoms and associated features of psychosis in order to recognize and seek appropriate treatment for those experiencing these symptoms.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 18 - A 28-year-old woman attends with her mother. She has always lived at home...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman attends with her mother. She has always lived at home and never worked. Over the past few weeks she has become increasingly anxious and begs her mother not to leave her on her own at home. Her mother reveals that her daughter has always needed a lot of reassurance and has never liked being left alone.
      What is the single most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Dependent personality disorder

      Explanation:

      Common Personality and Mental Health Disorders

      Dependent Personality Disorder: This disorder is characterized by a person’s inability to make decisions on their own and a constant need for reassurance and support from others.

      Borderline Personality Disorder: Individuals with this disorder experience intense mood swings, unstable relationships, and may engage in self-harm or have suicidal tendencies.

      Conversion Disorder: This disorder involves physical symptoms that mimic a medical condition, but have no underlying medical cause.

      Depression: A mental health disorder characterized by persistent feelings of sadness, hopelessness, and loss of interest in activities.

      Histrionic Personality Disorder: People with this disorder have a strong desire for attention and may engage in dramatic or seductive behavior to gain approval from others.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 19 - A 68-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a history of coronary...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a history of coronary artery disease and hypertension and has, over the past week, become suspicious of her neighbours and daughter. She has accused her daughter of trying to steal her fiancé (who doesn't exist) and accused her neighbours of entering her house at night and stealing her belongings, although she is unable to state what is missing. The daughter reports that, over the previous year, the patient has become increasingly forgetful and functioned less well, to the point that she is now no longer able to cook or manage her own finances.
      What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Depression

      Correct Answer: Dementia

      Explanation:

      Understanding Different Diagnoses in Older Adults

      Dementia is a condition that affects memory, thinking, and social abilities, leading to a decline in daily functioning. Symptoms worsen gradually over time, unlike delirium, which has a sudden onset and can coexist with dementia. Late-onset schizophrenia-like psychosis may also occur in older adults, often due to underlying medical conditions. Depression is common but not present in this case. Drug-induced psychosis is a possibility with polypharmacy, but not in this patient’s case, where dementia is the likely diagnosis. Understanding these different diagnoses is crucial in providing appropriate care for older adults.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 20 - A 30-year-old woman is brought to your office by her brother. He is...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman is brought to your office by her brother. He is concerned about her lack of close friends and her eccentric behavior, speech, and beliefs. The patient believes she has psychic abilities and is fascinated with the paranormal. Her brother reports that she has displayed these behaviors since childhood, but he is only seeking help now as he is moving to another state and worries about leaving her alone with their parents.

      What personality disorder could be present in this patient?

      Your Answer: Antisocial personality disorder

      Correct Answer: Schizotypal personality disorder

      Explanation:

      Individuals with schizotypal personality disorder exhibit peculiar behavior, speech, and beliefs and typically do not have any close friends outside of their family.

      Personality disorders are a set of maladaptive personality traits that interfere with normal functioning in life. They are categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes odd or eccentric disorders such as paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes dramatic, emotional, or erratic disorders such as antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes anxious and fearful disorders such as obsessive-compulsive, avoidant, and dependent. These disorders affect around 1 in 20 people and can be difficult to treat. However, psychological therapies such as dialectical behaviour therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions have been shown to help patients.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 21 - A 35-year-old woman is tense and cannot relax. She lies awake at night...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman is tense and cannot relax. She lies awake at night worrying about work. You suspect she may have generalised anxiety disorder (GAD).
      Select from the list the single correct statement about the diagnosis of GAD.

      Your Answer: Anxiety must occur 3 days per week

      Correct Answer: Anxiety must have been present for at least 6 months

      Explanation:

      Understanding Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD)

      Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD) is a mental health condition characterized by excessive and persistent worry about various topics, events, or activities. This worry occurs more often than not for at least six months and is considered to be clearly excessive. In adults, the worry can be related to job responsibilities, health, finances, and other everyday life circumstances. In children, the worry is more likely to be related to their abilities or performance in school.

      Individuals with GAD find it challenging to control their worry, which may shift from one topic to another. They also experience at least three of the following symptoms: edginess or restlessness, fatigue, impaired concentration, irritability, increased muscle aches or soreness, difficulty sleeping, and physical symptoms such as sweating, nausea, or diarrhea.

      These symptoms make it hard for individuals with GAD to carry out day-to-day activities and responsibilities. It is important to note that these symptoms are unrelated to any other medical conditions and cannot be explained by the effect of substances, including prescription medication, alcohol, or recreational drugs. Additionally, these symptoms are not better explained by a different mental disorder.

      Overall, understanding the criteria for diagnosing GAD can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and support for this mental health condition.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 22 - A 25-year-old woman has been dieting excessively and has become markedly underweight.
    Select from...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman has been dieting excessively and has become markedly underweight.
      Select from the list the single most worrying feature that would suggest a need for urgent referral.

      Your Answer: Blood pressure 100/70

      Correct Answer: Inability to rise from a squatting position without using arms for support

      Explanation:

      Assessment of Medical Risk for Eating Disorders: Indicators for Urgent Referral

      The Institute of Psychiatry has developed a guide for assessing medical risk in patients with eating disorders. General practitioners can evaluate several parameters to determine if urgent referral is necessary. The following circumstances indicate the need for immediate attention:

      Nutrition: A body mass index (BMI) below 14 kg/m2 or weight loss exceeding 0.5 kg per week.

      Circulation: A systolic blood pressure below 90, a diastolic blood pressure below 70, or a postural drop greater than 10 mm Hg.

      Squat test: The patient is unable to stand up without using their arms for balance or leverage due to muscle weakness.

      Core temperature below 35°C.

      Liver function tests (LFTs): Low levels of albumin or glucose.

      Electrocardiogram (ECG): A pulse rate below 50 or a prolonged QT interval.

      By recognizing these indicators, healthcare providers can quickly identify patients who require urgent referral for further evaluation and treatment.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 23 - A 38-year-old woman comes to morning surgery and says she thinks she has...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old woman comes to morning surgery and says she thinks she has a recurrence of depression. She has all the same symptoms as during a previous bout. You want to assess the severity of her symptoms by using a questionnaire.

      Which one of the following questionnaires is validated for use in primary care?

      Your Answer: Hamilton Depression Rating Scale

      Explanation:

      Severity Categorisation in Depression Assessment Tools

      The severity of depression is an important aspect to consider when assessing and treating patients. There are several depression assessment tools that categorise severity differently. The Patient Health Questionnaire 9 (PHQ-9) categorises severity as minimal, mild, moderate, moderately severe and severe. The Hospital Anxiety and Depression Scale (HADS-D) categorises depression as normal, mild, moderate and severe. Lastly, the Beck Depression Inventory II categorises severity as minimal, mild, moderate and severe. It is important for healthcare professionals to understand the severity categorisation of each tool to accurately assess and treat patients with depression.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 24 - You are taking a history from a 21-year-old man. He reports difficulty sleeping...

    Incorrect

    • You are taking a history from a 21-year-old man. He reports difficulty sleeping at night due to concerns about abusing his special powers. He claims to be able to read other people's thoughts and sometimes feels he can control their hand movements. He believes this to be true because a passage in the Bible can be translated with a special code that dictates his powers. Additionally, he reports hearing voices talking about him.
      What is the SINGLE CORRECT terminology for this type of delusion?

      Your Answer: Delusion of guilt

      Correct Answer: Delusion of reference

      Explanation:

      Understanding Delusions: False Beliefs and Their Types

      Delusions are false beliefs that individuals hold onto despite evidence to the contrary. These beliefs are often maintained by altering other beliefs to keep their entire belief system consistent. There are several types of delusions, including delusions of reference, control, paranoia, replacement, and guilt.

      Delusions of reference involve the belief that something innocent in the public domain holds a special meaning for the individual. Delusions of control consist of the belief that an external force is controlling the patient, often citing electricity or radio waves as the mediator. Paranoid delusions involve the belief that people or organizations are plotting to harm or harass the patient, while delusions of replacement occur when someone in the patient’s life has been replaced by an impostor. Delusions of guilt involve feeling guilty or remorseful for no valid reason.

      Understanding the different types of delusions can help individuals recognize when someone they know may be experiencing them. It is important to seek professional help if someone is experiencing delusions, as they can be a symptom of a larger mental health issue.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 25 - A 36-year-old man, with a history of alcohol addiction, visits a clinic after...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old man, with a history of alcohol addiction, visits a clinic after a motorcycle accident two weeks ago. He experiences flashbacks of the accident and becomes hyper-vigilant to loud noises when he passes by the road. He has not ridden his motorcycle since the accident. His alcohol test at the time of the accident was negative.

      What is the most suitable initial treatment option?

      Your Answer: Diazepam

      Correct Answer: Trauma-focused cognitive-behavioural therapy (CBT)

      Explanation:

      Eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR)

      Acute stress disorder is a type of acute stress reaction that occurs within the first four weeks after a person has experienced a traumatic event, such as a life-threatening situation or sexual assault. This is different from post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), which is diagnosed after four weeks. Symptoms of acute stress disorder include intrusive thoughts, dissociation, negative mood, avoidance, and arousal. Intrusive thoughts may include flashbacks or nightmares, while dissociation may involve feeling like one is in a daze or experiencing time slowing down. Negative mood may manifest as feelings of sadness or hopelessness, while avoidance may involve avoiding places or people that remind one of the traumatic event. Arousal symptoms may include hypervigilance and sleep disturbance.

      The management of acute stress disorder typically involves trauma-focused cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) as a first-line treatment. Benzodiazepines may also be used to manage acute symptoms such as agitation or sleep disturbance, but caution should be exercised due to their addictive potential and concerns that they may be detrimental to adaptation. Overall, early intervention and treatment can help individuals with acute stress disorder recover and prevent the development of PTSD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 26 - A 25-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department after taking an overdose of...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department after taking an overdose of paracetamol. He has taken around 30 tablets while alone at home and left a letter for his family. He was intoxicated but managed to call an ambulance after he had taken the tablets.
      Which of the following features would most strongly suggest that there is an ongoing risk of suicide?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The fact that he took precautions to avoid discovery

      Explanation:

      Factors that Increase the Risk of Suicide After an Attempt

      When assessing a patient who has attempted suicide, certain factors can indicate a higher risk of future attempts. These include planning and taking precautions to avoid discovery, not seeking help after the attempt, using a dangerous method, and leaving final acts such as making a will or leaving a note. While a family history of suicide is more common among those who complete suicide, it doesn’t increase the immediate risk of self-harm. Alcohol use can lower inhibitions and increase the risk of deliberate self-harm, but being intoxicated at the time of the attempt doesn’t necessarily mean a higher risk of future attempts. Stressful life events in the preceding months can predispose to depression and increase the likelihood of self-harm, but do not necessarily indicate a higher risk of future attempts. Finally, taking a large amount of a dangerous substance may increase the risk of harm, but doesn’t confer a higher ongoing risk of suicide after the initial attempt. Overall, a comprehensive assessment of the patient’s mental state and risk factors is necessary to determine the appropriate level of care and support.

      Factors to Consider When Assessing the Risk of Suicide After an Attempt

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 27 - Your practice nurse brings her 14-year-old daughter to see you.
    She has recently...

    Incorrect

    • Your practice nurse brings her 14-year-old daughter to see you.
      She has recently been seen by a child and adolescent psychiatrist, who has diagnosed mild to moderate depression. She is being seen again tomorrow and mother wants to talk through the treatment options with you.
      What is the first line treatment for mild to moderate depression in a 14-year-old?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Treatment with a tricyclic antidepressant alone

      Explanation:

      First Line Treatment for Psychological Disorders

      When it comes to treating psychological disorders, it is important to offer the right therapy as a first line treatment. According to experts, one of the following specific psychological therapies should be offered for at least three months: individual non-directive supportive therapy, group cognitive behavioural therapy, or guided self-help. However, before starting any therapy, it is recommended to wait for up to four weeks and monitor the symptoms. This is known as watchful waiting. If the symptoms persist, then one of the psychological therapies mentioned above should be offered. By following this approach, patients can receive the most effective treatment for their psychological disorder.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 28 - A 45-year-old mother of three children who is typically healthy has been consulting...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old mother of three children who is typically healthy has been consulting with you for 6 weeks due to feelings of low mood. She denies having any thoughts of self-harm and there are no concerns about the safety of her children.

      She has undergone a low-intensity psychosocial intervention, but her symptoms have not improved, and she now has a PHQ-9 depression questionnaire score of 12, indicating moderate depression. She is interested in trying an antidepressant and has no allergies or medical conditions that would prevent her from taking medication.

      What is the recommended first-line medication for her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sertraline

      Explanation:

      When it comes to treating less severe depression, the recommended first-line antidepressant is an SSRI (selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor) like sertraline. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) such as amitriptyline are no longer considered the first choice due to their increased risk of overdose. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) like isocarboxazid are rarely prescribed due to their potential for serious side effects. Noradrenaline and specific serotonergic antidepressants (NASSAs) like mirtazapine may be an alternative for those who cannot take SSRIs, but they may cause more drowsiness.

      NICE Guidelines for Managing Depression

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines for managing depression in 2022. The new guidelines classify depression severity as less severe and more severe based on a PHQ-9 score of <16 and ≥16, respectively. For less severe depression, NICE recommends discussing treatment options with patients and considering the least intrusive and least resource-intensive treatment first. Antidepressant medication should not be routinely offered as first-line treatment unless it is the patient's preference. Treatment options for less severe depression include guided self-help, group cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), group behavioral activation (BA), individual CBT, individual BA, group exercise, group mindfulness and meditation, interpersonal psychotherapy (IPT), selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), counseling, and short-term psychodynamic psychotherapy (STPP). For more severe depression, a shared decision should be made between the patient and healthcare provider. Treatment options for more severe depression include a combination of individual CBT and an antidepressant, individual CBT, individual BA, antidepressant medication (SSRI, SNRI, or another antidepressant if indicated based on previous clinical and treatment history), individual problem-solving, counseling, STPP, IPT, guided self-help, and group exercise.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 29 - A 25-year-old crystal healer who lives alone says she doesn't have a best...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old crystal healer who lives alone says she doesn't have a best friend and thinks that people judge her unfairly. She says that the power of crystals will cure leukaemia and sometimes feels that her life story appears in magazine stories.
      Select from the list the single best description of her personality type.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Schizotypal

      Explanation:

      Understanding Personality Disorders: Clusters and Characteristics

      Personality disorders are not easy to diagnose, but they can be seen as extreme versions of normal behavior that affect an individual’s social functioning. Psychotherapy and cognitive behavior therapy can be helpful, and medication may be used in some cases. These disorders can be grouped into three clusters: odd, dramatic, and anxious. The odd PDs include paranoid, schizotypal, and schizoid. The dramatic PDs include histrionic, borderline, narcissistic, and antisocial. The anxious PDs include dependent, obsessive-compulsive, and avoidant. Borderline personality disorder is characterized by fear of abandonment, unstable relationships, and dangerous behavior. Histrionic personality disorder is characterized by excessive attention-seeking behavior and a need for approval.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 30 - A 35-year-old woman presents with a 3-week episode of insomnia, increased psychomotor activity...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents with a 3-week episode of insomnia, increased psychomotor activity and impulsivity. There is no history of substance abuse, general medical problems, emotional stresses or depressive episodes. Mental status examination reveals a well-oriented woman with pressured speech and mood lability. A diagnosis of mania is made. Select from the list the possibility that she may experience a similar episode later on in life.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 90%

      Explanation:

      Understanding Bipolar Disorder: Symptoms, Prognosis, and Long-Term Effects

      Bipolar disorder is a mental illness that affects many individuals, typically first appearing in their third decade of life. The disorder is characterized by episodes of mania or hypomania, which can be followed by periods of depression. While recovery from an individual episode is possible, the long-term prognosis for those with bipolar disorder is often poorer than expected. Studies have shown that individuals with bipolar disorder can expect to experience an average of ten further episodes of mood disturbance over a 25-year period. As the number of episodes increases and individuals age, the time between episodes tends to shorten. It is important to understand that bipolar disorder is a chronic, lifelong illness that requires ongoing management and treatment.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 31 - A 29-year-old male presents with persistent fatigue, myalgia, poor concentration and irritability following...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old male presents with persistent fatigue, myalgia, poor concentration and irritability following a flu like illness 18 months previously.

      A diagnosis of chronic fatigue syndrome (CFS) is made.

      What is the appropriate initial management of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Psychoanalysis

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Treatment of Chronic Fatigue Syndrome

      Chronic fatigue syndrome (CFS) is a debilitating condition that affects many individuals. To receive a diagnosis of CFS, a patient must have severe chronic fatigue lasting four months or longer (three months in children or young people) and have other medical conditions excluded by clinical diagnosis. Additionally, they must have four or more of the following symptoms: impaired memory or concentration, sore throat, tender lymph nodes, muscle pain, joint pain without swelling or redness, headaches, unrefreshing sleep, or post-exertional malaise lasting more than 24 hours.

      For those with mild or moderate CFS, cognitive behavioral therapy and/or graded exercise therapy should be offered and provided to those who choose these approaches. These interventions have the clearest research evidence of benefit. Other treatment options have not been shown to be effective in treating CFS. It is important for individuals with CFS to work with their healthcare provider to find the best treatment plan for their specific needs.

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  • Question 32 - A 35-year-old man has depression which has not responded to a monoamine oxidase...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man has depression which has not responded to a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI). You stop the MAOI and wish to prescribe a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI).

      How long should you wait before starting the SSRI?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 3 days

      Explanation:

      Starting SSRI after MAOI

      When switching from a MAOI to an SSRI, it is important to wait at least two weeks before starting the new medication. MAOIs can inhibit the enzymes responsible for breaking down certain neurotransmitters, such as noradrenaline and 5-hydroxytryptamine (5HT). This can lead to a buildup of these neurotransmitters in the body, which can cause severe drug reactions if an SSRI is started too soon. It may take up to two weeks for the enzymes to resume normal activity after stopping a MAOI, so it is important to wait until this wash-out period is over before starting an SSRI. This information is consistent with the guidelines provided by the British National Formulary (BNF) and is commonly tested on the Applied Knowledge Test (AKT) for medical professionals.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 33 - A 43-year-old woman comes to the clinic. She has been feeling down for...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year-old woman comes to the clinic. She has been feeling down for the past 10 weeks, experiencing a loss of appetite, weight loss, and waking up at 4 am every morning. She often struggles to focus.

      She was laid off from her job four months ago, and her elderly father recently suffered a stroke. Her partner is supportive but works odd hours, so he cannot accompany her today. Her daughter is away at college, and she has not talked to anyone about her current issues.

      She had a bout of moderate depression five years ago and was successfully treated with Fluoxetine for two years. She currently has no suicidal thoughts and is eager to seek help early this time. You discuss CBT with her, and she agrees to it.

      What other intervention is likely to be the most helpful for her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange to see her again in one week

      Explanation:

      Treatment Plan for a Patient with Depression and a Recent Life Event

      This patient has a history of moderate depression that responded well to SSRI treatment. She is currently experiencing cognitive and biological symptoms of depression, likely exacerbated by a recent life event – redundancy. Additionally, her mother’s illness is a concern and her potential role as a caregiver will need to be explored. While her partner is supportive, their shift work may make providing day-to-day support difficult.

      To address her symptoms, the patient will require frequent support and advice on sleep hygiene, as well as medication. Given her previous successful treatment with fluoxetine, this will be the first medication to try. A tricyclic antidepressant is less likely to be well-tolerated and carries a higher risk of overdose.

      If the patient is at significant risk of self-harm, has psychotic symptoms, or has complex disease, referral to specialist mental health services is recommended for expert opinion on treatment and management.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 34 - What option indicates managing depression through monitoring and providing general guidance only? ...

    Incorrect

    • What option indicates managing depression through monitoring and providing general guidance only?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No obvious trigger factors

      Explanation:

      Managing Depression Symptoms

      A patient experiencing symptoms of depression for less than two weeks or with intermittent symptoms can initially be managed through non-invasive methods. This approach is also suitable if there is a clear stressor or if the patient has good social support. However, if the patient has a family history of depression or has had suicidal thoughts, more active intervention may be necessary. It is important to carefully assess each patient’s individual situation and provide appropriate treatment to ensure the best possible outcome.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 35 - A 56-year-old man has been attending community services for his hazardous alcohol abuse....

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man has been attending community services for his hazardous alcohol abuse. He no longer enjoys activities that he used to and has difficulty concentrating when watching television. His appetite is variable and he struggles to fall asleep most nights. Upon further assessment using the PHQ-9, he has developed symptoms of moderate depression. Despite still drinking 34 units of alcohol a week, it has been decided to treat his depression medically. Which antidepressant is most likely to be effective?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mirtazapine

      Explanation:

      When deciding to start an antidepressant for someone with comorbid alcohol abuse and depression, NICE recommends treating the alcohol disorder first. However, if an antidepressant is still chosen, it should be noted that SSRIs may not be effective in this situation. Instead, evidence suggests that mirtazapine can improve depression and also reduce alcohol intake. (Source: Journal of Dual Diagnosis, 2012;8(3):200)

      Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are the first-line treatment for depression, with citalopram and fluoxetine being the preferred options. They should be used with caution in children and adolescents, and patients should be monitored for increased anxiety and agitation. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and there is an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Citalopram and escitalopram are associated with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation and should not be used in certain patients. SSRIs have a higher propensity for drug interactions, and patients should be reviewed after 2 weeks of treatment. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period. Use of SSRIs during pregnancy should be weighed against the risks and benefits.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 36 - A 29-year-old woman is brought in by her husband. She has been refusing...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman is brought in by her husband. She has been refusing to leave her house for the past 4 months, citing her fear of contracting avian flu. Upon further questioning, she reveals that the large number of migratory birds she sees in her backyard is causing her distress. She explains that the sight of her husband's socks hanging on the clothesline in the garden triggered her anxiety. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute paranoid schizophrenia

      Explanation:

      Schizophrenia: Symptoms and Features

      Schizophrenia is a mental disorder that is characterized by a range of symptoms. One of the most prominent classifications of these symptoms is Schneider’s first rank symptoms. These symptoms can be divided into four categories: auditory hallucinations, thought disorders, passivity phenomena, and delusional perceptions. Auditory hallucinations can include hearing two or more voices discussing the patient in the third person, thought echo, or voices commenting on the patient’s behavior. Thought disorders can include thought insertion, thought withdrawal, and thought broadcasting. Passivity phenomena can include bodily sensations being controlled by external influence or experiences that are imposed on the individual or influenced by others. Delusional perceptions can involve a two-stage process where a normal object is perceived, and then there is a sudden intense delusional insight into the object’s meaning for the patient.

      Other features of schizophrenia include impaired insight, incongruity/blunting of affect (inappropriate emotion for circumstances), decreased speech, neologisms (made-up words), catatonia, and negative symptoms such as anhedonia (inability to derive pleasure), alogia (poverty of speech), and avolition (poor motivation). It is important to note that not all individuals with schizophrenia will experience all of these symptoms, and the severity of symptoms can vary from person to person.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 37 - A 78-year-old male attends clinic with his daughter who reports that her father...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old male attends clinic with his daughter who reports that her father has become disinterested and withdrawn.

      Which of the following would favour a diagnosis of dementia rather than depression?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Self-reported concern of poor memory

      Explanation:

      Differentiating between Alzheimer’s and Depression

      Urinary incontinence is an uncommon symptom associated with depression, but it is more typical of dementia or normal pressure hydrocephalus. On the other hand, impaired memory and concern over memory deficits can be found in both depression and dementia. Therefore, it can be challenging to differentiate between Alzheimer’s and depression based on these symptoms alone. Mayo Clinic suggests that a combination of symptoms and medical tests can help differentiate between the two conditions. Proper diagnosis and treatment can improve the quality of life for individuals and their families.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 38 - A 25-year-old male presented with a paranoid psychosis accompanied by visual hallucinations which...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male presented with a paranoid psychosis accompanied by visual hallucinations which resolved over the next three days.

      Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diazepam dependence

      Explanation:

      Understanding Alcohol Withdrawal and Hallucinations

      The key points in the history are that the patient is experiencing visual hallucinations that resolve over 72 hours. Based on the given options, alcohol withdrawal is the most likely cause, especially since the patient also has paranoid psychosis. Symptoms of alcohol withdrawal typically appear 6-12 hours after cessation and include insomnia, tremors, anxiety, and nausea, among others. Alcoholic hallucinosis can also occur, which includes visual, auditory, and tactile hallucinations. Withdrawal seizures and delirium tremens can also occur, with the latter having a mortality rate of approximately 35% without treatment. It’s important to note that benzodiazepines can cause a protracted withdrawal syndrome, while fluoxetine overdose, heroin withdrawal, and cannabis use have their own distinct symptoms and effects. Understanding the signs and symptoms of alcohol withdrawal and hallucinations can help in proper diagnosis and treatment.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 39 - A 33-year-old male patient with a history of paranoid schizophrenia was admitted under...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old male patient with a history of paranoid schizophrenia was admitted under the Mental Health Act due to a decline in his mental health. During his inpatient stay, it was decided that Clozapine would be the most appropriate Antipsychotic for him and he was started on this medication. After his mental state stabilized, he was transferred to a rehabilitation unit. However, it was discovered that he had missed his Clozapine doses for two consecutive days. What is the recommended course of action to address these missed doses of Clozapine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Re-titrate the Clozapine doses again slowly

      Explanation:

      If a patient misses their clozapine doses for more than 48 hours, they will need to slowly restart their dose as if they were starting the medication for the first time. This process should be supervised by a Psychiatrist. Restarting clozapine after a break of more than 48 hours can exacerbate side effects such as changes in blood pressure, drowsiness, and dizziness. If the treatment gap exceeds 72 hours, the patient may require more frequent blood tests for a brief period.

      Patients taking antipsychotic medication require extensive monitoring in addition to clinical follow-up. The British National Formulary (BNF) recommends regular testing of full blood count (FBC), urea and electrolytes (U&E), and liver function tests (LFT) at the start of therapy and annually thereafter. Clozapine requires more frequent monitoring of FBC, initially weekly. Lipids and weight should be tested at the start of therapy, at 3 months, and annually. Fasting blood glucose and prolactin should be tested at the start of therapy, at 6 months, and annually. Blood pressure should be monitored frequently during dose titration, and an electrocardiogram and cardiovascular risk assessment should be done at baseline and annually. The BNF provides specific recommendations for individual drugs, and patients should consult their healthcare provider for more information.

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  • Question 40 - A 60-year-old man is brought to his General Practitioner (GP) by his son....

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man is brought to his General Practitioner (GP) by his son. The son complains that his father's personality has changed completely over the past year. Even at his best, he is forgetful and ‘switched off’. At worst, he is drowsy and unresponsive. He is particularly concerned that his father has been claiming to 'see things that aren't really there'. Over the past few weeks, he has also been tripping a lot on the carpet and is no longer safe on the stairs going to his bedroom unaccompanied. The GP gave the patient a small dose of a neuroleptic which 'made things a million times worse'.
      On examination, he has an inexpressive face, with a mild resting tremor and some axial rigidity. There is no other focal neurology. On mini-mental state examination, he scores 20/30.
      What is the most likely primary brain pathology?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lewy bodies

      Explanation:

      Understanding Lewy Body Dementia: A Comparison with Other Neurological Conditions

      Lewy body dementia is a neurological condition characterized by extrapyramidal signs, visual hallucinations, and a variable symptom profile. Patients with this condition are also highly sensitive to the anticholinergic side-effects of neuroleptics. The presence of eosinophilic inclusions bodies called Lewy bodies in the limbic areas of the brain is a hallmark of this condition.

      It is important to differentiate Lewy body dementia from other neurological conditions that may present with similar symptoms. Normal brain is an unlikely diagnosis given the neurological symptoms seen in patients with Lewy body dementia. Multiple infarcts in the grey matter, on the other hand, typically have a stepwise course with an acute onset and patchy cognitive impairment. Neurofibrillary tangles are characteristic of Alzheimer’s disease, which presents with early impairment of memory that evolves into more general deficits in concentration and attention. Finally, Pick bodies are associated with fronto-temporal dementias and tend to involve disinhibition as an early feature.

      In summary, understanding the unique features of Lewy body dementia and its differences from other neurological conditions is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate management of patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 41 - A 35-year-old man is prescribed lithium for his bipolar disorder. What is the...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man is prescribed lithium for his bipolar disorder. What is the appropriate time interval before his plasma lithium should be checked for the first time?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 7 days

      Explanation:

      Monitoring Lithium Treatment: Guidelines and Recommendations

      Before starting lithium treatment, it is important to conduct several tests, including ECG, thyroid function tests, renal function tests, and U&Es. After starting treatment, the plasma level should be checked after 7 days and then every 7 days until the required level is reached. The blood sample should be taken 12 hours after the dose has been taken. Once stable, the level should be checked every 3 months for the first year and 3-6 monthly depending on risk thereafter.

      In addition to monitoring lithium levels, it is also important to regularly check thyroid function, calcium, eGFR, and U&Es every 6 months. Normal lithium levels vary between different laboratories but are generally about 0.6 – 1.0 mmol/l.

      Lithium toxicity can occur at levels above the normal range and usually consists of gastrointestinal (anorexia, nausea, diarrhea) and central nervous system effects (muscle weakness, drowsiness, ataxia, coarse tremor, muscle twitching). Therefore, serum levels should also be taken during any intercurrent illness as this can increase toxicity.

      Overall, monitoring lithium treatment is crucial for ensuring patient safety and optimizing treatment outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 42 - A 50-year-old woman with a known history of depression, previously well controlled with...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman with a known history of depression, previously well controlled with fluoxetine, has started to suffer from anxiety, loss of interest and reduced appetite. She also complains of insomnia.

      She claims that she is taking her medications regularly according to prescription. You conclude that her depression has not responded to treatment.

      What will be the most appropriate management for her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Switch to another SSRI

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Non-Responsive Depression

      When a patient fails to respond to fluoxetine, which is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), it is recommended to switch to another SSRI first. If this doesn’t work, the NICE update on depression (2010) suggests trying a newer generation antidepressant that is better tolerated. It is important to find the right medication for each individual patient, as depression can have a significant impact on their quality of life. Therefore, healthcare professionals should closely monitor patients and adjust their treatment plan accordingly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 43 - A 39-year-old teacher is being evaluated after starting an antidepressant. She initially presented...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old teacher is being evaluated after starting an antidepressant. She initially presented with various symptoms of depression and a PHQ-9 score of 18. She has experienced several significant life events leading up to her diagnosis.

      She is married with a daughter in college, but has a strong support system from her family. You decided to initiate treatment with sertraline 50 mg, but she reports no improvement in her depression and your assessment agrees.

      Despite the lack of effectiveness in her treatment thus far, she appears to be tolerating the medication without any adverse effects.

      Based on NICE guidelines for depression treatment, at what point in her treatment would you consider increasing the dosage if she has not responded?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Six to eight weeks

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Depression: Considerations for Medication Adjustment

      When treating depression, it is important to monitor the patient’s response to medication. If there is no improvement within three to four weeks, it may be necessary to increase the dose or switch to a different antidepressant. However, if there is some improvement at four weeks, it is recommended to continue treatment for an additional two to four weeks before making any further changes.

      In this particular case, the patient is tolerating the medication well and has support from her husband. Therefore, the focus should be on adjusting the medication. This recommendation is based on NICE guidance on Depression in adults (CG90) and is supported by other publications. By closely monitoring the patient’s response and making appropriate adjustments, healthcare providers can help improve outcomes for those struggling with depression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 44 - A 30-year-old female presents after her partner encouraged her to see the GP....

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old female presents after her partner encouraged her to see the GP. She has had hyperarousal to loud noises and difficulty concentrating at work following a car accident 4 weeks ago. Her partner did some reading online and feels she is suffering from an acute stress disorder. You advise her that she has post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) and discuss treatment options. She asks what the difference is, so that she can explain it to her partner. You advise there are similarities in the presentation and the main difference is temporal.

      At what point after the event can you confirm a diagnosis of PTSD?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 4 weeks

      Explanation:

      Acute stress disorder is characterized by an acute stress reaction that occurs within 4 weeks of a traumatic event, while PTSD is diagnosed after 4 weeks have passed. Symptoms presented at 2 weeks would indicate acute stress disorder. PTSD and acute stress disorder share similar symptoms, including re-experiencing, avoidance, hyperarousal, and emotional numbing. Re-experiencing symptoms may include flashbacks, nightmares, and intrusive images, while avoidance symptoms may involve avoiding people, situations, or circumstances associated with the traumatic event. Hyperarousal symptoms may include hypervigilance, exaggerated startle response, sleep disturbances, irritability, and difficulty concentrating. Emotional numbing may manifest as a lack of ability to experience feelings or feeling detached.

      Acute stress disorder is a type of acute stress reaction that occurs within the first four weeks after a person has experienced a traumatic event, such as a life-threatening situation or sexual assault. This is different from post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), which is diagnosed after four weeks. Symptoms of acute stress disorder include intrusive thoughts, dissociation, negative mood, avoidance, and arousal. Intrusive thoughts may include flashbacks or nightmares, while dissociation may involve feeling like one is in a daze or experiencing time slowing down. Negative mood may manifest as feelings of sadness or hopelessness, while avoidance may involve avoiding places or people that remind one of the traumatic event. Arousal symptoms may include hypervigilance and sleep disturbance.

      The management of acute stress disorder typically involves trauma-focused cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) as a first-line treatment. Benzodiazepines may also be used to manage acute symptoms such as agitation or sleep disturbance, but caution should be exercised due to their addictive potential and concerns that they may be detrimental to adaptation. Overall, early intervention and treatment can help individuals with acute stress disorder recover and prevent the development of PTSD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 45 - A 54-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of an unrelenting itch. Despite...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of an unrelenting itch. Despite undergoing a thorough examination, blood tests, and a consultation with a dermatologist, no underlying cause has been identified. The patient reveals that she strongly believes in a particular explanation for her symptom.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Delusional parasitosis

      Explanation:

      Delusional parasitosis is the correct term for a patient who has a fixed, false belief that they are infested by bugs. This condition is characterized by persistent itching and the belief that there are insects crawling on or under the skin. Capgras delusion, Cotard’s syndrome, and De Clerambault’s syndrome are all different psychological conditions that are not related to delusional parasitosis.

      Understanding Delusional Parasitosis

      Delusional parasitosis is a condition that is not commonly seen, but it can be quite distressing for those who experience it. Essentially, it involves a person having a false belief that they are infested with some kind of bug or parasite, such as worms, mites, or bacteria. This belief is fixed and unshakeable, even in the face of evidence to the contrary.

      It is important to note that delusional parasitosis can occur on its own, but it may also be a symptom of other psychiatric conditions. Despite the delusion, many people with this condition are otherwise functional and able to carry out their daily activities. However, the belief can cause significant anxiety and distress, and may lead to behaviors such as excessive cleaning or avoidance of certain places or activities. Treatment for delusional parasitosis typically involves a combination of medication and therapy to address the underlying psychiatric condition and help the person manage their symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 46 - A 53-year-old unemployed man has been seeing you for the past six months...

    Incorrect

    • A 53-year-old unemployed man has been seeing you for the past six months as a newly registered patient with depression. He lives alone without support.

      He has suffered from depression since he was a young man, taking citalopram 20 mg for the past five months but has frequently defaulted review appointments with you. He last saw a colleague of yours as an emergency appointment eight weeks ago but did not attend follow up with you one week later as advised.

      On this occasion, you have been asked to visit by a neighbour who fears that he may have died, because his curtains have been drawn for seven days and when she last saw him, through his lounge window, he looked 'absolutely awful and has lost a lot of weight'.

      You phone his house, but there is no reply. You decide to visit, fearing the worst, but he finally answers the door when you shout your name through his letterbox.

      On examination he appears to have lost a significant amount of weight and is unshaven. He says that he has not slept or eaten for four days and feels very depressed. He says that he doesn't feel suicidal and that he is still taking the antidepressants, but you notice that there is an unopened box of tablets on his kitchen table. His house is very unkempt.

      What is the best way of managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tail off citalopram and switch to dosulepin

      Explanation:

      Consider Inpatient Treatment for High-Risk Patients

      You should consider inpatient treatment for individuals who are at a significant risk of suicide, self-harm, or self-neglect. According to the NICE guidance on Depression in adults (CG90), inpatient treatment should be considered for those who are at high risk.

      In this case, the patient is showing signs of self-neglect and has little social support. He has missed appointments and may not be taking his medication as prescribed. These factors increase the risk of suicide, although this has not been explicitly stated in the patient’s history.

      Changing the patient’s medication may not be appropriate since there is no guarantee that he will comply. Asking a neighbor to check on him may provide some support, but it may not be enough.

      Given the available information, the most appropriate course of action would be to consider emergency admission by contacting the mental health team. This will ensure that the patient receives the necessary care and support to manage his risk of self-harm or suicide.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 47 - A 60-year-old man has been divorced for five years and now lives alone....

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man has been divorced for five years and now lives alone. He has a history of chronic back pain. He has been fully investigated and he has lumbar spondylosis. He becomes very emotional during a medication review consultation. The General Practitioner wants to screen for depression.
      According to current National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidance, what would be most appropriate to ask about as an initial part of this screening process?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Having little interest or pleasure in doing things

      Explanation:

      Identifying and Assessing Depression in Patients with Chronic Diseases

      Depression is more common in patients with chronic diseases than in those with good health. To identify depression in patients, doctors should be alert to possible symptoms and consider asking two screening questions recommended by the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE): During the last month, have you often been bothered by feeling down, depressed or hopeless? and During the last month, have you often been bothered by having little interest or pleasure in doing things? If a patient answers ‘yes’ to either question, further questions should be asked to improve the accuracy of the assessment of depression. These questions should include exploring thoughts of death, feelings of worthlessness, inability to sleep, and poor concentration. By identifying and assessing depression in patients with chronic diseases, healthcare providers can provide appropriate treatment and support to improve their overall health and well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 48 - Which of the following options indicates more severe depression compared to mild depression,...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following options indicates more severe depression compared to mild depression, according to the DSM-IV criteria recommended by NICE for diagnosis and management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Personal or family history of depression

      Explanation:

      Identifying Symptoms that Require Active Intervention in Primary Care

      It is crucial to differentiate symptoms that require active intervention from those that favor general advice and monitoring in primary care. If there are five or more diagnostic symptoms, occasional suicidal thoughts, no apparent stress trigger, and symptoms present for more than two weeks, this indicates more severe disease. In such cases, active intervention is more likely to be necessary. On the other hand, the four incorrect options favor general advice and monitoring. Therefore, it is essential to identify the symptoms that require active intervention to provide appropriate care to patients.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 49 - A 26-year-old male has been diagnosed with schizophrenia and is currently receiving olanzapine...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old male has been diagnosed with schizophrenia and is currently receiving olanzapine depot injections to manage his psychotic symptoms. Prior to starting the treatment, his psychiatrist conducted a full blood count, urea and electrolytes, and liver function test. If the patient continues to take olanzapine in the long term, how frequently should these parameters be monitored?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Annually

      Explanation:

      Before starting a patient on antipsychotics and on an annual basis thereafter, it is recommended to conduct a full blood count, urea and electrolytes, and liver function test. Any other options presented in this scenario are incorrect. It is important to note that different antipsychotics may have varying monitoring requirements, and consulting the BNF is advised if unfamiliar with these drugs.

      Patients taking antipsychotic medication require extensive monitoring in addition to clinical follow-up. The British National Formulary (BNF) recommends regular testing of full blood count (FBC), urea and electrolytes (U&E), and liver function tests (LFT) at the start of therapy and annually thereafter. Clozapine requires more frequent monitoring of FBC, initially weekly. Lipids and weight should be tested at the start of therapy, at 3 months, and annually. Fasting blood glucose and prolactin should be tested at the start of therapy, at 6 months, and annually. Blood pressure should be monitored frequently during dose titration, and an electrocardiogram and cardiovascular risk assessment should be done at baseline and annually. The BNF provides specific recommendations for individual drugs, and patients should consult their healthcare provider for more information.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 50 - A 12-year-old girl has not been attending school.
    Select from the list of options...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old girl has not been attending school.
      Select from the list of options the single feature that would suggest school refusal rather than truancy.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting on the way to school

      Explanation:

      Understanding School Refusal: Symptoms, Causes, and Consequences

      School refusal is a common problem affecting 1-5% of school-aged children, with similar rates in both boys and girls. It typically occurs in children aged 5, 6, 10, and 11, and may be triggered by stressful events at home or school, or after a holiday or illness. Symptoms include fear, panic, crying, temper tantrums, threats of self-harm, and somatic complaints such as dizziness, headaches, and nausea.

      Short-term consequences of school refusal include poor academic performance, family difficulties, and problems with peer relationships. Long-term consequences may include academic underachievement, employment difficulties, and increased risk for psychiatric illness. Children with school refusal may suffer from significant emotional distress, particularly anxiety and depression.

      School avoidance may serve different functions depending on the child, such as avoidance of specific fears, escape from aversive social situations, separation anxiety, or attention-seeking behaviors. It is important to address school refusal early on, as the longer the child stays out of school, the more difficult it is to return.

      Overall, understanding the symptoms, causes, and consequences of school refusal can help parents and caregivers provide appropriate support and intervention for their child.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 51 - A 35-year-old female is initiated on haloperidol for treatment-resistant schizophrenia. She visits her...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old female is initiated on haloperidol for treatment-resistant schizophrenia. She visits her primary care physician complaining of neck pain and limited neck movement for the past 24 hours. Upon examination, she displays normal vital signs except for a mild tachycardia of 105 and neck stiffness with restricted range of motion. Her neck is involuntarily flexed to the right, but her facial movements are normal. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Torticollis

      Explanation:

      The patient is experiencing acute dystonia, which is a sustained muscle contraction resulting in torticollis or oculogyric crisis. This is likely due to the recent initiation of a typical antipsychotic medication, specifically haloperidol. Torticollis, or a wry neck, is diagnosed when there is unilateral pain and deviation of the neck, restricted range of motion, and pain upon palpation.

      While neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a medical emergency that can occur in patients taking antipsychotics, this patient’s mild tachycardia is likely due to pain rather than altered mental state, generalised rigidity, fever, fluctuating blood pressure, and high temperature, which are the hallmark symptoms of this condition. However, it should still be considered in patients taking antipsychotics.

      Another example of acute dystonia is an oculogyric crisis, which involves sustained upward deviation of the eyes, clenched jaw, and hyperextension of the back/neck with torticollis. However, since the patient doesn’t exhibit any facial signs or symptoms, torticollis alone is the more appropriate diagnosis.

      Tardive dyskinesia is a condition that occurs in patients on long-term typical antipsychotics and is characterised by uncontrolled facial movements, such as lip-smacking.

      Antipsychotics are a type of medication used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. However, they are known to cause extrapyramidal side-effects such as Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. These side-effects can be managed with procyclidine. Other side-effects of typical antipsychotics include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients due to an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 52 - A 25-year-old woman requests medication from her General Practitioner as she has an...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman requests medication from her General Practitioner as she has an overwhelming feeling of dread about her upcoming job interview. She becomes very anxious in situations where she is required to talk to people who are not very well known to her and usually tries to avoid such events. She is happily married and was very happy in her current job until she was made redundant.
      What is the single most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Social phobia

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Anxiety Disorders: A Brief Overview

      Anxiety disorders are a group of mental health conditions that can cause significant distress and impairment in daily life. Here are some key differences between the most common anxiety disorders:

      Social Phobia: This disorder is characterized by fear, worry, or embarrassment in social situations, leading to avoidance. Panic attacks are common, and symptoms are limited to social situations.

      Generalized Anxiety Disorder: This disorder is characterized by excessive, uncontrollable worry that is disproportionate to the situation. Physical and psychological symptoms may be present, but the worry is not limited to specific triggers.

      Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder: This disorder is characterized by intrusive thoughts or images (obsessions) and repetitive behaviors or mental acts (compulsions) that are performed to alleviate anxiety. These symptoms are not present in the scenario described.

      Panic Disorder: This disorder is characterized by sudden-onset acute anxiety symptoms, such as palpitations or hyperventilation. Panic attacks may occur without a specific trigger, but can also be triggered by specific situations.

      Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder: This disorder develops after exposure to a traumatic event and is characterized by hyperarousal, dissociation, flashbacks, and nightmares. There is no history of trauma in the scenario described, ruling out PTSD as a diagnosis.

      Understanding the differences between these anxiety disorders can help healthcare professionals make an accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 53 - A 32-year-old woman who is six weeks postpartum visits her General Practitioner with...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman who is six weeks postpartum visits her General Practitioner with complaints of feeling emotionally unstable and lacking energy. What factor in her medical history would suggest the presence of postnatal depression?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Presence of guilty thoughts

      Explanation:

      Identifying Postnatal Depression: Symptoms and Screening

      Postpartum depressive illness affects around 10-15% of women and typically begins within the first three months after childbirth. Symptoms of major depression, including depressed mood, anhedonia, and thoughts of worthlessness, are present. Anxiety about the baby’s health is common, but anxiety alone doesn’t indicate postnatal depression. Guilty thoughts are a specific symptom of depression and may be the most indicative of postnatal depression. Midwives commonly use the Edinburgh postnatal Depression Scale to screen for depression, with a score of 10 or more indicating possible depression. Inability to sleep post-delivery may be due to various factors, but if it persists alongside other symptoms, it may be an important part of screening for postnatal depression. The onset of symptoms at four days post-delivery may be indicative of baby blues, which is a common and temporary condition that doesn’t necessarily lead to postnatal depression.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 54 - A 20-year-old nursing student comes to you with a 2-year history of low...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old nursing student comes to you with a 2-year history of low mood, anhedonia, and poor concentration. She has been taking fluoxetine for 6 months and wants to switch to a different antidepressant. What important factors do you need to consider when changing her medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Long half-life

      Explanation:

      Compared to other SSRIs, fluoxetine has a longer half-life. Therefore, it is recommended to wait for about 4-7 days after discontinuing fluoxetine before starting a new antidepressant. Although fluoxetine undergoes first-pass metabolism and is excreted through the kidneys, this doesn’t affect the process of switching to another antidepressant. Instead, it may impact the appropriateness of fluoxetine for a specific patient.

      Guidelines for Switching Antidepressants

      When switching antidepressants, it is important to follow specific guidelines to ensure a safe and effective transition. If switching from citalopram, escitalopram, sertraline, or paroxetine to another selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), the first SSRI should be gradually withdrawn before starting the alternative SSRI. However, if switching from fluoxetine to another SSRI, a gap of 4-7 days should be left after withdrawal due to its long half-life.

      When switching from an SSRI to a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA), cross-tapering is recommended. This involves slowly reducing the current drug dose while slowly increasing the dose of the new drug. The exception to this is fluoxetine, which should be withdrawn before starting TCAs.

      If switching from citalopram, escitalopram, sertraline, or paroxetine to venlafaxine, it is important to cross-taper cautiously. Starting with a low dose of venlafaxine (37.5 mg daily) and increasing very slowly is recommended. The same approach should be taken when switching from fluoxetine to venlafaxine.

      Overall, following these guidelines can help minimize the risk of adverse effects and ensure a smooth transition when switching antidepressants.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 55 - A client is initiated on clozapine for treatment resistant schizophrenia. What is a...

    Incorrect

    • A client is initiated on clozapine for treatment resistant schizophrenia. What is a known adverse effect of clozapine treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypersalivation

      Explanation:

      Clozapine therapy often leads to excessive salivation, which is a commonly observed side effect. However, this issue can be effectively managed with the use of hyoscine hydrobromide.

      Atypical antipsychotics are now recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia, as per the 2005 NICE guidelines. These agents have a significant advantage over traditional antipsychotics in that they cause fewer extrapyramidal side-effects. However, atypical antipsychotics can still cause adverse effects such as weight gain, hyperprolactinaemia, and clozapine-associated agranulocytosis. Elderly patients who take antipsychotics are at an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism, according to the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency.

      Clozapine is one of the first atypical antipsychotics to be developed, but it carries a significant risk of agranulocytosis. Therefore, full blood count monitoring is essential during treatment. Clozapine should only be used in patients who are resistant to other antipsychotic medication. The BNF recommends introducing clozapine if schizophrenia is not controlled despite the sequential use of two or more antipsychotic drugs, one of which should be a second-generation antipsychotic drug, each for at least 6-8 weeks. Clozapine can cause adverse effects such as reduced seizure threshold, constipation, myocarditis, and hypersalivation. Dose adjustment of clozapine may be necessary if smoking is started or stopped during treatment.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 56 - A 40-year-old female patient presents to you for a follow-up after commencing sertraline...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old female patient presents to you for a follow-up after commencing sertraline for depression one week ago. She reports no improvement in her mood and mentions experiencing abdominal pain, nausea, and occasional diarrhoea since starting the medication. Despite this, you determine that she still requires antidepressant treatment. What is the optimal approach to address this issue?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Continue the sertraline and review in one week

      Explanation:

      Given that the patient has been experiencing GI symptoms for only a week, it may be prudent to maintain the current treatment regimen while conducting a more thorough evaluation.

      Guidelines for Switching Antidepressants

      When switching antidepressants, it is important to follow specific guidelines to ensure a safe and effective transition. If switching from citalopram, escitalopram, sertraline, or paroxetine to another selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), the first SSRI should be gradually withdrawn before starting the alternative SSRI. However, if switching from fluoxetine to another SSRI, a gap of 4-7 days should be left after withdrawal due to its long half-life.

      When switching from an SSRI to a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA), cross-tapering is recommended. This involves slowly reducing the current drug dose while slowly increasing the dose of the new drug. The exception to this is fluoxetine, which should be withdrawn before starting TCAs.

      If switching from citalopram, escitalopram, sertraline, or paroxetine to venlafaxine, it is important to cross-taper cautiously. Starting with a low dose of venlafaxine (37.5 mg daily) and increasing very slowly is recommended. The same approach should be taken when switching from fluoxetine to venlafaxine.

      Overall, following these guidelines can help minimize the risk of adverse effects and ensure a smooth transition when switching antidepressants.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 57 - A 32-year-old man finds it difficult and is reluctant to have close friends...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man finds it difficult and is reluctant to have close friends as he fears rejection. He has a low self-esteem, feels inadequate and often becomes anxious in the presence of others. He has no hobbies and has been working in the same job since he left high school.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Avoidant personality disorder

      Explanation:

      Understanding Personality Disorders: Avoidant Personality Disorder

      Personality disorders are a group of mental health conditions that affect the way individuals think, feel, and behave. One such disorder is avoidant personality disorder, which is characterized by a pervasive pattern of social inhibition, feelings of inadequacy, and hypersensitivity to negative evaluation.

      To be diagnosed with avoidant personality disorder, an individual must exhibit at least four of the following behaviors: avoiding occupational activities that involve interpersonal contact, reluctance to engage with people unless certain of being liked, showing restraint in intimate relationships due to fear of ridicule, preoccupation with criticism or rejection in social situations, inhibition in new interpersonal situations due to feelings of inadequacy, viewing oneself as socially inept or inferior, and reluctance to take personal risks or engage in new activities due to fear of embarrassment.

      It is important to note that avoidant personality disorder is distinct from other personality disorders, such as antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and schizoid personality disorders. While individuals with antisocial personality disorder may disregard the feelings of others and act outside of social norms, those with borderline personality disorder may display significant instability in relationships and mood. Histrionic personality disorder is characterized by dramatic and self-indulgent behavior, while schizoid personality disorder involves detachment from social relationships and a restricted range of emotions.

      Overall, understanding the symptoms and behaviors associated with avoidant personality disorder can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and support for this condition.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 58 - A middle-aged woman with mild depression presents for a follow-up appointment. She seeks...

    Incorrect

    • A middle-aged woman with mild depression presents for a follow-up appointment. She seeks guidance on whether taking an antidepressant would be helpful. According to the latest NICE recommendations, which of the following factors would support the use of an antidepressant?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: If her depression complicates a chronic health problem e.g. Compliance with COPD medication

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidelines for Managing Depression

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines for managing depression in 2022. The new guidelines classify depression severity as less severe and more severe based on a PHQ-9 score of <16 and ≥16, respectively. For less severe depression, NICE recommends discussing treatment options with patients and considering the least intrusive and least resource-intensive treatment first. Antidepressant medication should not be routinely offered as first-line treatment unless it is the patient's preference. Treatment options for less severe depression include guided self-help, group cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), group behavioral activation (BA), individual CBT, individual BA, group exercise, group mindfulness and meditation, interpersonal psychotherapy (IPT), selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), counseling, and short-term psychodynamic psychotherapy (STPP). For more severe depression, a shared decision should be made between the patient and healthcare provider. Treatment options for more severe depression include a combination of individual CBT and an antidepressant, individual CBT, individual BA, antidepressant medication (SSRI, SNRI, or another antidepressant if indicated based on previous clinical and treatment history), individual problem-solving, counseling, STPP, IPT, guided self-help, and group exercise.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 59 - You see a 55-year-old man for follow up after diagnosing depression at a...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 55-year-old man for follow up after diagnosing depression at a previous appointment.
      He has brought back the completed patient health questionnaire (PHQ-9) as you requested. The PHQ-9 is a questionnaire validated for use in diagnosis and treatment of depression in primary care.
      In monitoring symptom severity what is the time period covered by the questionnaire?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Previous week

      Explanation:

      The Two-Week Symptom Monitoring Questionnaire

      The Two-Week Symptom Monitoring Questionnaire is designed to gather information about a person’s symptoms over the past two weeks. It can be completed at regular intervals to track changes in symptoms and help make decisions about treatment.

      By answering the questions in the questionnaire, individuals can provide valuable information about their physical and mental health. This information can be used by healthcare professionals to diagnose and treat conditions, as well as to monitor the effectiveness of treatments over time.

      The questionnaire is a useful tool for individuals who are experiencing ongoing symptoms or who are undergoing treatment for a chronic condition. By completing the questionnaire regularly, individuals can track changes in their symptoms and make informed decisions about their health and wellbeing.

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  • Question 60 - A 38-year-old woman comes in for evaluation. Her spouse reports that she had...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman comes in for evaluation. Her spouse reports that she had a disagreement with their daughter, causing her to leave the house. Following this incident, she has been unable to speak. Physical examination of her chest and throat reveals no abnormalities. What is the most appropriate term to describe this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Psychogenic aphonia

      Explanation:

      Understanding Aphonia: The Inability to Speak

      Aphonia is a medical condition that refers to the inability to speak. It can be caused by various factors, including recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy, which can occur after a thyroidectomy. In this case, the nerve that controls the vocal cords is damaged, leading to difficulty in speaking.

      Another cause of aphonia is psychogenic, which means that it is related to psychological factors. This can include anxiety, depression, or other mental health conditions that affect the ability to communicate verbally.

      It is important to note that aphonia is different from mutism, which is the inability to speak due to a physical or neurological condition. In contrast, aphonia is typically a temporary condition that can be treated with appropriate medical or psychological interventions.

      Overall, understanding aphonia is crucial for identifying and addressing the underlying causes of this condition. Whether it is related to a physical or psychological issue, seeking medical attention can help individuals regain their ability to speak and improve their quality of life.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 61 - A 24-year-old woman is brought to the practice by her mother who is...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old woman is brought to the practice by her mother who is extremely concerned.

      For the past three months, she has been low in mood and over the last three weeks is increasingly withdrawn. She has stopped going to work and her evening fitness classes, has lost weight and has eaten nothing for two days. She is not sleeping and is unable to concentrate for any length of time. She had expressed feelings of guilt and hopelessness to her mother but is now barely speaking at all.

      She is usually bright and cheerful. Her father has a history of severe depression. Her engagement was broken off about four months ago. She doesn't have any children.

      How should this situation be managed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer to a counsellor for CBT

      Explanation:

      Urgent Referral for Severe Depression

      This patient is experiencing severe depression, with probable psychomotor retardation and an inability to function normally. There is also a family history of severe depression, putting her at risk of harm through self-neglect. Primary care is not equipped to manage this situation adequately, and urgent assessment and probable inpatient treatment are necessary.

      In cases where there is a risk to life, severe self-neglect, severe symptoms, or severe impairment, urgent referral is required. Taking the patient to the Emergency department may cause unnecessary delays, and the best course of action is to refer directly to psychiatry. By doing so, the patient can receive the specialist input needed for treatment and further management. It is crucial to act quickly in situations like this to ensure the patient’s safety and well-being.

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  • Question 62 - A middle-aged woman is concerned that she may not be able to take...

    Incorrect

    • A middle-aged woman is concerned that she may not be able to take her final university examinations in three months' time because she experiences flustered, faint and dizzy spells during written examinations. She reports no symptoms at any other time, including when engaging in physical activity. Her resting ECG is normal and clinical examination doesn't reveal any abnormalities. What would be the best course of action in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange counselling, with relaxation training

      Explanation:

      Understanding a Student’s Symptoms of Stress and Anxiety

      The symptoms described by the student are typical of stress and anxiety, which are common experiences among students. It is important to reassure the student that these symptoms are not indicative of any organic disease. However, if the student is still concerned, a 24-hour ECG monitoring can be done to provide further reassurance.

      It is not recommended to prescribe diazepam as it can impair the student’s exam performance. Fluoxetine may also not be the best option as it can increase feelings of anxiety. Instead, the student can be advised to practice relaxation techniques, such as deep breathing exercises or meditation, to help manage their stress and anxiety. It is also important to encourage the student to seek support from friends, family, or a mental health professional if needed. By understanding and addressing the student’s symptoms, they can better manage their stress and anxiety and perform well in their exams.

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  • Question 63 - What is the most effective way to distinguish between depression and dementia in...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most effective way to distinguish between depression and dementia in older adults?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hospital anxiety and depression (HAD) scale

      Explanation:

      Clinical Tests for Distinguishing Dementia from Depression

      Clinical tests are the most reliable way to distinguish between dementia and depression. One such test involves registering three objects and recalling them after five minutes. Dementia patients typically struggle with this task. Another test involves recalling items in a category, such as a list of plants, animals, or furniture items.

      On the other hand, scales like the HAD scale do not differentiate between dementia and depression. They only assess the likelihood of depression being present. Blood tests can also be useful in ruling out underlying causes of dementia, such as thyroid function tests and B12 tests. However, liver function tests are unlikely to contribute much to the diagnosis. By using these clinical tests, healthcare professionals can accurately diagnose and differentiate between dementia and depression.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 64 - A 17-year-old female comes to see you with her mother. Her mother is...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old female comes to see you with her mother. Her mother is concerned about her daughter's lack of self-confidence and lack of friends.

      You talk with the daughter who tells you that she is worried about her weight and feels that she needs to lose weight to be more attractive. She feels that she needs to lose at least another 2 stones for her 'ideal' body weight. Her mother tells you that she is pre-occupied with her eating habits and this has been a persistent problem for a 'long time'. You weigh her and her body mass index is 23.

      On clinical examination you note skin abrasions and some callous formation on the dorsum of her hands overlying the metacarpophalangeal joints and the presence of some dental erosion affecting the teeth.

      What is the underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Substance misuse

      Explanation:

      Bulimia Nervosa: Characteristics and Physical Signs

      Bulimia nervosa is an eating disorder characterized by persistent preoccupation with eating, cravings for food that cannot be resisted, episodes of binge eating, and compensatory methods to counter the effects of food on body weight and shape. Unlike anorexia nervosa, body weight may be normal with bulimia. Physical signs of bulimia include arrhythmias, electrolyte abnormalities, upper GI erosions, ulcers, and dental erosions. Russell’s sign, skin abrasions, lacerations, and calluses overlying the dorsal aspect of the small joints of the hands, is a clinical sign caused by repetitive friction between the teeth and skin when sufferers use their fingers/hand to self-induce vomiting. Bulimia is often associated with other psychiatric comorbidities such as depression and alcohol/substance misuse. This behavior is not normal adolescent behavior as it is persistent and causing significant psychological symptoms and demonstrable physical signs.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 65 - A 12-year-old girl has been excluded from school because of her conduct. Her...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old girl has been excluded from school because of her conduct. Her mother wonders if a psychological problem might explain her behaviour. What is conduct disorder and how might it be related to the girl's behaviour?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It may be associated with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Conduct Disorder: Characteristics and Prevalence

      Conduct disorder (CD) is a behavioral disorder that is characterized by aggressive, antisocial, and defiant behavior in children. Children with CD exhibit behaviors such as physical cruelty, destructiveness, lying, stealing, and truancy. To be diagnosed with CD, a child must exhibit at least three of these characteristics over the past year, with at least one in the last six months.

      CD can be classified into two types: early-onset CD, which occurs before the age of 10 and is less common, and adolescent-onset CD, which is more common and may be associated with ADHD. A UK government report found that 5% of children aged 5-15 years had conduct disorder, and 1% had ADHD/hyperkinetic disorder. The male to female ratio is 3:1.

      The severity of CD depends on the number of problems the child has and the effect on others. Children with CD may exhibit persistent antisocial behavior, and temper tantrums are common. Stealing, assault, and destruction of property can lead to legal consequences for the child.

      In conclusion, understanding the characteristics and prevalence of conduct disorder is crucial in identifying and addressing this behavioral disorder in children. Early intervention and treatment can help improve outcomes for children with CD.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 66 - A 25-year-old female employee is brought to you by her worried supervisor. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female employee is brought to you by her worried supervisor. She has been exhibiting strange behavior lately and appears to be isolating herself.

      Which of the following signs is the strongest indication of depression?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thought withdrawal

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Schizophrenia and Psychosis from Other Mental Health Conditions

      When it comes to mental health conditions, it’s important to differentiate between different disorders to ensure proper treatment. In the case of schizophrenia and psychosis, there are certain features that distinguish them from other conditions.

      For example, hallucinations and delusions are common symptoms of both schizophrenia and psychosis, but they are not typically present in other disorders such as depression or anxiety. Additionally, disorganized speech and behavior are also more commonly associated with schizophrenia and psychosis.

      By understanding these distinguishing features, mental health professionals can make more accurate diagnoses and provide appropriate treatment plans for their patients. It’s important to seek professional help if you or a loved one is experiencing symptoms of schizophrenia or psychosis, as early intervention can greatly improve outcomes.

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  • Question 67 - A 35-year-old teacher presents in a routine GP appointment feeling like everything is...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old teacher presents in a routine GP appointment feeling like everything is falling apart. Despite never taking a day off work, the patient is struggling to keep it together. The patient's spouse has noticed an increase in cleaning around the house, and the patient becomes easily irritated with others' inability to meet their personal standards. The patient has a history of perfectionism and avoids spending money on unnecessary items.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Obsessive-compulsive personality

      Explanation:

      Individuals who exhibit obsessive-compulsive personality traits tend to be inflexible when it comes to their principles, beliefs, and standards, and frequently exhibit hesitancy in delegating tasks to others.

      Personality disorders are a set of maladaptive personality traits that interfere with normal functioning in life. They are categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes odd or eccentric disorders such as paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes dramatic, emotional, or erratic disorders such as antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes anxious and fearful disorders such as obsessive-compulsive, avoidant, and dependent. These disorders affect around 1 in 20 people and can be difficult to treat. However, psychological therapies such as dialectical behaviour therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions have been shown to help patients.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 68 - A 65-year-old woman presents due to a 6-month history of cognitive decline. On...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman presents due to a 6-month history of cognitive decline. On examination, the General Practitioner notices she has a resting tremor and shuffling gait.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lewy body dementia

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Lewy Body Dementia from Other Dementia-Related Disorders

      Lewy body dementia (LBD) is a type of dementia that is often misdiagnosed due to its similarity to other dementia-related disorders. One key feature that sets LBD apart is the presence of Parkinsonian symptoms, such as tremors and rigidity. In fact, LBD is diagnosed when a patient develops symptoms of dementia either before or at the same time as Parkinsonian symptoms. Other characteristic features of LBD include fluctuations in cognition and alertness, visual hallucinations, hypersensitivity to neuroleptic medication, and repeated falls.

      It is important to differentiate LBD from other disorders, such as Alzheimer’s disease, Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease, frontotemporal dementia, and Huntington’s disease. Alzheimer’s disease would not give you Parkinsonian symptoms, while Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is a rapidly progressing physical and cognitive decline that doesn’t feature Parkinsonian symptoms. Frontotemporal dementia would not give you Parkinsonian symptoms either, and typically presents with prominent changes in personality and social behavior. Huntington’s disease initially presents with chorea, personality changes, and neuropsychiatric symptoms, followed later by dementia, but doesn’t feature Parkinsonian symptoms. By understanding the unique features of LBD and how it differs from other disorders, healthcare professionals can provide more accurate diagnoses and appropriate treatment plans for their patients.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 69 - A 50-year-old woman comes to you complaining of experiencing electric shock sensations and...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman comes to you complaining of experiencing electric shock sensations and dizziness in her arms and legs for the past three days. She has a medical history of chronic pain, depression, and schizophrenia. When you inquire about her medications and drug use, she seems hesitant to provide a clear response.

      What could be the probable reason behind her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: SSRI discontinuation syndrome

      Explanation:

      SSRI discontinuation syndrome can cause symptoms such as dizziness, electric shock sensations, and anxiety when SSRIs are suddenly stopped or reduced. It is possible that the woman in question has decided to stop taking her antidepressants. On the other hand, alcohol withdrawal typically results in anxiety, tremors, and sweating. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare reaction that can occur with antipsychotic use and may cause fever, confusion, and muscle rigidity. Opiate withdrawal may cause anxiety, sweating, and gastrointestinal symptoms like diarrhea and vomiting.

      Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are the first-line treatment for depression, with citalopram and fluoxetine being the preferred options. They should be used with caution in children and adolescents, and patients should be monitored for increased anxiety and agitation. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and there is an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Citalopram and escitalopram are associated with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation and should not be used in certain patients. SSRIs have a higher propensity for drug interactions, and patients should be reviewed after 2 weeks of treatment. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period. Use of SSRIs during pregnancy should be weighed against the risks and benefits.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 70 - A 48-year-old man presents to the psychiatry team with complaints of hearing voices...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old man presents to the psychiatry team with complaints of hearing voices and experiencing persecutory delusions. He has a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and blood tests reveal that his prolactin level is within normal range but at the higher end. The team diagnoses him with schizophrenia and recommends starting him on an atypical antipsychotic. Which atypical antipsychotic would be the best choice for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aripiprazole

      Explanation:

      Aripiprazole is the preferred first-line medication for schizophrenia due to its tolerable side effect profile and ability to lower serum prolactin levels. This is particularly beneficial for patients with borderline-high prolactin levels, as other atypical antipsychotics can cause further elevation and associated symptoms such as hirsutism, galactorrhoea, and impotence.

      Clozapine is another commonly used atypical antipsychotic, but is typically reserved for patients who have not responded adequately to two other antipsychotics. It may cause drowsiness, dizziness, dry mouth, restlessness, and headache, but doesn’t usually elevate prolactin levels.

      Olanzapine should be used with caution in diabetic patients due to its potential for weight gain and elevated blood sugars. Aripiprazole may be a better choice for these patients.

      Sertraline, on the other hand, is not used in the treatment of schizophrenia. It is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor indicated for depressive illnesses and obsessive-compulsive disorder.

      Atypical antipsychotics are now recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia, as per the 2005 NICE guidelines. These agents have a significant advantage over traditional antipsychotics in that they cause fewer extrapyramidal side-effects. However, atypical antipsychotics can still cause adverse effects such as weight gain, hyperprolactinaemia, and clozapine-associated agranulocytosis. Elderly patients who take antipsychotics are at an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism, according to the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency.

      Clozapine is one of the first atypical antipsychotics to be developed, but it carries a significant risk of agranulocytosis. Therefore, full blood count monitoring is essential during treatment. Clozapine should only be used in patients who are resistant to other antipsychotic medication. The BNF recommends introducing clozapine if schizophrenia is not controlled despite the sequential use of two or more antipsychotic drugs, one of which should be a second-generation antipsychotic drug, each for at least 6-8 weeks. Clozapine can cause adverse effects such as reduced seizure threshold, constipation, myocarditis, and hypersalivation. Dose adjustment of clozapine may be necessary if smoking is started or stopped during treatment.

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  • Question 71 - A 28-year-old man presents to his GP with ongoing sleep issues due to...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man presents to his GP with ongoing sleep issues due to tension in his relationship with his girlfriend. He expresses concerns that she may be spending time with her ex-boyfriend who works in the same office as her. He has had similar experiences in past relationships and feels as though he will never find the perfect partner, leading to mood swings and feelings of loneliness. He also admits to self-harming but denies any suicidal thoughts. Following a risk assessment, he is referred to psychiatry and diagnosed with borderline personality disorder.

      What is the most appropriate treatment for this 28-year-old man with borderline personality disorder?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dialectical behaviour therapy (DBT)

      Explanation:

      Dialectical behaviour therapy (DBT) is an effective treatment for borderline personality disorder, as it is specifically designed to help individuals who experience intense emotions. Cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) is not a targeted therapy for personality disorder patients and is more beneficial for those with depression or anxiety-related conditions. Exposure and response prevention therapy (ERP) is a treatment option for patients with obsessive-compulsive disorder, while eye movement desensitisation and reprocessing therapy (EMDR) is a treatment option for patients with post-traumatic stress disorder.

      Personality disorders are a set of maladaptive personality traits that interfere with normal functioning in life. They are categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes odd or eccentric disorders such as paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes dramatic, emotional, or erratic disorders such as antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes anxious and fearful disorders such as obsessive-compulsive, avoidant, and dependent. These disorders affect around 1 in 20 people and can be difficult to treat. However, psychological therapies such as dialectical behaviour therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions have been shown to help patients.

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  • Question 72 - A 39 year-old woman reports trouble sleeping. She discloses that she experienced sexual...

    Incorrect

    • A 39 year-old woman reports trouble sleeping. She discloses that she experienced sexual assault 10 months ago. What symptoms are indicative of post traumatic stress disorder?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypervigilance

      Explanation:

      PTSD symptoms include re-experiencing, avoidance of reminders, hypervigilance, poor concentration, exaggerated startle responses, and sleep problems. People may also have recurrent distressing images, flashbacks, nightmares, and may constantly re-think the event.

      Understanding Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)

      Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a mental health condition that can develop in individuals of any age following a traumatic event. This can include natural disasters, physical or sexual assault, or military combat. PTSD is characterized by a range of symptoms, including re-experiencing the traumatic event through flashbacks or nightmares, avoidance of triggers associated with the event, hyperarousal, emotional numbing, depression, and substance abuse.

      Effective management of PTSD involves a range of interventions, including watchful waiting for mild symptoms, trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), and eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) therapy for more severe cases. While drug treatments are not recommended as a first-line treatment for adults, venlafaxine or a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) such as sertraline may be used. In severe cases, risperidone may be recommended. It is important to note that single-session interventions, also known as debriefing, are not recommended following a traumatic event.

      Understanding PTSD and its symptoms is crucial in providing effective support and treatment for those who have experienced trauma. With the right interventions, individuals with PTSD can learn to manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.

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  • Question 73 - A 50-year-old man is admitted for haematemesis after consuming 100 units of alcohol...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man is admitted for haematemesis after consuming 100 units of alcohol per week. What is the time frame for the highest occurrence of seizures during alcohol withdrawal?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 36 hours

      Explanation:

      Symptoms of alcohol withdrawal can occur within 6-12 hours, including seizures.

      Alcohol withdrawal occurs when an individual who has been consuming alcohol chronically suddenly stops or reduces their intake. This is due to the fact that chronic alcohol consumption enhances GABA-mediated inhibition in the central nervous system (CNS), similar to benzodiazepines, and inhibits NMDA-type glutamate receptors. When alcohol consumption is stopped, the opposite occurs, resulting in decreased inhibitory GABA and increased NMDA glutamate transmission.

      Symptoms of alcohol withdrawal typically start within 6-12 hours and include tremors, sweating, tachycardia, and anxiety. Seizures are most likely to occur at around 36 hours, while delirium tremens, which is characterized by coarse tremors, confusion, delusions, auditory and visual hallucinations, fever, and tachycardia, is most likely to occur at around 48-72 hours.

      Patients with a history of complex withdrawals from alcohol, such as delirium tremens, seizures, or blackouts, should be admitted to the hospital for monitoring until their withdrawals stabilize. The first-line treatment for alcohol withdrawal is long-acting benzodiazepines, such as chlordiazepoxide or diazepam, which are typically given as part of a reducing dose protocol. Lorazepam may be preferable in patients with hepatic failure. Carbamazepine is also effective in treating alcohol withdrawal, while phenytoin is said not to be as effective in the treatment of alcohol withdrawal seizures.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 74 - A 22-year-old woman, who has a history of panic attacks, visits her General...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old woman, who has a history of panic attacks, visits her General Practitioner as she has been experiencing a feeling of detachment from her surroundings during her attacks. She describes it as as if there is a veil between me and the outside world. What is the most appropriate term for this symptom?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Derealisation

      Explanation:

      Differentiating between psychological experiences: Derealisation, Delusion, Depersonalisation, Flight of Ideas, and Hallucination

      Psychological experiences can be complex and difficult to differentiate. Here are some explanations of five different experiences: derealisation, delusion, depersonalisation, flight of ideas, and hallucination.

      Derealisation is the feeling that the external world is unreal, distant, or distorted. Patients may describe it as a veil between themselves and their surroundings.

      Delusion is a fixed false belief that doesn’t change despite conflicting evidence. This is different from derealisation, where patients feel detached from their surroundings. Delusions are commonly associated with schizophrenia, not anxiety.

      Depersonalisation is the feeling of being a detached observer of oneself. This is different from derealisation, where patients feel detached from their surroundings.

      Flight of ideas is a rapid flow of thoughts that often connect and is part of the hyperexcitable state of mania. It is not typically seen in anxiety with derealisation.

      Hallucination is a false sensory perception in the absence of a real external stimulus. For example, hearing voices when no one has spoken. This patient has not described any false sensory perception.

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  • Question 75 - A 30-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner at the suggestion of his...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner at the suggestion of his solicitor. He has recently been charged with assault and criminal damage and is facing a custodial sentence. His solicitor thinks he may have mental health problems and hopes that this may result in a lenient sentence. He admits he has always been impulsive, irritable and had a short temper, which frequently results in fights. He has no close friends and admits to being lonely. Reviewing his notes there are several episodes of deliberate self-harm usually provoked by arguments. There is no evidence of thought disorder.
      What the single most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Borderline personality disorder

      Explanation:

      Common Mental Health Disorders: Characteristics and Symptoms

      Borderline Personality Disorder, Schizophrenia, Attention-deficit Hyperactivity Disorder, Bipolar Disorder, and Depression are some of the most common mental health disorders that affect individuals worldwide. Each disorder has its own set of characteristics and symptoms that can significantly impact an individual’s daily life.

      Borderline Personality Disorder is characterized by extreme fear of abandonment, unstable relationships, an inability to maintain friendships, an unstable sense of self, powerful emotions that change quickly and often, feelings of emptiness, frequent dangerous behavior, and self-harm. Men with this disorder may also exhibit aggressive behavior, seek to control others by criticism, demonstrate extreme jealousy, and be reluctant to share emotional experiences.

      Schizophrenia is a psychotic illness that is characterized by delusions, hallucinations, thought disorder, and lack of insight.

      Attention-deficit Hyperactivity Disorder is a developmental condition of inattention and distractibility, with or without accompanying hyperactivity. The hyperactivity decreases in adulthood, but impulsivity, poor concentration, and risk-taking can get worse. These can interfere with work, learning, and relationships with other people. Depressions, anxiety, feelings of low self-esteem, and drug misuse are more common in adults with the condition.

      Bipolar Affective Disorder is characterized by periods of deep, prolonged, and profound depression that alternate with periods of an excessively elevated or irritable mood known as mania.

      Depression involves both low mood and/or absence loss of interest and pleasure in most activities, accompanied by an assortment of emotional, cognitive, physical, and behavioral symptoms.

      In conclusion, understanding the characteristics and symptoms of these common mental health disorders is crucial in identifying and seeking appropriate treatment for individuals who may be struggling with them.

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  • Question 76 - A 75-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of recurrent hallucinations. He reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of recurrent hallucinations. He reports seeing faces that are smaller than usual or other objects that are out of proportion. Although he acknowledges that these episodes are not real, they still cause him distress. The patient has a history of macular degeneration and experienced depression 15 years ago after his wife passed away. Upon neurological examination, no abnormalities are found. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Charles-Bonnet syndrome

      Explanation:

      Understanding Charles-Bonnet Syndrome

      Charles-Bonnet syndrome (CBS) is a condition characterized by complex hallucinations, usually visual or auditory, that occur in clear consciousness. These hallucinations persist or recur and are often experienced against a background of visual impairment, although this is not always the case. People with CBS typically retain their insight and do not experience any other significant neuropsychiatric disturbances.

      Several factors can increase the risk of developing CBS, including advanced age, peripheral visual impairment, social isolation, sensory deprivation, and early cognitive impairment. The condition affects both sexes equally and doesn’t appear to have any familial predisposition. Age-related macular degeneration is the most common ophthalmological condition associated with CBS, followed by glaucoma and cataract.

      Complex visual hallucinations are relatively common in people with severe visual impairment, occurring in 10-30% of cases. The prevalence of CBS in visually impaired individuals is estimated to be between 11 and 15%. Although some people find the hallucinations unpleasant or disturbing, CBS is typically a long-term condition, with 88% of people experiencing it for two years or more. Only 25% of people experience a resolution of their symptoms after nine years.

      In summary, CBS is a condition that can cause complex hallucinations in people with visual impairment. Although the hallucinations can be distressing, most people with CBS retain their insight and do not experience any other significant neuropsychiatric disturbances. The condition is relatively common in visually impaired individuals and tends to be a long-term condition.

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  • Question 77 - A 44-year-old man is being evaluated on the psychiatric ward due to a...

    Incorrect

    • A 44-year-old man is being evaluated on the psychiatric ward due to a worsening of his mental health condition. Upon admission, the patient was diagnosed with a major depressive disorder accompanied by hallucinations.

      Lately, the patient has been persistently expressing the belief that he is deceased. Consequently, he has ceased eating and is exhibiting signs of self-neglect. The patient has no known medical conditions other than his mental health problems.

      What is the name of the syndrome that this patient is experiencing?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cotard syndrome

      Explanation:

      Cotard syndrome is a psychiatric disorder that is characterized by a person’s belief that they are dead or do not exist. This rare condition is often associated with severe depression or psychotic disorders and can lead to self-neglect and withdrawal from others. Treatment options include medication and electroconvulsive therapy.

      Capgras syndrome is a delusion of misidentification where patients believe that a loved one has been replaced by an identical impostor. This condition is typically associated with schizophrenia, but it can also occur in patients with brain trauma or dementia.

      Charles Bonnet syndrome is a visual disorder that causes patients with significant vision loss to experience vivid visual hallucinations. These hallucinations can be simple or complex, but patients are aware that they are not real and do not experience other types of hallucinations or delusions.

      De Clérambault syndrome, also known as erotomania, is a rare delusional disorder where patients believe that someone is in love with them, even if that person is imaginary, deceased, or someone they have never met. Patients may perceive messages from their supposed admirer through everyday events, such as number plates or television messages.

      Understanding Cotard Syndrome

      Cotard syndrome is a mental illness that is characterized by the belief that one is either dead or doesn’t exist. This rare disorder is often associated with severe depression and psychotic disorders. Patients with Cotard syndrome may stop eating or drinking as they believe it is not necessary. This delusion can be challenging to treat and can result in significant problems for the patient.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 78 - A 38-year-old man with known bipolar disorder is brought in by his mother...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old man with known bipolar disorder is brought in by his mother because she has noticed that he has become drowsy over the past week and he has also been off balance, with diarrhoea and vomiting. He has a complicated past medical history including labile hypertension, bipolar disease and asthma and he is multi-medicated.

      His oral medication list is:
      - codeine
      - lithium
      - paracetamol
      - quetiapine
      - ramipril, and
      - theophylline

      He also takes inhalers for his asthma. His blood tests show elevated lithium levels of 1.5 mmol/L. Which of his medications is most likely to have interacted with the lithium, resulting in elevated levels?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Quetiapine

      Explanation:

      Understanding Lithium Interactions

      Lithium is a medication used to treat bipolar disorder, but it has a narrow therapeutic ratio, meaning that concentrations must be carefully monitored to avoid toxicity. Symptoms of lithium toxicity include tremors, ataxia, dysarthria, nystagmus, renal impairment, and convulsions. To prevent toxicity, routine lithium levels should be checked and maintained between 0.4-1 mmol/L.

      When taking lithium, it is important to be aware of potential drug interactions that could increase the risk of toxicity. Paracetamol and codeine are not known to interact with lithium, but theophylline can reduce plasma concentration of lithium. Quetiapine, a medication used to treat schizophrenia and bipolar disorder, can increase extrapyramidal side effects when taken with lithium. Additionally, ACE inhibitors can reduce excretion of lithium, leading to increased plasma concentration.

      Patients with bipolar disorder may also develop hypertension, so it is important to monitor for potential drug interactions that could result in lithium toxicity. By understanding these interactions, healthcare providers can ensure safe and effective treatment for patients taking lithium.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 79 - A 19-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner because she is concerned about...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner because she is concerned about her weight, which is 56 kg. Her body mass index (BMI) is 18 kg/m2. She also reports prolonged fasts, sometimes not eating for a few days. She denies using laxatives or diuretics to help her lose weight. She is scared of putting on weight and has missed her last three periods. She has no known medical comorbidities.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anorexia nervosa

      Explanation:

      Understanding Eating Disorders: Differential Diagnosis

      Eating disorders are complex mental health conditions that can have serious physical and psychological consequences. When a patient presents with symptoms of an eating disorder, it is important to consider a range of differential diagnoses to ensure appropriate treatment. Here, we explore the key features of several eating disorders and related conditions, including anorexia nervosa, personality disorders, avoidant restrictive food intake disorder (ARFID), bulimia nervosa, and depression. By understanding the unique characteristics of each disorder, healthcare professionals can make an accurate diagnosis and provide effective support for patients with eating disorders.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 80 - A 25-year-old man presents with symptoms of low mood. Upon evaluation, you diagnose...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man presents with symptoms of low mood. Upon evaluation, you diagnose him with moderate depression and decide to initiate fluoxetine treatment. According to the latest NICE recommendations, when should you schedule a follow-up appointment with the patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: After 1 week

      Explanation:

      NICE suggests that patients who are under 30 years old should be reviewed within one week.

      Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are the first-line treatment for depression, with citalopram and fluoxetine being the preferred options. They should be used with caution in children and adolescents, and patients should be monitored for increased anxiety and agitation. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and there is an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Citalopram and escitalopram are associated with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation and should not be used in certain patients. SSRIs have a higher propensity for drug interactions, and patients should be reviewed after 2 weeks of treatment. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period. Use of SSRIs during pregnancy should be weighed against the risks and benefits.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 81 - A 28-year-old man is diagnosed with schizophrenia.

    Which one of the following predicts a...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man is diagnosed with schizophrenia.

      Which one of the following predicts a poor prognosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Few or no episodes in the past

      Explanation:

      Prognostic Indicators in Early Schizophrenia

      A gradual onset of psychosis is a negative prognostic indicator in the early course of schizophrenia, according to a study published in Medscape. On the other hand, all other factors, such as age at onset and mode of onset, predict a good prognosis. It is important to identify these indicators early on in order to provide appropriate treatment and support for individuals with schizophrenia. By understanding these prognostic factors, healthcare professionals can work towards improving outcomes for those affected by this condition.

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  • Question 82 - A 28-year-old male patient presents for a medication review. He has been diagnosed...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old male patient presents for a medication review. He has been diagnosed with generalised anxiety disorder and was initially prescribed sertraline, but this was discontinued due to gastrointestinal side effects. He has since been taking venlafaxine for a week but has reported experiencing headaches and blurred vision. What is the most appropriate course of action to manage his condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Switch to pregabalin

      Explanation:

      For generalised anxiety disorder, pregabalin is suggested as a third line treatment option. If the patient is unable to tolerate SSRIs and SNRIs, pregabalin can be considered as an alternative. However, amitriptyline is not recommended for this condition.

      Dealing with anxiety and depression is a common issue, and initial treatments may not always be effective. It is important for healthcare professionals to be knowledgeable about second and third line treatments, which may be initiated by some GPs or prescribed after specialist advice. The GP is responsible for ongoing monitoring and safety, including being aware of potential drug interactions.

      Anxiety is a common disorder that can manifest in various ways. According to NICE, the primary feature is excessive worry about multiple events associated with heightened tension. It is crucial to consider potential physical causes when diagnosing psychiatric disorders such as anxiety. Hyperthyroidism, cardiac disease, and medication-induced anxiety are important alternative causes. Medications that may trigger anxiety include salbutamol, theophylline, corticosteroids, antidepressants, and caffeine.

      NICE recommends a stepwise approach for managing generalised anxiety disorder (GAD). The first step is education about GAD and active monitoring. The second step involves low-intensity psychological interventions such as individual non-facilitated self-help, individual guided self-help, or psychoeducational groups. The third step includes high-intensity psychological interventions such as cognitive behavioural therapy or applied relaxation, or drug treatment. Sertraline is the first-line SSRI recommended by NICE. If sertraline is ineffective, an alternative SSRI or a serotonin–noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) such as duloxetine or venlafaxine may be offered. If the person cannot tolerate SSRIs or SNRIs, pregabalin may be considered. For patients under the age of 30 years, NICE recommends warning them of the increased risk of suicidal thinking and self-harm and weekly follow-up for the first month.

      The management of panic disorder also follows a stepwise approach. The first step is recognition and diagnosis, followed by treatment in primary care. NICE recommends either cognitive behavioural therapy or drug treatment. SSRIs are the first-line treatment. If contraindicated or no response after 12 weeks, imipramine or clomipramine should be offered. The third step involves reviewing and considering alternative treatments, followed by review and referral to specialist mental health services in the fourth and fifth steps, respectively.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 83 - What is the correct statement regarding ADHD in teenagers and adults? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the correct statement regarding ADHD in teenagers and adults?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dyslexia may co-exist

      Explanation:

      Understanding Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD)

      Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD) is a condition characterized by a persistent pattern of inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsivity that is more severe than what is typically seen in individuals at a comparable level of development. While it is usually diagnosed in children aged 3-7 years, it can also be recognized later in life, sometimes only in adulthood. To qualify for a diagnosis of ADHD, symptoms must be present before the age of 12, although recalling past symptoms can be challenging, making diagnosis more difficult.

      ADHD is more common in children with learning disabilities and is part of a spectrum of disorders. Around 70% of individuals with ADHD also have other conditions, such as dyslexia, language disorders, autistic spectrum disorder, dyspraxia, Tourette syndrome, or tic disorder. Oppositional defiant disorder or conduct disorder is present in most children with ADHD. Associated problems include self-harm, a predisposition to accidents, substance misuse, delinquency, anxiety states, mood disorder, and academic underachievement.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 84 - A 38-year-old teacher is undergoing treatment for moderate depression with citalopram 20 mg...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old teacher is undergoing treatment for moderate depression with citalopram 20 mg daily. She initially sought help due to a recent break-up and stress at work caused by a difficult colleague. This is her first experience with depression and she has been taking medication for three months. She has a supportive family, including her parents and sister who live nearby.

      At her last appointment one month ago, she reported still feeling sad when alone with her thoughts and not fully recovered. However, at her most recent appointment, she reported feeling like her usual self again. She has resolved the work issues with her colleague and is enjoying her social life with friends. She has also started practicing yoga and is interested in tapering off her medication.

      Based on her current progress, when is the earliest appropriate time for her to consider tapering off her medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: He can tail off in six months

      Explanation:

      Duration of Antidepressant Treatment

      This patient, a relatively young individual who has experienced a first episode of depression, has successfully recovered without any lingering issues that would indicate a high risk of recurrence. It is recommended that he continue taking his antidepressants for at least six more months. While there are situations where treatment may need to be extended, such as for older adults or those at a high risk of relapse, this patient is eager to reduce his medication. Therefore, six months is the earliest opportunity for reducing the dose.

      It is common for patients to want to stop taking their medication once they feel better. However, it is important to remind them that depression can be a recurrent condition. Continuing treatment for the recommended period can help prevent relapse and will not result in addiction to the medication.

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  • Question 85 - As per the latest NICE guidelines on depression, which of the following interventions...

    Incorrect

    • As per the latest NICE guidelines on depression, which of the following interventions is not advised for individuals with subthreshold depressive symptoms or mild depression?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Behavioural couples therapy

      Explanation:

      NICE’s recommendation for behavioural couples therapy is limited to patients with moderate or severe depression.

      NICE Guidelines for Managing Depression

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines for managing depression in 2022. The new guidelines classify depression severity as less severe and more severe based on a PHQ-9 score of <16 and ≥16, respectively. For less severe depression, NICE recommends discussing treatment options with patients and considering the least intrusive and least resource-intensive treatment first. Antidepressant medication should not be routinely offered as first-line treatment unless it is the patient's preference. Treatment options for less severe depression include guided self-help, group cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), group behavioral activation (BA), individual CBT, individual BA, group exercise, group mindfulness and meditation, interpersonal psychotherapy (IPT), selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), counseling, and short-term psychodynamic psychotherapy (STPP). For more severe depression, a shared decision should be made between the patient and healthcare provider. Treatment options for more severe depression include a combination of individual CBT and an antidepressant, individual CBT, individual BA, antidepressant medication (SSRI, SNRI, or another antidepressant if indicated based on previous clinical and treatment history), individual problem-solving, counseling, STPP, IPT, guided self-help, and group exercise.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 86 - A 25-year-old woman, who is a mature university student, has difficulty getting off...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman, who is a mature university student, has difficulty getting off to sleep and feels tired.
      Select from the list the single most useful piece of advice.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Take regular daytime exercise

      Explanation:

      Tips for Better Sleep: Understanding Sleep Hygiene

      Sleep hygiene refers to a set of general guidelines that can help individuals achieve better quality sleep. One of the key recommendations is to avoid daytime naps, as they can disrupt the body’s natural sleep-wake cycle. Establishing a regular morning routine is also important, which involves waking up at the same time every day, even if an alarm clock is needed. To avoid constantly checking the time during periods of wakefulness, it may be helpful to place the clock under the bed.

      Going to bed when feeling sleepy, rather than at a fixed time, is another important aspect of sleep hygiene. It’s also advisable to avoid mentally or physically demanding activities, such as studying, within 90 minutes of bedtime. Engaging in daytime exercise has been shown to improve sleep quality, reduce the time it takes to fall asleep, and increase the amount of time spent asleep.

      Overall, sleep hygiene encompasses various aspects of sleep control, including homeostatic, adaptive, and circadian factors. It also provides guidance on how to avoid sleep deprivation and how to respond to unwanted awakenings during the night. By following these tips, individuals can improve their sleep habits and enjoy better overall health and well-being.

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  • Question 87 - A 50-year-old woman has a history of bipolar disorder. She is brought by...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman has a history of bipolar disorder. She is brought by her husband who is concerned that she is entering a manic phase.
      Select from the list the single feature that would NOT suggest a diagnosis of mania.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Loss of interest in pleasurable activities

      Explanation:

      Understanding Mania and Hypomania in Bipolar Disorder

      Mania and hypomania are two terms used to describe the elevated mood states experienced by individuals with bipolar disorder. Mania is a more severe form of elevated mood, often accompanied by psychotic symptoms such as delusions and hallucinations. Hypomania, on the other hand, is a milder form of mania without psychotic symptoms.

      To diagnose mania, at least three of the following symptoms must be present: inflated self-esteem, decreased need for sleep, rapid and emphatic speech, flight of ideas, distractibility, psychomotor agitation, and excessive involvement in pleasurable activities without regard for consequences.

      It’s important to note that nearly all cases of mania will eventually lead to episodes of depression, which is why bipolar disorder is often grouped with mania. Understanding the symptoms of mania and hypomania can help individuals with bipolar disorder and their loved ones recognize when they may need to seek professional help.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 88 - A 32-year-old male presents to the GP with persistent difficulty in leaving his...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old male presents to the GP with persistent difficulty in leaving his home without performing a cleaning ritual that takes over 3 hours to finish. He has an intense fear that if he doesn't complete the process, his family will be harmed. The patient is currently undergoing cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT).

      What is the best course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prescribe sertraline

      Explanation:

      Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is the likely diagnosis for this patient, who is exhibiting symptoms of fear of harming her children and compulsive cleaning. The first-line treatment for OCD is cognitive behaviour therapy (CBT) or exposure and response prevention. However, since the patient has not responded to CBT and is still experiencing intrusive symptoms, it would be appropriate to prescribe an SSRI, such as sertraline.

      Continuing with CBT alone would not be appropriate for this patient, given her ongoing and intrusive symptoms. Therefore, the most suitable course of action is to add an SSRI to her treatment plan.

      Benzodiazepines are not recommended for this patient, as they have a high potential for addiction and are typically used for acute relief of panic attacks. The patient is not displaying any overt anxiety symptoms that would warrant a prescription of benzodiazepines.

      Zopiclone may be prescribed for severe sleeping difficulties, but it is not indicated for this patient, who is not experiencing any acute issues with sleeping.

      Since the patient has not responded to CBT, it is appropriate to add an SSRI rather than referring her for exposure and response prevention.

      Understanding Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)

      Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is a mental health condition that affects 1 to 3% of the population. It is characterized by the presence of obsessions, which are unwanted intrusive thoughts, images, or urges, and compulsions, which are repetitive behaviors or mental acts that a person feels driven to perform. These symptoms can cause significant functional impairment and distress.

      Risk factors for OCD include a family history of the condition, age (with peak onset between 10-20 years), pregnancy/postnatal period, and a history of abuse, bullying, or neglect.

      The management of OCD involves classifying the level of impairment as mild, moderate, or severe using the Y-BOCS scale. For mild impairment, low-intensity psychological treatments such as cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) including exposure and response prevention (ERP) are recommended. If this is insufficient, a course of an SSRI or more intensive CBT (including ERP) can be offered. For moderate impairment, a choice of either an SSRI or more intensive CBT (including ERP) is recommended, with clomipramine as an alternative first-line drug treatment to an SSRI if necessary. For severe impairment, referral to the secondary care mental health team for assessment is necessary, with combined treatment of an SSRI and CBT (including ERP) or clomipramine as an alternative while awaiting assessment.

      ERP is a psychological method that involves exposing a patient to an anxiety-provoking situation and stopping them from engaging in their usual safety behavior. This helps them confront their anxiety, leading to the eventual extinction of the response. Treatment with an SSRI should continue for at least 12 months to prevent relapse and allow time for improvement. Compared to depression, the SSRI usually requires a higher dose and a longer duration of treatment (at least 12 weeks) for an initial response.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 89 - A 52-year-old man is a frequent attendee at his General Practice Surgery with...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old man is a frequent attendee at his General Practice Surgery with health worries. He has a strong family history of ischaemic heart disease and is worried he may have heart disease although he has no symptoms of this, no risk factors and his QRisk2 score is 2.5%. He has consulted several doctors in the practice with this concern in the past 12 months.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Illness anxiety disorder

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Illness Anxiety Disorder from Other Conditions

      Illness anxiety disorder is a mental health condition characterized by excessive worry about having or acquiring a serious health condition. This preoccupation can lead to excessive health-seeking behavior or maladaptive avoidance techniques. It is important to differentiate illness anxiety disorder from other conditions with similar symptoms.

      Somatic symptom disorder, for example, is a condition where the patient experiences distressing physical symptoms that cause persistent thoughts about the seriousness of the cause. However, the patient described in this case doesn’t have any physical symptoms.

      Generalized anxiety disorder is another condition where excessive worry is present, but it is not specific to health concerns. In this case, the patient’s worries are focused solely on his own health.

      Ischemic heart disease is unlikely as the patient has no symptoms or risk factors.

      Obsessive-compulsive disorder is a condition where intrusive, recurrent thoughts and compulsive behaviors are present. However, there are no obsessions or compulsions described in this case.

      Therefore, based on the patient’s symptoms and history, illness anxiety disorder is the most likely diagnosis.

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  • Question 90 - A 55-year-old male presents with a 12 month history of deteriorating memory.

    He...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old male presents with a 12 month history of deteriorating memory.

      He has otherwise been well and takes no medication.

      Which one of the following is most typical of frontal lobe dysfunction?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inability to perform serial 7s

      Explanation:

      Understanding Different Manifestations of Neurodegenerative Conditions

      Frontal lobe dementia is a common neurodegenerative condition that typically affects individuals between the ages of 45 and 65. One way to test for frontal lobe dysfunction is to assess a patient’s ability to generate a list rapidly, such as naming animals in 60 seconds or words beginning with a specific letter.

      Dyscalculia, on the other hand, is a manifestation of the dominant parietal lobe. This condition affects an individual’s ability to perform mathematical calculations and solve problems. Sensory inattention is another manifestation of parietal lobe dysfunction, which can cause an individual to ignore or neglect one side of their body or environment.

      Visual field defects are also common manifestations of neurodegenerative conditions. Homonymous hemianopia, which is a loss of vision in one half of the visual field, is typically associated with occipital lobe dysfunction. Superior quadrantanopia, which is a loss of vision in one quarter of the visual field, is associated with temporal lobe dysfunction. Finally, inferior quadrantanopia, which is also a loss of vision in one quarter of the visual field, is associated with parietal lobe dysfunction. Understanding these different manifestations can help healthcare professionals diagnose and treat neurodegenerative conditions more effectively.

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  • Question 91 - A 35-year-old former paratrooper has joined your practice. He lost his leg during...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old former paratrooper has joined your practice. He lost his leg during a tour of duty in Afghanistan when he was shelled by opposing forces and witnessed the death of two of his colleagues.

      In recent months, he has been experiencing flashbacks, and his wife has noticed that he has become emotionally distant and insensitive towards her. He has also been struggling with sleep and concentration, and has been prone to sudden outbursts of anger.

      You suspect that he may be suffering from PTSD and have recommended that he seek psychiatric help. Although he has declined counseling, he is interested in learning more about medication options, having seen the positive effects of sertraline on his wife's depression a few years ago.

      According to NICE guidelines, which antidepressant is recommended as a second-line treatment for PTSD after psychological therapy has been refused or proven ineffective?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diazepam

      Explanation:

      NICE’s Guidance on Drug Treatments for PTSD in Adults

      According to the latest guidance from the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated in 2018, drug treatments, including benzodiazepines, should not be offered to prevent PTSD in adults. However, for those with a diagnosis of PTSD who prefer drug treatment, venlafaxine or a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), such as sertraline, may be considered and should be reviewed regularly.

      In addition, antipsychotics such as risperidone may be considered for adults with a diagnosis of PTSD who have disabling symptoms and behaviors, such as severe hyperarousal or psychotic symptoms, and have not responded to other drug or psychological treatments. It is important to note that antipsychotic treatment should be started and reviewed regularly by a specialist.

      Overall, NICE’s guidance emphasizes the importance of individualized treatment plans for adults with PTSD, taking into account their preferences and response to previous treatments.

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  • Question 92 - A 72-year-old woman brings her husband to the surgery. She is very concerned...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old woman brings her husband to the surgery. She is very concerned as his memory has been deteriorating significantly in recent years; so much so that he walked to the local village a week ago to do some shopping and had to be brought home by the police after forgetting where he was and why he had gone there.

      Previously he had controlled the finances in the house, but he recently began neglecting to pay the bills at home, and she has noticed objects in the kitchen being put in completely the wrong place.

      He has a history of hypertension for which he takes ramipril and amlodipine. On examination his BP is 165/89. He has a left carotid bruit.

      Investigations

      Haemoglobin 127 g/L (135-180)

      White cell count 4.5 ×109/L (4-10)

      Platelets 232 ×109/L (150-400)

      Sodium 140 mmol/L (134-143)

      Potassium 4.8 mmol/L (3.5-5)

      Creatinine 145 μmol/L (60-120)

      ECG Sinus rhythm

      GPCOG* 4 (>5)

      *GPCOG stands for general practitioner assessment of cognition, and is a formal test of cognitive function recommended by NICE.

      Which one of the following would constitute the most appropriate initial measure in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Syphilis screen

      Explanation:

      Importance of Diagnosing Dementia

      Of utmost importance in the management of cognitive impairment is the establishment of a diagnosis of dementia. This can be best assessed by a specialist clinic psychologist, who is usually available through the local memory clinic. These clinics are typically run by neurologists or specialist elderly care physicians. While there may be evidence of cerebrovascular disease, which may require additional medications such as aspirin and statin, diagnosing dementia and identifying its underlying cause is crucial at this stage. Early therapeutic intervention can then be initiated to help manage the condition and improve the patient’s quality of life.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 93 - The brother of a 35-year-old woman visits your clinic with concerns about his...

    Incorrect

    • The brother of a 35-year-old woman visits your clinic with concerns about his sister's behavior. He reports that his sister has always had an inflated sense of self-importance and often expresses delusional thoughts about her potential for success as a lawyer, believing she is capable of becoming a partner at a top law firm. She doesn't seem to care about the impact her actions have on others and appears pleased when she talks about others' failures. He recalls that she behaved similarly when they were growing up and was unsympathetic towards him when he struggled with his studies due to a learning disability.

      Which personality disorder is being described in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Narcissistic personality disorder

      Explanation:

      Individuals with narcissistic personalities exhibit a lack of empathy, a sense of entitlement, and exploit others to fulfill their own needs. This behavior is indicative of narcissistic personality disorder. While the individual’s brother may not meet the criteria for a personality disorder, his behavior aligns with many of the features of narcissistic behavior. Narcissistic individuals have an inflated sense of self-importance and believe they possess unlimited abilities to succeed, become powerful, or appear attractive. They lack empathy and are willing to take advantage of others to achieve their own goals. These symptoms often manifest in childhood and persist into adulthood.

      Antisocial personality disorder also involves a lack of empathy and guilt, as well as deceitful behavior to achieve personal goals. However, individuals with this disorder often disregard rules and laws, leading to criminal behavior and a propensity for violence. Therefore, the individual in the scenario is more likely to have narcissistic personality disorder.

      Schizoid personality disorder is characterized by a disinterest in sexual relationships, a preference for solitude, and a lack of close friendships. These individuals are indifferent to praise and recognition, making it an unlikely diagnosis for the individual’s brother.

      Schizotypal personality disorder involves eccentric beliefs and behaviors, difficulty forming friendships, and paranoid or suspicious thoughts. This disorder doesn’t typically involve a lack of empathy or a sense of entitlement.

      Borderline personality disorder is characterized by emotional instability, impulsive behavior, feelings of emptiness, and recurrent self-harm attempts.

      Personality disorders are a set of maladaptive personality traits that interfere with normal functioning in life. They are categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes odd or eccentric disorders such as paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes dramatic, emotional, or erratic disorders such as antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes anxious and fearful disorders such as obsessive-compulsive, avoidant, and dependent. These disorders affect around 1 in 20 people and can be difficult to treat. However, psychological therapies such as dialectical behaviour therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions have been shown to help patients.

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  • Question 94 - A 35-year-old man is brought to his GP by his partner who is...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man is brought to his GP by his partner who is concerned he may have developed bipolar disorder over the last few months.

      The man experiences periods of 'highs', where he engages in impulsive behavior and sleeps very little. He denies ever having delusions of grandeur. These episodes usually last for a few days, and he has never put himself or others in danger.

      The man also has 'lows' where he experiences severe depression; he feels hopeless, loses interest in his usual activities and sleeps excessively. He is referred to a psychiatrist for further evaluation.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Type 2 bipolar disorder

      Explanation:

      The woman’s symptoms of hypomania alternating with severe depression are indicative of type 2 bipolar disorder. There is no indication of an anxiety disorder in the question. While cyclothymia is characterized by mild symptoms of hypomania and depression lasting at least two years, the severity of the woman’s symptoms suggests type 2 bipolar disorder, even though the symptoms have only been present for one year. Major depressive disorder is not the correct diagnosis as there are also symptoms of hypomania present. Type 1 bipolar disorder is also not the correct answer as the symptoms of the ‘high’ periods are more consistent with hypomania rather than full-blown mania.

      Understanding Bipolar Disorder

      Bipolar disorder is a mental health condition that is characterized by alternating periods of mania/hypomania and depression. It typically develops in the late teen years and has a lifetime prevalence of 2%. There are two types of bipolar disorder: type I, which involves mania and depression, and type II, which involves hypomania and depression.

      Mania and hypomania both refer to abnormally elevated mood or irritability. Mania is more severe and involves functional impairment or psychotic symptoms for 7 days or more, while hypomania involves decreased or increased function for 4 days or more. Psychotic symptoms, such as delusions of grandeur or auditory hallucinations, suggest mania.

      Management of bipolar disorder involves psychological interventions specifically designed for the condition, as well as medication. Lithium is the mood stabilizer of choice, with valproate as an alternative. Antipsychotic therapy may be used for mania/hypomania, while fluoxetine is the antidepressant of choice for depression. Co-morbidities, such as diabetes, cardiovascular disease, and COPD, should also be addressed.

      If symptoms suggest hypomania, routine referral to the community mental health team (CMHT) is recommended. If there are features of mania or severe depression, an urgent referral to the CMHT should be made. Understanding bipolar disorder and its management is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and support for individuals with this condition.

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  • Question 95 - You see a 50-year old woman with a 25 year history of recurrent...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 50-year old woman with a 25 year history of recurrent depression.

      She has no symptoms of depression and is well maintained on phenelzine, a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI).

      Which one of the following substances can safely be taken in conjunction with MAOIs?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Red wine

      Explanation:

      MAOIs and the Cheese Reaction

      Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) are a type of medication used to treat depression and anxiety. However, they can have serious side effects if not taken with caution. One of these side effects is the cheese reaction, which occurs when foods high in tyramine are consumed while taking MAOIs. Tyramine is not metabolized due to MAO inhibition, causing it to enter the bloodstream and release noradrenaline, leading to severe hypertension. This reaction is called the cheese reaction because many cheeses are rich in tyramine.

      It is important to note that paracetamol is safe to take with MAOIs, but other drugs and certain food and drink should be avoided. The early MAOIs irreversibly inhibit monoamine oxidase, but newer ones like moclobemide are reversible and safer. However, MAOIs are rarely prescribed in general practice. To avoid the cheese reaction, it is crucial to avoid foodstuffs high in tyramine, and a full list can be found in the accompanying leaflet to the prescribed drug.

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  • Question 96 - You are contemplating prescribing a tricyclic antidepressant for a patient who has not...

    Incorrect

    • You are contemplating prescribing a tricyclic antidepressant for a patient who has not shown improvement with two different selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors. Which of the following tricyclic antidepressants is the most hazardous in overdose?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dosulepin

      Explanation:

      It is recommended to avoid Dosulepin as it can be dangerous in case of overdose.

      Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) are not commonly used for depression anymore due to their side-effects and potential for toxicity in overdose. However, they are still widely used for the treatment of neuropathic pain, where smaller doses are typically required. The common side-effects of TCAs include drowsiness, dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, urinary retention, and lengthening of QT interval. When choosing a TCA, low-dose amitriptyline is commonly used for the management of neuropathic pain and the prevention of headaches. Lofepramine is preferred due to its lower incidence of toxicity in overdose, while amitriptyline and dosulepin are considered the most dangerous in overdose. The sedative effects of TCAs vary, with amitriptyline, clomipramine, dosulepin, and trazodone being more sedative, while imipramine and nortriptyline are less sedative. Trazodone is technically a ‘tricyclic-related antidepressant’.

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  • Question 97 - A 32-year-old man comes to your clinic complaining of low mood. He reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man comes to your clinic complaining of low mood. He reports experiencing anhedonia, fatigue, weight loss, insomnia, and agitation. His PHQ-9 score is 20.

      What is the optimal course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Start citalopram and refer for CBT

      Explanation:

      Based on the patient’s PHQ-9 score and varied symptoms, it appears that he is suffering from severe depression. According to NICE guidelines, the recommended treatment for severe depression is a combination of an antidepressant and psychological intervention, with an SSRI being the first-line antidepressant of choice. Therefore, in this case, citalopram with CBT would be the appropriate treatment.

      While venlafaxine may be considered as a later option if other antidepressants are ineffective, it is not the first choice. Additionally, a referral to psychiatry is not necessary based on the symptoms presented.

      Fluoxetine is a suitable first-line antidepressant, but for severe depression, it should be used in combination with psychological intervention.

      CBT alone may be appropriate for mild to moderate depression, but for severe depression, the guidelines recommend using an antidepressant in combination.

      NICE Guidelines for Managing Depression

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines for managing depression in 2022. The new guidelines classify depression severity as less severe and more severe based on a PHQ-9 score of <16 and ≥16, respectively. For less severe depression, NICE recommends discussing treatment options with patients and considering the least intrusive and least resource-intensive treatment first. Antidepressant medication should not be routinely offered as first-line treatment unless it is the patient's preference. Treatment options for less severe depression include guided self-help, group cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), group behavioral activation (BA), individual CBT, individual BA, group exercise, group mindfulness and meditation, interpersonal psychotherapy (IPT), selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), counseling, and short-term psychodynamic psychotherapy (STPP). For more severe depression, a shared decision should be made between the patient and healthcare provider. Treatment options for more severe depression include a combination of individual CBT and an antidepressant, individual CBT, individual BA, antidepressant medication (SSRI, SNRI, or another antidepressant if indicated based on previous clinical and treatment history), individual problem-solving, counseling, STPP, IPT, guided self-help, and group exercise.

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  • Question 98 - A 15-year-old girl is brought to her General Practitioner by her mother and...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl is brought to her General Practitioner by her mother and she complains that she resists going to school because she wants to stay with her mother. She becomes terrified whenever her parents leave the house. During the day she worries that her family may never come back home.
      What is the disorder most closely associated with these symptoms in adulthood?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Panic disorder

      Explanation:

      The Relationship Between Childhood Separation Anxiety and Mental Disorders

      Separation anxiety disorder is a condition characterized by excessive anxiety related to separation from an attachment figure, such as a mother. Studies have shown that this disorder is a strong risk factor for developing mental disorders, particularly panic disorder and depression, in people aged 19-30 years. However, there is no proven link between childhood separation anxiety and irritable bowel syndrome, obsessive-compulsive disorder, schizophrenia, or somatic symptom disorder. While negative childhood experiences may play a role in the development of some mental disorders, separation anxiety in childhood is not directly related to these conditions.

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  • Question 99 - A 55-year-old man with schizophrenia becomes highly agitated while shopping in a supermarket...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man with schizophrenia becomes highly agitated while shopping in a supermarket and begins to yell and hurl canned goods off the shelves. The authorities are promptly notified. Which section of the Mental Health Act can be utilized?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Section 136

      Explanation:

      If a person with a mental health condition poses a risk of harm to themselves or others, they can be assessed under the Mental Health Act. Section 136 of the Act permits the police to detain the individual at their current location or take them to a safe place, such as their home or a police station, if they refuse to cooperate.

      During this time, the patient should undergo a formal mental health assessment. The Section 136 detention lasts for 24 hours, but it can be extended for an additional 12 hours. After this period, the patient may either be discharged or transferred to a different section of the Mental Health Act.

      Understanding Sectioning under the Mental Health Act

      Sectioning under the Mental Health Act is a legal process used for individuals who refuse to be admitted voluntarily for mental health treatment. This process involves different sections, each with its own set of rules and regulations.

      Section 2 allows for admission for assessment for up to 28 days, which is not renewable. An Approved Mental Health Professional (AMHP) or the nearest relative (NR) can make the application on the recommendation of two doctors, one of whom should be an approved consultant psychiatrist. Treatment can be given against the patient’s wishes.

      Section 3 allows for admission for treatment for up to 6 months, which can be renewed. An AMHP, along with two doctors who have seen the patient within the past 24 hours, can make the application. Treatment can also be given against the patient’s wishes.

      Section 4 is a 72-hour assessment order used in emergencies when a section 2 would involve an unacceptable delay. A GP and an AMHP or NR can make the application, which is often changed to a section 2 upon arrival at the hospital.

      Section 5(2) allows a doctor to legally detain a voluntary patient in the hospital for 72 hours, while Section 5(4) allows a nurse to detain a voluntary patient for 6 hours.

      Section 17a, also known as Supervised Community Treatment (Community Treatment Order), can be used to recall a patient to the hospital for treatment if they do not comply with the conditions of the order in the community, such as taking medication.

      Section 135 allows a court order to be obtained to allow the police to break into a property to remove a person to a Place of Safety, while Section 136 allows the police to take someone found in a public place who appears to have a mental disorder to a Place of Safety for up to 24 hours while a Mental Health Act assessment is arranged.

      Understanding the different sections of the Mental Health Act can help individuals and their loved ones navigate the legal process of sectioning and ensure that they receive the necessary treatment and support for their mental health.

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  • Question 100 - A 55-year-old man visits his doctor with worries that his spouse is cheating...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man visits his doctor with worries that his spouse is cheating on him. Despite lacking any concrete evidence, he seems extremely agitated and convinced of his suspicions. What could this symptom indicate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Othello's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Erotomania, also known as De Clérambault’s syndrome, is a type of delusion where the patient firmly believes that another person is deeply in love with them.

      Understanding Othello’s Syndrome

      Othello’s syndrome is a condition characterized by extreme jealousy and suspicion that one’s partner is being unfaithful, even in the absence of any concrete evidence. This type of pathological jealousy can lead to socially unacceptable behavior, such as stalking, accusations, and even violence. People with Othello’s syndrome may become obsessed with their partner’s every move, constantly checking their phone, email, and social media accounts for signs of infidelity. They may also isolate themselves from friends and family, becoming increasingly paranoid and controlling.

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  • Question 101 - A 15-year-old boy has been diagnosed with anorexia nervosa. His parents brought him...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy has been diagnosed with anorexia nervosa. His parents brought him to the doctor after noticing he was restricting his food intake and losing weight. What type of treatment is typically recommended for this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Family based therapy

      Explanation:

      The primary treatment for anorexia nervosa in children and adolescents is family therapy that specifically targets anorexia.

      Anorexia nervosa is a prevalent mental health condition that primarily affects teenage and young-adult females. It is the most common reason for admissions to child and adolescent psychiatric wards. The disorder is characterized by a restriction of energy intake, leading to a significantly low body weight in the context of age, sex, developmental trajectory, and physical health. Patients with anorexia nervosa also experience an intense fear of gaining weight or becoming fat, even though they are underweight. They may also have a distorted perception of their body weight or shape, which can affect their self-evaluation.

      The diagnosis of anorexia nervosa is based on the DSM 5 criteria, which no longer specifically mention BMI and amenorrhoea. Instead, the criteria focus on the restriction of energy intake, fear of gaining weight, and disturbance in the way one’s body weight or shape is experienced.

      The management of anorexia nervosa varies depending on the age of the patient. For adults, NICE recommends individual eating-disorder-focused cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT-ED), Maudsley Anorexia Nervosa Treatment for Adults (MANTRA), or specialist supportive clinical management (SSCM). In children and young people, NICE recommends ‘anorexia focused family therapy’ as the first-line treatment, followed by cognitive behavioural therapy as the second-line treatment.

      Unfortunately, the prognosis for patients with anorexia nervosa remains poor, with up to 10% of patients eventually dying because of the disorder.

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  • Question 102 - A 68-year-old man is brought to the General Practitioner by his daughter, who...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man is brought to the General Practitioner by his daughter, who is a Psychiatric Nurse, for a consultation. The daughter reports that she and other relatives have noticed a change in the patient’s behaviour and believes that he is experiencing ‘delirium, but certainly not dementia’.
      Which of the following findings is most likely, assuming the daughter’s assessment of the patient is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Altered consciousness

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Delirium from Dementia: Key Differences to Note

      When it comes to altered consciousness, delirium often causes wild fluctuations in consciousness level, while dementia typically only affects consciousness in severe cases. Additionally, delirium has an acute onset over hours to days, while dementia develops more gradually over months to years. Delirium is usually diagnosed within days of onset, while dementia is typically diagnosed 2-3 years after symptoms begin. Symptoms of delirium tend to fluctuate over the course of 24 hours, while dementia symptoms slowly worsen over time. Finally, while delirium can be reversible with early treatment of the underlying cause, dementia cannot be reversed, though treatment may slow its progression.

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  • Question 103 - A 42-year-old female patient has been diagnosed with bipolar disorder and is being...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old female patient has been diagnosed with bipolar disorder and is being discharged on lithium at a dose of 400 mg daily after a prolonged period of inpatient treatment. You receive a discharge summary requesting that you continue her blood monitoring in primary care as long term lithium treatment is planned.

      What would be the most suitable monitoring regimen?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Measure renal function or thyroid function only if clinically indicated (for example, if intercurrent infection/dehydration or symptoms of hypothyroidism develop)

      Explanation:

      Lithium Monitoring

      Lithium is a medication with a narrow therapeutic index, which means that it requires close monitoring. The dosage is adjusted to achieve a serum lithium concentration of 0.4-1 mmol/L. Lithium toxicity can cause symptoms such as blurred vision, ataxia, coarse tremor, nystagmus, dysarthria, and gastrointestinal disturbance (vomiting and diarrhea). Severe toxicity can lead to convulsions, renal failure, and circulatory failure. Therefore, serum lithium levels should be measured every three months on stabilised regimens.

      Renal failure and hypothyroidism are potential side effects of lithium use. As such, renal and thyroid function should be measured six monthly on stabilised regimens. Patients should be informed of the symptoms of hypothyroidism and advised to seek medical review if these symptoms develop. It is also important to note that lithium should be prescribed by brand rather than generically because different lithium preparations vary widely in their bioavailability.

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  • Question 104 - A 27-year-old single mother comes to see you complaining of depression. She says...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old single mother comes to see you complaining of depression. She says that she is constantly tired, due to looking after her two young sons aged 4 and 6.

      She feels constantly sad and tearful and has lost interest in watching her favourite television programmes. She is now losing weight and lying awake for most of the night worrying about her debts. She says that she feels like a worthless mother to her children and has recurrent thoughts of death.

      You establish a diagnosis of depression, but what would be the usual minimum length of time that she would have to be experiencing core symptoms in order to reach a diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Six weeks

      Explanation:

      Symptoms of Depression

      This patient is displaying several symptoms of depression, which include a persistent feeling of sadness and loss of interest, weight loss, insomnia, feelings of worthlessness, and recurrent thoughts of death. The absence of family support and the responsibility of caring for two young children would also raise concern for any GP. It is important to note that symptoms must be present for at least two weeks to make a diagnosis of depression. It is essential not to confuse this with screening questions for depression, which may be used for patients with other medical conditions. These screening questions typically ask about symptoms of depression in the preceding four weeks.

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  • Question 105 - John is a 55-year-old man who is admitted to an inpatient psychiatric hospital...

    Incorrect

    • John is a 55-year-old man who is admitted to an inpatient psychiatric hospital under section 3. He has refused to eat or drink as he believes he is already dead and no longer needs sustenance. What is the name of the syndrome where a person thinks they are non-existent or deceased?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cotard syndrome

      Explanation:

      Cotard syndrome is a condition where individuals believe that they are dead or do not exist, often associated with depression. Capgras syndrome, on the other hand, is a condition where individuals believe that their loved ones have been replaced by identical imposters. Couvade syndrome, also known as sympathetic pregnancy, affects fathers who experience physical symptoms similar to those of their pregnant partners. Finally, De Clerambault’s syndrome is a condition where individuals believe that a celebrity or another person is deeply in love with them, typically affecting females.

      Understanding Cotard Syndrome

      Cotard syndrome is a mental illness that is characterized by the belief that one is either dead or doesn’t exist. This rare disorder is often associated with severe depression and psychotic disorders. Patients with Cotard syndrome may stop eating or drinking as they believe it is not necessary. This delusion can be challenging to treat and can result in significant problems for the patient.

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  • Question 106 - An 18-year-old boy takes an overdose of 12 paracetamol tablets after a fight...

    Incorrect

    • An 18-year-old boy takes an overdose of 12 paracetamol tablets after a fight with his best friend. He is found by his roommate and rushed to the hospital.

      What is the most significant factor that suggests a high likelihood of successful suicide?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Making efforts to not be found

      Explanation:

      The risk of completed suicide is heightened when attempts are made to avoid being discovered. Additionally, the presence of certain factors such as writing a note, making plans, sorting out affairs, and using violent methods also increase the risk. However, there is no evidence to suggest that an overdose of paracetamol and alcohol increases the risk of completed suicide. While a history of deliberate self harm does increase the risk of suicide, it doesn’t necessarily increase the risk of completed suicide. Furthermore, an impulsive suicide attempt is considered less concerning than a meticulously planned one.

      The risk of suicide in psychiatric patients is often stratified into high, medium, or low risk categories, but there is limited evidence on the positive predictive value of individual risk factors. A review in the BMJ concluded that these assessments may not be useful in guiding decision making, as 50% of suicides occur in patients deemed low risk. However, certain factors have been associated with an increased risk of suicide, such as male sex, history of deliberate self-harm, alcohol or drug misuse, mental illness, depression, schizophrenia, chronic disease, advancing age, unemployment or social isolation, and being unmarried, divorced, or widowed.

      If a patient has attempted suicide, there are additional factors that increase the risk of completed suicide in the future, such as efforts to avoid discovery, planning, leaving a written note, final acts such as sorting out finances, and using a violent method. On the other hand, there are protective factors that can reduce the risk of suicide, such as having family support, having children at home, and having a religious belief.

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  • Question 107 - You suspect a 45-year-old man is abusing alcohol. You wish to use the...

    Incorrect

    • You suspect a 45-year-old man is abusing alcohol. You wish to use the CAGE questionnaire.
      Select from the list below the single item that is NOT part of the CAGE questionnaire.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amount of alcohol consumed per week in units

      Explanation:

      The CAGE: A Brief Tool for Screening Alcohol Misuse/Dependence

      The CAGE is a concise screening tool used to identify individuals who may be misusing or dependent on alcohol. It consists of four questions, and a positive response to two or more questions indicates probable alcohol misuse/dependence. However, a definitive diagnosis can only be made through a diagnostic evaluation to determine the individual’s actual treatment needs. The four questions ask if the individual has ever considered cutting down on their drinking, if they get annoyed by others commenting on their drinking, if they feel guilty about their drinking, and if they have an eye-opener. The CAGE is a quick and effective way to identify potential alcohol-related issues and guide individuals towards appropriate treatment.

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  • Question 108 - A 38-year-old recently divorced woman has been a frequent consulter with different physical...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old recently divorced woman has been a frequent consulter with different physical symptoms. You suspect she may be suffering from a generalised anxiety disorder (GAD).
      Select from the list the problem that is least likely to be due to GAD.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Eczematous rash

      Explanation:

      The Relationship Between Generalized Anxiety Disorder and Eczematous Rash

      Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD) is not typically the direct cause of an eczematous rash, but it can exacerbate itching and scratching. Patients with GAD may experience a range of physical symptoms, including autonomic arousal symptoms like palpitations, sweating, shaking, and dry mouth. Chest and abdominal symptoms, such as choking, dyspnea, chest pain, nausea, and discomfort, are also common. Other symptoms may include dizziness, hot flashes, tingling, aches and pains, or a lump in the throat with difficulty swallowing (not true dysphagia).

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  • Question 109 - An 80-year-old man is diagnosed with colon cancer. Unfortunately by the time he...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man is diagnosed with colon cancer. Unfortunately by the time he is diagnosed it has spread to the liver.

      The oncologist feels that palliative care is best in this situation and the patient is started on painkillers and other treatments to relieve his symptoms. He has a past history of osteoarthritis and bipolar disorder and takes lithium for this.

      He comes to you a few weeks later with a range of symptoms that he thinks may be side effects of lithium. His lithium levels are within the therapeutic range.

      Which of the following is most likely to be a side effect of lithium?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Headache

      Explanation:

      Lithium Side Effects

      A common side effect of lithium is a fine tremor, which can occur even when lithium levels are within the therapeutic range. However, a coarse tremor suggests that lithium levels are toxic. It is important to monitor lithium levels regularly to avoid toxicity. While tinnitus is not a side effect of lithium, vertigo can occur. It is important to be aware of these potential side effects and to discuss any concerns with a healthcare provider. Proper monitoring and management can help minimize the risk of adverse effects and ensure the safe and effective use of lithium.

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  • Question 110 - A 35-year-old accountant presents with persistent anxiety symptoms that are significantly impacting his...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old accountant presents with persistent anxiety symptoms that are significantly impacting his daily functioning. Despite completing a self-help program and undergoing CBT, he has not experienced any significant improvement after taking Sertraline for 6 months. What is the recommended next step in treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trial of an alternative SSRI such as Escitalopram or a SNRI such as Venlafaxine

      Explanation:

      If non-pharmacological treatments have not effectively managed symptoms of Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD), the first line of medication recommended is an SSRI such as Sertraline or Escitalopram. If this proves to be ineffective or not well-tolerated, an alternative SSRI or SNRI like Venlafaxine should be tried. It is important to allow 12 weeks to see the full effects of the medication. Benzodiazepines, Propranolol, and low dose Amitriptyline are not recommended in this situation. If the patient cannot tolerate or has contraindications to the aforementioned medications, a trial of Pregabalin is recommended. Referral to a mental health team is not necessary at this time as the patient has not yet tried the different management options.

      Anxiety is a common disorder that can manifest in various ways. According to NICE, the primary feature is excessive worry about multiple events associated with heightened tension. It is crucial to consider potential physical causes when diagnosing psychiatric disorders such as anxiety. Hyperthyroidism, cardiac disease, and medication-induced anxiety are important alternative causes. Medications that may trigger anxiety include salbutamol, theophylline, corticosteroids, antidepressants, and caffeine.

      NICE recommends a stepwise approach for managing generalised anxiety disorder (GAD). The first step is education about GAD and active monitoring. The second step involves low-intensity psychological interventions such as individual non-facilitated self-help, individual guided self-help, or psychoeducational groups. The third step includes high-intensity psychological interventions such as cognitive behavioural therapy or applied relaxation, or drug treatment. Sertraline is the first-line SSRI recommended by NICE. If sertraline is ineffective, an alternative SSRI or a serotonin–noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) such as duloxetine or venlafaxine may be offered. If the person cannot tolerate SSRIs or SNRIs, pregabalin may be considered. For patients under the age of 30 years, NICE recommends warning them of the increased risk of suicidal thinking and self-harm and weekly follow-up for the first month.

      The management of panic disorder also follows a stepwise approach. The first step is recognition and diagnosis, followed by treatment in primary care. NICE recommends either cognitive behavioural therapy or drug treatment. SSRIs are the first-line treatment. If contraindicated or no response after 12 weeks, imipramine or clomipramine should be offered. The third step involves reviewing and considering alternative treatments, followed by review and referral to specialist mental health services in the fourth and fifth steps, respectively.

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  • Question 111 - A woman in her 50s comes to you with symptoms of moderate depression....

    Incorrect

    • A woman in her 50s comes to you with symptoms of moderate depression. She has experienced severe side effects from SSRIs and you are considering prescribing a tricyclic antidepressant instead. Before doing so, you review her medical history for any potential contraindications to taking tricyclics.

      Which of the following conditions could be a contraindication to using tricyclic antidepressants?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Migraine

      Explanation:

      Tricyclic Antidepressants and Heart Issues

      Tricyclic antidepressants, specifically amitriptyline, may cause arrhythmias and heart block. These issues can occur occasionally and should be avoided if there is a high risk of arrhythmia. It is important to be aware of the potential heart-related side effects when considering tricyclic antidepressants as a treatment option. If there is a history of heart problems or a high risk of arrhythmia, alternative medications should be considered. It is always important to discuss any concerns or questions with a healthcare provider before starting any new medication.

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  • Question 112 - A 48-year-old female patient presents for a follow-up on her sertraline medication, which...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old female patient presents for a follow-up on her sertraline medication, which was raised to the maximum therapeutic dose 3 months ago for her generalised anxiety disorder. She reports no improvement in her symptoms and affirms that she has been adhering to the prescribed regimen. What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Switch to venlafaxine

      Explanation:

      If a patient has been taking the highest possible dose of an SSRI for two months without any improvement, it is recommended to switch to another SSRI or an SNRI such as venlafaxine. In cases where the patient cannot tolerate SSRIs or SNRIs, pregabalin may be considered.

      Anxiety is a common disorder that can manifest in various ways. According to NICE, the primary feature is excessive worry about multiple events associated with heightened tension. It is crucial to consider potential physical causes when diagnosing psychiatric disorders such as anxiety. Hyperthyroidism, cardiac disease, and medication-induced anxiety are important alternative causes. Medications that may trigger anxiety include salbutamol, theophylline, corticosteroids, antidepressants, and caffeine.

      NICE recommends a stepwise approach for managing generalised anxiety disorder (GAD). The first step is education about GAD and active monitoring. The second step involves low-intensity psychological interventions such as individual non-facilitated self-help, individual guided self-help, or psychoeducational groups. The third step includes high-intensity psychological interventions such as cognitive behavioural therapy or applied relaxation, or drug treatment. Sertraline is the first-line SSRI recommended by NICE. If sertraline is ineffective, an alternative SSRI or a serotonin–noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) such as duloxetine or venlafaxine may be offered. If the person cannot tolerate SSRIs or SNRIs, pregabalin may be considered. For patients under the age of 30 years, NICE recommends warning them of the increased risk of suicidal thinking and self-harm and weekly follow-up for the first month.

      The management of panic disorder also follows a stepwise approach. The first step is recognition and diagnosis, followed by treatment in primary care. NICE recommends either cognitive behavioural therapy or drug treatment. SSRIs are the first-line treatment. If contraindicated or no response after 12 weeks, imipramine or clomipramine should be offered. The third step involves reviewing and considering alternative treatments, followed by review and referral to specialist mental health services in the fourth and fifth steps, respectively.

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  • Question 113 - A 29-year-old woman presents one week after giving birth to a healthy baby...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman presents one week after giving birth to a healthy baby boy. For the last two days, she has been feeling irritable, tearful, and anxious and she has been struggling to get to sleep. She has no medical or psychiatric history. Her husband and mother are at home with her.

      Which is the single most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Organise a review in the perinatal psychiatry clinic

      Explanation:

      Baby Blues vs Postnatal Depression

      Mood disturbance in the first ten days after labour is a common and usually self-limiting condition known as ‘baby blues’. While it may not require medical intervention, health visitors can offer practical support and advice to new mothers. However, if the condition persists beyond the first ten days and becomes more severe, a diagnosis of postnatal depression may be considered. In such cases, an antidepressant or psychological therapy may be suitable. Perinatal psychiatry services are generally reserved for more severe mental conditions, and there are no features in this case that suggest a psychiatric emergency. It is important to differentiate between baby blues and postnatal depression, and an awareness of the latter is required under two areas of the RCGP curriculum (3.06 and 3.10).

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  • Question 114 - Sarah is an 80-year-old woman with advanced Alzheimer's disease. She has recently been...

    Incorrect

    • Sarah is an 80-year-old woman with advanced Alzheimer's disease. She has recently been diagnosed with terminal liver cancer and her oncologist contacts you to inquire about her decision-making capacity for future treatment. What would be your recommended course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Capacity assessments should be carried out by the trained health care professional related to the decision being made.

      Explanation:

      Simply having a diagnosis of severe Alzheimer’s disease doesn’t automatically mean that John lacks decision-making capacity. Age, appearance, condition, or behavior alone cannot be used to determine someone’s capacity.

      According to the Mental Capacity Act (2005), capacity should be assessed based on the specific decision and time frame. It is crucial to take all possible steps to support individuals in making their own decisions.

      The Mental Capacity Act aims to enable healthcare and social care professionals to conduct capacity assessments independently, rather than relying on specialized testing by psychiatrists or psychologists.

      The Mental Capacity Act was introduced in 2007 and applies to adults over the age of 16. It outlines who can make decisions on behalf of a patient who becomes incapacitated, such as after a stroke. Mental capacity includes the ability to make decisions about daily life, healthcare, and finances. The Act is based on five key principles, including assuming a person has capacity unless proven otherwise, taking all possible steps to help a person make decisions, and making decisions in the person’s best interests.

      To assess whether a person lacks capacity, the Act provides a clear test that is decision-specific and time-specific. A person can only be considered unable to make a particular decision if they have an impairment or disturbance in the functioning of the mind or brain and are unable to understand, retain, use, or communicate information relevant to the decision. The Act also emphasizes that no individual can be labeled incapable based on their age, appearance, or any medical condition.

      When assessing what is in someone’s best interests, the Act considers factors such as the likelihood of regaining capacity, the person’s wishes and beliefs, and the views of other relevant people. The Act also allows for the appointment of an attorney through a Lasting Power of Attorney (LPA) to act on behalf of a person who loses capacity. The LPA can cover property and financial affairs as well as health and welfare decisions, including life-sustaining treatment. Advance decisions can also be made by individuals with capacity to specify treatments they would not want if they lost capacity. These decisions must be written, signed, and witnessed if they refuse life-sustaining treatment.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 115 - A 32-year-old patient complains of nausea, headaches, and palpitations. He has been admitted...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old patient complains of nausea, headaches, and palpitations. He has been admitted multiple times in the past 2 years with similar symptoms, but no organic cause has been identified. What type of disorder is likely to be the cause of these symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Somatisation disorder

      Explanation:

      Somatisation refers to the manifestation of physical symptoms that cannot be explained by any underlying medical condition. On the other hand, hypochondria is a condition where a person constantly worries about having a serious illness, often believing that minor symptoms are signs of a life-threatening disease such as cancer.

      Unexplained Symptoms in Psychiatry

      In psychiatry, there are several terms used to describe patients who present with physical or psychological symptoms for which no organic cause can be found. Somatisation disorder is characterized by the presence of multiple physical symptoms that persist for at least two years, and the patient refuses to accept reassurance or negative test results. Illness anxiety disorder, also known as hypochondriasis, involves a persistent belief in the presence of an underlying serious disease, such as cancer, despite negative test results. Conversion disorder typically involves the loss of motor or sensory function, and the patient doesn’t consciously feign the symptoms or seek material gain. Dissociative disorder involves the process of separating off certain memories from normal consciousness, and may present with psychiatric symptoms such as amnesia, fugue, or stupor. Factitious disorder, also known as Munchausen’s syndrome, involves the intentional production of physical or psychological symptoms, while malingering refers to the fraudulent simulation or exaggeration of symptoms for financial or other gain. These terms help clinicians to better understand and diagnose patients with unexplained symptoms.

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  • Question 116 - A 50-year-old man is being seen in the psychiatric clinic after being referred...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man is being seen in the psychiatric clinic after being referred by his GP who has been struggling to manage his depression. The patient has a medical history of hypertension, high cholesterol, and depression, as well as a previous acute coronary syndrome one year ago. He reports that his mood has deteriorated and he is experiencing persistent suicidal thoughts. He denies any cognitive impairment, difficulty concentrating, or sleep disturbances. What guidance should be provided regarding his ability to drive?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Must not drive and must inform the DVLA

      Explanation:

      He is not allowed to drive and must notify the DVLA due to his depression and ongoing suicidal ideation.

      The DVLA has specific rules regarding psychiatric disorders for those who wish to drive group 1 vehicles such as cars and motorcycles. Those with severe anxiety or depression accompanied by memory problems, concentration problems, agitation, behavioral disturbance, or suicidal thoughts must not drive and must inform the DVLA. Those with acute psychotic disorder, hypomania or mania, or schizophrenia must not drive during acute illness and must notify the DVLA. Those with pervasive developmental disorders and ADHD may be able to drive but must inform the DVLA. Those with mild cognitive impairment, dementia, or mild learning disability may be able to drive but must inform the DVLA. Those with severe disability must not drive and must notify the DVLA. Those with personality disorders may be able to drive but must inform the DVLA. The rules for group 2 vehicles such as buses and lorries are stricter.

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  • Question 117 - A 25-year-old male is admitted to the acute medical unit after a paracetamol...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male is admitted to the acute medical unit after a paracetamol overdose. He later admits to multiple episodes of impulsive self-harm and overdoses. He reports that his recent overdose was triggered by a fight with his mom and concerns that she will no longer want to see him. He describes long-standing feelings of emptiness and doesn't like the way he looks.

      What is the most probable personality disorder underlying this behavior?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Borderline personality disorder

      Explanation:

      The correct diagnosis for the patient described is borderline personality disorder. This disorder is characterized by emotional instability, impulsive behavior, fear of abandonment, and unstable self-image. Patients often experience feelings of emptiness and engage in self-harm. Childhood trauma or abuse is often associated with the development of this disorder.

      Narcissistic personality disorder is not the correct diagnosis. This disorder is characterized by an exaggerated sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and entitlement.

      Paranoid personality disorder is also not the correct diagnosis. Patients with this disorder are suspicious of others and may see hidden meanings in things or believe in conspiracy theories.

      Dependent personality disorder is not the correct diagnosis either. Patients with this disorder struggle to make decisions and require reassurance and support from others. They fear being alone and cope best in relationships. However, there is no evidence of this in the patient described.

      Personality disorders are a set of maladaptive personality traits that interfere with normal functioning in life. They are categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes odd or eccentric disorders such as paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes dramatic, emotional, or erratic disorders such as antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes anxious and fearful disorders such as obsessive-compulsive, avoidant, and dependent. These disorders affect around 1 in 20 people and can be difficult to treat. However, psychological therapies such as dialectical behaviour therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions have been shown to help patients.

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  • Question 118 - A 44-year-old patient presents for a follow-up appointment regarding her treatment. She visited...

    Incorrect

    • A 44-year-old patient presents for a follow-up appointment regarding her treatment. She visited two weeks ago and was diagnosed with moderate depression and a few symptoms of anxiety. You prescribed Citalopram 20 mg to treat her condition.

      During the review, she reports feeling terrible. She experiences muscle twitches, tremors, and constant stomach gurgling. She used to feel sluggish and lethargic, but now she can't sit still and paces around the room. These symptoms worsened after a recent migraine attack.

      Upon examination, she appears agitated, and her pulse is 90 bpm sinus rhythm with a BP of 160/90. Abdominal examination is unremarkable, and a brief neurological examination of the limbs is normal, except for brisk reflexes all around. Recent thyroid function tests, urea and electrolytes, and full blood count were normal.

      Her medical history includes endometriosis and migraines. She takes co-codamol 8/500 tablets and Sumatriptan tablets as needed. She has also been taking St John's wort for the past three months. She used to drink two units of alcohol per week.

      What is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Withdraw the Citalopram completely

      Explanation:

      Understanding Serotonin Syndrome

      Serotonin syndrome is a condition that is often overlooked in primary care. It occurs when there is an excessive amount of serotonergic activity in the body, which can be caused by the initiation of medication affecting serotonin activity or an interaction between medicines that affect serotonin activity. Patients who take medications such as codeine, triptans, and St. John’s wort are at a higher risk of developing serotonin syndrome when co-prescribed with an SSRI.

      If a patient presents with symptoms of serotonin syndrome, it is important to withdraw the offending medicine, such as Citalopram. However, it is also important to consider other factors that may have contributed to the onset of symptoms, such as the use of a triptan for a migraine. Prescribing pizotifen or referring the patient for counseling may not alleviate their symptoms.

      It is important to note that some authorities caution against the use of propranolol, as it can result in hypotension and mask the response to treatment by slowing the pulse. By understanding the risk factors and symptoms of serotonin syndrome, healthcare providers can better diagnose and treat this condition.

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  • Question 119 - A 25-year-old student nurse has come to you feeling depressed. She has had...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old student nurse has come to you feeling depressed. She has had a number of health related problems in the recent past and feels that they may be a contributing factor because she has taken a lot of sick leave and now has to meet with the head of human resources.

      She suffers from asthma, thyroid disease and acne. She thinks that one of her medicines may be contributing to her depression.

      Which of the following is most likely to cause depression?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prednisolone tablets

      Explanation:

      Medications and Depression

      Depression caused by medication is not a common occurrence. However, certain medications have been linked to depression. These include isotretinoin, lipid soluble beta blockers like propranolol, methyldopa, and opioid analgesics. Steroids have been associated with mania, but levothyroxine treatment doesn’t cause depression. Antihistamines are rarely linked to depression. Out of the medications listed, isotretinoin is the most likely to cause depression. It is important to discuss any concerns about medication and mental health with a healthcare provider.

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  • Question 120 - A 19-year-old long-distance runner who is currently preparing for a regional marathon approaches...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old long-distance runner who is currently preparing for a regional marathon approaches the team doctor with an unusual sensation in her legs. She reports feeling numbness below her knee. Upon examination, the doctor notes sensory loss below the left knee in a non-dermatomal distribution. The doctor suspects a non-organic cause of her symptoms. What type of disorder is this an example of?

      Conversion disorder - typically involves loss of motor or sensory function. May be caused by stress.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Conversion disorder

      Explanation:

      Conversion disorder is a condition that often results in the loss of motor or sensory function and is believed to be triggered by stress.

      Unexplained Symptoms in Psychiatry

      In psychiatry, there are several terms used to describe patients who present with physical or psychological symptoms for which no organic cause can be found. Somatisation disorder is characterized by the presence of multiple physical symptoms that persist for at least two years, and the patient refuses to accept reassurance or negative test results. Illness anxiety disorder, also known as hypochondriasis, involves a persistent belief in the presence of an underlying serious disease, such as cancer, despite negative test results. Conversion disorder typically involves the loss of motor or sensory function, and the patient doesn’t consciously feign the symptoms or seek material gain. Dissociative disorder involves the process of separating off certain memories from normal consciousness, and may present with psychiatric symptoms such as amnesia, fugue, or stupor. Factitious disorder, also known as Munchausen’s syndrome, involves the intentional production of physical or psychological symptoms, while malingering refers to the fraudulent simulation or exaggeration of symptoms for financial or other gain. These terms help clinicians to better understand and diagnose patients with unexplained symptoms.

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  • Question 121 - During the past month, have you often been bothered by feeling down, depressed,...

    Incorrect

    • During the past month, have you often been bothered by feeling down, depressed, or hopeless?

      A 55-year-old man is attending the diabetic clinic. You are aware that people with a chronic physical health problem such as diabetes are more likely to suffer from depression. You wish to screen for this.
      Select from the list the most suitable question to ask him.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Have you often been bothered by having little interest or pleasure in doing things?

      Explanation:

      Screening for Depression: Two Questions Recommended by NICE

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends two questions for screening depression: Have you often been bothered by having little interest or pleasure in doing things? and Have you been feeling down, depressed or hopeless? These questions relate to the past month and have a sensitivity of 96% and a specificity of 57%. While useful for screening, they are not sufficient for diagnosis.

      Screening for depression is particularly important for those with a history of depression, significant physical illness, or other mental health problems like dementia. Depression and dementia can have similar symptoms, making screening crucial. Other high-risk groups include women in the puerperium, alcoholics and drug abusers, socially isolated individuals (especially the elderly), people in stressful situations, and those with unexplained symptoms.

      If a patient answers yes to the screening questions, further questions about worthlessness, concentration, and thoughts of death should follow. Early detection and treatment of depression can improve outcomes and quality of life for patients.

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  • Question 122 - A 35-year-old woman presents with increasing anxiety over the past 2 years. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents with increasing anxiety over the past 2 years. She reports feeling inadequate in social situations and worries about her career. Additionally, she experiences insomnia, difficulty concentrating, tenseness, and irritability. There are no other medical concerns, substance abuse, hallucinations, delusions, or psychomotor retardation. She appears well-groomed, doesn't express frustration, and denies suicidal ideation.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Generalised anxiety disorder

      Explanation:

      Understanding Generalised Anxiety Disorder and Adjustment Disorder

      Generalised anxiety disorder is characterised by excessive anxiety that is difficult to control, along with restlessness, irritability, and sleep disturbances. Unlike adjustment disorder, the anxiety doesn’t appear to be related to a specific stressor or exclusively to social situations, and there is no evidence of specific obsessions or compulsions. Symptoms of generalised anxiety disorder are better accounted for than major depressive disorder. There is no mention of low mood or loss of enjoyment in this scenario.

      Adjustment disorder, also known as exogenous, reactive, or situational depression, occurs when an individual is unable to adjust to a particular stress or major life event. People with this disorder typically have symptoms similar to those of depressed individuals, such as general loss of interest, feelings of hopelessness, and crying. Anxiety is a common feature of adjustment disorder. Unlike major depression, the disorder usually resolves once the individual is able to adapt to the situation.

      Understanding Generalised Anxiety Disorder and Adjustment Disorder

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  • Question 123 - A 56-year-old woman presents to your clinic with concerns about her recent blood...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old woman presents to your clinic with concerns about her recent blood test results. She reports feeling unwell for the past month, experiencing rapid heart rate, hot flashes, and tremors. She also notes sweating and an inability to sit still during these episodes. She reports that these symptoms began after an episode of shingles. Thyroid function tests, full blood count, fasting glucose, and renal function are all normal. On examination, she appears slightly agitated with a pulse of 98 bpm and blood pressure of 155/98. She has a history of severe depression, which has been in remission for two months, and post-herpetic neuralgia. She denies alcohol use and has never had elevated blood pressure in the past. Her current medications include Sertraline 200 mg, Gaviscon as needed, topical ibuprofen cream for osteoarthritis, paracetamol for osteoarthritis, and carbamazepine 100 mg four times daily for post-herpetic neuralgia. How would you manage this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer her to a neurologist

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms suggest serotonin syndrome, which can be caused by excessive stimulation of serotonergic receptors due to interactions or overdosage of serotonergic drugs. The offending drug in this case is carbamazepine, which should be withdrawn. Other drugs that can interact with SSRIs include lithium, triptans, codeine, and St John’s wort. It is not appropriate to withdraw the patient’s Sertraline or prescribe nifedipine for her mildly elevated blood pressure. There is no basis for stopping the paracetamol. Referring to a neurologist or repeating her thyroid function is also not necessary.

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  • Question 124 - A 21-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner (GP) with his father who...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner (GP) with his father who is concerned about him and reports a 6-month history of weight loss, apathy and poor self-care. He dropped out of university soon after starting his course. He has no friends and now spends most of his time alone in his room playing video games. He has recently accused his father of trying to spy on him. During the consultation, he is suspicious and reluctant to speak directly to the GP.
      What is the most likely reason for this presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Schizophrenia

      Explanation:

      Understanding Possible Diagnoses for a Teenager’s Behaviour Changes

      When a teenager’s behaviour changes, it can be difficult to determine whether it is normal teenage behaviour or a sign of a mental health issue. In the case of schizophrenia, social withdrawal and odd ideas, such as the belief that someone is trying to poison them, are classic symptoms. Amphetamine misuse can exacerbate underlying mental health problems, but there is no indication of drug abuse in this scenario. Severe depression can also manifest with delusions, which are false beliefs held with absolute certainty. Normal teenage behaviour may include changes in appearance and some withdrawal from family life, but excessive neglect of personal hygiene and never going out with friends may be signs of mental illness. Finally, personality disorders such as schizotypal and schizoid personality disorder may involve discomfort in close relationships and a preference for being alone, but do not typically include delusions or other features of schizophrenia.

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  • Question 125 - Samantha, a 50-year-old woman, visits her doctor complaining of feeling fatigued, experiencing a...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha, a 50-year-old woman, visits her doctor complaining of feeling fatigued, experiencing a low mood, and losing interest in activities she typically enjoys for the past two weeks. As per ICD-10 guidelines, how long must Samantha's symptoms persist to be diagnosed with a depressive episode?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2 weeks

      Explanation:

      The criteria for diagnosing depressive illness according to ICD-10 include a depressed mood, loss of interest in activities that were once enjoyable, and decreased energy levels. Other common symptoms include reduced concentration, low self-esteem, feelings of guilt, pessimistic views of the future, and thoughts or actions of self-harm or suicide. Disturbed sleep, diminished appetite, psychomotor agitation or retardation, and loss of libido are also common.

      To diagnose a mild depressive episode, at least two of the main three symptoms and two of the other symptoms should be present, but none of the symptoms should be intense. The episode should last for a minimum of two weeks, and individuals should still be able to function socially and at work, despite being distressed by the symptoms.

      For a moderate depressive episode, at least two of the main three symptoms and three or four of the other symptoms should be present for a minimum of two weeks. Individuals will likely have difficulty continuing with normal work and social functioning.

      A severe depressive episode is diagnosed when all three typical symptoms are present, along with at least four other symptoms, some of which should be severe. The episode should last for a minimum of two weeks, but an early diagnosis may be appropriate if the symptoms are particularly severe. Individuals may also experience psychotic symptoms and show severe distress or agitation.

      Screening and Assessment of Depression

      Depression is a common mental health condition that affects many people worldwide. Screening and assessment are important steps in identifying and managing depression. The screening process involves asking two simple questions to determine if a person is experiencing symptoms of depression. If the answer is yes to either question, a more in-depth assessment is necessary.

      Assessment tools such as the Hospital Anxiety and Depression (HAD) scale and the Patient Health Questionnaire (PHQ-9) are commonly used to assess the severity of depression. The HAD scale consists of 14 questions, seven for anxiety and seven for depression. Each item is scored from 0-3, producing a score out of 21 for both anxiety and depression. The PHQ-9 asks patients about nine different problems they may have experienced in the last two weeks, which can then be scored from 0-3. This tool also includes questions about thoughts of self-harm.

      The DSM-IV criteria are used by NICE to grade depression. This criteria includes nine different symptoms, such as depressed mood, diminished interest or pleasure in activities, and feelings of worthlessness or guilt. The severity of depression can range from subthreshold depressive symptoms to severe depression with or without psychotic symptoms.

      In conclusion, screening and assessment are crucial steps in identifying and managing depression. By using tools such as the HAD scale and PHQ-9, healthcare professionals can accurately assess the severity of depression and provide appropriate treatment.

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  • Question 126 - Nine therapists gather to discuss challenging clients in a casual setting. Each takes...

    Incorrect

    • Nine therapists gather to discuss challenging clients in a casual setting. Each takes a turn to share their difficulties in working with the client. Afterwards, the group engages in a discussion about various aspects of the therapist-client relationship.

      Which one of the following does this best describe?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Balint group

      Explanation:

      Balint Groups: A Patient-Centred Approach to Healthcare

      Michael Balint, a Hungarian psychoanalyst and psychiatrist, played a significant role in shaping modern views on patient-centred healthcare. He believed that many presenting complaints had underlying psychological and emotional problems that needed to be explored to understand patients better. Balint coined the phrase ‘the doctor as a drug’, emphasizing the importance of the doctor-patient relationship in the healing process.

      During the 1950s, Balint established small groups called ‘Balint Groups’ that allowed GPs to discuss their patients on an informal basis. These groups were similar to discussions held amongst GP Registrars during their half-day release. Balint’s ideas were published in the book ‘The doctor, his patient and the illness’.

      Balint Groups provide a safe space for GPs to discuss their patients’ emotional and psychological needs, which can often be overlooked in a busy clinical setting. By exploring these areas, GPs can gain a deeper understanding of their patients and provide more effective care. Balint’s patient-centred approach to healthcare has had a significant impact on modern medicine and continues to be used today.

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  • Question 127 - A 35-year-old man comes to his physician complaining of feeling off for the...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man comes to his physician complaining of feeling off for the past few weeks. His girlfriend is with him and expresses concern that he hasn't been acting like himself. She thinks he may need to see a psychiatrist. The patient has no prior history of mental health issues. What symptom would be the most indicative of depression?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Early morning waking

      Explanation:

      Depression often presents with early morning waking as a somatic symptom, which may occur before general insomnia. Anxiety is often associated with palpitations and nausea. Excessive gambling may indicate a gambling addiction or a hypomanic/manic disorder. Post-traumatic stress disorder frequently involves flashbacks.

      Screening and Assessment of Depression

      Depression is a common mental health condition that affects many people worldwide. Screening and assessment are important steps in identifying and managing depression. The screening process involves asking two simple questions to determine if a person is experiencing symptoms of depression. If the answer is yes to either question, a more in-depth assessment is necessary.

      Assessment tools such as the Hospital Anxiety and Depression (HAD) scale and the Patient Health Questionnaire (PHQ-9) are commonly used to assess the severity of depression. The HAD scale consists of 14 questions, seven for anxiety and seven for depression. Each item is scored from 0-3, producing a score out of 21 for both anxiety and depression. The PHQ-9 asks patients about nine different problems they may have experienced in the last two weeks, which can then be scored from 0-3. This tool also includes questions about thoughts of self-harm.

      The DSM-IV criteria are used by NICE to grade depression. This criteria includes nine different symptoms, such as depressed mood, diminished interest or pleasure in activities, and feelings of worthlessness or guilt. The severity of depression can range from subthreshold depressive symptoms to severe depression with or without psychotic symptoms.

      In conclusion, screening and assessment are crucial steps in identifying and managing depression. By using tools such as the HAD scale and PHQ-9, healthcare professionals can accurately assess the severity of depression and provide appropriate treatment.

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  • Question 128 - You speak to the husband of a patient with depression who was recently...

    Incorrect

    • You speak to the husband of a patient with depression who was recently discharged from a psychiatry ward after a suicide attempt. He was switched from sertraline to venlafaxine. His husband says his mood is okay but over the last 2 weeks, he became erratic and was not sleeping. He spoke fast about a 'handsome inheritance' he got but was gambling away their savings saying he was going to save the world. When confronted he became angry and accused him of trying to 'steal his energy'. You suspect he's developed mania and refer him to the crisis psychiatry team.

      What do you anticipate will be the subsequent step in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stop venlafaxine and start risperidone

      Explanation:

      The appropriate management for a patient who develops mania while taking an antidepressant is to stop the antidepressant and start antipsychotic therapy. In this case, the patient should stop taking venlafaxine and start taking risperidone. Antidepressants can trigger mania or hypomania as a side effect, particularly with SSRIs and TCAs, and venlafaxine has a particularly high risk. NICE guidance recommends stopping the antidepressant and offering an antipsychotic regardless of whether the antidepressant is stopped. The choice of antipsychotic should be one of haloperidol, olanzapine, quetiapine, or risperidone. Cross-tapering the patient back to sertraline is not recommended, nor is cross-tapering to mirtazapine and adding sodium valproate modified-release. Prescribing a two-week course of oral clonazepam is also not recommended. Starting lithium is effective in manic and depressive relapse prevention in bipolar disorder, but it is not recommended as first-line for the management of acute mania in patients who are not already on antipsychotics.

      Understanding Bipolar Disorder

      Bipolar disorder is a mental health condition that is characterized by alternating periods of mania/hypomania and depression. It typically develops in the late teen years and has a lifetime prevalence of 2%. There are two types of bipolar disorder: type I, which involves mania and depression, and type II, which involves hypomania and depression.

      Mania and hypomania both refer to abnormally elevated mood or irritability. Mania is more severe and involves functional impairment or psychotic symptoms for 7 days or more, while hypomania involves decreased or increased function for 4 days or more. Psychotic symptoms, such as delusions of grandeur or auditory hallucinations, suggest mania.

      Management of bipolar disorder involves psychological interventions specifically designed for the condition, as well as medication. Lithium is the mood stabilizer of choice, with valproate as an alternative. Antipsychotic therapy may be used for mania/hypomania, while fluoxetine is the antidepressant of choice for depression. Co-morbidities, such as diabetes, cardiovascular disease, and COPD, should also be addressed.

      If symptoms suggest hypomania, routine referral to the community mental health team (CMHT) is recommended. If there are features of mania or severe depression, an urgent referral to the CMHT should be made. Understanding bipolar disorder and its management is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and support for individuals with this condition.

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  • Question 129 - A 65-year-old man has just been released from the hospital following a heart...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man has just been released from the hospital following a heart attack. He has a history of depression and is currently experiencing low mood. What is the antidepressant with the most safety evidence for patients with recent unstable angina or myocardial infarction?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Citalopram

      Explanation:

      Sertraline as the Treatment of Choice for CHD Patients

      NICE guidance recommends sertraline as the treatment of choice for patients with coronary heart disease (CHD) due to its safety and efficacy. Sertraline has been found to be cost-effective in a study conducted by O’Connor and colleagues in a hospitalised population with acute coronary syndrome. Although limited to one study, this evidence supports the use of sertraline in this population. Additionally, the SPS recommends sertraline as the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) of choice for CHD patients due to its lower propensity for interactions and the availability of more data on its use in a population with pre-existing heart disease compared to other SSRIs. Overall, sertraline is a safe and effective treatment option for CHD patients with depression or anxiety.

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  • Question 130 - A 25-year-old man has become withdrawn and is receiving messages via the television....

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man has become withdrawn and is receiving messages via the television. You suspect he may have schizophrenia.
      Select from the list the single correct statement regarding the treatment of schizophrenia.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clozapine is indicated for treatment-resistant schizophrenia

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotic Medication for Schizophrenia: Types, Side-Effects, and Treatment Options

      Antipsychotic medication is commonly used to alleviate the symptoms of schizophrenia, particularly positive symptoms. However, they may not be as effective for negative symptoms. Newer or atypical antipsychotics, such as amisulpride, aripiprazole, clozapine, olanzapine, quetiapine, risperidone, and sertindole, are often preferred as they have a better balance between efficacy and side-effects.

      First-generation antipsychotic drugs, also known as typical antipsychotics, primarily block dopamine D2 receptors in the brain, which can lead to extrapyramidal symptoms and elevated prolactin. Second-generation antipsychotic drugs, or atypical antipsychotics, act on a wider range of receptors and have more distinct clinical profiles. Both types of antipsychotics are effective in treating schizophrenia.

      Early treatment is recommended to prevent further deterioration of brain functioning. In some cases, long-acting antipsychotic injections may be used to improve compliance. Benzodiazepines may also be used as a short-term adjunct therapy for behavior disturbances, insomnia, aggression, and agitation, although the evidence supporting this is limited.

      Clozapine is indicated for patients with schizophrenia who are unresponsive to or intolerant of conventional antipsychotic drugs. It can only be prescribed by a specialist and requires at least two previous trials of antipsychotics, including one newer/atypical antipsychotic, at adequate dosages and treatment periods. However, it carries a risk of life-threatening neutropenia as a potential side-effect.

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  • Question 131 - You assess a patient who has been on citalopram for the last three...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a patient who has been on citalopram for the last three years to manage depression. He has been stable for the past two years, and you both decide to discontinue the antidepressant. What is the appropriate method to taper off citalopram?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Withdraw gradually over the next 4 weeks

      Explanation:

      Gradual Reduction of SSRI Dose

      When discontinuing the use of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), it is recommended to gradually reduce the dose over a period of four weeks. This allows the body to adjust to the decreasing levels of the medication and can help prevent withdrawal symptoms. However, this gradual reduction may not be necessary for fluoxetine, as it has a longer half-life compared to other SSRIs. The longer half-life means that the medication stays in the body for a longer period of time, allowing for a slower decrease in levels even after the medication is stopped. It is still important to consult with a healthcare provider before stopping any medication and to follow their instructions for discontinuation. Proper management of medication discontinuation can help ensure a safe and effective transition off of SSRIs.

      Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are the first-line treatment for depression, with citalopram and fluoxetine being the preferred options. They should be used with caution in children and adolescents, and patients should be monitored for increased anxiety and agitation. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and there is an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Citalopram and escitalopram are associated with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation and should not be used in certain patients. SSRIs have a higher propensity for drug interactions, and patients should be reviewed after 2 weeks of treatment. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period. Use of SSRIs during pregnancy should be weighed against the risks and benefits.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 132 - A 27-year-old woman was admitted to hospital after she took a paracetamol overdose....

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman was admitted to hospital after she took a paracetamol overdose. She was given a treatment dose of N-acetylcysteine and her baseline and repeat biochemical and haematological indices were normal. She doesn't enjoy her work as a secretary, and she has a regular partner but they have been arguing recently. She didn't intend to kill herself. She denies regularly using alcohol and illicit drugs. She has a past history of an aspirin ‘overdose’, but you note that at the time the blood level was very low and she was not admitted. There is no other significant past medical history. Her parents are divorced and she lives with her mother.
      Select from the list the SINGLE FACTOR in the history that suggests she is likely to repeat this behaviour.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aspirin 'overdose'

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Risk Factors for Self-Harm and Suicide

      Self-harm is a serious issue that can have long-lasting effects on an individual’s mental and physical health. Previous episodes of self-harm are a strong predictor of future ones, regardless of the severity of the harm done. Other factors that increase the risk of self-harm include a history of psychiatric treatment, substance abuse, negative attitudes towards survival, relationship issues, and unemployment.

      When it comes to completed suicide, organic illness, male gender, and middle-age are all risk factors. It’s important to note that around 15% of people who engage in deliberate self-harm will do so again within a year, and 1% will ultimately succeed in committing suicide. Identifying these risk factors is crucial in determining which patients should be referred to psychiatric services for further evaluation and treatment. By understanding these risk factors, we can work towards preventing self-harm and suicide and providing support to those who need it most.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 133 - A 20-year-old woman with a history of anorexia nervosa has a body mass...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old woman with a history of anorexia nervosa has a body mass index (BMI) of 16 kg/m2. She has lost 2 kg steadily over the past four weeks. She is unable to sit up from lying flat without using her hands or to stand from the squatting position without using her hands. Lanugo is present. Her hands feel cold to the touch.
      Which feature of the patient’s physical examination would be most suggestive of impending high risk to life?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inability to sit up or squat without using the hands

      Explanation:

      Identifying High Risk Factors in Anorexia Nervosa

      Anorexia nervosa is a serious eating disorder that can lead to life-threatening complications. The Royal College of Psychiatrists in the United Kingdom has issued guidance on recognising medical emergencies in eating disorders. Here are some key factors to consider when assessing the risk to life in anorexia nervosa:

      Sit up–Squat–Stand (SUSS) test: This test involves asking a patient to sit up from a lying position and to stand up from a squatting position without using their hands. Inability to do this is associated with impending high risk to life.

      Rate of weight loss: A weight loss of 500-999 g per week presents a moderate risk to life, whereas weight loss of >1 kg per week confers a high risk.

      BMI: A BMI of greater than 15 kg/m2 represents a low impending risk to life, whereas a BMI of <13 kg/m2 is a high risk. Cool peripheries: Although cool peripheries may be seen on examination in anorexia nervosa, they are not associated with a high risk to life. However, a core temperature of less than 35 °C is. Lanugo: Lanugo is a covering of soft downy hair often seen in people with anorexia, but it is not identified as being associated with an increased risk to life in anorexia nervosa. By considering these factors, healthcare professionals can identify high-risk patients and provide appropriate interventions to prevent life-threatening complications.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 134 - A 60-year-old woman with a 25-year history of treatment with antipsychotic medications for...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman with a 25-year history of treatment with antipsychotic medications for schizophrenia complains of the onset of writhing tongue and finger movements.
      Select from the list the single most likely cause.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tardive dyskinesia

      Explanation:

      Understanding Tardive Dyskinesia and Differential Diagnosis

      Tardive dyskinesia is a condition that can develop in patients who have been on long-term treatment with antipsychotic medications. It is characterized by choreoathetoid movements that typically start in the fingers and tongue before becoming more widespread. While Huntington’s disease and Wilson’s disease can also present with tremors and choreiform movements, they usually have an earlier onset than tardive dyskinesia. Parkinsonism, on the other hand, is characterized by resting tremors and bradykinesia, while akathisia is characterized by motor restlessness. It is important to note that antipsychotic medications can also cause Parkinson’s symptoms and akathisia. Therefore, a thorough differential diagnosis is necessary to accurately diagnose and treat tardive dyskinesia.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 135 - A 26-year-old man lives alone. His neighbours have been increasingly concerned about rubbish...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old man lives alone. His neighbours have been increasingly concerned about rubbish piling up inside his flat and sometimes he isn't seen for days. His family tell you that over the last year he has become very odd and isolated. On examination, he is withdrawn and quiet and you find it difficult to understand his answers as he frequently wanders off the point, as if he is answering a different question. Although spontaneous movements are reduced, there are no neurological signs and he is not on any medication, prescribed or illicit. His mother and two older brothers have both had episodes of major depression.
      Select from the list of options the single feature that would suggest a possible favourable outcome from this episode.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Family history of depression

      Explanation:

      Understanding Schizophrenia: Symptoms, Predictors of Outcome, and Prevalence

      Schizophrenia is a mental disorder characterized by a range of symptoms, including positive symptoms such as delusions and hallucinations, and negative symptoms such as asocial behavior, reduced spontaneous movements, and disorganized speech. In this case, the individual exhibits mainly negative symptomatology, indicating a poor prognosis.

      Several factors can predict the outcome of schizophrenia. Young age, insidious onset, poor premorbid social function, negative symptomatology, neurological signs, no recognized precipitating factor, and family history of schizophrenia are all associated with a poor outcome. On the other hand, older age, acute onset, recognizable precipitant, good premorbid social function, being married, prominent mood disorder, family history of mood disorder, and positive symptomatology are associated with a better outcome.

      The overall prevalence of schizophrenia is 1% in all populations, and only 10-20% of patients will make a full recovery from one episode. It is important to understand the symptoms, predictors of outcome, and prevalence of schizophrenia to provide appropriate treatment and support for individuals with this disorder.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 136 - You are seeing a young adult patient who frequently attends the clinic and...

    Incorrect

    • You are seeing a young adult patient who frequently attends the clinic and is being treated for depression. She has come today with her mother feeling low, helpless and 'lost'. Looking back at her medical records you can see that the patient has had several suicide attempts and a long history of self harm. She is known to be an impulsive person and has had problems due to this with substance misuse and personal relationships.

      Her mother tells you that she has had a series of sexual relationships that have been very intense and often violent. The latest of these relationships ended a few days ago. Her mood tends to vary markedly and is quite unstable. She has been involved in physical fights on a frequent basis which she puts down to feeling angry and having a 'short fuse'.

      On talking to her she has a fear of abandonment and a distorted self-image of herself. You are aware that as a child she was sexually abused by a close male family member.

      Which of the following personality disorders correlate with her history and the clinical findings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Antisocial personality disorder

      Explanation:

      Borderline Personality Disorder: Understanding the Challenges

      Borderline Personality Disorder (BPD) is a complex mental health condition that can present significant challenges in managing both the mental and physical needs of those affected. BPD is the most commonly presenting personality disorder in primary care, and it is important to recognise the signs and symptoms to provide appropriate support.

      Individuals with BPD often exhibit a pervasive pattern of behaviour characterised by unstable interpersonal relationships, problems with self-image and mood, and impulsive behaviour. They may experience suicidal tendencies, self-harm, depression, and even psychotic symptoms. Patients can fluctuate rapidly between periods of confidence and complete despair, and they often show fear of abandonment and rejection.

      Recognising the signs and symptoms of BPD is crucial in providing appropriate support and treatment for those affected. With the right care and management, individuals with BPD can lead fulfilling lives and achieve their full potential.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 137 - What feature is typical of early-stage Alzheimer's disease? ...

    Incorrect

    • What feature is typical of early-stage Alzheimer's disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Myoclonic jerks

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Alzheimer’s Disease from Other Dementias

      Alzheimer’s disease is typically identified by the early onset of short term memory loss. However, other dementias may present with different symptoms that can help differentiate them from Alzheimer’s. For example, gait ataxia and urinary incontinence may suggest normal pressure hydrocephalus, while myoclonic jerks may indicate Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease. Visual hallucinations may be a sign of delirium or Lewy body dementia. It is important for healthcare professionals to consider these alternative diagnoses when evaluating patients with dementia symptoms. By identifying the specific type of dementia, appropriate treatment and management strategies can be implemented to improve patient outcomes.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 138 - A 58-year-old woman is brought to the doctors by her son. Three weeks...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old woman is brought to the doctors by her son. Three weeks ago her husband died from pancreatic cancer. She reports being tearful every day but her son is concerned because she is constantly 'picking fights' with him over minor matters and issues relating to their family past. The son also reports that she has on occasion described hearing her husband talking to her and on one occasion she set a place for him at the dinner table.

      Despite this she has started going to yoga classes again with friends and says that she is determined to get 'back on track'.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Normal grief reaction

      Explanation:

      Understanding Grief Reactions

      Grief is a natural response to the loss of a loved one, but it can be helpful to have an understanding of the potential stages a person may go through while grieving. One popular model divides grief into five stages: denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance. However, not everyone will experience all five stages.

      Abnormal or atypical grief reactions are more likely to occur in women and when the death is sudden or unexpected. Other risk factors include a problematic relationship before death or a lack of social support. Delayed grief, which occurs when grieving doesn’t begin for more than two weeks, and prolonged grief, which can last beyond 12 months, are features of atypical grief reactions.

      It is important to note that grief doesn’t necessarily need to be medicalized, but understanding the potential stages and risk factors can help determine if a patient is experiencing a normal grief reaction or if they may need additional support.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 139 - A 60-year-old diabetic man is evaluated and found to be experiencing moderate depression....

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old diabetic man is evaluated and found to be experiencing moderate depression. He is dealing with severe osteoarthritis and is waiting for a hip replacement. Despite declining CBT, he agrees with your suggestion that antidepressant medication may be beneficial. What is your top pick for an antidepressant for this individual?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fluoxetine

      Explanation:

      Treatment Considerations for Depression in Patients with Chronic Physical Health Problems

      Individuals with chronic physical health problems are at a higher risk of developing depression, with a two to three times greater likelihood than those in good health. This is particularly true for patients with complications of diabetes, such as retinopathy, chronic or end-stage renal disease, and painful peripheral neuropathy, as well as those with limited mobility and independence due to osteoarthritis and severe pain.

      While cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is a recommended high-intensity intervention for depression, some patients may decline this treatment option. In such cases, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are the first choice of antidepressant medication, with citalopram and sertraline being preferred options due to their lower propensity for drug interactions.

      It is important to note that venlafaxine is more dangerous in overdose than other newer agents that are equally effective, and dosulepin should not be prescribed at all. Tricyclics are also associated with side effects such as blurred vision, urinary retention, constipation, and postural hypotension, which could potentially exacerbate existing health problems.

      In addition to optimizing treatments for chronic diseases, healthcare providers should also consider any other medications the patient may be taking, such as aspirin or non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) for arthritis, which may require gastroprotection. Overall, a comprehensive and individualized approach to treatment is necessary for managing depression in patients with chronic physical health problems.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 140 - A 48-year-old male is admitted after taking an overdose.

    Which single feature best suggests...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old male is admitted after taking an overdose.

      Which single feature best suggests a high risk of future suicide?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ingestion of alcohol with the overdose drug

      Explanation:

      Factors indicating high risk of suicide

      The effort to conceal an overdose suggests a serious intent to complete suicide, which is a significant factor indicating a high risk of suicide. However, previous history of overdoses doesn’t necessarily imply a more serious intent. Other factors that may suggest a more sinister intent include being male, elderly, and having a mental illness.

      Protective factors, such as religious beliefs and social support, can reduce the risk of suicide. Additionally, being responsible for children is also a protective factor. However, when assessing a patient’s risk of suicide, it is important to focus on factors that suggest a high risk, rather than protective factors.

      In conclusion, when presented with a patient who may be at risk of suicide, it is crucial to consider the effort to conceal an overdose and other factors such as age, gender, and mental health history. While protective factors such as social support and religious beliefs are important, they should not distract from the assessment of high-risk factors.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 141 - A 25-year-old woman's life has become increasingly difficult due to excessive washing in...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman's life has become increasingly difficult due to excessive washing in an attempt to prevent contamination by faeces and urine. She is fortunate to have her own bathroom at home for her exclusive use and showers several times a day and repeatedly washes her hands. She is reluctant to venture far from home for fear of contamination and is especially afraid of using public toilets. She has become quite anxious and her sleep is disturbed.
      Select from the list below the single most suitable initial management option.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cognitive behaviour therapy

      Explanation:

      Management of Obsessive Compulsive Disorder (OCD)

      Obsessive Compulsive Disorder (OCD) is a mental health condition that requires proper management based on its severity. Cognitive behavioural therapy, including exposure and response prevention (ERP), is beneficial for all patients with OCD. This therapy involves exposure to triggers and preventing compulsive behaviours. The intensity and delivery of the intervention depend on the severity of the condition and can be individual or group-based. Selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are recommended as an adjunct for patients who cannot engage in low-intensity psychological treatment or if such treatment has failed. Clomipramine is an alternative drug for patients with more severe symptoms. Although hypnotherapy and social skills therapy have been used in OCD patients, they are not included in the NICE guidelines.

      Managing Obsessive Compulsive Disorder (OCD) with Cognitive Behavioural Therapy and Medications

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 142 - A 29-year-old woman comes to your clinic accompanied by her husband, who reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman comes to your clinic accompanied by her husband, who reports that she has been exhibiting strange behavior for the past two weeks. She has planned a trip to Europe, bought a new car with a personal loan, and told her husband that she wants a divorce. She has been unable to sleep and is always out of the house. During your conversation with her, she insists that everything is fine and attempts to leave the room. When you prevent her from leaving, she tries to jump out of the window of your fourth-floor clinic room. You lock the door and call for security, and together you manage to calm her down and keep her in the room. You diagnose her with an acute manic episode. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Place her under Section 4 of the Mental Health Act and arrange emergency hospital admission

      Explanation:

      In this emergency situation, Section 4 of the Mental Health Act can be utilized by GPs to issue a 72-hour assessment order for the patient’s detention. The patient’s nearest relative, her husband, can assist in completing the order or an AMHP can be involved.

      Due to the patient’s behavior, waiting for the emergency psychiatry team or a section 2 to be implemented may result in an unacceptable delay. The patient’s attempt to jump out of the window poses a risk to herself. It is unlikely that arranging emergency hospital admission without detaining her under the mental health act would be appropriate as she lacks insight and is unlikely to engage in treatment. Emergency sedation should not be administered as she has calmed down and is not yet under a section.

      Understanding Sectioning under the Mental Health Act

      Sectioning under the Mental Health Act is a legal process used for individuals who refuse to be admitted voluntarily for mental health treatment. This process involves different sections, each with its own set of rules and regulations.

      Section 2 allows for admission for assessment for up to 28 days, which is not renewable. An Approved Mental Health Professional (AMHP) or the nearest relative (NR) can make the application on the recommendation of two doctors, one of whom should be an approved consultant psychiatrist. Treatment can be given against the patient’s wishes.

      Section 3 allows for admission for treatment for up to 6 months, which can be renewed. An AMHP, along with two doctors who have seen the patient within the past 24 hours, can make the application. Treatment can also be given against the patient’s wishes.

      Section 4 is a 72-hour assessment order used in emergencies when a section 2 would involve an unacceptable delay. A GP and an AMHP or NR can make the application, which is often changed to a section 2 upon arrival at the hospital.

      Section 5(2) allows a doctor to legally detain a voluntary patient in the hospital for 72 hours, while Section 5(4) allows a nurse to detain a voluntary patient for 6 hours.

      Section 17a, also known as Supervised Community Treatment (Community Treatment Order), can be used to recall a patient to the hospital for treatment if they do not comply with the conditions of the order in the community, such as taking medication.

      Section 135 allows a court order to be obtained to allow the police to break into a property to remove a person to a Place of Safety, while Section 136 allows the police to take someone found in a public place who appears to have a mental disorder to a Place of Safety for up to 24 hours while a Mental Health Act assessment is arranged.

      Understanding the different sections of the Mental Health Act can help individuals and their loved ones navigate the legal process of sectioning and ensure that they receive the necessary treatment and support for their mental health.

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  • Question 143 - A 29-year-old woman presents to you with concerns about her current medication for...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman presents to you with concerns about her current medication for depression. She is currently taking reboxetine but is experiencing over-energization and only sleeping for 4.5-5 hours per night. After discussing her options, you both agree that switching to sertraline may be the best course of action.
      What advice would you give her regarding the switch to sertraline?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A washout period of two weeks between drugs is needed

      Explanation:

      Switching from Reboxetine to Sertraline

      When switching from reboxetine to sertraline, it is recommended to start sertraline immediately but gradually increase the dose as the reboxetine dose is reduced. It is important to note that reboxetine is metabolized by CYP3A4, which means that taking inhibitors such as macrolides and antifungals like fluconazole may increase its effects by raising plasma concentration. Therefore, caution should be exercised when taking these medications together. Proper management and monitoring of the switch from reboxetine to sertraline can help ensure a smooth transition and minimize potential adverse effects.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 144 - You are seeing a teenage patient who has been diagnosed with PTSD.

    He...

    Incorrect

    • You are seeing a teenage patient who has been diagnosed with PTSD.

      He has previously been treated with sertraline but wants to stop because of a rash.

      He has a review appointment with a psychiatrist in 3 months. Assuming any appropriate cross tapering and initiation, what alternative treatment could you prescribe instead?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Buspirone

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidance on Drug Treatments for PTSD in Adults

      The NICE guidance on the management of PTSD was updated in 2018, and there were a few changes from earlier guidance. One of the changes was regarding drug treatments for adults with PTSD. According to the latest NICE guidance NG116, benzodiazepines should not be offered as a drug treatment to prevent PTSD in adults. However, venlafaxine or a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), such as sertraline, can be considered for adults with a diagnosis of PTSD if they have a preference for drug treatment. It is important to review this treatment regularly.

      In addition, antipsychotics such as risperidone can be considered, along with psychological therapies, to manage symptoms for adults with a diagnosis of PTSD if they have disabling symptoms and behaviors, such as severe hyperarousal or psychotic symptoms, and their symptoms have not responded to other drug or psychological treatments. It is important that antipsychotic treatment is started and reviewed regularly by a specialist.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 145 - A 25-year-old factory worker is brought in by her boyfriend. He says that...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old factory worker is brought in by her boyfriend. He says that she was suicidal when they argued after she accidentally scratched his car while parking.

      There have been no recent major life events and there is no mention of any suicide attempt in her past medical history. She drinks six cans of beer over the weekend and is a former smoker.

      In her free time, she enjoys singing karaoke at the local bar with her friends. She still lives with her parents, but she and her boyfriend are considering moving in together.

      Which of the following is a risk factor for suicide?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Employed

      Explanation:

      Enquiring about Suicide Risk Factors in Depressed Patients

      When speaking with patients who are experiencing depression, it is important to always ask about suicide. Even if depression is not explicitly mentioned, it is helpful to identify any potential risk factors for suicide in the patient’s history. One example of a risk factor listed in this case is the patient’s low socio-economic status. Other risk factors include advancing age, male gender, recent major life events, unemployment, living alone, previous suicide attempts, and concurrent mental disorders.

      To identify high-risk patients, clinicians may use formal assessments such as the PATHOS self-harm assessment. This tool is used after an overdose attempt to identify patients who are at a higher risk for suicide. By enquiring about suicide risk factors and using appropriate assessments, clinicians can better identify and support patients who may be at risk for self-harm.

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  • Question 146 - A 31-year-old new mother is brought to the surgery by her concerned partner....

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old new mother is brought to the surgery by her concerned partner. Their baby daughter is six days old.
      For the last 48 hours the mother has been very tearful, anxious and irritable. The partner has read about postnatal depression and is worried as she seemed so happy in the first days after the birth. The baby is formula-fed and is thriving.
      When asked, she feels exhausted, and is in some discomfort following the delivery. She doesn't feel depressed but says it is very unusual for her to be so emotional and crying all the time.
      What is your diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Postnatal depression

      Explanation:

      Understanding Postpartum Mood Disorders

      Baby blues are a common experience for new mothers, affecting between 50-70% of women. This short-lived disturbance of mood typically begins between the third and sixth day post-delivery and resolves within 10 days. While it can cause anxiety, it doesn’t indicate an anxiety disorder and doesn’t affect a mother’s ability to function. Supportive treatment is all that is required.

      Postnatal depression is a more serious condition, affecting 10-15% of pregnancies with the highest incidence occurring three months postpartum. Symptoms may include persistent feelings of sadness, hopelessness, and a loss of interest in activities. Treatment may involve therapy, medication, or a combination of both.

      Puerperal psychosis is a rare but severe condition affecting 1-2 in 1000 births. Symptoms may include delusions, hallucinations, and clouding of consciousness. Delusions may be centered around the baby, putting the child at risk of harm or neglect. This condition is typically managed in a specialist mother and baby unit.

      It’s important for new mothers to be aware of these postpartum mood disorders and seek help if they experience symptoms. With proper treatment and support, women can recover and enjoy the joys of motherhood.

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  • Question 147 - You receive a letter from the consultant psychiatrist about one of your elderly...

    Incorrect

    • You receive a letter from the consultant psychiatrist about one of your elderly patients. The psychiatrist advises that the patient has bipolar disorder and should be started on lithium carbonate.

      Assuming the patient is otherwise fit and well, which one of the following is correct in terms of monitoring when on lithium?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      To ensure safe use of lithium therapy, the BNF recommends regular monitoring of various parameters. This includes checking body-weight or BMI, serum electrolytes, eGFR, and thyroid function every 6 months. In particular, thyroid function should be monitored more frequently if there is any indication of deterioration. Similarly, renal function should be assessed at baseline and then every 6 months, with more frequent monitoring if there are any signs of decline or if the patient is taking medications such as ACE inhibitors, NSAIDs, or diuretics that increase the risk of renal impairment.

      Lithium is a medication used to stabilize mood in individuals with bipolar disorder and as an adjunct in refractory depression. It has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and is primarily excreted by the kidneys. The mechanism of action is not fully understood, but it is believed to interfere with inositol triphosphate or cAMP formation.

      Common adverse effects of lithium include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, fine tremors, and nephrotoxicity. It may also cause thyroid enlargement, ECG changes, weight gain, idiopathic intracranial hypertension, leucocytosis, and hyperparathyroidism.

      Monitoring of patients on lithium therapy is crucial to prevent toxicity. It is recommended to check lithium levels 12 hours after the last dose and weekly after starting or changing the dose until concentrations are stable. Once established, lithium levels should be checked every 3 months. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be provided with an information booklet, alert card, and record book. Inadequate monitoring of patients taking lithium is common, and guidelines have been issued to address this issue.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 148 - A 45-year-old shopkeeper has returned to see you with depression. You have seen...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old shopkeeper has returned to see you with depression. You have seen him on a number of occasions over the past 20 years with a moderate depression and you conclude that his symptoms have returned.

      When he was first seen, as a student, he was given lofepramine, then dosulepin but responded poorly. This was switched to fluoxetine and he appeared to respond well and finished his medication six months later.

      Then in his 30s he suffered from another bout of depression following the failure of a business venture. He was given fluoxetine and was treated successfully, stopping his therapy eight months later.

      One month before your consultation, your primary care organisation advised that you should consider initiating treatment for newly diagnosed depressed patients with citalopram, due to cost benefits. Your choice is further enhanced by a recent meeting with a pharmaceutical representative who presents a convincing argument for treating patients with a new selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), which is claimed to have greater efficacy than existing treatments.

      What would be the most appropriate treatment for his current exacerbation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Citalopram

      Explanation:

      Choosing the Right Antidepressant

      When it comes to treating depression, finding the right medication can be a challenge. However, if a patient has responded well to a particular drug in the past, it is recommended to consider that drug for a recurrent episode. In the case of this patient, he has responded well to fluoxetine but not to lofepramine or dosulepin. While it is possible that an alternative SSRI could work, such as citalopram or a new SSRI from a pharmaceutical representative, the best course of action is to consider the drug that has worked for him in the past. By doing so, the patient has a higher chance of responding positively to the medication and experiencing relief from their symptoms.

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  • Question 149 - A 25-year-old male presents to the Emergency Department with severe abdominal pain. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male presents to the Emergency Department with severe abdominal pain. He is shivering and writhing in pain on the trolley. Despite previous investigations for abdominal pain, no cause has been found. The patient insists that he will harm himself unless he is given morphine for the pain. Which of the following best describes this behavior?

      Hypochondrial disorder
      4%

      Conversion disorder
      3%

      Malingering
      73%

      Munchausen's syndrome
      11%

      Somatisation disorder
      10%

      Is it appropriate to label this patient as malingering, considering that he may be an opiate abuser experiencing withdrawal symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Malingering

      Explanation:

      Fabricating or inflating symptoms for financial benefit is known as malingering, such as an individual who feigns whiplash following a car accident in order to receive an insurance payout.

      This can be challenging as the individual may be experiencing withdrawal symptoms from opioid abuse. Nevertheless, among the given choices, the most suitable term to describe the situation is malingering since the individual is intentionally reporting symptoms to obtain morphine.

      Unexplained Symptoms in Psychiatry

      In psychiatry, there are several terms used to describe patients who present with physical or psychological symptoms for which no organic cause can be found. Somatisation disorder is characterized by the presence of multiple physical symptoms that persist for at least two years, and the patient refuses to accept reassurance or negative test results. Illness anxiety disorder, also known as hypochondriasis, involves a persistent belief in the presence of an underlying serious disease, such as cancer, despite negative test results. Conversion disorder typically involves the loss of motor or sensory function, and the patient doesn’t consciously feign the symptoms or seek material gain. Dissociative disorder involves the process of separating off certain memories from normal consciousness, and may present with psychiatric symptoms such as amnesia, fugue, or stupor. Factitious disorder, also known as Munchausen’s syndrome, involves the intentional production of physical or psychological symptoms, while malingering refers to the fraudulent simulation or exaggeration of symptoms for financial or other gain. These terms help clinicians to better understand and diagnose patients with unexplained symptoms.

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  • Question 150 - For which patient would cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) be the most effective? ...

    Incorrect

    • For which patient would cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) be the most effective?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A 12-year-old boy with autism

      Explanation:

      Conditions that Benefit from Cognitive Behavioural Therapy

      Cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) is an effective treatment for individuals experiencing depression, anxiety, obsessive-compulsive disorder, and post-traumatic stress disorder. However, it may not be as effective for those with borderline personality disorder, psychosis, bereavement, and schizophrenia.

      It is important to note that CBT is not a one-size-fits-all approach and should be tailored to the individual’s specific needs. Understanding which conditions are most responsive to CBT can help healthcare professionals make informed decisions about treatment options for their patients.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 151 - Which antidepressant is most likely to increase the risk of arrhythmia? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which antidepressant is most likely to increase the risk of arrhythmia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mirtazapine

      Explanation:

      Cardiotoxicity of Antidepressants

      Both dosulepin and venlafaxine are not recommended for patients with a high risk of arrhythmia due to their potential cardiotoxicity. However, a recent BMJ editorial suggests that venlafaxine may not be less safe than selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) and that limiting its use based on cardiotoxicity alone may not be appropriate. Therefore, currently, dosulepin and all other tricyclic antidepressants are considered the most concerning in terms of cardiotoxicity. It is important to exercise caution when prescribing any antidepressant to patients with a history of cardiovascular disease or other risk factors. Proper monitoring and individualized treatment plans can help minimize the risk of adverse cardiac events.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 152 - You are caring for a 34-year-old female patient on the ward when you...

    Incorrect

    • You are caring for a 34-year-old female patient on the ward when you start to feel uneasy about her behavior towards you. She has been making sexually suggestive remarks and during your last check, she was wearing provocative lingerie. She frequently causes disturbances on the ward and is easily influenced by other patients. Your consultant advises you to refrain from seeing the patient alone and informs you that the patient has a personality disorder.

      What is the probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Histrionic personality disorder

      Explanation:

      Histrionic personality disorder is a condition where individuals have a strong desire to be the center of attention, often displaying inappropriate sexual behavior or dress and being easily influenced by others. They may form intense relationships, but may also misinterpret the level of intimacy in these relationships.

      Schizoid personality disorder is unlikely in this case as individuals with this condition typically lack interest in sexual interactions and prefer to be alone rather than forming close friendships.

      Schizotypal personality disorder may involve odd or eccentric beliefs or behavior, but individuals with this condition often struggle to form friendships and may be paranoid or suspicious, making it less likely to be the correct diagnosis for this patient.

      Antisocial personality disorder involves a disregard for social norms and lawful behavior, often resulting in multiple arrests. These individuals can be aggressive and deceitful, but this doesn’t match the behavior of the patient in the stem.

      Borderline personality disorder is characterized by emotional instability, impulsive behavior, and recurrent self-harm attempts. Like histrionic personality disorder, individuals with borderline personality disorder may form intense relationships, but these relationships are often unstable.

      Personality disorders are a set of maladaptive personality traits that interfere with normal functioning in life. They are categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes odd or eccentric disorders such as paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes dramatic, emotional, or erratic disorders such as antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes anxious and fearful disorders such as obsessive-compulsive, avoidant, and dependent. These disorders affect around 1 in 20 people and can be difficult to treat. However, psychological therapies such as dialectical behaviour therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions have been shown to help patients.

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  • Question 153 - A 70-year-old gentleman, with stable schizophrenia and a penicillin allergy, was seen for...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old gentleman, with stable schizophrenia and a penicillin allergy, was seen for a routine mental health review and ECG review. He reported no symptoms and was otherwise well. He is on regular oral haloperidol. He has had no changes to medications other than recently being treated for tonsillitis with clarithromycin.

      Rate 66
      Rhythm Sinus
      PR interval 180 ms
      QTc 505 ms
      RR interval 1 s

      What is the SINGLE MOST appropriate NEXT management step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Discuss with the on-call medical team for advice

      Explanation:

      Risk of QT Prolongation with Clarithromycin and Haloperidol

      Both clarithromycin and haloperidol have been associated with an increased risk of QT prolongation, which can lead to potentially life-threatening arrhythmias. If a patient’s QTc interval exceeds 500 ms, it is crucial to discuss the case with the on-call team immediately. The patient may require inpatient cardiac monitoring and consultation with psychiatry regarding their current antipsychotic medication. It is essential to monitor patients closely for signs of QT prolongation when prescribing these medications and to take appropriate measures to prevent adverse outcomes. Proper management of QT prolongation can help prevent serious cardiac events and improve patient outcomes.

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  • Question 154 - A 75-year-old woman is concerned about the possibility of developing dementia. What are...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old woman is concerned about the possibility of developing dementia. What are the typical initial symptoms of Alzheimer's disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Progressive memory impairment, apraxia and dysphasia

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Symptoms of Alzheimer’s Disease

      Alzheimer’s disease (AD) is a neurodegenerative disorder that primarily affects the brain’s temporoparietal cortex. The most common symptom of AD is progressive memory loss, which is often accompanied by other cognitive deficits such as apraxia, aphasia, acalculia, and visuospatial dysfunction. However, it is important to note that not all cognitive deficits are indicative of AD. For example, the combination of progressive memory impairment and pyramidal signs is an unusual presentation for AD, as pyramidal signs are not typically associated with this condition. Similarly, personality changes and extrapyramidal signs are unlikely to be caused by AD, as these symptoms are more commonly seen in frontotemporal dementia. While some patients with advanced stages of AD may experience seizures or myoclonic jerks, these symptoms are not typically present during the early stages of the disease. Overall, a thorough understanding of the symptoms of AD is crucial for accurate diagnosis and effective treatment.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 155 - A 35-year-old primiparous woman is brought to the General Practice surgery by her...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old primiparous woman is brought to the General Practice surgery by her concerned partner. She delivered a healthy baby born seven days ago.
      Within two days of delivery, she told her husband that she thought he was poisoning her food. She thinks someone is watching her and they want to take her baby away. She has heard voices telling her she doesn't deserve to have a family. She has not had a bath in six days.
      Which is the most appropriate intervention?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer to secondary Mental Health services for immediate assessment within four hours

      Explanation:

      Management of Postnatal Psychosis

      Postnatal psychosis is a serious mental health condition that requires urgent assessment and management. It is characterized by positive symptoms such as hallucinations and delusions, as well as negative symptoms like emotional apathy and social withdrawal. The recommended treatment for postnatal psychosis is cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), which can help manage depression and other symptoms. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) like sertraline are not typically used to treat postnatal psychosis. Midwives can provide additional support for women experiencing postnatal depression, but urgent referral to secondary mental health services is necessary for those with postnatal psychosis. Immediate assessment within four hours is recommended for those with severe symptoms, while urgent assessment within seven days is necessary for those with less severe symptoms.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 156 - What is the main diagnostic core symptom of depression? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the main diagnostic core symptom of depression?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fatigue or loss of energy

      Explanation:

      Core Symptoms of Depression

      Depression is a mental health condition that affects millions of people worldwide. One of the defining characteristics of depression is the presence of core symptoms that are present for more than two weeks. These core symptoms include persistent feelings of sadness or hopelessness, as well as a marked loss of interest or pleasure in activities that were once enjoyable.

      It’s important to note that while there are other symptoms of depression, such as changes in appetite or sleep patterns, these are classified as other symptoms and are not considered core symptoms. This means that someone may experience these symptoms without necessarily meeting the criteria for a diagnosis of depression.

      If you or someone you know is experiencing persistent feelings of sadness or loss of interest in activities, it’s important to seek help from a mental health professional. Depression is a treatable condition, and with the right support, individuals can learn to manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.

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  • Question 157 - A 21-year-old woman is brought to the General Practitioner by her parents. They...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old woman is brought to the General Practitioner by her parents. They are concerned about uncharacteristic behaviour since she left home to attend university. They ask whether she could have developed schizophrenia.
      Which of the following symptoms in this patient would be most concerning for schizophrenia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Delusional perception

      Explanation:

      Understanding Schneider’s First-Rank Symptoms in Schizophrenia

      Schneider’s first-rank symptoms are a set of symptoms that are highly indicative of schizophrenia. These symptoms are rare in other psychotic illnesses, making them a key diagnostic tool for identifying schizophrenia. The first-rank symptoms include auditory hallucinations, such as hearing one’s own thoughts echoed or hearing voices referring to oneself in the third person. Other symptoms include thought removal, insertion, and interruption, thought broadcasting, somatic hallucinations, delusional perception, and feelings, thoughts, or actions being under external control.

      In addition to the first-rank symptoms, there are also second-rank symptoms that can be present in schizophrenia. These include other disorders of perception, sudden delusional ideas, perplexity, low or euphoric mood changes, and feelings of emotional impoverishment. Schneider believed that even in the absence of first-rank symptoms, a diagnosis of schizophrenia could be made based on second-rank symptoms and a typical clinical appearance.

      One unique symptom of schizophrenia is delusional perception, which occurs in two stages. First, the individual experiences a normal perception, such as seeing traffic lights turn red. Then, they interpret this perception in a delusional way, such as believing that the red traffic lights are a sign that they are the devil and someone is trying to kill them.

      It’s important to note that cognitive impairment is a feature of dementia, not schizophrenia. Additionally, hyperactivity is more commonly associated with mania than schizophrenia. Understanding the specific symptoms of schizophrenia, particularly the first-rank symptoms, can aid in accurate diagnosis and treatment.

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  • Question 158 - A 32-year-old woman visits her doctor with worries about her mental health. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman visits her doctor with worries about her mental health. She was involved in a serious car accident three months ago and has been avoiding driving ever since. She experiences flashbacks and nightmares and has become increasingly isolated and anxious. The doctor suspects post-traumatic stress disorder.
      What is a diagnostic criterion for post-traumatic stress disorder?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Avoidance of people associated with the event

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Diagnostic Criteria for Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder

      Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a mental health condition that can develop after experiencing or witnessing a traumatic event that threatens physical integrity or life. The Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, fifth edition (DSM-5), outlines the core diagnostic criteria for PTSD, which include recurrent intrusive symptoms such as memories, nightmares, and flashbacks. Additionally, individuals with PTSD may exhibit persistent avoidance of thoughts, feelings, or external factors associated with the traumatic event, as well as negative changes in mood or thoughts and changes in arousal or reactivity.

      It is important to note that anxiety and depression often coexist with PTSD, but they are not diagnostic features. Similarly, substance abuse cannot be the primary cause of the disturbance in order for a PTSD diagnosis to be made. Recurrent early awakening, a symptom of dysthymia, is not part of the diagnostic criteria for PTSD.

      Overall, understanding the diagnostic criteria for PTSD can help individuals and healthcare professionals identify and treat this condition effectively.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 159 - A father brings his 14-year-old son to see you. The boy is a...

    Incorrect

    • A father brings his 14-year-old son to see you. The boy is a high achiever and is about to take his 'GCSEs'.
      In recent months he has broken up with his girlfriend, has lost interest in his usual hobbies, and has lost a stone in weight so that his BMI is now 17. He cries frequently, struggles to focus on his school work, and is not interested in playing video games, one of his favourite pastimes.
      His father feels he is depressed, and you are inclined to agree.
      Which of the following symptoms would make you suspect this was more than a straightforward depression?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Feelings of guilt

      Explanation:

      Anorexia Nervosa and Disproportionate Body Image Perception

      Disproportionate perception of one’s body image, often characterized by the belief of being overweight, is a common feature of anorexia nervosa. This condition is often accompanied by symptoms of depression, but treating it with antidepressants alone may not yield significant improvement. It is important to consider alternative diagnoses, especially in age groups where depression is not prevalent.

      In summary, anorexia nervosa is a serious condition that affects one’s perception of their body image. It is crucial to seek appropriate treatment and consider other potential diagnoses to ensure proper care.

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  • Question 160 - A middle-aged couple visits the clinic. The wife reports that her spouse has...

    Incorrect

    • A middle-aged couple visits the clinic. The wife reports that her spouse has been displaying unusual behavior, specifically, constantly checking on their son throughout the day and even at night. On average, he would check around ten to twenty times. When questioned, he explains that a few months ago, he had a frightening experience where he lost his son in a crowded mall, and he keeps replaying the incident in his head. The husband avoids going to crowded places, experiences anxiety, and has trouble sleeping. There is no significant medical or psychiatric history.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Post traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)

      Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a mental health condition that can develop in individuals of any age following a traumatic event. This can include natural disasters, physical or sexual assault, or military combat. PTSD is characterized by a range of symptoms, including re-experiencing the traumatic event through flashbacks or nightmares, avoidance of triggers associated with the event, hyperarousal, emotional numbing, depression, and substance abuse.

      Effective management of PTSD involves a range of interventions, including watchful waiting for mild symptoms, trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), and eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) therapy for more severe cases. While drug treatments are not recommended as a first-line treatment for adults, venlafaxine or a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) such as sertraline may be used. In severe cases, risperidone may be recommended. It is important to note that single-session interventions, also known as debriefing, are not recommended following a traumatic event.

      Understanding PTSD and its symptoms is crucial in providing effective support and treatment for those who have experienced trauma. With the right interventions, individuals with PTSD can learn to manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.

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  • Question 161 - A 21-year-old female attends surgery. She has recently been diagnosed with anorexia nervosa...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old female attends surgery. She has recently been diagnosed with anorexia nervosa and her BMI is 12.8 kg/m2. She is under the care of the local psychiatrist and has come to see you regarding her physical health.

      Which one of the following is typically associated with anorexia nervosa?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prolonged QT interval

      Explanation:

      Physical Consequences of Anorexia Nervosa

      Anorexia nervosa is a serious eating disorder that requires both psychological and physical assessment. The malnutrition associated with anorexia nervosa can have significant physical consequences. One of the physical consequences is the loss of pubic and axillary hair, but sufferers develop lanugo hair which results in an overall increase in body hair.

      Classically, hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism ensues, which results in amenorrhoea rather than menorrhagia. Hypokalaemia is normally found, which is a consequence of poor nutrient intake and can be exacerbated by the abuse of diuretics and laxatives. Hypotension (low blood pressure) usually features, rather than hypertension. Prolonged QT interval is typically associated with anorexia, and ECG should always be performed as part of the physical assessment.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 162 - A patient with chronic depression in their 50s comes for advice about changing...

    Incorrect

    • A patient with chronic depression in their 50s comes for advice about changing medication. They have been to the psychiatrist who wants to change them from their monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) to a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI).

      The patient cannot remember how long they were told to wait between stopping the MAOI and starting the SSRI.

      What is the recommended time interval between stopping the MAOI and starting the SSRI?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 7 days

      Explanation:

      Recommended Interval Before Starting Antidepressants After Stopping MAOI

      After stopping a MAOI, it is recommended to wait before starting most other antidepressants. The interval should be two weeks, except for imipramine or clomipramine, where the interval should be three weeks. This is important to avoid potential adverse reactions and interactions between the medications. It is crucial to follow the recommended interval to ensure the safety and effectiveness of the antidepressant treatment.

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  • Question 163 - A 32-year-old male is brought to your clinic by his sister. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old male is brought to your clinic by his sister. He has been convinced that aliens are monitoring his every move for 4 months, without any history of substance abuse. He claims to have heard their voices in his head and believes that they are planning to abduct him. His sister is worried that he might harm himself and reports that he has been talking about ways to escape from the aliens. When asked directly, the patient denies having suicidal thoughts but says he will do whatever it takes to avoid being taken by the aliens. He appears to have a blunted affect but is otherwise calm.

      What is the percentage of patients with this diagnosis who complete suicide?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 10%

      Explanation:

      It is common for individuals with schizophrenia to make statements about doing what it takes to avoid their perceived pursuers, such as taking a cyanide pill. However, these statements may not necessarily indicate overt suicidal plans or thoughts, but rather stem from delusions. Therefore, a comprehensive assessment of their mental state and other risk factors is necessary to accurately evaluate their level of risk for suicide.

      The risk of suicide in psychiatric patients is often stratified into high, medium, or low risk categories, but there is limited evidence on the positive predictive value of individual risk factors. A review in the BMJ concluded that these assessments may not be useful in guiding decision making, as 50% of suicides occur in patients deemed low risk. However, certain factors have been associated with an increased risk of suicide, such as male sex, history of deliberate self-harm, alcohol or drug misuse, mental illness, depression, schizophrenia, chronic disease, advancing age, unemployment or social isolation, and being unmarried, divorced, or widowed.

      If a patient has attempted suicide, there are additional factors that increase the risk of completed suicide in the future, such as efforts to avoid discovery, planning, leaving a written note, final acts such as sorting out finances, and using a violent method. On the other hand, there are protective factors that can reduce the risk of suicide, such as having family support, having children at home, and having a religious belief.

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  • Question 164 - A 54-year-old teacher is brought in by her husband after she had a...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old teacher is brought in by her husband after she had a myocardial infarction (MI) six weeks ago. Despite her husband's encouragement, she continues to smoke and has become withdrawn since her illness. She refuses to take her prescribed statin due to concerns about side effects and a belief that her situation is hopeless. Prior to her MI, she enjoyed hiking and spending time with her grandchildren, but now spends most of her day in bed.
      Her medical history includes a hysterectomy in her 40s and a diagnosis of anxiety in her 30s, for which she was prescribed sertraline. She stopped taking the medication after a few months due to side effects.
      You decide to start treatment with an antidepressant and refer her to a local cardiac rehabilitation support group.
      Which of the following antidepressants would be most appropriate for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sertraline

      Explanation:

      Antidepressant of Choice in Coronary Heart Disease

      When treating a patient with a history of heart disease, it is important to consider the potential risks associated with certain antidepressants. While the patient in question was previously treated with lofepramine, the safest option for them would be sertraline. According to the British National Formulary (BNF), tricyclic antidepressants may pose a greater risk than selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) to patients with a history of cardiac disease. Mirtazapine should also be used with caution in these patients. Although some sources suggest that the risks of venlafaxine may be overstated, sertraline remains the best choice for this patient. It is important to prioritize the patient’s safety and well-being when selecting an antidepressant for those with coronary heart disease.

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  • Question 165 - You are discharging a 25-year-old patient from your inpatient psychiatric unit. He was...

    Incorrect

    • You are discharging a 25-year-old patient from your inpatient psychiatric unit. He was admitted 4 weeks ago following a psychotic episode in which he had persecutory delusions and auditory hallucinations. He was diagnosed with schizophrenia since he had had a similar episode in the past. He has been doing very well, remained on his agreed treatment plan and has regained insight into his condition. He is concerned about being able to drive with this diagnosis as he lives in quite an isolated area and needs a car to get around.

      What other advice should you give him regarding driving with schizophrenia, after informing him that he must inform the DVLA of his diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: He may drive once he has been stable for 3 months provided he has a specialist's report

      Explanation:

      Individuals diagnosed with schizophrenia are prohibited from driving and are required to inform the DVLA. They may resume driving with a Group 1 license only after being stable and well for three months, as confirmed by a suitable psychiatric report. The DVLA guidelines specify that patients with schizophrenia can drive if they meet certain criteria, including maintaining stability for at least three months, complying with their treatment plan, regaining insight, being free from medication side effects that could impair driving, and receiving a positive specialist report.

      The DVLA has specific rules regarding psychiatric disorders for those who wish to drive group 1 vehicles such as cars and motorcycles. Those with severe anxiety or depression accompanied by memory problems, concentration problems, agitation, behavioral disturbance, or suicidal thoughts must not drive and must inform the DVLA. Those with acute psychotic disorder, hypomania or mania, or schizophrenia must not drive during acute illness and must notify the DVLA. Those with pervasive developmental disorders and ADHD may be able to drive but must inform the DVLA. Those with mild cognitive impairment, dementia, or mild learning disability may be able to drive but must inform the DVLA. Those with severe disability must not drive and must notify the DVLA. Those with personality disorders may be able to drive but must inform the DVLA. The rules for group 2 vehicles such as buses and lorries are stricter.

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  • Question 166 - A 40-year-old woman is severely disabled by agoraphobia
    Select from the list the single...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman is severely disabled by agoraphobia
      Select from the list the single correct statement regarding agoraphobia.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Commonly involves anticipatory anxiety

      Explanation:

      Understanding Agoraphobia: The Fear of Open Spaces and Leaving Home

      Agoraphobia is an irrational fear that affects up to one third of patients with panic disorders. It is characterized by a fear of open spaces and leaving home, especially those places from which escape may be difficult. Anxiety attacks are often triggered by provoking situations, and the anxiety experienced is disproportionate to the actual threat. Anticipatory anxiety is also common, with sufferers worrying about the anxiety itself and avoiding situations that may provoke it.

      The onset of agoraphobia is bimodal, with peaks in the mid-20s and mid-30s. Prevalence rates of panic disorder suggest that it is a common disorder, affecting 1-5% of the population. Anxiety disorders are twice as common in females and more prevalent in deprived areas. There is also an association with mitral valve prolapse.

      The treatments of choice for agoraphobia are self-help techniques and cognitive behavioural therapy, often in combination with antidepressant medication. Understanding agoraphobia and seeking appropriate treatment can help individuals overcome their fears and improve their quality of life.

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  • Question 167 - A 65-year-old lady who you have looked after during her recent breast cancer...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old lady who you have looked after during her recent breast cancer diagnosis and treatment comes to see you one year after undergoing a total mastectomy followed by chemotherapy and radiotherapy.

      Her disease is now in remission and she is taking tamoxifen. She has a history of a perforated duodenal ulcer and has had bouts of paroxysmal atrial fibrillation. She complains of feeling very tearful and low in mood, and feels traumatised by her experiences. She is also having some chest wall neuropathic type pain, probably due to the radiotherapy. A PHQ9 depression questionnaire confirms that she is suffering from moderately severe depression.

      Which of the following would be most appropriate to treat her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amitriptylline

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Depression in a Patient with Previous Medical History

      When treating a patient with depression who has a previous medical history, it is important to consider potential drug interactions and contraindications. In the case of a patient with a history of gastric bleeding and atrial fibrillation, SSRIs and tricyclic antidepressants should be avoided due to their associated risks. Fluoxetine should also not be prescribed as it reduces the efficacy of tamoxifen.

      Instead, the best course of action would be to offer an antidepressant and a high-intensity psychological intervention. This approach addresses the patient’s mood problems stemming from her experiences during diagnosis and treatment, while also avoiding potential harm from medication. It is important to note that using amitriptyline for neuropathic pain in this case would be off license and carries a higher risk of arrhythmias.

      In summary, when treating depression in a patient with a previous medical history, it is crucial to carefully consider the potential risks and benefits of medication options and to include psychological intervention as part of the treatment plan.

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  • Question 168 - What is the correct statement about obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the correct statement about obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: OCD is commonly associated with anxiety and depression

      Explanation:

      Understanding OCD: Symptoms, Comorbidities, and Treatment Options

      Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is a mental health condition characterized by intrusive thoughts and the compulsion to perform certain actions in response. Individuals with OCD may also be diagnosed with other conditions such as depression, anxiety disorders, eating disorders, Tourette syndrome, and personality disorders. OCD can also lead to panic attacks and suicidal tendencies, making it a serious concern. While sufferers recognize their obsessions and compulsions as irrational, they may still experience distress. OCD typically begins in early adulthood, but childhood onset is also common. The most effective treatment involves gradual exposure to environmental cues and response prevention, often combined with antidepressant therapy.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 169 - Which one of the following is not a key principle of the 2010...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is not a key principle of the 2010 Mental Capacity Act?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A person's ability to make decisions must be reviewed on an annual basis

      Explanation:

      The Mental Capacity Act was introduced in 2007 and applies to adults over the age of 16. It outlines who can make decisions on behalf of a patient who becomes incapacitated, such as after a stroke. Mental capacity includes the ability to make decisions about daily life, healthcare, and finances. The Act is based on five key principles, including assuming a person has capacity unless proven otherwise, taking all possible steps to help a person make decisions, and making decisions in the person’s best interests.

      To assess whether a person lacks capacity, the Act provides a clear test that is decision-specific and time-specific. A person can only be considered unable to make a particular decision if they have an impairment or disturbance in the functioning of the mind or brain and are unable to understand, retain, use, or communicate information relevant to the decision. The Act also emphasizes that no individual can be labeled incapable based on their age, appearance, or any medical condition.

      When assessing what is in someone’s best interests, the Act considers factors such as the likelihood of regaining capacity, the person’s wishes and beliefs, and the views of other relevant people. The Act also allows for the appointment of an attorney through a Lasting Power of Attorney (LPA) to act on behalf of a person who loses capacity. The LPA can cover property and financial affairs as well as health and welfare decisions, including life-sustaining treatment. Advance decisions can also be made by individuals with capacity to specify treatments they would not want if they lost capacity. These decisions must be written, signed, and witnessed if they refuse life-sustaining treatment.

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  • Question 170 - Samantha, a 48-year-old woman, visits you for her annual medication review.

    Samantha has a...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha, a 48-year-old woman, visits you for her annual medication review.

      Samantha has a medical history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia. Her current medications include lisinopril 10 mg, hydrochlorothiazide 25 mg, and atorvastatin 40 mg. She has no known drug allergies.

      During the review, Samantha expresses her concern about her persistent headaches and occasional dizziness. Upon further questioning, she reveals that she has been experiencing stress at work and difficulty sleeping due to worrying about her job security.

      You diagnose mild anxiety and discuss starting an anxiolytic. Samantha agrees, and you prescribe lorazepam 0.5mg as needed.

      What other step is important in managing Samantha's condition at this point?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prescribe lansoprazole

      Explanation:

      When prescribing medication to a patient who is already taking an NSAID, such as aspirin, it is important to assess their risk for gastrointestinal bleeding. According to NICE guidelines, patients with 1-2 risk factors are considered moderate risk and should either be prescribed a COX-2 inhibitor alone or a PPI. One risk factor is taking a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), so in this case, the patient should be prescribed lansoprazole along with citalopram.

      It is important to note that taking both citalopram and amitriptyline can increase the risk of serotonin syndrome. While co-codamol may be helpful for the patient’s back pain, it would be best to assess the pain before prescribing pain relief.

      Gabapentin is not necessary in this situation, and Z drugs like zopiclone should not be the first choice for managing sleep difficulties associated with depression.

      Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are the first-line treatment for depression, with citalopram and fluoxetine being the preferred options. They should be used with caution in children and adolescents, and patients should be monitored for increased anxiety and agitation. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and there is an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Citalopram and escitalopram are associated with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation and should not be used in certain patients. SSRIs have a higher propensity for drug interactions, and patients should be reviewed after 2 weeks of treatment. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period. Use of SSRIs during pregnancy should be weighed against the risks and benefits.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 171 - A 35-year-old lady comes back to the clinic four weeks after starting treatment...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old lady comes back to the clinic four weeks after starting treatment with fluoxetine for moderate depressive symptoms. She has no prior experience with antidepressant medication and has no other medical conditions.

      During the assessment, she reports no suicidal thoughts and has a supportive partner at home. Despite taking fluoxetine regularly, she has not noticed any improvement in her symptoms and is considering switching to a different medication. She has not experienced any adverse effects with fluoxetine but has heard positive things about St John's wort from a friend.

      What would be the most appropriate course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stop the fluoxetine and refer for cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT)

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Patients with Minimal Response to SSRIs

      When a patient has been taking a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) for four weeks without benefit, it is important to consider alternative treatment options. Continuing at the current dose is not a satisfactory plan.

      After three to four weeks of minimal or absent response, there are essentially two options in addition to increasing the level of support: increasing the dose of the current antidepressant or changing to an alternative agent if there are side effects or the patient prefers. However, caution is needed when switching from fluoxetine to tricyclics because it inhibits the metabolism. Therefore, after appropriate discontinuation of fluoxetine, a lower than usual starting dose of tricyclic would be required.

      It is not recommended to prescribe or advocate for St John’s wort due to lack of clarity regarding doses, duration of effect, and variation in the nature of preparations. Additionally, there are serious drug interactions, particularly with oral contraceptives and anti-epileptics.

      According to NICE CG90, cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) is recommended in addition to medication for moderate depression. If response is absent or minimal after 3 to 4 weeks of treatment with a therapeutic dose of an antidepressant, increase the level of support (for example, by weekly face-to-face or telephone contact) and consider increasing the dose in line with the SPC if there are no significant side effects or switching to another antidepressant as described in section 1.8 if there are side effects or if the person prefers.

      In summary, it is important to closely monitor patients who are not responding to SSRIs and consider alternative treatment options in consultation with a healthcare professional.

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  • Question 172 - As per the guidelines of NICE and National Patient Safety Agency (NPSA), how...

    Incorrect

    • As per the guidelines of NICE and National Patient Safety Agency (NPSA), how frequently should lithium levels be monitored once a stable dose has been attained?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Every 3 months

      Explanation:

      Once a stable dose has been achieved, lithium levels need to be monitored every 3 months.

      Lithium is a medication used to stabilize mood in individuals with bipolar disorder and as an adjunct in refractory depression. It has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and is primarily excreted by the kidneys. The mechanism of action is not fully understood, but it is believed to interfere with inositol triphosphate or cAMP formation.

      Common adverse effects of lithium include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, fine tremors, and nephrotoxicity. It may also cause thyroid enlargement, ECG changes, weight gain, idiopathic intracranial hypertension, leucocytosis, and hyperparathyroidism.

      Monitoring of patients on lithium therapy is crucial to prevent toxicity. It is recommended to check lithium levels 12 hours after the last dose and weekly after starting or changing the dose until concentrations are stable. Once established, lithium levels should be checked every 3 months. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be provided with an information booklet, alert card, and record book. Inadequate monitoring of patients taking lithium is common, and guidelines have been issued to address this issue.

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  • Question 173 - A 65-year-old lady comes to see you about her husband. He suffers with...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old lady comes to see you about her husband. He suffers with Alzheimer's dementia and she is finding it difficult to cope. She says that she doesn't drive and has had to resort to employing private carers to allow her time to do the shopping. She says that they are both in receipt of generous pensions but her sister has suggested that she applies for any benefits that are applicable.

      What can you tell her about the Attendance Allowance (AA)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: To qualify for Attendance Allowance patients must be State Pension age or over

      Explanation:

      Attendance Allowance – A Guide for GPs

      Attendance Allowance is a tax-free benefit that provides financial assistance to individuals who are State Pension age or older and have a disability that requires additional help with personal care. This benefit is not affected by income or employment status. To qualify, the individual must have required assistance for at least six months, unless they are terminally ill. There are two levels of Attendance Allowance – lower and higher.

      As a GP, you may be asked to complete a statement at the end of the Attendance Allowance claim form by your patient. If the decision maker cannot determine benefit entitlement without further evidence, they may request that you complete a medical report based on your medical records and knowledge of the patient.

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  • Question 174 - According to the Mental Capacity Act (2005), what would indicate that a person...

    Incorrect

    • According to the Mental Capacity Act (2005), what would indicate that a person doesn't have capacity?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inability to weigh up information and make a decision

      Explanation:

      Understanding Capacity to Make Decisions: The Test and Criteria

      The Mental Capacity Act provides a clear and concise test to determine whether a person lacks capacity to make a decision at a particular time. The test involves assessing whether the person has an impairment or disturbance of mental function that prevents them from making the decision in question.

      To have capacity, a person must be able to understand the relevant information, retain it, use it to make a decision, and indicate that decision through communication. Age, appearance, and behavior are not factors in determining capacity.

      Overall, understanding the criteria for capacity is crucial in ensuring that individuals are able to make informed decisions and have their rights protected.

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  • Question 175 - A 29-year-old female presents with a 3-week history of low mood. On further...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old female presents with a 3-week history of low mood. On further questioning, she reveals that she witnessed a violent altercation outside her apartment complex when returning from work 4 weeks ago. She now has nightmares related to the incident and is avoiding leaving her apartment, which is causing her to miss work. She has no past medical history and is not on any medications. What would be your first-line management recommendation for this patient, given the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trauma focussed cognitive-behavioural therapy (CBT)

      Explanation:

      Acute Stress Disorder (ASD): Symptoms appear within 3 days to 4 weeks after the traumatic event. The condition lasts for a minimum of 3 days and a maximum of 4 weeks. If symptoms persist beyond 4 weeks, the diagnosis may be revised to PTSD.

      For this patient with acute stress disorder, trauma-focused cognitive-behavioural therapy (CBT) is the recommended first-line management. This therapy involves a combination of exposure therapy and trauma-focused cognitive therapy, tailored to the patient’s age and development, and may involve parents or carers for children.

      While eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) can be used as a management option for PTSD, it is not required in this case as the patient doesn’t have PTSD.

      Risperidone, an antipsychotic, may be used in PTSD under mental health team supervision, but is not necessary for this patient with acute stress disorder.

      If the patient prefers drug treatment, has significant comorbid depression, or cannot engage in psychological treatments, sertraline or venlafaxine, both antidepressants, may be started in primary care for PTSD. They can also be used as an adjunct to psychological treatments or when there has been a poor response to psychological treatments.

      Acute stress disorder is a type of acute stress reaction that occurs within the first four weeks after a person has experienced a traumatic event, such as a life-threatening situation or sexual assault. This is different from post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), which is diagnosed after four weeks. Symptoms of acute stress disorder include intrusive thoughts, dissociation, negative mood, avoidance, and arousal. Intrusive thoughts may include flashbacks or nightmares, while dissociation may involve feeling like one is in a daze or experiencing time slowing down. Negative mood may manifest as feelings of sadness or hopelessness, while avoidance may involve avoiding places or people that remind one of the traumatic event. Arousal symptoms may include hypervigilance and sleep disturbance.

      The management of acute stress disorder typically involves trauma-focused cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) as a first-line treatment. Benzodiazepines may also be used to manage acute symptoms such as agitation or sleep disturbance, but caution should be exercised due to their addictive potential and concerns that they may be detrimental to adaptation. Overall, early intervention and treatment can help individuals with acute stress disorder recover and prevent the development of PTSD.

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  • Question 176 - An 80-year-old, frail elderly man on the geriatric ward is experiencing difficulty sleeping...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old, frail elderly man on the geriatric ward is experiencing difficulty sleeping and asks for medication to aid his insomnia. The doctor prescribes a brief course of zopiclone.

      What is one of the potential risks of administering zopiclone to elderly patients?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased risk of falls

      Explanation:

      Elderly patients taking zopiclone are at an increased risk of falling.

      Zopiclone works by binding to GABA-containing receptors, which enhances the effects of GABA and produces both the desired and undesired effects of the drug. Its mechanism of action is similar to that of benzodiazepines.

      Some of the side effects of zopiclone include agitation, dry mouth, constipation, dizziness, decreased muscle tone, and a bitter taste in the mouth. Elderly patients are particularly susceptible to falls when taking zopiclone.

      While diarrhoea is not a known side effect of zopiclone, withdrawal from the drug may cause convulsions, tremors, and hyperventilation.

      Understanding Z Drugs

      Z drugs are a class of medications that have comparable effects to benzodiazepines but differ in their chemical structure. They work by targeting the α2-subunit of the GABA receptor. Z drugs can be categorized into three groups: imidazopyridines, cyclopyrrolones, and pyrazolopyrimidines. Examples of these drugs include zolpidem, zopiclone, and zaleplon, respectively.

      Like benzodiazepines, Z drugs can cause similar adverse effects. Additionally, they can increase the risk of falls in older adults. It is important to understand the potential risks and benefits of these medications before use and to follow the prescribed dosage and instructions carefully.

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  • Question 177 - A 28-year-old woman presented with palpitations, breathlessness and chest pain, radiating to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presented with palpitations, breathlessness and chest pain, radiating to the left arm. These symptoms had started seven weeks ago, following the death of her father from a heart attack. Over the last decade, she had undergone investigations for abdominal pain, headaches, joint pains, and dyspareunia, but no significant cause was identified for these symptoms. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Generalised anxiety disorder

      Explanation:

      Somatisation Disorder: A Likely Diagnosis

      Somatisation disorder is a condition characterized by recurrent physical complaints such as pains, gastrointestinal, sexual, and pseudo-neurologic symptoms that persist over a period of years. Although the brief scenario doesn’t provide enough criteria to make a definitive diagnosis, the symptoms described suggest that somatisation disorder is the most likely answer.

      To meet the diagnostic criteria for somatisation disorder, the patient’s physical complaints must not be intentionally induced and must result in medical attention or significant impairment in social, occupational, or other important areas of functioning. Typically, the first symptoms appear in adolescence, and the full criteria are met by 30 years of age.

      Among the other disorders, factitious disorder is the least likely, while the other three are possible but not as probable as somatisation. Overall, the scenario suggests that somatisation disorder should be considered as a potential diagnosis, and further evaluation is necessary to confirm or rule out this condition.

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  • Question 178 - You receive a clinic letter from psychiatry regarding a 65-year-old patient who you...

    Incorrect

    • You receive a clinic letter from psychiatry regarding a 65-year-old patient who you referred with severe depression. The psychiatrist would like you to switch from fluoxetine to venlafaxine (a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor).

      What is the most appropriate way to make this change?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cross-taper sertraline and imipramine

      Explanation:

      Cross-tapering is recommended when switching from an SSRI to a TCA to avoid interactions and the risk of serotonin syndrome. Completing withdrawal of sertraline without introducing imipramine is not advised. Direct switch and waiting periods are not appropriate. Waiting 7 days is only necessary when switching from fluoxetine to a TCA.

      Guidelines for Switching Antidepressants

      When switching antidepressants, it is important to follow specific guidelines to ensure a safe and effective transition. If switching from citalopram, escitalopram, sertraline, or paroxetine to another selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), the first SSRI should be gradually withdrawn before starting the alternative SSRI. However, if switching from fluoxetine to another SSRI, a gap of 4-7 days should be left after withdrawal due to its long half-life.

      When switching from an SSRI to a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA), cross-tapering is recommended. This involves slowly reducing the current drug dose while slowly increasing the dose of the new drug. The exception to this is fluoxetine, which should be withdrawn before starting TCAs.

      If switching from citalopram, escitalopram, sertraline, or paroxetine to venlafaxine, it is important to cross-taper cautiously. Starting with a low dose of venlafaxine (37.5 mg daily) and increasing very slowly is recommended. The same approach should be taken when switching from fluoxetine to venlafaxine.

      Overall, following these guidelines can help minimize the risk of adverse effects and ensure a smooth transition when switching antidepressants.

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  • Question 179 - A 35-year-old man presents with weakness of his right arm - he cannot...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents with weakness of his right arm - he cannot move the arm at all.

      The weakness came on suddenly. He sees a neurologist but no neurological illness can be found. He is a soldier and has just returned from a tour of duty. He has no history of illness and has not missed a day off work for two years. The weakness has been present for nine days.

      Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Multiple sclerosis

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of a Soldier with Paralysis

      The soldier in this case has a previously good sickness record but is now experiencing muscle paralysis. It is reasonable to assume that he has been exposed to considerable stress in the recent past. After seeing a neurologist, it can be concluded that there is no neurological disease present.

      This situation is indicative of a conversion disorder, which is a psychological condition where physical symptoms cannot be explained by medical examination. Muscle paralysis is a common symptom of this disorder, and the signs do not support the symptoms. In fact, tone may seem to be increased due to simultaneous flexor and extensor contraction.

      Given the soldier’s history and symptoms, it is unlikely that he is malingering. Instead, psychological factors are likely to be important in this case. Overall, the most likely diagnosis for this soldier is a conversion disorder.

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  • Question 180 - A 28-year-old woman presents with dry, eczematous hands. She reports being a very...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents with dry, eczematous hands. She reports being a very hygienic person, but since the onset of the covid-19 pandemic, she has been washing her hands excessively - up to 50 times a day. She is aware that this is causing her skin to become dry and irritated, but her attempts to reduce her hand washing have led to increased anxiety and a return to her previous routine. She works in a hospital and is worried about her colleagues noticing her frequent hand washing. Given her symptoms, what treatment options are available for her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cognitive behavioural therapy

      Explanation:

      Understanding Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)

      Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is a mental health condition that affects 1 to 3% of the population. It is characterized by the presence of obsessions, which are unwanted intrusive thoughts, images, or urges, and compulsions, which are repetitive behaviors or mental acts that a person feels driven to perform. These symptoms can cause significant functional impairment and distress.

      Risk factors for OCD include a family history of the condition, age (with peak onset between 10-20 years), pregnancy/postnatal period, and a history of abuse, bullying, or neglect.

      The management of OCD involves classifying the level of impairment as mild, moderate, or severe using the Y-BOCS scale. For mild impairment, low-intensity psychological treatments such as cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) including exposure and response prevention (ERP) are recommended. If this is insufficient, a course of an SSRI or more intensive CBT (including ERP) can be offered. For moderate impairment, a choice of either an SSRI or more intensive CBT (including ERP) is recommended, with clomipramine as an alternative first-line drug treatment to an SSRI if necessary. For severe impairment, referral to the secondary care mental health team for assessment is necessary, with combined treatment of an SSRI and CBT (including ERP) or clomipramine as an alternative while awaiting assessment.

      ERP is a psychological method that involves exposing a patient to an anxiety-provoking situation and stopping them from engaging in their usual safety behavior. This helps them confront their anxiety, leading to the eventual extinction of the response. Treatment with an SSRI should continue for at least 12 months to prevent relapse and allow time for improvement. Compared to depression, the SSRI usually requires a higher dose and a longer duration of treatment (at least 12 weeks) for an initial response.

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  • Question 181 - A 16-year-old girl is brought for review. She is typically healthy and hasn't...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl is brought for review. She is typically healthy and hasn't had a doctor's appointment in over four years. Her parents have become increasingly worried about her behavior in the past few weeks. They report her staying up late at night, talking rapidly, and being very irritable. Yesterday she told her parents she was planning to take over the school assembly and give constructive criticism to her teachers in front of the other students. She feels many of her teachers are underperforming and need to be re-taught their subjects by her. She admits to trying cannabis once around eight months ago and has drank alcohol a few times in the past year, the last time being three weeks ago. Prior to her decline a few weeks ago, her parents describe her as a happy, well-adjusted, sociable young woman. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mania

      Explanation:

      It is highly improbable for him to experience issues related to cannabis and alcohol as it has been a considerable amount of time since he last consumed these substances.

      Understanding the Difference between Hypomania and Mania

      Hypomania and mania are two terms that are often used interchangeably, but they are not the same. While both conditions share some common symptoms, there are significant differences between them. Mania is a severe form of mood disorder that lasts for at least seven days and can cause significant functional impairment in social and work settings. It may require hospitalization due to the risk of harm to self or others and may present with psychotic symptoms such as delusions of grandeur or auditory hallucinations.

      On the other hand, hypomania is a milder form of mania that lasts for less than seven days, typically 3-4 days. It doesn’t impair functional capacity in social or work settings and is unlikely to require hospitalization. Hypomania doesn’t exhibit any psychotic symptoms. The length of symptoms, severity, and presence of psychotic symptoms help differentiate mania from hypomania.

      Despite their differences, both hypomania and mania share some common symptoms. These include predominantly elevated or irritable mood, pressured speech, flight of ideas, poor attention, insomnia, loss of inhibitions, increased appetite, and risk-taking behavior.

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  • Question 182 - A 75-year-old male presents to general practice for an annual general check-up. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old male presents to general practice for an annual general check-up. He has no particular complaints and on examination, no abnormalities were found.

      You check the blood test results which were sent by the nurse prior to the appointment:

      Na+ 132 mmol/l
      K+ 3.5 mmol/l
      Urea 4 mmol/l
      Creatinine 90 µmol/l

      You decide to review his medications.

      Which of the following medications is most likely to have caused his electrolyte abnormality?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sertraline

      Explanation:

      SSRIs like sertraline are linked to hyponatraemia, while aspirin and bisoprolol are not commonly associated with it. Ramipril, an ACE inhibitor, is associated with hyperkalaemia.

      Side-Effects of SSRIs

      SSRIs, or selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, are commonly prescribed antidepressants. However, they can cause adverse effects, with gastrointestinal symptoms being the most common. Patients taking SSRIs are also at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding, especially if they are also taking NSAIDs. To prevent this, a proton pump inhibitor should be prescribed. Hyponatraemia is another potential side-effect, and patients should be vigilant for increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.

      Citalopram, a type of SSRI, has been associated with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has advised that citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose for citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.

      SSRIs can also interact with other medications, such as NSAIDs, warfarin/heparin, aspirin, and triptans. NICE guidelines recommend avoiding SSRIs and considering mirtazapine for patients taking warfarin/heparin. Triptans should be avoided with SSRIs.

      When starting antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. For patients under the age of 30 years or at increased risk of suicide, they should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse.

      When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, which can include mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.

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  • Question 183 - A 55-year-old man has been drinking alcohol heavily for over 20 years but...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man has been drinking alcohol heavily for over 20 years but now needs to drink more to feel drunk as well as to avoid being irritable. He works as a bank manager and gave up driving 5 years ago at the insistence of his wife. There is no evidence of chronic liver disease on physical examination. Assessment of his mental state reveals episodes of low mood. He no longer goes out with friends.
      Select from the list the single most correct diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alcohol dependence

      Explanation:

      Alcohol Dependence and Social Withdrawal: Understanding the Symptoms

      Alcohol dependence is a syndrome characterized by withdrawal symptoms, tolerance, and loss of control over alcohol use. The CAGE questionnaire is a useful screening tool for alcohol-related disorders. Episodes of low mood may be related to alcohol dependence. Social withdrawal is a feature of various mental health conditions, including schizophrenia, personality disorders, autism spectrum disorders, depression, social anxiety disorder, and traumatic brain injury. Understanding the symptoms of alcohol dependence and social withdrawal can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and support.

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  • Question 184 - A 25-year-old medical student presents to the emergency department accompanied by his friend,...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old medical student presents to the emergency department accompanied by his friend, reporting a 24-hour history of aggressive behaviour, irritability, and hallucinations. The friend suspects that the patient has experienced a mental breakdown due to sleep deprivation from studying for exams. Laboratory tests reveal no evidence of drug use or infection. The patient is admitted to the hospital for observation and returns to his usual behaviour the following day.

      What is the probable diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Brief psychotic disorder

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is brief psychotic disorder, which is a short-term condition characterized by the sudden onset of at least one positive psychotic symptom, such as delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech, or catatonic behavior. Unlike other disorders, brief psychotic disorder often resolves with a return to baseline functioning. Adjustment disorder, bipolar disorder, and schizoaffective disorder are not the correct answers as they have different symptoms and characteristics.

      Understanding Psychosis: Symptoms and Associated Features

      Psychosis is a term used to describe a person’s experience of perceiving things differently from those around them. This can manifest in a variety of ways, including hallucinations, delusions, thought disorganization, alogia, tangentiality, clanging, and word salad. These symptoms can be associated with agitation, aggression, neurocognitive impairment, depression, and thoughts of self-harm.

      Psychotic symptoms can occur in a number of conditions, including schizophrenia, depression, bipolar disorder, puerperal psychosis, brief psychotic disorder, neurological conditions like Parkinson’s disease and Huntington’s disease, and as a result of prescribed drugs or certain illicit drugs like cannabis and phencyclidine.

      The peak age of first-episode psychosis is around 15-30 years. It is important to understand the symptoms and associated features of psychosis in order to recognize and seek appropriate treatment for those experiencing these symptoms.

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  • Question 185 - A 35-year-old woman presents to the clinic with her husband. They are concerned...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to the clinic with her husband. They are concerned because she has become increasingly fixated on cleaning, which is interfering with her other responsibilities and straining their relationship.

      She has installed a nail brush in the downstairs bathroom to scrub her skin after using the toilet and has prohibited guests from using any of the upstairs bathrooms. She also requires visitors to remove their shoes outside and has banned eating from any area outside the kitchen. Most recently, she has begun waking up at 5:30 am every day to clean.

      What is the most appropriate initial treatment for her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Counselling

      Explanation:

      Treating OCD with CBT and SSRIs

      CBT and SSRIs are the main treatments for obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). CBT involves challenging the ritualistic behavior of OCD through exposure and response prevention, which exposes the patient to stimuli that usually provoke their behavior and challenges their irrational thinking. On the other hand, SSRIs are the main pharmacological therapy for OCD. Counseling alone is not usually focused enough to provide significant impact on symptoms. A comprehensive treatment plan that includes CBT and SSRIs can help individuals with OCD manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.

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  • Question 186 - A 42-year-old man visits his doctor's office and reports that his wife passed...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man visits his doctor's office and reports that his wife passed away recently. He shares that he woke up this morning thinking she was lying next to him and heard her voice calling his name. He acknowledges that this is not feasible, but it has caused him considerable anguish. He is concerned that he might be losing his mind. He has no other significant psychiatric history.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pseudohallucination

      Explanation:

      Pseudohallucinations, which are characterized by the patient’s awareness that the voice or feeling is coming from their own mind, are not indicative of psychosis or serious psychiatric conditions. This makes schizophrenia and other psychotic options less likely, and there are no signs of schizoid personality disorder in the patient. Pseudohallucinations are often observed in individuals who have experienced bereavement.

      Understanding Pseudohallucinations: A Controversial Topic in Mental Health

      Pseudohallucinations are a type of false sensory perception that occur in the absence of external stimuli. Unlike hallucinations, the affected person is aware that they are experiencing a false perception. However, there is no clear definition of pseudohallucinations in the ICD 10 or DSM-5, leading to controversy among mental health specialists.

      Some experts argue that it is more helpful to view hallucinations on a spectrum, ranging from mild sensory disturbances to full-blown hallucinations. This approach can prevent misdiagnosis or mistreatment of symptoms. For example, hypnagogic hallucinations, which occur during the transition from wakefulness to sleep, are a common type of pseudohallucination that many people experience. These hallucinations are fleeting and can be either auditory or visual.

      The relevance of pseudohallucinations in mental health practice is that patients may need reassurance that these experiences are normal and do not necessarily indicate the development of a mental illness. Pseudohallucinations are also commonly experienced by people who are grieving, which can add to the confusion and distress of the grieving process.

      In conclusion, while the definition and role of pseudohallucinations in mental health treatment remain controversial, it is important for mental health professionals to be aware of this phenomenon and provide appropriate support and reassurance to those who experience it.

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  • Question 187 - A 56-year-old gentleman with a history of depression comes to see you. Last...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old gentleman with a history of depression comes to see you. Last month he was admitted to hospital after having taken a paracetamol overdose as a suicide attempt.

      Which of the following factors suggests the greatest chance of his making another attempt on his life?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: He consumed the paracetamol whilst inebriated

      Explanation:

      Assessing Suicidal Intent: Factors to Consider

      There are several factors to consider when assessing current and ongoing suicidal intent. Being unemployed and living alone may increase the risk, but they are not the strongest indicators of actual intent. Consuming a large quantity of alcohol at the same time may also complicate the risk assessment. To determine actual suicidal intent, it is important to inquire about the planning of the act, attempts made not to be discovered, the location of the attempt, the presence of a suicide note, and how the patient perceives the potential harm of their actions.

      A suicide note indicates a serious attempt at suicide and suggests that considerable thought has gone into the attempt. However, notes are also common in parasuicides as a cry for help and are often not found in completed suicides. Visiting a solicitor to make a will in advance of the attempt demonstrates the highest likelihood of a subsequent attempt, as it shows considerable planning and forethought. By considering these factors, healthcare professionals can better assess the level of suicidal intent and provide appropriate interventions to prevent future attempts.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 188 - A 30-year-old woman has a history of recurrent moderately severe depression. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman has a history of recurrent moderately severe depression. She has recently started citalopram and has found it effective. She prefers drug treatment to cognitive behavioural therapy, which she has had in the past. However, she has just become pregnant and is concerned about the risks of fetal malformation due to citalopram.
      Select from this list the option that seems most appropriate in these circumstances.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Continue citalopram

      Explanation:

      Managing Depression During Pregnancy: Considerations for Antidepressant Use

      Depression affects up to 20% of pregnant women and can have negative impacts on both maternal and fetal health. While concerns about potential harm to the developing fetus may lead some women to discontinue antidepressant medication, doing so can increase the risk of relapse for those with a history of recurrent depression. Additionally, depressed women may engage in behaviors that contribute to poorer obstetric and neonatal outcomes.

      Decisions about treating depression during pregnancy should be made on an individual basis, taking into account the severity of depression, past history of affective disorder, and maternal preference. While there are no antidepressants licensed for use during pregnancy, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly prescribed. While the risks are thought to be low, some severe birth defects have been reported. Tricyclics are considered safer, but carry a greater risk of overdose.

      In cases where a woman wishes to discontinue antidepressant medication, a gradual reduction in dose is recommended. Alternative treatments, such as psychological therapy, may also be considered. St. John’s wort should be avoided due to insufficient data on its safety in pregnancy. Ultimately, the decision to continue or discontinue antidepressant medication during pregnancy should be made in consultation with a healthcare provider.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 189 - A 45-year-old man presents to you after being involved in a car accident...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man presents to you after being involved in a car accident 3 weeks ago. He reports experiencing flashbacks of the crash while watching car chase scenes on TV and has been avoiding such shows. He also mentions having trouble falling asleep and feeling more irritable than usual. However, his symptoms have not significantly impacted his work or relationships, and he is generally functioning well. What is the recommended next step in primary care management according to current NICE guidelines?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange a period of watchful waiting, ensuring a follow-up appointment within 1 month

      Explanation:

      If an individual is experiencing mild to moderate symptoms of PTSD for less than 4 weeks, it may be appropriate to suggest a period of watchful waiting, as per the current NICE guidelines. It is not recommended to use single session interventions that focus on the traumatic event, despite their common practice. Additionally, drug treatments should not be the first-line management for PTSD, whether used by general practitioners or specialist mental health professionals. There is no need for an urgent referral to the adult mental health team in this situation.

      Understanding Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)

      Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a mental health condition that can develop in individuals of any age following a traumatic event. This can include natural disasters, physical or sexual assault, or military combat. PTSD is characterized by a range of symptoms, including re-experiencing the traumatic event through flashbacks or nightmares, avoidance of triggers associated with the event, hyperarousal, emotional numbing, depression, and substance abuse.

      Effective management of PTSD involves a range of interventions, including watchful waiting for mild symptoms, trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), and eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) therapy for more severe cases. While drug treatments are not recommended as a first-line treatment for adults, venlafaxine or a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) such as sertraline may be used. In severe cases, risperidone may be recommended. It is important to note that single-session interventions, also known as debriefing, are not recommended following a traumatic event.

      Understanding PTSD and its symptoms is crucial in providing effective support and treatment for those who have experienced trauma. With the right interventions, individuals with PTSD can learn to manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.

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  • Question 190 - You see a 20-year-old male patient who is worried about his erections. He...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 20-year-old male patient who is worried about his erections. He has been experiencing problems for the past 8 months. He is generally healthy with no medical history. He doesn't use any illegal drugs and is a non-smoker. He drinks occasionally on weekends. He lives with his parents and has recently started dating a girl from his university.

      Which of the following history findings would indicate a psychogenic cause rather than an organic cause for his erectile dysfunction?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The presence of self stimulated or morning erections

      Explanation:

      Erectile dysfunction (ED) is the inability to achieve and maintain an erection sufficient for satisfactory sexual performance. It can be caused by organic, psychogenic, or mixed factors, as well as certain medications.

      Symptoms that suggest a psychogenic cause of ED include a sudden onset, early loss of erection, self-stimulated or morning erections, premature ejaculation or inability to ejaculate, relationship problems or changes, major life events, and psychological issues.

      Symptoms that suggest an organic cause of ED include a gradual onset, normal ejaculation, normal libido (except in hypogonadal men), a history of medical risk factors (such as cardiovascular, endocrine, or neurological conditions), pelvic or scrotal trauma, radiotherapy or surgery, current use of medications known to cause ED, smoking, high alcohol consumption, or use of recreational or bodybuilding drugs.

      Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a condition where a man is unable to achieve or maintain an erection that is sufficient for sexual performance. It is not a disease but a symptom that can be caused by organic, psychogenic, or mixed factors. It is important to differentiate between the causes of ED, with factors such as a gradual onset of symptoms and lack of tumescence favoring an organic cause, while sudden onset of symptoms and decreased libido favoring a psychogenic cause. Risk factors for ED include cardiovascular disease, alcohol use, and certain medications.

      To assess for ED, it is recommended to measure lipid and fasting glucose serum levels to calculate cardiovascular risk. Free testosterone should also be measured in the morning, and if low or borderline, further assessment may be needed. PDE-5 inhibitors, such as sildenafil, are the first-line treatment for ED and should be prescribed to all patients regardless of the cause. Vacuum erection devices can be used as an alternative for those who cannot or will not take PDE-5 inhibitors. Referral to urology may be appropriate for young men who have always had difficulty achieving an erection, and those who cycle for more than three hours per week should be advised to stop.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 191 - You receive notification from your local hospital that a 23-year-old patient registered at...

    Incorrect

    • You receive notification from your local hospital that a 23-year-old patient registered at your practice has passed away after jumping from the top floor of his apartment block. This patient was known to be suffering from depression and had spent some time at an inpatient mental health unit last year.

      At what point in his history would it be necessary to refer this patient to the coroner?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Death by suicide

      Explanation:

      If a person is suspected to have died by suicide, it is mandatory to report the death to the coroner. However, the death of a patient under 25 years of age doesn’t require referral to the coroner, while the death of a patient under 18 years of age must be reported to the coroner for safeguarding purposes. Similarly, death in a public place doesn’t necessitate referral to the coroner, and neither does death in a patient with a history of mental illness or previous treatment in an inpatient mental health unit. Nonetheless, deaths of individuals detained under the mental health act must be reported to the coroner.

      Notifiable Deaths and Reporting to the Coroner

      When it comes to death certification, certain deaths are considered notifiable and should be reported to the coroner. These include unexpected or sudden deaths, as well as deaths where the attending doctor did not see the deceased within 28 days prior to their passing (this was increased from 14 days during the COVID pandemic). Additionally, deaths that occur within 24 hours of hospital admission, accidents and injuries, suicide, industrial injury or disease, deaths resulting from ill treatment, starvation, or neglect, deaths occurring during an operation or before recovery from the effect of an anaesthetic, poisoning (including from illicit drugs), stillbirths where there is doubt as to whether the child was born alive, and deaths of prisoners or people in police custody are also considered notifiable.

      It is important to note that these deaths should be reported to the coroner, who will then investigate the circumstances surrounding the death. This is to ensure that any potential criminal activity or negligence is properly addressed and that the cause of death is accurately determined. By reporting notifiable deaths to the coroner, we can help ensure that justice is served and that families receive the closure they need during a difficult time.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 192 - A 50-year-old man comes to you with symptoms of depression. After diagnosing him...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man comes to you with symptoms of depression. After diagnosing him with major depressive illness, you decide to treat him with an SSRI. Two weeks later, he returns to your office feeling a bit shaky and complaining of excessive sweating, but overall he seems upbeat. He talks quickly and with great optimism, and you wonder if a mild sedative might help. However, he is resistant to any further intervention and continues to share his ambitious aspirations, which you find somewhat unrealistic.

      What steps would you take in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Review in two weeks

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Treatment for Bipolar Illness

      When a patient shows symptoms of mania, it can change their diagnosis from unipolar to bipolar illness. In this case, the patient’s hostility and grandiose delusions confirm the change in diagnosis. It is important to refer the patient immediately for specialist help to ensure proper treatment.

      Additionally, the patient is experiencing side effects from their selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), including shakiness and excessive sweating. While these side effects can be troublesome, they can be managed with short term benzodiazepines. It is crucial to address both the bipolar illness and the side effects of medication to provide the best possible care for the patient.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 193 - Which one of the following statements regarding anorexia nervosa is accurate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding anorexia nervosa is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: If amenorrhoea is present a hormonal disorder needs to be excluded

      Explanation:

      Anorexia nervosa is a prevalent mental health condition that primarily affects teenage and young-adult females. It is the most common reason for admissions to child and adolescent psychiatric wards. The disorder is characterized by a restriction of energy intake, leading to a significantly low body weight in the context of age, sex, developmental trajectory, and physical health. Patients with anorexia nervosa also experience an intense fear of gaining weight or becoming fat, even though they are underweight. They may also have a distorted perception of their body weight or shape, which can affect their self-evaluation.

      • The BMI should be < 16.5 kg/m² before making the diagnosis:
        • This is not accurate. The DSM-5 criteria for anorexia nervosa include a significantly low body weight relative to the individual’s age, sex, developmental trajectory, and physical health, but it does not specify a precise BMI threshold like <16.5 kg/m².
      • If amenorrhoea is present a hormonal disorder needs to be excluded:
        • This is accurate. While amenorrhoea is a common feature of anorexia nervosa, it is important to rule out other potential causes of amenorrhoea, such as hormonal disorders, to ensure an accurate diagnosis.
      • It is the most common cause of admissions to child and adolescent psychiatric wards:
        • This is not accurate. While anorexia nervosa is a significant cause of admissions, other conditions such as depression and anxiety disorders are generally more common causes of psychiatric admissions in this age group.
      • Around 75-80% of the patients are female:
        • This is accurate in general, but the figure is typically closer to 90%, making it less precise. Anorexia nervosa predominantly affects females, but the exact percentage is often reported higher than 75-80%.
      • Has a good prognosis if treated:
        • This is not accurate. Anorexia nervosa has a variable prognosis and can be quite severe with significant mortality and morbidity. While some individuals do recover completely, others may have a chronic course with relapses. Unfortunately, the prognosis for patients with anorexia nervosa remains poor, with up to 10% of patients eventually dying because of the disorder.

      The management of anorexia nervosa varies depending on the age of the patient. For adults, NICE recommends individual eating-disorder-focused cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT-ED), Maudsley Anorexia Nervosa Treatment for Adults (MANTRA), or specialist supportive clinical management (SSCM). In children and young people, NICE recommends ‘anorexia focused family therapy’ as the first-line treatment, followed by cognitive behavioural therapy as the second-line treatment.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 194 - A 35-year-old teacher complains of low mood and poor sleep for ten days....

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old teacher complains of low mood and poor sleep for ten days. She has been working very hard in preparation for a school inspection due next week. She got married eight months ago and denies any problems at home. She is looking forward to a planned trip to Italy in two months time.

      She has been fit and well up to this point with no personal or family history of mental health problems. Her only medication is Microgynon 30. She has several good friends who have noticed that she is not herself and who wonder if she is depressed. She has taken to drinking half a bottle of wine every night while working late.

      After fully assessing her, what is likely to be the best way to approach her management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: General advice and active monitoring

      Explanation:

      Management of Subthreshold Depressive Symptoms

      This patient is currently experiencing subthreshold depressive symptoms that have lasted for less than two weeks. The cause of her symptoms is likely due to a stressful period at work, which is expected to end soon. Fortunately, she has a strong support network. According to NICE guidance on Depression in adults (CG90), medication is not recommended at this stage. Instead, CBT should be considered for persistent subthreshold depressive symptoms. St John’s wort is not recommended due to its interaction with the oral contraceptive pill and lack of evidence of effective dose and variation between preparations. NICE has suggested that short term dynamic psychotherapy be evaluated in a formal research setting. After a thorough assessment, the patient should be advised on sleep hygiene and reducing alcohol intake. She should also receive written information about depression and be scheduled for a follow-up appointment within two weeks at most.

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  • Question 195 - Which one of the following is least acknowledged as a possible negative outcome...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is least acknowledged as a possible negative outcome of electroconvulsive therapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Epilepsy

      Explanation:

      There is no long-term risk of epilepsy associated with electroconvulsive therapy, despite the fact that it induces a controlled seizure.

      Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is a viable treatment option for individuals who suffer from severe depression that doesn’t respond to medication, such as catatonia, or those who experience psychotic symptoms. The only absolute contraindication for ECT is when a patient has raised intracranial pressure.

      Short-term side effects of ECT may include headaches, nausea, short-term memory impairment, memory loss of events that occurred before the treatment, and cardiac arrhythmia. However, these side effects are typically temporary and subside after a short period of time.

      Long-term side effects of ECT are less common, but some patients have reported impaired memory. It is important to note that the benefits of ECT often outweigh the potential risks and side effects, and it can be a life-changing treatment for those who have not found relief from other forms of therapy.

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  • Question 196 - A 25-year-old woman reports that she regularly needs to check items. She will...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman reports that she regularly needs to check items. She will return repeatedly to check a door is locked or an iron unplugged or an oven switched off etc. She has even occasionally returned to the house after leaving to check things.
      Select from the list the single most correct statement concerning obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) in this patient.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Obsessions or compulsions must be a source of distress or interfere with functioning for the diagnosis to be made

      Explanation:

      Understanding and Treating Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder

      Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is a mental health condition characterized by obsessive thoughts and compulsive behaviors. While many people may exhibit some obsessive or compulsive tendencies, the key to diagnosing OCD is whether it causes distress or interferes with daily functioning.

      Cognitive behavioral therapy, specifically exposure and response prevention, is the first-line treatment for OCD. This type of therapy helps individuals confront their fears and learn to resist the urge to engage in compulsive behaviors. If a patient cannot participate in therapy or if it is not effective, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) may be prescribed. Clomipramine is an alternative medication to SSRIs.

      It is important to note that OCD can affect anyone, regardless of gender, and typically has an onset in adolescence or early adulthood. If you or someone you know is struggling with OCD, seeking professional help can lead to effective treatment and improved quality of life.

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  • Question 197 - A 42-year-old man reports feeling anxious and worried most of the time. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man reports feeling anxious and worried most of the time. He denies depression and is not interested in psychological interventions. He requests medication to help him calm down. What is the most appropriate medication to prescribe?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sertraline

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Generalised Anxiety Disorder (GAD)

      Generalised Anxiety Disorder (GAD) is a chronic condition that requires long-term treatment. The recommended approach, according to NICE guidelines, is to start with low-intensity psychological interventions and then move on to high-intensity psychological interventions and/or drug therapy. The first choice of medication is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), with sertraline being suggested. If there is no improvement after a 12-week course, another SSRI should be offered. Benzodiazepines should only be used as a short-term measure during a crisis, and buspirone should be used with caution. β blockers and antipsychotic medication are not effective. It is important to note that GAD worsens the prognosis for any other condition.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 198 - A 55-year-old man is a frequent attender with abdominal pain that has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man is a frequent attender with abdominal pain that has been extensively investigated and no cause found. He still finds the symptoms very distressing. They are the focus of his attention and he says they are restricting normal activities; he also fears he may have bowel cancer.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Somatic symptom disorder

      Explanation:

      Understanding Somatic Symptom Disorder and its Distinctions from Other Conditions

      Somatic symptom disorder (SSD) is a condition characterized by distressing somatic symptoms and excessive thoughts, feelings, and behaviors related to those symptoms. These symptoms must persist for at least six months to be diagnosed with SSD. In contrast, illness anxiety disorder is a preoccupation with having or acquiring a serious illness without significant somatic symptoms. Colon cancer is unlikely in this patient as extensive investigations have found no cause. Generalized anxiety disorder is characterized by anxiety about a variety of things, while this patient’s focus is on his abdominal pain and fears of bowel cancer. Irritable bowel syndrome causes abdominal pain, diarrhea, and constipation, but the patient’s symptoms and concerns are more consistent with somatic symptom disorder. Understanding the distinctions between these conditions is crucial for accurate diagnosis and effective treatment.

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  • Question 199 - A 32-year-old man with schizophrenia reports that thoughts are leaking out of his...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man with schizophrenia reports that thoughts are leaking out of his head and being read by others around him.
      What is the correct term for this symptom?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thought broadcast

      Explanation:

      Understanding Different Types of Thought Experiences

      There are various types of thought experiences that individuals may encounter. One of these is thought broadcast, where others can seemingly hear or read one’s thoughts as they are being broadcasted from the individual. On the other hand, thought insertion and withdrawal refer to the experience of having thoughts inserted into or taken out of one’s mind by an external force. In thought blocking, individuals may suddenly find themselves unable to continue speaking as their minds go blank. Meanwhile, thought echo involves hearing one’s own thoughts being spoken aloud after thinking them. Finally, auditory hallucinations refer to the perception of hearing sounds or voices without any external stimulus. Understanding these different types of thought experiences can help individuals better recognize and cope with them.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 200 - A 64-year-old woman is noted to have poor self-care with symptoms of early...

    Incorrect

    • A 64-year-old woman is noted to have poor self-care with symptoms of early morning waking and decreased appetite. She has poor concentration and is easily agitated. There is a history of a recent death in the family. She also recently lost her job as a volunteer. She has difficulty answering short-term recall questions. Her family think that her symptoms have been deteriorating over the past 6 months.
      What is the single most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Depressive pseudodementia

      Explanation:

      Physical Signs and Symptoms of Depression in Elderly Patients

      Depression in elderly patients can manifest in various physical signs and symptoms. Early morning waking and decreased appetite are common symptoms, often accompanied by short-term memory loss. While memory loss is also seen in dementia, it improves with treatment of depression. Other physical signs include weight loss, constipation, loss of libido, impotence in men, fatigue, and body aches and pains. Retardation or agitation of behavior may also occur. These symptoms may be precipitated by life events and should be addressed promptly to improve the patient’s quality of life.

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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Mental Health (11/25) 44%
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