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  • Question 1 - A 35-year-old male was brought to you in a confused state. Although not...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old male was brought to you in a confused state. Although not your patient, you can make out that the man has a history of schizophrenia, and has recently had his medications altered. Clinically, you find evidence of a lower respiratory tract infection, and blood investigations indicate a neutropenic picture. What is the most likely drug causing the neutropenia?

      Your Answer: Clozapine

      Explanation:

      Clozapine can cause neutropenia or agranulocytosis.

      Clozapine is an atypical antipsychotic used in the treatment of schizophrenia, and in patients who are intolerant to, or unresponsive to other antipsychotics.

      It is a weak D2-receptor and D1-receptor blocking activity, with noradrenolytic, anticholinergic, and antihistaminic properties.

      Many antipsychotic drugs can occasionally cause bone marrow depression, but agranulocytosis is particularly associated with clozapine.

      Other side effects include:
      Hypotension, tachycardia
      Fever, sedation, seizures (with high doses)
      Appetite increase
      Constipation
      Heartburn
      Weight gain
      Extrapyramidal symptoms
      Agranulocytosis
      Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      51.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 33-year-old man presents with recurrent episodes of abdominal pain associated with weakness...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old man presents with recurrent episodes of abdominal pain associated with weakness of his arms and legs. Which one of the following urine tests would best indicate lead toxicity?

      Your Answer: Haemoglobinuria

      Correct Answer: Coproporphyrin

      Explanation:

      Lead poisoning is characterised by abdominal pain, fatigue, constipation, peripheral neuropathy (mainly motor), and blue lines on gum margin in 20% of the adult patients (very rare in children).

      For diagnosis, the level of lead in blood is usually considered with levels greater than 10 mcg/dL being significant. Furthermore, the blood film shows microcytic anaemia and basophilic stippling of red blood cells. Urinary coproporphyrin is increased (urinary porphobilinogen and uroporphyrin levels are normal to slightly increased). Raised serum and urine levels of delta-aminolaevulinic acid may also be seen, making it sometimes difficult to differentiate from acute intermittent porphyria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      19.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 76 year old female who is admitted to the ward complains that...

    Incorrect

    • A 76 year old female who is admitted to the ward complains that she is experiencing visual hallucinations. She was admitted following a decline in mobility that was thought to be secondary to a urinary tract infection. Improvements have been seen clinically and biochemically while she has been admitted and she is currently awaiting discharge. Upon review, she states that she has seen wolves walking around her bed. She has a background of hypertension, depression and age-related macular degeneration. What is the most appropriate step in this patient's management?

      Your Answer: Urgent psychiatric evaluation

      Correct Answer: Reassure the patient

      Explanation:

      Charles Bonnet syndrome (CBS) involves visual hallucinations due to eye disease, usually associated with a sharp decline in vision. The phenomenon is seen in patients with moderate or severe visual impairment. It can occur spontaneously as the vision declines or it may be precipitated, in predisposed individuals, by concurrent illness such as infections elsewhere in the body.

      It is not clear why CBS develops or why some individuals appear to be predisposed to it. It is particularly noted in patients with advanced macular degeneration. It has been suggested that reduced or absent stimulation of the visual system leads to increased excitability of the visual cortex (deafferentation hypothesis). This release phenomenon is compared to phantom limb symptoms after amputation.

      CBS is much more common in older patients because conditions causing marked visual loss are more common in older people. However, it can occur at any age and has been described in children.
      The prevalence is hard to assess due to considerable under-reporting, perhaps because patients frequently fear that it is a sign of mental illness or dementia. However, it is thought to occur in:
      About 10-15% of patients with moderate visual loss.
      Possibly up to 50% of people with severe visual loss.
      Presentation:
      The nature of the hallucination depends on the part of the brain that is activated. The hallucinations may be black and white or in colour. They may involve grids/brickwork/lattice patterns but are typically much more complex:

      The hallucinations are always outside the body.
      The hallucinations are purely visual – other senses are not involved.
      The hallucinations have no personal meaning to the patient.
      Hallucinations may last seconds, minutes or hours.
      CBS tends to occur in a ‘state of quiet restfulness’. This may be after a meal or when listening to the radio (but not when dozing off).
      Symptoms also have a tendency to occur in dim lighting conditions.
      Patients may report high levels of distress, with some patients reporting anger, anxiety and even fear associated with the hallucinations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      110.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - In diabetes, what is the most common finding on renal biopsy? ...

    Correct

    • In diabetes, what is the most common finding on renal biopsy?

      Your Answer: Glomerulosclerosis

      Explanation:

      Glomerulosclerosis is the scarring and hardening of the glomeruli known as diabetic glomerulosclerosis occurring in long-standing diabetes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      9.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - An 80-year-old female presents to OPD with itching hands, elbows, axillae and groin....

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old female presents to OPD with itching hands, elbows, axillae and groin. Other members residing with her at the retirement home also have similar complaints. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Scabies

      Explanation:

      Scabies is due to an infestation of Sarcoptes scabiei and most commonly presents with these symptoms. The organism resides in burrows in a pattern specifically affecting the interdigital spaces and the skin folds of the arms and legs. The infection spreads from one person to another, especially in populated communities, through close contact.
      Henoch-Schönlein purpura is a type of vascular inflammation.
      Psoriasis rash is characterised by scaly plaques affecting the extensor surfaces of the body. Pemphigus vulgaris and bullous pemphigoid both are bullous disorders of the skin. They may present as crusted, weeping, diffuse lesions and there may be involvement in other sites; erosions in the mouth are typically involved in pemphigus vulgaris. Bullous pemphigoid involves the flexural areas and may be associated with a new medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      17.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A neonate was brought in by her mother, for a skin lesion present...

    Correct

    • A neonate was brought in by her mother, for a skin lesion present over the neonate's back which is bluish in colour, but otherwise asymptomatic. The most appropriate course of action will be?

      Your Answer: Reassure

      Explanation:

      A Mongolian spot can be present in new born babies which usually appears over the back and fades with time. There is nothing to worry about.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      26.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 47 year old woman presents with joint pains and a history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 47 year old woman presents with joint pains and a history of recurrent infections over the past few months. Labs reveal a positive rheumatoid factor and low white cell count. Given the likely diagnosis, which of the following features would be present in her case?

      Your Answer: Flexural surface rheumatoid nodules

      Correct Answer: Splenomegaly

      Explanation:

      Felty syndrome is a severe subtype of seropositive Rheumatoid arthritis. Clinical triad consists of arthritis, splenomegaly, and neutropenia (leads to an increased risk of recurrent bacterial infections). Other symptoms include skin ulcers of the lower limbs (indicating vasculitis), hepatomegaly, fever, and chest pain (indicating pleuritis or pericarditis). It is associated with increased risk of developing non-Hodgkin lymphoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      29
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 23-year-old man who works as a clerk presents for review. He is...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old man who works as a clerk presents for review. He is 6 feet 2 inches tall, with delayed puberty and infertility. On examination, he has small testes with scanty pubic hair. Blood results are shown below: Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) 40 U/l (1–7), Testosterone 4 nmol/l(9–35). What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hypogonadotropic hypogonadism

      Correct Answer: 47XXY

      Explanation:

      Klinefelter syndrome (KS), the most common human sex chromosome disorder 47,XXY. It is characterized by hypogonadism (micro-orchidism, oligospermia/azoospermia) and gynecomastia in late puberty. If Klinefelter syndrome is not diagnosed prenatally, a patient with 47,XXY karyotype may demonstrate various subtle, age-related clinical signs that would prompt diagnostic testing. These include the following:
      Infants: Hypospadias, small phallus, cryptorchidism.
      Toddlers: Developmental delay (especially expressive language skills), hypotonia.
      Older boys and adolescent males: Tall stature; delayed or incomplete pubertal development with eunuchoid body habitus; gynecomastia; small, firm testes; sparse body hair.

      From childhood with progression to early puberty, the pituitary-gonadal function observed is within normal limits for 47,XXY males.
      At mid puberty and later, follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH) concentrations rise to hyper-gonadotropic levels, inhibin B levels fall until they are undetectable, and testosterone levels are at low or low-normal levels after an initial increase.

      Fragile X syndrome, also termed Martin-Bell syndrome or marker X syndrome, is the most common cause of inherited mental retardation, intellectual disability, and autism.
      However, the patient here does not have any mental disabilities as he already works as a clerk, and that too would make Down’s Syndrome less likely.

      Classic Kallmann syndrome (KS) and idiopathic hypogonadotropic hypogonadism (IHH) are rare genetic conditions that encompass the spectrum of isolated hypogonadotropic hypogonadism. Most patients have gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) deficiency, as suggested by their response to pulsatile GnRH therapy. Hypothalamic-pituitary function is otherwise normal in most patients, and hypothalamic-pituitary imaging reveals no space-occupying lesions. By definition, either anosmia or severe hyposmia is present in patients with Kallmann syndrome, in contrast to patients with idiopathic hypogonadotropic hypogonadism, whose sense of smell is normal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      290.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 67-year-old man who has terminal lung cancer and is taking morphine slow...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man who has terminal lung cancer and is taking morphine slow release tablet (MST) 60mg bd as an analgesic, is reviewed. Recently, he has been unable to take medications orally and, thus, a decision has been made to set up a syringe driver. Out of the following, what dose of diamorphine should be prescribed for the syringe driver?

      Your Answer: 60mg

      Correct Answer: 40mg

      Explanation:

      The dose is calculated, using the conversion factor, as follows:

      (Conversion factor used to convert oral morphine to subcutaneous diamorphine = Divide the total daily dose of oral morphine by 3)
      Hence,
      60mg*2 = 120mg
      120mg/3 = 40mg

      The side effects of opioids can be transient or persistent, and these include constipation, nausea, and drowsiness. Therefore, all patients taking opioids should also be prescribed a laxative and an anti-emetic (if the nausea is persistent). Dose-adjustment may be necessary in cases of persistent drowsiness. Moreover, strong opioids can also provide quick relief from metastatic bone pain, as compared to NSAIDs, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      20.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 50 yr. old smoker with a history of hypertension presented with acute...

    Correct

    • A 50 yr. old smoker with a history of hypertension presented with acute severe chest pain and acute myocardial infarction was diagnosed. Which of the following is a contraindication for thrombolysis?

      Your Answer: History of likely ischaemic stroke within the past month

      Explanation:

      Absolute contraindications for fibrinolytic use in STEMI

      Prior intracranial haemorrhage (ICH)
      Known structural cerebral vascular lesion
      Known malignant intracranial neoplasm
      Ischemic stroke within 3 months
      Suspected aortic dissection
      Active bleeding or bleeding diathesis (excluding menses)
      Significant closed head trauma or facial trauma within 3 months
      Intracranial or intraspinal surgery within 2 months
      Severe uncontrolled hypertension (unresponsive to emergency therapy)
      For streptokinase, prior treatment within the previous 6 months

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      17.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - How is the left ventricular ejection fraction calculated? ...

    Correct

    • How is the left ventricular ejection fraction calculated?

      Your Answer: Stroke volume / end diastolic LV volume

      Explanation:

      Left ventricular ejection fraction = (stroke volume / end diastolic LV volume ) * 100%

      Stroke volume = end diastolic LV volume – end systolic LV volume

      Pulse pressure = Systolic Pressure – Diastolic Pressure

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      160.4
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - β-blockers are used in the treatment of angina because they have which one...

    Correct

    • β-blockers are used in the treatment of angina because they have which one of the following properties?

      Your Answer: Decrease the heart rate and myocardial contractility

      Explanation:

      The cardiovascular effects of β-adrenoceptor block result from reduction of the sympathetic drive which includes reduced heart rate (automaticity) and reduced myocardial contractility (rate of rise of pressure in the ventricle). This will lead to reduced cardiac output and an overall fall in oxygen consumption.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      708.4
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 23 year old man presents with a painful right elbow and left...

    Correct

    • A 23 year old man presents with a painful right elbow and left Achilles tendon. He also gives history of dysuria, fever and conjunctivitis. Examination reveals macules and pustules on his hands. He has returned from a trip to Far East 3 weeks ago and admits to having unprotected sex. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Reactive arthritis

      Explanation:

      Reactive arthritis, (formerly known as Reiter’s syndrome), is an autoimmune condition that occurs after a bacterial infection of the gastrointestinal or urinary tract. It is categorized as a seronegative spondylarthritis because of its association with HLA-B27. Reactive arthritis primarily affects young men and usually presents with musculoskeletal or extra‑articular symptoms. The characteristic triad consists of arthritis, conjunctivitis, and urethritis. The diagnosis is based on clinical features such as patient history and physical examination; there are no specific tests for reactive arthritis. Treatment is primarily symptomatic and consists of the administration of NSAIDs, as most patients recover spontaneously. extraarticular dermatologic manifestations include skin lesions of the glans resembling psoriasis (balanitis circinata); hyperkeratinisation of the palms and soles (keratoderma blenorrhagicum), oral ulcers. Other STDs including HIV, syphilis have different presentations. Psoriatic arthritis is not commonly associated with urethritis and conjunctivitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      247.2
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 47-year-old woman complains of dyspnoea, occasional fevers and mild weight loss which...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old woman complains of dyspnoea, occasional fevers and mild weight loss which have all gotten worse over the past months. She does not complain of a cough but remembered that she had coughed once and produced a twig-shaped mucoid sputum mass. She has no haemoptysis. She has no past medical history and is on no medications.   Her chest X-ray reveals bilateral, perihilar, dense airspace shadowing. A HRCT of her thorax showed a ‘crazy paving’ pattern of extensive, dense, white infiltrates. Her spirometry was a restrictive pattern with reduced total lung capacity. She also had a bronchoscopy and lavage, which revealed periodic acid–Schiff (PAS)-positive proteinaceous fluid and elevated levels of surfactant proteins A and D.   What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pneumocystis carinii infection

      Correct Answer: Pulmonary alveolar proteinosis

      Explanation:

      Pulmonary alveolar proteinosis (PAP) is a lung condition that is caused by a build-up of proteins and other substances in the alveoli. The alveoli are the part of the lungs that contain air. PAP has the following symptoms:
      Shortness of breath, also called dyspnoea
      Chest pain or tightness
      Fever
      Weight loss
      Cough (sometimes, but not always)
      Low levels of oxygen in the blood
      Nail clubbing (abnormal growth of toenails or fingernails)

      Serologic studies are generally not useful for PAP. Flexible bronchoscopy with bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL) remains the criterion standard. Elevated levels of the proteins SP-A and SP-D in serum and BAL fluid may be useful. Elevated titer of neutralizing autoantibody against GM-CSF (immunoglobulin G [IgG] isotype) in serum and BAL fluid may be useful. Recent studies have proposed that deficiency of GM-CSF causes pulmonary alveolar proteinosis (PAP); all patients studied had the antibody to GM-CSF. Serum lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) level is usually elevated, but this finding is nonspecific.

      High-resolution computed tomography (HRCT) scan of the chest demonstrates areas of patchy ground-glass opacification with smooth interlobular septal thickening and intralobular interstitial thickening, which produces a polygonal pattern referred to as crazy paving.

      Light microscopy of the lung parenchymal tissue shows alveoli filled with a granular PAS base-reactive and diastase-resistant eosinophilic material.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      46.9
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 25-year-old woman presented to the ED with carbon monoxide poisoning. High-flow oxygen...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presented to the ED with carbon monoxide poisoning. High-flow oxygen was administered immediately. She had a GCS of 15 and her vitals were stable. Which one of the following is not an indication for hyperbaric oxygen therapy in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Loss of consciousness

      Correct Answer: A carboxyhaemoglobin concentration of 16%

      Explanation:

      Carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning, considered as the great imitator of other diseases, as the patients present with a myriad of symptoms. The carbon monoxide diffuses rapidly across the pulmonary capillary membrane binding to the haem molecule with a very high affinity (240 times that of oxygen) forming carboxy-haemoglobin (COHb). Non-smokers have a baseline COHb of ,3% while smokers have a baseline COHb of 10-15%.

      Use of Hyperbaric oxygen therapy (HBOT) for treatment of mild to moderate CO poisoning is not routine.
      The selection criteria for HBOT in cases of CO poisoning include:
      • COHb levels > 20-25%
      • COHb levels > 20% in pregnant patient
      • Loss of consciousness
      • Severe metabolic acidosis (pH <7.1)
      • Evidence of end-organ ischemia (e.g., ECG changes, chest pain, or altered mental status)
      Principle of HBOT:
      Exposing patients to 100 percent oxygen under supra-atmospheric conditions results in a decrease in the half-life (t1/2) of COHb, from , 90 min in atmospheric air to , 30 minutes. The amount of oxygen dissolved in the blood also rises from , 0.3 to 6 mL/dL, increasing the delivery of non-haemoglobin-bound oxygen to the tissues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      121.3
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 25-year-old woman was admitted to hospital with a 3 day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman was admitted to hospital with a 3 day history of feeling generally unwell, with fatigue, arthralgia and pruritis. She had recently finished a 5 day course of antibiotics for a urinary tract infection but there was no other significant past medical history. She had no significant findings on clinical examination except for a widespread erythematous rash. Investigation results are below: Haemoglobin (Hb) 12.6 g/dL, White cell count (WCC) 13.0 × 109/l (eosinophilia) Platelets 390 × 109/L, Creatinine 720 μmol/L, Na+ 135 mmol/L, K+ 5.2 mmol/L, Urea 22.0 mmol/L, Urinalysis Protein ++ blood + What is the most important investigation to establish the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Renal tract ultrasound scan

      Correct Answer: Renal biopsy

      Explanation:

      There is a strong suspicion of drug-induced acute tubulo-interstitial nephritis with the classic triad of symptoms of rash, joint pain and eosinophils in the blood, associated with non-specific symptoms of fever and fatigue. This can be confirmed with renal biopsy showing interstitial oedema with a heavy infiltrate of inflammatory cells and variable tubular necrosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      40.2
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 72 year old retired fisherman presents with weakness of shoulders and hips...

    Incorrect

    • A 72 year old retired fisherman presents with weakness of shoulders and hips over the last four months. Finger flexion is also weak but the extension is normal. There has been some difficulty swallowing liquids. Past medical history is not significant except for sexually transmitted disease that he caught some 40 years ago in South Pacific and got treated with antibiotics. He smokes and drinks one or two tots of rum at the weekend. Creatine kinase level is 125. Which of the following investigations is most significant in establishing a diagnosis?

      Your Answer: 24 hour urine collection for myoglobin

      Correct Answer: Muscle biopsy with electron microscopy

      Explanation:

      Inclusion body myositis (IBM) is a progressive muscle disorder characterized by muscle inflammation, weakness, and atrophy (wasting). It is a type of inflammatory myopathy. IBM develops in adulthood, usually after age 50. The symptoms and rate of progression vary from person to person. The most common symptoms include progressive weakness of the legs, arms, fingers, and wrists. Some people also have weakness of the facial muscles (especially muscles controlling eye closure), or difficulty swallowing (dysphagia). Muscle cramping and pain are uncommon, but have been reported in some people. The underlying cause of IBM is poorly understood and likely involves the interaction of genetic, immune-related, and environmental factors. Some people may have a genetic predisposition to developing IBM, but the condition itself typically is not inherited. Elevated creatine kinase (CK) levels in the blood (at most ,10 times normal) are typical in IBM. Muscle biopsy may display several common findings including; inflammatory cells invading muscle cells, vacuolar degeneration, inclusions or plaques of abnormal proteins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      77.8
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 50-year-old hypertensive male on phenytoin and clobazam for partial seizures is also...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old hypertensive male on phenytoin and clobazam for partial seizures is also taking lisinopril, cimetidine, sucralfate, and allopurinol. The last few drugs were added recently. He now presents with ataxia, slurred speech, and blurred vision. Which recently added drug is most likely to be the cause of his latest symptoms?

      Your Answer: Sucralfate

      Correct Answer: Cimetidine

      Explanation:

      The symptoms of ataxia, slurred speech and blurred vision are all suggestive of phenytoin toxicity. Cimetidine increases the efficacy of phenytoin by reducing its hepatic metabolism.

      Phenytoin has a narrow therapeutic index (10-20 mg/L) and its levels are monitored by measuring the total phenytoin concentration.
      Cimetidine is an H2 receptor antagonist used in the treatment of peptic ulcers. It acts by decreasing gastric acid secretion.
      Cimetidine also has an inhibitory effect on several isoforms of the cytochrome enzyme system including the CYP450 enzymatic pathway. Phenytoin is metabolized by the same cytochrome P450 enzyme system in the liver.
      Thus, the simultaneous administration of both these medications leads to an inhibition of phenytoin metabolism and thus increases its circulating levels leading to phenytoin toxicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      22.1
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 65-year-old man having small cell lung cancer is admitted onto the ward...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man having small cell lung cancer is admitted onto the ward for chemotherapy. He has a history of severe nausea and vomiting secondary to chemotherapy, in the past. The consultant asks you to prescribe a neurokinin 1 (NK1) receptor blocker. Which agent, out of the following, will you choose?

      Your Answer: Aprepitant

      Explanation:

      Aprepitant is an anti-emetic which blocks the neurokinin 1 (NK1) receptor and acts as a substance P antagonist. It is licensed for chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting (CINV) and for prevention of postoperative nausea and vomiting.

      Nausea and vomiting are the common side effects of chemotherapy. Risk factors for the development of these symptoms include age<50 years, anxiety, concurrent use of opioids, and the type of chemotherapy administered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which of the following is correct regarding toxoplasmosis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is correct regarding toxoplasmosis?

      Your Answer: Prophylactic immunoglobulins should be given to pregnant women if their IgM anti-toxoplasma antibodies detected

      Correct Answer: Can present with fits in patients with AIDS

      Explanation:

      T. gondii infection in immunocompetent people is usually asymptomatic. It can present as fits in patients with AIDs, who are immunosuppressed. Additionally, infection in the first trimester of pregnancy is very harmful. Congenital toxoplasmosis presents with intracranial calcifications, classically. It can also present with hydrocephalus, microcephaly, blindness, petechiae. Siramycin is the drug of choice to try to prevent vertical transmission from mother to baby. It is typically gotten from cat faeces or raw/undercooked meat, not raw eggs (raw eggs: think salmonella).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      19.4
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 56-year-old male was admitted to the in-patient psychiatric unit last night. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old male was admitted to the in-patient psychiatric unit last night. He is a poor historian, answering most questions minimally and stating he does not need to be here as he is deceased, and hospitals should be for living patients. What is the type of delusion in this patient and what is it commonly associated with?

      Your Answer: De Clerambault's syndrome and Major Depressive Disorder

      Correct Answer: Cotard syndrome and Major Depressive Disorder

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis of this patient is Cotard syndrome with major depressive disorder.

      Cotard syndrome is a rare mental disorder where the affected patient believes that they (or in some cases just a part of their body) is either dead or non-existent. This delusion is often difficult to treat and can result in significant problems due to patients stopping eating or drinking as they deem it not necessary. Cotard syndrome is often associated with severe depression and psychotic disorders (like schizophrenia).

      Other delusional syndromes:
      – Othello syndrome is a delusional belief that a patients partner is committing infidelity despite no evidence of this. It can often result in violence and controlling behaviour.
      – De Clerambault syndrome (otherwise known as erotomania), is where a patient believes that a person of higher social or professional standing is in love with them. Often this presents with people who believe celebrities are in love with them.
      – Capgras syndrome is characterised by a person believing their friend or relative had been replaced by an exact double.
      – Couvade syndrome is also known as ‘sympathetic pregnancy’. It affects fathers, particularly during the first and third trimesters of pregnancy, who suffer the somatic features of pregnancy.
      – Ekbom syndrome is also known as delusional parasitosis and is the belief that they are infected with parasites or have ‘bugs’ under their skin. This can vary from the classic psychosis symptoms in narcotic use where the user can ‘see’ bugs crawling under their skin or can be a patient who believes that they are infested with snakes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      95.8
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Which features may suggest malignant changes in a melanocytic naevi? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which features may suggest malignant changes in a melanocytic naevi?

      Your Answer: Irregularity of surface

      Correct Answer: Decrease in size

      Explanation:

      Melanocytic naevi are skin tumours produced by melanocytes. They usually present in childhood but increase during puberty. The mnemonic A-B-C-D, is used by institutions to assess for suspicion of malignancy. The letters stand for asymmetry, border, colour, and diameter. If a mole starts changing in size, colour, shape or, especially, if the border of a mole develops ragged edges or becomes larger than a pencil eraser, it would be an appropriate time to consult with a physician. Other warning signs include if it begins to crust over, bleed, itch, or become inflamed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      19.9
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 15-year-old boy presents with poor development of secondary sex characteristics, colour blindness...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy presents with poor development of secondary sex characteristics, colour blindness and a decreased sense of smell. On examination, his testes are small soft and located in the scrotum. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cryptorchidism

      Correct Answer: Kallmann’s syndrome

      Explanation:

      Classic Kallmann syndrome (KS) is due to isolated hypogonadotropic hypogonadism. Most patients have gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) deficiency, as suggested by their response to pulsatile GnRH therapy. The hypothalamic-pituitary function is otherwise normal in most patients, and hypothalamic-pituitary imaging reveals no space-occupying lesions. By definition, either anosmia or severe hyposmia is present in patients with Kallmann syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      21.9
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 45-year-old male is brought to the emergency department after being found collapsed,...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old male is brought to the emergency department after being found collapsed, outside a nightclub. The ER team found an empty bottle of amyl nitrate in his pocket. The patient is hypoxic with an O2 saturation of 84% and is confused. Which of the following is the best treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Intubation

      Correct Answer: Methylene blue

      Explanation:

      The best treatment for the patient in question would be methylene blue.
      The most probable diagnosis in this patient is methemoglobinemia due to the ingestion of amyl nitrate.

      Amyl nitrate promotes the formation of methaemoglobin, which avidly conserves oxygen and leads to decreased tissue oxygen saturations.

      Treatment of choice includes methylene blue and vitamin C.

      Adverse effects:
      Benign side effects include green or blue discoloration of urine and patients should be forewarned.
      Significant side effects are based on methylene blue, itself, being an oxidizing agent and an inhibitor of monoamine oxidase A (MAO-A).
      As an oxidizing agent, methylene blue can actually precipitate methemoglobinemia or haemolysis in high doses or when ineffectively reduced.
      Methylene blue administration in a patient taking a serotonergic agents may predispose to serotonin syndrome.

      Note: Although methylene blue administration is controversial in the setting of G6PD-deficiency due to reduced levels of NADPH, it is not contraindicated and should be administered cautiously and judiciously.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      23.3
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 45-year-old male patient presents with severe pharyngitis and dysphagia. He's found to...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old male patient presents with severe pharyngitis and dysphagia. He's found to be HIV positive and with oesophageal candidiasis. Which of the following regarding HIV virus is correct?

      Your Answer: HIV is an RNA virus

      Explanation:

      The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is grouped to the genus Lentivirus within the family of Retroviridae, subfamily Orthoretrovirinae. The HIV genome consists of two identical single-stranded RNA molecules that are enclosed within the core of the virus particle. The genome of the HIV provirus, also known as proviral DNA, is generated by the reverse transcription of the viral RNA genome into DNA, degradation of the RNA and integration of the double-stranded HIV DNA into the human genome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      979.4
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - If a patient has HIV what is the most likely cause of persistent...

    Incorrect

    • If a patient has HIV what is the most likely cause of persistent watery diarrhoea?

      Your Answer: Salmonella

      Correct Answer: Cryptosporidium

      Explanation:

      When you have a patient with HIV and diarrhoea on the exam, think Cryptosporidium. In those who are immunocompetent this organism doesn’t usually cause symptoms, but in immunocompromised people like those with HIV, it causes infection and diarrhoea. Typically those with CD4 counts of <100 cells/µL1 have the greatest risk for prolonged, severe, or extraintestinal cryptosporidiosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      17.6
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 28-year-old man who is admitted with bright red haematemesis, which occurred after...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man who is admitted with bright red haematemesis, which occurred after a bout of vomiting. He had been out with friends on a stag party and consumed 12 pints of beer. Upper gastrointestinal (GI) endoscopy proves unremarkable and haemoglobin (Hb) is stable at 12.5 g/dl the morning after admission, there is no sign of circulatory compromise. There have been no previous similar episodes. Which of the following stems represents the best course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Give one-month course of omeprazole

      Correct Answer: Send home

      Explanation:

      This is a classic clinical presentation, with alcohol intake and nausea/vomiting that leads to hematemesis, of a Mallory-Weiss tear. In Mallory-Weiss tear, they typically present as a hemodynamically stable patient after a night of binge drinking and excessive resultant vomiting. Given his EGD did not show any other pathology and he is now stable, he can be discharged home.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      200.4
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 64-year-old woman presents with malaise, ankle swelling and shortness of breath. Her...

    Incorrect

    • A 64-year-old woman presents with malaise, ankle swelling and shortness of breath. Her blood pressure is 215/140 mmHg, she has +2 peripheral oedema and the skin over her fingers appears very tight. Fundoscopy discloses bilateral papilledema.   Plasma creatinine concentration is 370 μmol/l, potassium is 4.9 mmol/l, haemoglobin is 8.9 g/dl and her platelet count is 90 x 109 /ml.   What is the pathological hallmark of this condition?

      Your Answer: Stenosis of one or both main renal arteries

      Correct Answer: Mucoid intimal thickening of vascular endothelium

      Explanation:

      The history is suggestive of scleroderma renal crisis, where we would expect thrombotic microangiopathy process with vascular endothelium involvement manifesting as mucoid intimal thickening or onion skin effect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      53
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 28-year-old woman is referred to the endocrinology clinic. She has been trying...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman is referred to the endocrinology clinic. She has been trying to conceive for the last 3 years without any success. Her prolactin level is 2600 mU/l (normal <360). The Endocrinologist arranges pituitary magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) that demonstrates a microprolactinoma. Which two of the following pharmacological agents may be appropriate treatment choices?

      Your Answer: Carbergoline

      Explanation:

      Cabergoline, an ergot derivative, is a long-acting dopamine agonist. It is usually better tolerated than Bromocriptine (BEC), and its efficacy profiles are somewhat superior to those of BEC. It offers the convenience of twice-a-week administration, with a usual starting dose of 0.25 mg biweekly to a maximum dose of 1 mg biweekly. Some studies have shown efficacy even with once-a-week dosing. Cabergoline appears to be more effective in lowering prolactin levels and restoring ovulation. Up to 70% of patients who do not respond to BEC respond to cabergoline.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      37.8
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 70 year old female presented with a throbbing and continuous headache and...

    Incorrect

    • A 70 year old female presented with a throbbing and continuous headache and loss of vision. Her ESR was elevated. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Sumatriptan

      Correct Answer: Corticosteroids

      Explanation:

      Giant Cell Arteritis (Temporal Arteritis) is the most probable diagnosis. GCA should always be considered in the differential diagnosis of a new-onset headache in patients 50 years of age or older with an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate. Temporal artery biopsy remains the criterion standard for diagnosis of this granulomatous vasculitis. High-dose corticosteroid therapy is the universally accepted treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      14.4
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Pharmacology (2/5) 40%
Haematology & Oncology (1/3) 33%
Psychiatry (0/2) 0%
Nephrology (1/3) 33%
Infectious Diseases (1/2) 50%
Dermatology (1/2) 50%
Rheumatology (1/3) 33%
Endocrinology (1/3) 33%
Cardiology (1/1) 100%
Clinical Sciences (2/2) 100%
Respiratory (0/1) 0%
Gastroenterology (0/2) 0%
Ophthalmology (0/1) 0%
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