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Question 1
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An elderly man presents with complaints of a chronic cough with haemoptysis and night sweats on a few nights per week for the past four months. He is known to smoke 12 cigarettes per day and he had previously undergone treatment for Tuberculosis seven years ago. His blood pressure was found to be 143/96mmHg and he is mildly pyrexial 37.5°C. Evidence of consolidation affecting the right upper lobe was also found. Investigations;  Hb 11.9 g/dL, WCC 11.1 x109/L, PLT 190 x109/L, Na+ 138 mmol/L, K+ 4.8 mmol/L, Creatinine 105 μmol/L, CXR Right upper lobe cavitating lesion Aspergillus precipitins positive Which of the following is most likely the diagnosis?
Your Answer: Aspergilloma
Explanation:An aspergilloma is a fungus ball (mycetoma) that develops in a pre-existing cavity in the lung parenchyma. Underlying causes of the cavitary disease may include treated tuberculosis or other necrotizing infection, sarcoidosis, cystic fibrosis, and emphysematous bullae. The ball of fungus may move within the cavity but does not invade the cavity wall. Aspergilloma may manifest as an asymptomatic radiographic abnormality in a patient with pre-existing cavitary lung disease due to sarcoidosis, tuberculosis, or other necrotizing pulmonary processes. In patients with HIV disease, aspergilloma may occur in cystic areas resulting from prior Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia. Of patients with aspergilloma, 40-60% experience haemoptysis, which may be massive and life threatening. Less commonly, aspergilloma may cause cough and fever.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 2
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman was on a camping holiday in Spain. She awoke at three o’clock one morning with severe neck pain radiating down into her left shoulder and down to her forearm. The next day it spread to the dorsal aspect of the forearm. She was otherwise well. Her symptoms resolved after 24 hours. She noticed that after a week she was unable to wind down the car window with her left arm. On examination of the left arm there was wasting of brachioradialis, shoulder, biceps and winging of left scapula. What is the diagnosis?
Your Answer: Amyotrophic neuralgia
Explanation:This patient present with the classical symptoms of Amyotrophic neuralgia, characterised by sudden onset of pain in the shoulders that radiate down to the forearms and later resolve spontaneously but is followed by muscle wasting.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 50-year-old hypertensive male on phenytoin and clobazam for partial seizures is also taking lisinopril, cimetidine, sucralfate, and allopurinol. The last few drugs were added recently. He now presents with ataxia, slurred speech, and blurred vision. Which recently added drug is most likely to be the cause of his latest symptoms?
Your Answer: Cimetidine
Explanation:The symptoms of ataxia, slurred speech and blurred vision are all suggestive of phenytoin toxicity. Cimetidine increases the efficacy of phenytoin by reducing its hepatic metabolism.
Phenytoin has a narrow therapeutic index (10-20 mg/L) and its levels are monitored by measuring the total phenytoin concentration.
Cimetidine is an H2 receptor antagonist used in the treatment of peptic ulcers. It acts by decreasing gastric acid secretion.
Cimetidine also has an inhibitory effect on several isoforms of the cytochrome enzyme system including the CYP450 enzymatic pathway. Phenytoin is metabolized by the same cytochrome P450 enzyme system in the liver.
Thus, the simultaneous administration of both these medications leads to an inhibition of phenytoin metabolism and thus increases its circulating levels leading to phenytoin toxicity. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Which of the following may cause a downbeat nystagmus?
Your Answer: Central cerebellar lesion
Correct Answer: Chiari type I malformation
Explanation:Downbeat nystagmus (DBN) suggests a lesion in the lower part of the medulla. Chiari Type I malformation usually presents with symptoms due to brain stem and lower cranial nerve dysfunction, which includes DBN.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old psychologist with small cell lung cancer complains of muscle weakness. Each one of the following are features of Lambert-Eaton syndrome, except:
Your Answer: Proximal muscles more commonly affected
Correct Answer: Repeated muscle contractions lead to decreased muscle strength
Explanation:In myasthenia gravis, repeated muscle contractions lead to reduced muscle strength. The opposite is however classically seen in the related disorder Lambert-Eaton syndrome. Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome is seen in association with small cell lung cancer, and to a lesser extent breast and ovarian cancer. It may also occur independently as an autoimmune disorder. Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome is caused by an antibody directed against pre-synaptic voltage gated calcium channel in the peripheral nervous system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man presents with nocturia, hesitancy and terminal dribbling of urine. Prostate examination reveals a moderately enlarged prostate with no irregular features and a well-defined median sulcus. Blood investigations show a PSA level of 1.3 ng/mL. Among the options provided below what is the most appropriate management for this patient?
Your Answer: 5 alpha-reductase inhibitor
Correct Answer: Alpha-1 antagonist
Explanation:Benign Prostatic Enlargement or Hyperplasia (BPE/BPH) is the most probable diagnosis of the patient in question. It is a histological diagnosis characterized by proliferation of the cellular elements of the prostate.
The initial treatment modality of choice is selective alpha 1 antagonists (such as Prazosin, Alfuzosin and Indoramin, and long acting agents like, Terazosin, Doxazosin, etc.) as they provide immediate relief from the bothersome lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS).
Other treatment modalities include:
• Non-selective alpha blockers: no longer used due to severe adverse effects and the availability of selective alpha 1 blockers.
• 5 alpha reductase inhibitors: Finasteride and Dutasteride, they target the underlying disease process and reduce the overall prostate volume. Thus, reduce the urinary retention and the lower urinary tract symptoms. (They do not provide immediate relief from LUTS and thus are not preferred as first line drugs over alpha 1 antagonists)
• PDE-5 Inhibitors: The long-acting tadalafil has proven to be useful.
• Surgical Treatment modalities: TURP, Prostatectomy, etc. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 72 yr. old male with a history of type II diabetes mellitus and hypertension for 15 years, presented with gradual onset difficulty in breathing on exertion and bilateral ankle swelling for the past 3 months. On examination he had mild ankle oedema. His JVP was not elevated. His heart sounds were normal but he had bibasal crepitations on auscultation. Which of the following clinical signs has the greatest sensitivity in detecting heart failure in this patient?
Your Answer: Raised jugular venous pressure
Correct Answer: Third heart sound
Explanation:The presence of a third heart sound is the most sensitive indicator of heart failure. All of the other signs can be found in heart failure with varying degrees.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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One of your colleagues shares with you the fact that he is HBV positive. He's a general surgeon in the local hospital and he's afraid that if people know he might lose his job. However, you try to convince him that it's important to inform occupational health but he explicitly refuses. What is the most appropriate management?
Your Answer: Keep confidentiality
Correct Answer: Inform your colleague's employing body
Explanation:According to the updated GMC guidelines, patient safety is more important than anything else, thus the correct thing to do is inform your colleague’s employing body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 9
Incorrect
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An 83-year-old retired musician is examined for progressive cognitive impairment. Which one of the following features is most suggestive of Lewy body dementia?
Your Answer: Emotional lability
Correct Answer: Symptoms worsen with neuroleptics
Explanation:Lewy body dementia is an increasingly recognised cause of dementia, accounting for up to 20% of cases. The characteristic pathological feature is alpha-synuclein cytoplasmic inclusions (Lewy bodies) in the substantia nigra, paralimbic and neocortical areas. Neuroleptics should be avoided in Lewy body dementia as patients are extremely sensitive and may develop irreversible parkinsonism. Questions may give a history of a patient who has deteriorated following the introduction of an antipsychotic agent.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 10
Correct
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The mechanism of action of low molecular weight heparin, has the greatest effect on which of the following components of the coagulation cascade?
Your Answer: Factor Xa
Explanation:Mechanism of action of low molecular weight heparin (LMWH):
It inhibits coagulation by activating antithrombin III. Antithrombin III binds to and inhibits factor Xa. In doing so it prevents activation of the final common path; Xa inactivation means that prothrombin is not activated to thrombin, thereby not converting fibrinogen into fibrin for the formation of a clot.LMHW is a small fragment of a larger mucopolysaccharide, heparin. Heparin works similarly, by binding antithrombin III and activating it. Heparin also has a binding site for thrombin, so thrombin can interact with antithrombin III and heparin, thus inhibiting coagulation.
Heparin has a faster onset of anticoagulant action as it will inhibit not only Xa but also thrombin, while LMWH acts only on Xa inhibition.Compared to heparin, LMWHs have a longer half-life, so dosing is more predictable and can be less frequent, most commonly once per day.
Dosage and uses:
LMWH is administered via subcutaneous injection. This has long-term implications on the choice of anticoagulant for prophylaxis, for example, in orthopaedic patients recovering from joint replacement surgery, or in the treatment of DVT/PE.Adverse effects:
The main risk of LMWH will be bleeding. The specific antidote for heparin-induced bleeding is protamine sulphate.
Less commonly it can cause:
Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)
Osteoporosis and spontaneous fractures
Hypoaldosteronism
Hypersensitivity reactions -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 11
Correct
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A 52 year old shopkeeper presents with pain in her hands. Examination reveals plaques on the extensor surfaces of her upper limbs and a telescoping deformity of both index fingers. Nails show pitting and horizontal ridging. The patient is most likely suffering from which of the following?
Your Answer: Arthritis mutilans
Explanation:Arthritis mutilans is a rare (occurs in only 5% of the patients) and extremely severe form psoriatic arthritis characterized by resorption of bones and the consequent collapse of soft tissue. When this affects the hands, it can cause a phenomenon sometimes referred to as ‘telescoping fingers.’ The associated nail changes are also characteristic of arthritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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Which of the following is most consistent with small cell lung cancer?
Your Answer: hypercalcemia is commonly seen
Correct Answer: hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy is rarely seen
Explanation:The clinical manifestations of Small cell lung cancer (SCLC) can result from local tumour growth, intrathoracic spread, distant spread, and/or paraneoplastic syndromes.
Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy (HPO) is a rare paraneoplastic syndrome that is frequently associated with lung cancer; however, the incidence of clinically apparent HPO is not well known.
SIADH is present in 15% of cases and most commonly seen.
Although hypercalcaemia is frequently associated with malignancy, it is very rare in small cell lung cancer despite the high incidence of lytic bone metastases.
Ectopic Cushing’s syndrome in SCLC does not usually exhibit the classic signs of Cushing’s syndrome and Cushing’s syndrome could also appear during effective chemotherapy.
Chemotherapy is the treatment of choice in SCLC. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Double-stranded DNA is found in which of the following cell organelles?
Your Answer: Nucleolus
Correct Answer: Mitochondria
Explanation:Mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) is a double-stranded molecule of 16.6 kb (Figure 1, lower panel). The two strands of mtDNA differ in their base composition, with one being rich in guanines, making it possible to separate a heavy (H) and a light (L) strand by density centrifugation in alkaline CsCl2 gradients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 52 year old female, known case of rheumatoid arthritis presents to the clinic with dyspnoea, cough, and intermittent pleuritic chest pain. She was previously taking second line agents Salazopyrine and gold previously and has now started Methotrexate with folic acid replacement a few months back. Pulmonary function tests reveal restrictive lung pattern and CXR reveals pulmonary infiltrates. Which of the following treatments is most suitable in this case?
Your Answer: Stop methotrexate and begin inhaled corticosteroids
Correct Answer: Stop methotrexate
Explanation:Methotrexate lung disease (pneumonitis and fibrosis) is the specific etiological type of drug-induced lung disease. It can occur due to the administration of methotrexate which is an antimetabolite, which is given as disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs) in patients with rheumatoid arthritis. The typical clinical symptoms include progressive shortness of breath and cough, often associated with fever. Hypoxemia and tachypnoea are always present and crackles are frequently audible. Symptoms typically manifest within months of starting therapy. Methotrexate withdrawal is indicated in such cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 35 yr. old female with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) was brought to Casualty, complaining of chest pain and worsening difficulty in breathing for the past 36 hrs. On examination she was tachypnoeic, her BP was 85/65 mmHg and peripheral oxygen saturation was 98% on air. Her cardiac examination was normal but her jugular venous pressure was elevated. She didn't have ankle oedema. Her ECG showed sinus tachycardia and her CXR showed clear lung fields with a slightly enlarged heart. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?
Your Answer: Urgent CT pulmonary angiogram
Correct Answer: Urgent transthoracic echocardiogram
Explanation:Acute breathlessness in SLE can be due to a pericardial effusion or a pulmonary embolism. Normal peripheral oxygen saturation and normal ECG, make the diagnosis of pulmonary embolism less likely. To exclude pericardial effusion, an urgent transthoracic echocardiogram is needed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman returns from a summer holiday with a dry cough. Her CXR shows bilateral consolidated areas. Which antibiotic would you suggest?
Your Answer: Amoxicillin
Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin
Explanation:Ciprofloxacin is a well-established broad-spectrum fluoroquinolone antibiotic that penetrates well into the lung tissues.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old lady presents with severe morning headaches associated with nausea. Head MRI reveals a large compressive tumour arising from the falx cerebri. The tumour is well delineated. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Glioblastoma
Correct Answer: Meningioma
Explanation:Meningiomas are the most common benign tumours of the brain. Their name is derived from the fact that they arise from the dura mater which together with the pia matter and arachnoid mater form the meninges. The chances that a meningioma is benign are almost 98%. They are non-invasive and well delineated, causing sign and symptoms of brain compression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 18
Correct
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A 74-year-old retired judge who is known to have Alzheimer’s disease is examined in clinic. His latest Mini Mental State Examination (MMSE) score is 18 out of 30. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment option?
Your Answer: Supportive care + donepezil
Explanation:NICE now recommends the three acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (donepezil, galantamine and rivastigmine) as options for managing mild to moderate Alzheimer’s disease. Memantine is reserved for patients with moderate to severe Alzheimer’s.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A number of tests have been ordered for a 49 year old male who has systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). He was referred to the clinic because he has increased shortness of breath. One test in particular is transfer factor of the lung for carbon monoxide (TLCO), which is elevated. Which respiratory complication of SLE is associated with this finding?
Your Answer: Acute lupus pneumonitis
Correct Answer: Alveolar haemorrhage
Explanation:Alveolar haemorrhage (AH) is a rare, but serious manifestation of SLE. It may occur early or late in disease evolution. Extrapulmonary disease may be minimal and may be masked in patients who are already receiving immunosuppressants for other symptoms of SLE.
DLCO or TLCO (diffusing capacity or transfer factor of the lung for carbon monoxide (CO)) is the extent to which oxygen passes from the air sacs of the lungs into the blood.
Factors that can increase the DLCO include polycythaemia, asthma (can also have normal DLCO) and increased pulmonary blood volume as occurs in exercise. Other factors are left to right intracardiac shunting, mild left heart failure (increased blood volume) and alveolar haemorrhage (increased blood available for which CO does not have to cross a barrier to enter). -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old retired software developer with a history of primary open-angle glaucoma presents with sudden painless loss of vision in his right eye. On examination of the right eye, the optic disc is swollen with multiple flame-shaped and blot haemorrhages. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Occlusion of central retinal artery
Correct Answer: Occlusion of central retinal vein
Explanation:Central retinal vein occlusion includes features such as sudden painless loss of vision, but is distinguished from central retinal artery occlusion by the presence of severe retinal haemorrhages on fundoscopy examination.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 21
Correct
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A 29 year old male visits the clinic and complains of increased anxiety, dizziness, and headache which started a week after he crashed his motorcycle. A CT scan of his brain showed no abnormality when it was done. His symptoms resolved four months after he had that episode. What did his original symptoms likely represent?
Your Answer: Post-concussion syndrome
Explanation:Post-concussion syndrome is a complex disorder in which various symptoms, such as headaches and dizziness, last for weeks and sometimes months after the injury that caused the concussion.
Concussion is a mild traumatic brain injury that usually happens after a blow to the head. It can also occur with violent shaking and movement of the head or body. You don’t have to lose consciousness to get a concussion or post-concussion syndrome. In fact, the risk of post-concussion syndrome doesn’t appear to be associated with the severity of the initial injury.
Post-concussion symptoms include:
Headaches
Dizziness
Fatigue
Irritability
Anxiety
Insomnia
Loss of concentration and memory
Ringing in the ears
Blurry vision
Noise and light sensitivity
Rarely, decreases in taste and smell -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 40 year old farmer who is a non-smoker is experiencing increasing shortness of breath on exertion. He has been having chest tightness and a non-productive cough which becomes worse when he is at the dairy farm. He has no respiratory history of note. Extrinsic allergic alveolitis is the suspected diagnosis. Which factor would be responsible for this diagnosis?
Your Answer: Cow faeces
Correct Answer: Contaminated hay
Explanation:Extrinsic allergic alveolitis (EAA) refers to a group of lung diseases that can develop after exposure to certain substances. The name describes the origin and the nature of these diseases:
‘extrinsic’ – caused by something originating outside the body
‘allergic’ – an abnormally increased (hypersensitive) body reaction to a common substance
‘alveolitis’ – inflammation in the small air sacs of the lungs (alveoli)Symptoms can include: fever, cough, worsening breathlessness and weight loss. The diagnosis of the disease is based on a history of symptoms after exposure to the allergen and a range of clinical tests which usually includes: X-rays or CT scans, lung function and blood tests.
EAA is not a ‘new’ occupational respiratory disease and occupational causes include bacteria, fungi, animal proteins, plants and chemicals.
Examples of EAA include:
Farmer’s lung
This is probably the most common occupational form of EAA and is the outcome of an allergic response to a group of microbes, which form mould on vegetable matter in storage. During the handling of mouldy straw, hay or grain, particularly in a confined space such as a poorly ventilated building, inhalation of spores and other antigenic material is very likely.There also appears to be a clear relationship between water content of crops, heating (through mould production) and microbial growth, and this would apply to various crops and vegetable matter, with the spores produced likely to cause EAA.
Farmer’s lung can be prevented by drying crops adequately before storage and by ensuring good ventilation during storage. Respiratory protection should also be worn by farm workers when handling stored crops, particularly if they have been stored damp or are likely to be mouldy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old male who is a known case of sickle cell disease presents to the Accident and Emergency (A&E) department with fever, tachypnoea, and rib pain. On examination, he has a low-grade fever of 37.9°C, oxygen saturation of 95% on air, and bilateral vesicular breath sounds on chest auscultation. CXR shows opacification in the right middle zone. Which of these statements most accurately describes the initial management of this patient?
Your Answer: The patient should undergo a simple transfusion to a target Hb > 8g/dL
Correct Answer: Incentive spirometry is indicated
Explanation:This is a typical picture of acute chest syndrome (ACS). According to the British Committee for Standards in Haematology (BCSH), ACS is defined as ‘an acute illness characterised by fever and/or respiratory symptoms, accompanied by a new pulmonary infiltrate on chest X-ray’. ACS occurs in sequestration crisis, which is one of the four main types of crises occurring in sickle cell disease.
The fundamentals of initial management are as follows:
1. Oxygen therapy to maintain saturation >95%
2. Intravenous fluids to ensure euvolemia
3. Adequate pain relief
4. Incentive spirometry in all patients presenting with rib or chest pain
5. Antibiotics with cover for atypical organisms
6. Bronchodilators if asthma co-exists with acute chest syndrome, or if there is an evidence of acute bronchospasm on auscultation
7. Early consultation with the critical care team and haematology departmentA senior haematologist then makes a decision as to whether a simple or exchange transfusion is necessary in order to achieve a target Hb of 10.0–11.0g/dL in either instance.
Sickle Cell Crises:
Sickle cell anaemia is characterised by periods of good health with intervening crises:
1. Sequestration crisis: acute chest syndrome (i.e. fever, dyspnoea, chest/rib pain, low pO2, and pulmonary infiltrates)2. Thrombotic (painful or vaso-occlusive) crisis: precipitated by infection, dehydration, and deoxygenation
3. Aplastic crisis: sudden fall in haemoglobin without marked reticulocytosis, usually occurring secondary to parvovirus infection
4. Haemolytic crisis: fall in haemoglobin secondary to haemolysis, rare type of sickle cell crises
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 24
Correct
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A 23-year-old pregnant woman presents with glycosuria. What is the most likely mechanism?
Your Answer: Reduced renal reabsorption
Explanation:Throughout pregnancy the tubular reabsorption of glucose is less effective than in the non-pregnant state, this leads to glycosuria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 25
Correct
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Which one of the following statements best describes a type II statistical error?
Your Answer: The null hypothesis is accepted when it is false
Explanation:In statistical hypothesis testing there are 2 types of errors:
– type I: the null hypothesis is rejected when it is true – i.e. Showing a difference between two groups when it doesn’t exist, a false positive.
– type II: the null hypothesis is accepted when it is false – i.e. Failing to spot a difference when one really exists, a false negative. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 68 year old man presents with acute symptoms of gout on his first metatarsophalangeal joint. Which option best explains the underlying mechanism of gout?
Your Answer: Increased endogenous production of uric acid
Correct Answer: Decreased renal excretion of uric acid
Explanation:Primary gout is related more often to underexcretion of uric acid or overproduction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Which one of these features is typical of dermatomyositis?
Your Answer: Occurs more commonly in men
Correct Answer: Gottron's papules over knuckles of fingers
Explanation:The main symptom of dermatomyositis include skin rash and symmetric proximal muscle weakness (in over 90% of patients) which may be accompanied by pain and tenderness. It occurs more commonly in females. Skin findings include:
Gottron’s sign – an erythematous, scaly eruption occurring in symmetric fashion over the MCP and interphalangeal joints
Heliotrope or lilac rash – a violaceous eruption on the upper eyelids and in rare cases on the lower eyelids as well, often with itching and swelling
Shawl (or V-) sign is a diffuse, flat, erythematous lesion over the back and shoulders or in a V over the posterior neck and back or neck and upper chest, which worsens with UV light.
Erythroderma is a flat, erythematous lesion similar to the shawl sign but located in other areas, such as the malar region and the forehead.
Periungual telangiectasias and erythema occur. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 43-year-old woman is concerned about osteoporosis as she as a strong family history of it. She is one year postmenopausal and aware of hot flushes at night. Which one of the following therapies would be most appropriate?
Your Answer: Calcium and vitamin D supplements
Correct Answer: Cyclical oestrogen and progestogen
Explanation:As the patient has early menopause, hormone replacement therapy (HT) is considered to be the first line of choice for prevention of bone loss and fracture in the early postmenopausal period for 5 years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 29
Correct
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A 32-year-old male has recently had a splenectomy following a motorcycle accident. He is up to date with all vaccinations which were offered as part of his childhood vaccination scheme. It is July. Which of the following vaccinations does he require in the first instance?
Your Answer: Pneumococcus, meningococcus type B and C, Haemophilus type B
Explanation:Acquired asplenia or hyposlenia can occur following splenectomy. Hyposplenism is used to describe reduced (‘hypo-‘) splenic functioning and is associated with increased risk of sepsis from polysaccharide encapsulated bacteria. In particular, patients are at risk from Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, and meningococcus. The risk is elevated as much as 350–fold.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old gentleman is found dead in his apartment. He was known to be suffering from primary systemic amyloidosis. What is the most probable cause for his death?
Your Answer: Respiratory failure
Correct Answer: Cardiac involvement
Explanation:Primary amyloidosis is characterised by abnormal protein build-up in the tissues and organ such as the heart, liver, spleen, kidneys, skin, ligaments, and nerves. However, the most common cause of death in patients with primary amyloidosis is heart failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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