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Question 1
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A 30-year-old female, Mrs Brown, visited the clinic due to a lump in her left breast. She did not experience any pain, fever or discharge. Her family has a significant history of cancer, with her sister passing away from a brain tumour at age 30 and her father being diagnosed with lung cancer at age 35. Mrs Brown is worried about the possibility of multiple tumours in her family and wishes to undergo further testing. Genetic testing confirmed that she has Li-Fraumeni syndrome. Which gene abnormality caused this syndrome?
Your Answer: P53
Explanation:Li-Fraumeni syndrome is a rare disorder that greatly increases the risk of developing various types of cancer, and it is caused by the loss of function of the p53 gene, which is a tumour suppressor gene. Similarly, the loss of function of the APC gene is linked to colorectal cancer, while the BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes are associated with breast and ovarian cancer.
Understanding Tumour Suppressor Genes
Tumour suppressor genes are responsible for controlling the cell cycle and preventing the development of cancer. When these genes lose their function, the risk of cancer increases. It is important to note that both alleles of the gene must be mutated before cancer can occur. Examples of tumour suppressor genes include p53, APC, BRCA1 & BRCA2, NF1, Rb, WT1, and MTS-1. Each of these genes is associated with specific types of cancer, and their loss of function can lead to an increased risk of developing these cancers.
On the other hand, oncogenes are genes that, when they gain function, can also increase the risk of cancer. Unlike tumour suppressor genes, oncogenes promote cell growth and division, leading to uncontrolled cell growth and the development of cancer. Understanding the role of both tumour suppressor genes and oncogenes is crucial in the development of cancer treatments and prevention strategies. By identifying and targeting these genes, researchers can work towards developing more effective treatments for cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 2
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A randomized, double-blinded clinical trial was conducted to evaluate the effect of a new anti-inflammatory drug on the pain relief of patients with osteoarthritis. A total of 200 patients with osteoarthritis were randomly assigned to the drug or placebo group. For the study, 100 patients were assigned to each group. The two groups were then followed for six months for the development of adverse effects. Severe gastrointestinal bleeding was reported as a rare side effect of the drug therapy, but the difference between the two groups was not statistically significant (p=0.08). The same side effect was reported in several small clinical trials of this drug (p=0.05-0.10).
What is the most likely reason for the failure to detect a significant statistical difference in the occurrence of gastrointestinal bleeding between the treatment and placebo groups?Your Answer: Small sample size
Explanation:A larger sample size can enhance the power of a study and reduce the likelihood of type II error. Power refers to the ability to detect a difference in the outcome of interest between two groups, if such a difference exists. With a bigger sample size, the study’s power to detect a difference increases, and the p-value can reach statistical significance.
Attrition bias is a systematic error that arises from unequal loss of participants in a randomized controlled trial. However, since patients are not lost to follow-up in this study design, the likelihood of attrition bias is low.
The Hawthorne effect is a type of reactivity where individuals modify their behavior in response to being observed. This effect does not occur in double-blinded randomized clinical trials.
Double-blinding techniques can reduce the potential for observer’s bias.
Increasing the follow-up period may not necessarily increase the power of the study, as side effects can occur in susceptible individuals relatively early after starting the therapy.Understanding the Concept of Power in Research Studies
Power is a statistical concept that refers to the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false. In other words, it is the ability of a study to detect a clinically meaningful difference or effect. The value of power ranges from 0 to 1, with 0 indicating 0% and 1 indicating 100%. It is often expressed as 1 – beta, where beta is the probability of a Type II error. A power of 0.80 is generally considered the minimum acceptable level.
Several factors influence the power of a study, including sample size, meaningful effect size, and significance level. Larger sample sizes lead to more accurate parameter estimations and increase the study’s ability to detect a significant effect. The meaningful effect size is determined at the beginning of the study and represents the size of the difference between two means that would lead to the rejection of the null hypothesis. Finally, the significance level, also known as the alpha level, is the probability of a Type I error. Understanding the concept of power is crucial in determining the appropriate sample size and designing a study that can accurately detect meaningful differences or effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man visits his GP complaining of abdominal pain and diarrhoea that have persisted for 2 days. He mentions that his children noticed an unusual rash on the soles of his feet. The GP discovers that he recently returned from a 6-week business trip to Thailand.
Upon examination, the GP observes papulovesicular lesions on the soles of both feet and a soft abdomen with no rebound tenderness or guarding. The patient is also wheezing slightly, and his temperature is recorded at 38.4ºC.
Which helminths are most likely responsible for this man's symptoms?Your Answer: Schistosoma haematobium
Correct Answer: Strongyloides stercoralis
Explanation:The patient is exhibiting symptoms of strongyloidiasis, which is caused by Strongyloides stercoralis. This includes abdominal pain, diarrhoea, and weight loss, as well as papulovesicular lesions on the soles of the feet and an urticarial rash. Respiratory symptoms may also occur due to the migration of filariform larvae. Pinworm, or Enterobius vermicularis, typically presents with perianal itching and is most common in children. Onchocerca volvulus causes onchocerciasis, which is prevalent in Africa and can lead to severe itching and blindness. Schistosoma haematobium causes schistosomiasis, the most common parasitic infection in humans, which affects the urinary tract and presents with haematuria.
Helminths are a group of parasitic worms that can infect humans and cause various diseases. Nematodes, also known as roundworms, are one type of helminth. Strongyloides stercoralis is a type of roundworm that enters the body through the skin and can cause symptoms such as diarrhea, abdominal pain, and skin lesions. Treatment for this infection typically involves the use of ivermectin or benzimidazoles. Enterobius vermicularis, also known as pinworm, is another type of roundworm that can cause perianal itching and other symptoms. Diagnosis is made by examining sticky tape applied to the perianal area. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles.
Hookworms, such as Ancylostoma duodenale and Necator americanus, are another type of roundworm that can cause gastrointestinal infections and anemia. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles. Loa loa is a type of roundworm that is transmitted by deer fly and mango fly and can cause red, itchy swellings called Calabar swellings. Treatment involves the use of diethylcarbamazine. Trichinella spiralis is a type of roundworm that can develop after eating raw pork and can cause fever, periorbital edema, and myositis. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles.
Onchocerca volvulus is a type of roundworm that causes river blindness and is spread by female blackflies. Treatment involves the use of ivermectin. Wuchereria bancrofti is another type of roundworm that is transmitted by female mosquitoes and can cause blockage of lymphatics and elephantiasis. Treatment involves the use of diethylcarbamazine. Toxocara canis, also known as dog roundworm, is transmitted through ingestion of infective eggs and can cause visceral larva migrans and retinal granulomas. Treatment involves the use of diethylcarbamazine. Ascaris lumbricoides, also known as giant roundworm, can cause intestinal obstruction and occasionally migrate to the lung. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles.
Cestodes, also known as tapeworms, are another type of helminth. Echinococcus granulosus is a tapeworm that is transmitted through ingestion of eggs in dog feces and can cause liver cysts and anaphylaxis if the cyst ruptures
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 4
Correct
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A 49-year-old man with a history of uncontrolled HIV presents with dyspnea and hemoptysis. Diagnostic tests reveal invasive aspergillosis, and he is prescribed amphotericin B. What is the mode of action of amphotericin B?
Your Answer: Binds with ergosterol
Explanation:The mechanism of action of Amphotericin B involves binding with ergosterol, a key component of fungal cell membranes. This binding results in the formation of pores that cause the cell wall to lyse, ultimately leading to fungal cell death.
Flucytosine, on the other hand, is converted by cytosine deaminase to 5-fluorouracil. This compound inhibits thymidylate synthase, which in turn disrupts fungal protein synthesis.
Caspofungin works by inhibiting the synthesis of beta-glucan, a major component of the fungal cell wall.
Griseofulvin interacts with microtubules, leading to the disruption of the mitotic spindle.
Anti-viral agents like acyclovir function by inhibiting viral DNA polymerase.
Antifungal agents are drugs used to treat fungal infections. There are several types of antifungal agents, each with a unique mechanism of action and potential adverse effects. Azoles work by inhibiting 14α-demethylase, an enzyme that produces ergosterol, a component of fungal cell membranes. However, they can also inhibit the P450 system in the liver, leading to potential liver toxicity. Amphotericin B binds with ergosterol to form a transmembrane channel that causes leakage of monovalent ions, but it can also cause nephrotoxicity and flu-like symptoms. Terbinafine inhibits squalene epoxidase, while griseofulvin interacts with microtubules to disrupt mitotic spindle. However, griseofulvin can induce the P450 system and is teratogenic. Flucytosine is converted by cytosine deaminase to 5-fluorouracil, which inhibits thymidylate synthase and disrupts fungal protein synthesis, but it can cause vomiting. Caspofungin inhibits the synthesis of beta-glucan, a major fungal cell wall component, and can cause flushing. Nystatin binds with ergosterol to form a transmembrane channel that causes leakage of monovalent ions, but it is very toxic and can only be used topically, such as for oral thrush.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A medication that has its own intrinsic effects but does not treat the intended condition is known as what?
Your Answer: A nocebo
Correct Answer: An active placebo
Explanation:Understanding the Placebo Effect
The placebo effect refers to the phenomenon where a patient experiences an improvement in their condition after receiving an inert substance or treatment that has no inherent pharmacological activity. This can include a sugar pill or a sham procedure that mimics a real medical intervention. The placebo effect is influenced by various factors, such as the perceived strength of the treatment, the status of the treating professional, and the patient’s expectations.
It is important to note that the placebo effect is not the same as receiving no care, as patients who maintain contact with medical services tend to have better outcomes. The placebo response is also greater in mild illnesses and can be difficult to separate from spontaneous remission. Patients who enter randomized controlled trials (RCTs) are often acutely unwell, and their symptoms may improve regardless of the intervention.
The placebo effect has been extensively studied in depression, where it tends to be abrupt and early in treatment, and less likely to persist compared to improvement from antidepressants. Placebo sag refers to a situation where the placebo effect is diminished with repeated use.
Overall, the placebo effect is a complex phenomenon that is influenced by various factors and can have significant implications for medical research and treatment. Understanding the placebo effect can help healthcare professionals provide better care and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 6
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A mother brought her 5-year-old daughter to a refugee camp clinic due to leg bowing. Over the past few months, the mother has noticed her daughter's legs appear curved, causing a slightly waddling gait. The daughter does not complain of soreness in the legs and has a good range of movement. There are no rashes or bruises noted. The patient has no relevant medical history, although the mother mentions difficulty adjusting to the UK lifestyle and weather since leaving Afghanistan.
Which blood test would be most helpful to request?Your Answer: Vitamin D level
Explanation:Rickets is caused by a deficiency in Vitamin D.
The stem correctly identifies Vitamin D as the cause of rickets, which is characterized by bowed legs and a waddling gait. The patient’s reduced calcium absorption is likely due to a change in sunlight exposure, as sunlight is a source of Vitamin D. This deficiency leads to decreased bone mineral density.
Autoantibody screen, coagulation screen, and full blood count are all incorrect as they are not specific to the symptoms described in the question. Vitamin B12 deficiency is also incorrect as it causes peripheral neuropathy, which the patient does not exhibit.
Understanding Vitamin D
Vitamin D is a type of vitamin that is soluble in fat and is essential for the metabolism of calcium and phosphate in the body. It is converted into calcifediol in the liver and then into calcitriol, which is the active form of vitamin D, in the kidneys. Vitamin D can be obtained from two sources: vitamin D2, which is found in plants, and vitamin D3, which is present in dairy products and can also be synthesized by the skin when exposed to sunlight.
The primary function of vitamin D is to increase the levels of calcium and phosphate in the blood. It achieves this by increasing the absorption of calcium in the gut and the reabsorption of calcium in the kidneys. Vitamin D also stimulates osteoclastic activity, which is essential for bone growth and remodeling. Additionally, it increases the reabsorption of phosphate in the kidneys.
A deficiency in vitamin D can lead to two conditions: rickets in children and osteomalacia in adults. Rickets is characterized by soft and weak bones, while osteomalacia is a condition where the bones become weak and brittle. Therefore, it is crucial to ensure that the body receives an adequate amount of vitamin D to maintain healthy bones and overall health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of increased dysuria and polyuria. Her urine dipstick test reveals the following results:
Leukocytes ++
Protein ++
Erythrocytes +
Nitrites +
The doctor prescribes trimethoprim for an uncomplicated urinary tract infection and advises the patient to come back if her symptoms worsen.
What is the mechanism of action of the prescribed antibiotic?Your Answer: Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
Correct Answer: Dihydrofolate reductase inhibitor
Explanation:Trimethoprim inhibits the reduction of dihydrofolic acid (DHF) to tetrahydrofolic acid (THF) by binding to dihydrofolate reductase, making it a suitable antibiotic for urinary tract infections. Rifampicin suppresses RNA synthesis and cell death by inhibiting DNA-dependent RNA polymerase, while quinolones prevent bacterial DNA from unwinding and duplicating by inhibiting DNA topoisomerase. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors, like acetazolamide, are used for various medical conditions. Sulfonamides inhibit DNA synthesis by inhibiting dihydropteroate synthetase.
Understanding Trimethoprim: Mechanism of Action, Adverse Effects, and Use in Pregnancy
Trimethoprim is an antibiotic that is commonly used to treat urinary tract infections. Its mechanism of action involves interfering with DNA synthesis by inhibiting dihydrofolate reductase. This may cause an interaction with methotrexate, which also inhibits dihydrofolate reductase. However, the use of trimethoprim may also lead to adverse effects such as myelosuppression and a transient rise in creatinine. The drug competitively inhibits the tubular secretion of creatinine, resulting in a temporary increase that reverses upon stopping the medication. Additionally, trimethoprim blocks the ENaC channel in the distal nephron, causing a hyperkalaemic distal RTA (type 4). It also inhibits creatinine secretion, which often leads to an increase in creatinine by around 40 points, but not necessarily causing AKI.
When it comes to the use of trimethoprim in pregnancy, caution is advised. The British National Formulary (BNF) warns of a teratogenic risk in the first trimester due to its folate antagonist properties. Manufacturers advise avoiding the use of trimethoprim during pregnancy. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking any medication, especially during pregnancy, to ensure the safety of both the mother and the developing fetus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman comes to the doctor complaining of a headache and fever that has lasted for 3 days. She mentions that she recently returned from a backpacking trip to Indonesia where she was exposed to insect bites while hiking. She did not receive any travel immunisation or prophylaxis and is only taking paracetamol from a nearby pharmacy. Her blood pressure and pulse are normal, but her temperature is 38ºC. During the examination, a maculopapular rash is found on her trunk with some areas unaffected. There is no tenderness or organomegaly in her abdomen, and her lungs sound clear. The Giemsa stain of her thick and thin blood films did not show any parasites, but the dengue NS1 antigen test was positive.
What is the most appropriate treatment for this 45-year-old woman?Your Answer: Analgesia only
Correct Answer: Intravenous fluid administration and analgesia
Explanation:The patient’s travel history and positive dengue NS1 antigen test confirm that she has dengue fever, a viral infection transmitted by mosquitoes. Symptoms include fever, headache, and a maculopapular rash. Treatment is entirely symptomatic, with fluid resuscitation and analgesia. Malaria is unlikely given the short incubation period and negative blood film results. Antivirals are not currently available for dengue. As the patient does not display warning signs or hemodynamic instability, blood transfusion is not necessary. Analgesia alone is insufficient, and fluid replacement is required to manage symptoms.
Understanding Dengue Fever
Dengue fever is a viral infection that can lead to viral haemorrhagic fever, which includes diseases like yellow fever, Lassa fever, and Ebola. The dengue virus is an RNA virus that belongs to the Flavivirus genus and is transmitted by the Aedes aegypti mosquito. The incubation period for dengue fever is seven days.
Patients with dengue fever can be classified into three categories: those without warning signs, those with warning signs, and those with severe dengue (dengue haemorrhagic fever). Symptoms of dengue fever include fever, headache (often retro-orbital), myalgia, bone pain, arthralgia (also known as ‘break-bone fever’), pleuritic pain, facial flushing, maculopapular rash, and haemorrhagic manifestations such as a positive tourniquet test, petechiae, purpura/ecchymosis, and epistaxis. Warning signs include abdominal pain, hepatomegaly, persistent vomiting, and clinical fluid accumulation (ascites, pleural effusion). Severe dengue (dengue haemorrhagic fever) is a form of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) that results in thrombocytopenia and spontaneous bleeding. Around 20-30% of these patients go on to develop dengue shock syndrome (DSS).
Typically, blood tests are used to diagnose dengue fever, which may show leukopenia, thrombocytopenia, and raised aminotransferases. Diagnostic tests such as serology, nucleic acid amplification tests for viral RNA, and NS1 antigen tests may also be used. Treatment for dengue fever is entirely symptomatic, including fluid resuscitation and blood transfusions. Currently, there are no antivirals available for the treatment of dengue fever.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A new diagnostic test is being developed and this is now being trialed on 10,000 patients, 500 of which are known to be over the age of 60.
Each patient receives one test, producing 1,200 positive results. 400 of those with a positive test are later confirmed to be over the age of 60.
Calculate the positive predictive value (PPV) of the test.Your Answer: 30%
Correct Answer: 40%
Explanation:Precision refers to the consistency of a test in producing the same results when repeated multiple times. It is an important aspect of test reliability and can impact the accuracy of the results. In order to assess precision, multiple tests are performed on the same sample and the results are compared. A test with high precision will produce similar results each time it is performed, while a test with low precision will produce inconsistent results. It is important to consider precision when interpreting test results and making clinical decisions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A woman in her late 40s experiences kidney failure and receives a transplant. However, she develops a fever and ceases urine output shortly after. Is hyperacute organ rejection the cause, and which cells are responsible for this reaction?
Your Answer: Helper T Cells
Correct Answer: B Cells
Explanation:Hyperacute organ rejection is mediated by B cells.
The adaptive immune response involves several types of cells, including helper T cells, cytotoxic T cells, B cells, and plasma cells. Helper T cells are responsible for the cell-mediated immune response and recognize antigens presented by MHC class II molecules. They express CD4, CD3, TCR, and CD28 and are a major source of IL-2. Cytotoxic T cells also participate in the cell-mediated immune response and recognize antigens presented by MHC class I molecules. They induce apoptosis in virally infected and tumor cells and express CD8 and CD3. Both helper T cells and cytotoxic T cells mediate acute and chronic organ rejection.
B cells are the primary cells of the humoral immune response and act as antigen-presenting cells. They also mediate hyperacute organ rejection. Plasma cells are differentiated from B cells and produce large amounts of antibody specific to a particular antigen. Overall, these cells work together to mount a targeted and specific immune response to invading pathogens or abnormal cells.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 11
Correct
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Breast cancer usually presents with non-specific symptoms and is therefore often diagnosed at a late stage. A new assay for cancer antigen 15-3 (CA 15-3) is being evaluated for potential use in a breast cancer screening programme. You are asked to analyze the results by the programme director shown below and report the specificity.
Breast cancer present Breast cancer absent
CA 15-3 positive 300 60
CA 15-3 negative 40 200
What figure will you report to the screening programme director?Your Answer: 75%
Explanation:The negative predictive value is 86%, calculated as 275 divided by the sum of 275 and 50, which equals 0.846 or 84.6%.
Precision refers to the consistency of a test in producing the same results when repeated multiple times. It is an important aspect of test reliability and can impact the accuracy of the results. In order to assess precision, multiple tests are performed on the same sample and the results are compared. A test with high precision will produce similar results each time it is performed, while a test with low precision will produce inconsistent results. It is important to consider precision when interpreting test results and making clinical decisions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 12
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A 5-year-old unvaccinated girl visits her pediatrician with her father. She has been experiencing severe coughing for the past 2 weeks. Her father reports that she sometimes retches or vomits after prolonged coughing episodes.
While in the doctor's office, the girl starts coughing heavily with occasional gasps for air in between each cough.
What type of culture medium is necessary to confirm the probable pathogen responsible for her symptoms?Your Answer: Bordet-Gengou agar
Explanation:The appropriate agar for culturing Bordetella pertussis, the bacteria responsible for whooping cough, is Bordet-Gengou agar. This is supported by the patient’s history of prolonged cough and post-percussive retching and vomiting. Blood agar, used for isolating Staphylococcus and Streptococcus species, and Chocolate agar, used for Haemophilus influenzae, are not appropriate for culturing Bordetella pertussis. Lowenstein-Jensen agar, used for Mycobacterium tuberculosis, is also not relevant to this case.
Culture Requirements for Common Organisms
Different microorganisms require specific culture conditions to grow and thrive. The table above lists some of the culture requirements for the more common organisms. For instance, Neisseria gonorrhoeae requires Thayer-Martin agar, which is a variant of chocolate agar, and the addition of Vancomycin, Polymyxin, and Nystatin to inhibit Gram-positive, Gram-negative, and fungal growth, respectively. Haemophilus influenzae, on the other hand, grows on chocolate agar with factors V (NAD+) and X (hematin).
To remember the culture requirements for some of these organisms, some mnemonics can be used. For example, Nice Homes have chocolate can help recall that Neisseria and Haemophilus grow on chocolate agar. If I Tell-U the Corny joke Right, you’ll Laugh can be used to remember that Corynebacterium diphtheriae grows on tellurite agar or Loeffler’s media. Lactating pink monkeys can help recall that lactose fermenting bacteria, such as Escherichia coli, grow on MacConkey agar resulting in pink colonies. Finally, BORDETella pertussis can be used to remember that Bordetella pertussis grows on Bordet-Gengou (potato) agar.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 13
Correct
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A 25-year-old man presents to the emergency department with complaints of headaches, fever, and fatigue. His college roommate brought him in and on examination, there is evidence of neck stiffness. The physician suspects meningitis and reviews the patient's vaccination history, which shows he received the pneumococcus and N. meningitidis vaccines during childhood.
What is the probable etiology of meningitis in this 25-year-old patient?Your Answer: Viral
Explanation:Enteroviruses are the leading cause of viral meningitis in adults, while bacterial meningitis is typically more severe and caused by pathogens like Neisseria meningitidis and Streptococcus pneumonia. Fungal and parasitic meningitis are more commonly found in individuals with weakened immune systems, with Cryptococcus neoformans and Histoplasma capsulatum being common culprits for fungal meningitis.
Viral meningitis is inflammation of the leptomeninges and cerebrospinal fluid caused by a viral agent. It is more common and less severe than bacterial meningitis. Risk factors include extremes of age and immunocompromised patients. Symptoms include headache, neck stiffness, photophobia, confusion, and fever. Diagnosis is confirmed through a lumbar puncture and cerebrospinal fluid analysis. Treatment is supportive, and broad-spectrum antibiotics may be given if bacterial meningitis or encephalitis is suspected. Viral meningitis is generally self-limiting, and complications are rare in immunocompetent patients. acyclovir may be used if HSV is suspected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a three day history of dizziness and headache. He has no significant past medical history and is on no medications. He is studying computer science at university and lives in poorly ventilated student accommodation with eight other people. He follows a vegetarian diet.
His observations are heart rate 110 beats per minute, respiratory rate 23/minute, oxygen saturation 96% on room air, blood pressure 98/66 mmHg and temperature 37.2ºC.
On examination, he has an ataxic gait. Neurological, cardiovascular, abdominal, ENT and respiratory examinations are otherwise normal.
Urinalysis is normal.
An ECG demonstrated sinus tachycardia.
A chest x-ray is unremarkable.
Blood gas:
pH 7.25 (7.35-7.45)
PaO2 10.2 kPa (10-14)
PaCO2 5.4kPa (4.5-6)
HCO3 15 mmol/L (22-26)
SaO2 87% (94-98%)
Hb 112g/L (130-180)
Lactate 3.1 mmol/L (<2)
BE -3.5 (-2 - +2)
Glucose 5.3 mmol/L (4-6)
COHb 26% (<2%)
MetHb 0.2% (< 2%)
A CT head is normal.
What is the likely diagnosis and what could explain the low oxygen saturation reading on the arterial blood gas?Your Answer: Decreased partial pressure of environmental oxygen
Correct Answer: Left shift of oxygen dissociation curve
Explanation:Carbon monoxide poisoning results in a leftward shift of the oxygen dissociation curve, leading to a decrease in the oxygen saturation of haemoglobin. This is due to the high affinity of carbon monoxide for haemoglobin, which competes with oxygen for binding. As a result, oxygen delivery to the tissues is impaired, causing hypoxia. The patient’s elevated carboxyhaemoglobin level, dissociation between peripheral and blood gas saturations, lactic acidosis, dizziness, headache, and ataxia all indicate carbon monoxide poisoning. The decreased partial pressure of environmental oxygen, alveolar destruction, and low haemoglobin are not the causes of his hypoxia.
Carbon monoxide poisoning occurs when carbon monoxide binds to haemoglobin and myoglobin, leading to tissue hypoxia. Symptoms include headache, nausea, vomiting, vertigo, confusion, and in severe cases, pink skin and mucosae, hyperpyrexia, arrhythmias, extrapyramidal features, coma, and death. Diagnosis is made through measuring carboxyhaemoglobin levels in arterial or venous blood gas. Treatment involves administering 100% high-flow oxygen via a non-rebreather mask for at least six hours, with hyperbaric oxygen therapy considered for more severe cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 15
Correct
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A 52-year-old man with a history of heart failure visits the clinic complaining of breathlessness for the past three weeks, despite following his prescribed treatment. He reports difficulty breathing while lying down and has resorted to using three large pillows at night. His current medication includes ramipril, carvedilol, furosemide, and bendroflumethiazide. As a healthcare provider, you are contemplating adding a low dose of amiloride to his current regimen. Can you explain the mechanism of action of amiloride?
Your Answer: Inhibits epithelial sodium channels
Explanation:Potassium-sparing diuretics are classified into two types: epithelial sodium channel blockers (such as amiloride and triamterene) and aldosterone antagonists (such as spironolactone and eplerenone). However, caution should be exercised when using these drugs in patients taking ACE inhibitors as they can cause hyperkalaemia. Amiloride is a weak diuretic that blocks the epithelial sodium channel in the distal convoluted tubule. It is usually given with thiazides or loop diuretics as an alternative to potassium supplementation since these drugs often cause hypokalaemia. On the other hand, aldosterone antagonists like spironolactone act in the cortical collecting duct and are used to treat conditions such as ascites, heart failure, nephrotic syndrome, and Conn’s syndrome. In patients with cirrhosis, relatively large doses of spironolactone (100 or 200 mg) are often used to manage secondary hyperaldosteronism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 16
Correct
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During your placement on the paediatric ward, you are examining the chest x-ray of a 9-year-old boy from Ghana. He came to the UK 2 months ago and was hospitalized after falling from the monkey bars and breaking his collarbone. Despite being in good health, he has not experienced any chest pain or shortness of breath. Upon reviewing the radiologist's report, you notice that a Ghon complex is present. What medical condition does this suggest?
Your Answer: TB
Explanation:Childhood respiratory infection is the typical manifestation of primary TB, which is often asymptomatic and leads to the formation of a Ghon focus and mediastinal lymphadenopathy. These two conditions together are known as the Ghon complex. The infection usually resolves on its own with minimal symptoms.
Understanding Tuberculosis: The Pathophysiology and Risk Factors
Tuberculosis is a bacterial infection caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis. The pathophysiology of tuberculosis involves the migration of macrophages to regional lymph nodes, forming a Ghon complex. This complex leads to the formation of a granuloma, which is a collection of epithelioid histiocytes with caseous necrosis in the center. The inflammatory response is mediated by a type 4 hypersensitivity reaction. While healthy individuals can contain the disease, immunocompromised individuals are at risk of developing disseminated (miliary) TB.
Several risk factors increase the likelihood of developing tuberculosis. These include having lived in Asia, Latin America, Eastern Europe, or Africa for years, exposure to an infectious TB case, and being infected with HIV. Immunocompromised individuals, such as diabetics, patients on immunosuppressive therapy, malnourished individuals, or those with haematological malignancies, are also at risk. Additionally, silicosis and apical fibrosis increase the likelihood of developing tuberculosis. Understanding the pathophysiology and risk factors of tuberculosis is crucial in preventing and treating this infectious disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 17
Correct
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A 20-year-old male presents with myoclonus and confusion. His blood test shows an elevated level of ammonium. He has a familial history of a urea cycle disorder. What specific enzyme deficiency is present in this case?
Your Answer: Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I
Explanation:Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I is the enzyme that limits the rate of the urea cycle, which is a series of six enzymatic and two transport steps required to metabolize and eliminate nitrogen produced by the breakdown of amino acids in proteins and other nitrogen-containing molecules. If there is a deficiency of this enzyme, it can result in high levels of ammonium, leading to encephalopathy.
Glycogen phosphorylase is the enzyme that limits the rate of glycogenolysis.
Isocitrate dehydrogenase is the enzyme that limits the rate of the citric acid cycle.
The rate of glycolysis is limited by the enzyme phosphofructokinase-1.
Rate-Determining Enzymes in Metabolic Processes
Metabolic processes involve a series of chemical reactions that occur in living organisms to maintain life. Enzymes play a crucial role in these processes by catalyzing the reactions. However, not all enzymes have the same impact on the rate of the reaction. Some enzymes are rate-determining, meaning that they control the overall rate of the process. The table above lists the rate-determining enzymes involved in common metabolic processes.
For example, in the TCA cycle, isocitrate dehydrogenase is the rate-determining enzyme. In glycolysis, phosphofructokinase-1 controls the rate of the process. In gluconeogenesis, fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase is the rate-determining enzyme. Similarly, glycogen synthase controls the rate of glycogenesis, while glycogen phosphorylase controls the rate of glycogenolysis.
Other metabolic processes, such as lipogenesis, lipolysis, cholesterol synthesis, and ketogenesis, also have rate-determining enzymes. Acetyl-CoA carboxylase controls the rate of lipogenesis, while carnitine-palmitoyl transferase I controls the rate of lipolysis. HMG-CoA reductase is the rate-determining enzyme in cholesterol synthesis, while HMG-CoA synthase controls the rate of ketogenesis.
The urea cycle, de novo pyrimidine synthesis, and de novo purine synthesis also have rate-determining enzymes. Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I controls the rate of the urea cycle, while carbamoyl phosphate synthetase II controls the rate of de novo pyrimidine synthesis. Glutamine-PRPP amidotransferase is the rate-determining enzyme in de novo purine synthesis.
Understanding the rate-determining enzymes in metabolic processes is crucial for developing treatments for metabolic disorders and diseases. By targeting these enzymes, researchers can potentially regulate the rate of the process and improve the health outcomes of individuals with these conditions.
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man is brought to the emergency department for ingesting his father's blood pressure medication. Upon arrival, his vital signs are recorded as follows: blood pressure of 90/62 mmHg, heart rate of 55 beats per minute, respiratory rate of 32 breaths per minute, and temperature of 37.4 ºC. Despite administering atropine, his condition remains unchanged. The emergency consultant orders the administration of IV glucagon. What is the mechanism of action of glucagon?
Your Answer: Glucagon facilitates the production of cGMP which causes a drop in intracellular calcium levels
Correct Answer: Glucagon causes an increase in intracellular calcium by increasing levels of cAMP
Explanation:Glucagon induces an elevation in intracellular Ca2+ levels by stimulating an increase in cAMP. This, in turn, leads to a positive inotropic and chronotropic effect on cardiovascular performance. The rise in cAMP levels causes an increase in intracellular calcium levels, which enhances the contractility of the myocytes. As a result, glucagon has been found to increase cardiac output and heart rate. Glucagon does not compete with beta agonists for beta-1 receptors, and it does not promote the production of cGMP. Therefore, the last two options are incorrect. Digoxin, on the other hand, inhibits the Na+/K+ATPase, which leads to an increase in intracellular calcium levels and a positive inotropic effect. However, this option is also incorrect.
Managing Beta-Blocker Overdose
Beta-blocker overdose can lead to various symptoms such as bradycardia, hypotension, heart failure, and syncope. To manage these symptoms, it is important to first identify if the patient is bradycardic. If so, atropine can be administered. However, in cases where atropine is not effective, glucagon may be used as an alternative. It is important to note that haemodialysis is not an effective treatment for beta-blocker overdose. Proper management of beta-blocker overdose is crucial in preventing further complications and ensuring the patient’s safety.
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Question 19
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A 59-year-old man presents to the emergency department with worsening confusion and a two-week history of generalised headache. He has a significant medical history of HIV, diagnosed 12 years ago, and his sister reports that he has not been taking his medication for the past week. On examination, he is febrile with a temperature of 38ºC, and nuchal rigidity is noted. A lumbar puncture reveals elevated opening pressure and encapsulated yeast forms in the cerebrospinal fluid. He is prescribed flucytosine along with another medication. What is the most likely side effect of the medication prescribed to him?
Your Answer: Hypokalaemia
Explanation:The patient is likely suffering from cryptococcus meningitis, which is common in individuals with HIV. The recommended treatment for this condition is a combination of amphotericin B and flucytosine. However, it is important to note that amphotericin B can cause hypokalaemia as a side effect. This occurs due to increased membrane permeability, which leads to potassium leakage from the cytoplasm into the tubular lumen in the kidneys. This can result in potassium wasting and exacerbate the patient’s condition. While vancomycin is known to cause Red Man syndrome, it is not associated with amphotericin B. Amphotericin B can also cause nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, which can lead to polyuria and weight loss. However, it is not known to cause bullous pemphigoid.
Antifungal agents are drugs used to treat fungal infections. There are several types of antifungal agents, each with a unique mechanism of action and potential adverse effects. Azoles work by inhibiting 14α-demethylase, an enzyme that produces ergosterol, a component of fungal cell membranes. However, they can also inhibit the P450 system in the liver, leading to potential liver toxicity. Amphotericin B binds with ergosterol to form a transmembrane channel that causes leakage of monovalent ions, but it can also cause nephrotoxicity and flu-like symptoms. Terbinafine inhibits squalene epoxidase, while griseofulvin interacts with microtubules to disrupt mitotic spindle. However, griseofulvin can induce the P450 system and is teratogenic. Flucytosine is converted by cytosine deaminase to 5-fluorouracil, which inhibits thymidylate synthase and disrupts fungal protein synthesis, but it can cause vomiting. Caspofungin inhibits the synthesis of beta-glucan, a major fungal cell wall component, and can cause flushing. Nystatin binds with ergosterol to form a transmembrane channel that causes leakage of monovalent ions, but it is very toxic and can only be used topically, such as for oral thrush.
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Question 20
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A different patient, who has also been diagnosed with primary hyperparathyroidism due to elevated calcium and PTH levels, is wondering about the hormone's role in calcium metabolism within the kidneys.
Your Answer: Increases tubular reabsorption of calcium
Explanation:The reabsorption of phosphate in the kidneys is increased by calcitriol. Parathyroid hormone, on the other hand, enhances the conversion of 25-hydroxycholecalciferol to calcitriol. Calcitriol, which is the active form of vitamin D, plays a crucial role in calcium metabolism in both the bones and the kidneys. Specifically, it promotes the reabsorption of calcium in the tubules of the kidneys, primarily in the proximal convoluted tubule, as well as in the thick ascending limb and distal convoluted tubule.
Hormones Controlling Calcium Metabolism
Calcium metabolism is primarily controlled by two hormones, parathyroid hormone (PTH) and 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol (calcitriol). Other hormones such as calcitonin, thyroxine, and growth hormone also play a role. PTH increases plasma calcium levels and decreases plasma phosphate levels. It also increases renal tubular reabsorption of calcium, osteoclastic activity, and renal conversion of 25-hydroxycholecalciferol to 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol. On the other hand, 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol increases plasma calcium and plasma phosphate levels, renal tubular reabsorption and gut absorption of calcium, osteoclastic activity, and renal phosphate reabsorption. It is important to note that osteoclastic activity is increased indirectly by PTH as osteoclasts do not have PTH receptors. Understanding the actions of these hormones is crucial in maintaining proper calcium metabolism in the body.
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman arrived at the emergency department after being bitten by a stray dog. She is worried about the possibility of developing a severe infection from the bite.
Which organism is commonly associated with this type of injury?Your Answer: Staphylococcus spp
Correct Answer: Pasteurella multocida
Explanation:Polymicrobial infections are common in animal bites, with Pasteurella multocida being the most frequently isolated organism. Other organisms found in the oral cavity of animals, such as Staphylococcus spp, can also contribute to these infections.
Animal bites are a common occurrence in everyday practice, with dogs and cats being the most frequent culprits. These bites are usually caused by multiple types of bacteria, with Pasteurella multocida being the most commonly isolated organism. To manage these bites, it is important to cleanse the wound thoroughly. Puncture wounds should not be sutured unless there is a risk of cosmesis. The current recommendation is to use co-amoxiclav, but if the patient is allergic to penicillin, doxycycline and metronidazole are recommended.
On the other hand, human bites can cause infections from a variety of bacteria, including both aerobic and anaerobic types. Common organisms include Streptococci spp., Staphylococcus aureus, Eikenella, Fusobacterium, and Prevotella. To manage these bites, co-amoxiclav is also recommended. It is important to consider the risk of viral infections such as HIV and hepatitis C when dealing with human bites.
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Question 22
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A 4-year-old boy presents to his pediatrician with a history of frequent infections. Upon further investigation, his blood work shows a lack of detectable serum IgA. Where are these antibodies typically found and what is their function?
Your Answer: Provides protection on mucous membranes
Explanation:IgA is primarily found in secretions such as saliva, tears, and mucous, providing localized protection on mucous membranes. It is also present in breast milk. IgG, on the other hand, is the most abundant immunoglobulin in blood serum. IgM is the first immunoglobulin produced in response to infection, while IgE is predominantly found in the lungs and skin, mediating allergic and hypersensitivity responses. Additionally, both IgM and IgG are capable of fixing complement. Selective IgA deficiency is a common immunodeficiency that can lead to mild recurrent respiratory and gastrointestinal infections, as well as susceptibility to allergies.
Immunoglobulins, also known as antibodies, are proteins produced by the immune system to help fight off infections and diseases. There are five types of immunoglobulins found in the body, each with their own unique characteristics.
IgG is the most abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and plays a crucial role in enhancing phagocytosis of bacteria and viruses. It also fixes complement and can be passed to the fetal circulation.
IgA is the most commonly produced immunoglobulin in the body and is found in the secretions of digestive, respiratory, and urogenital tracts and systems. It provides localized protection on mucous membranes and is transported across the interior of the cell via transcytosis.
IgM is the first immunoglobulin to be secreted in response to an infection and fixes complement, but does not pass to the fetal circulation. It is also responsible for producing anti-A, B blood antibodies.
IgD’s role in the immune system is largely unknown, but it is involved in the activation of B cells.
IgE is the least abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and is responsible for mediating type 1 hypersensitivity reactions. It provides immunity to parasites such as helminths and binds to Fc receptors found on the surface of mast cells and basophils.
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A geriatric medicine trainee has developed a research project that they aim to publish in a high impact factor journal.
Two groups of elderly patients with hypertension are randomly assigned to receive treatment with amlodipine or lisinopril for a six week period.
At the end of the six week trial period, each participant is asked to rate the effectiveness of their specific treatment on lowering their blood pressure. The rating scale is from 1-5, where 1 indicates 'very ineffective' and 5 indicates 'very effective'.
As the data is not normally distributed, what statistical test should be utilized to determine if there is a significant difference between the two treatments?Your Answer: Student's t-test (paired)
Correct Answer: Mann-Whitney U test
Explanation:The appropriate statistical test for comparing ordinal, interval, or ratio scales of unpaired data is the Mann-Whitney U test. This test is necessary when dealing with non-normally distributed data, such as Likert items. In contrast, the chi-squared test is used to compare percentages, while the student’s t-test (paired or unpaired) requires normally distributed data and/or paired observations. As the data in this scenario involves two different groups receiving different interventions, the Mann-Whitney U test is the most appropriate choice.
Types of Significance Tests
Significance tests are used to determine whether the results of a study are statistically significant or simply due to chance. The type of significance test used depends on the type of data being analyzed. Parametric tests are used for data that can be measured and are usually normally distributed, while non-parametric tests are used for data that cannot be measured in this way.
Parametric tests include the Student’s t-test, which can be paired or unpaired, and Pearson’s product-moment coefficient, which is used for correlation analysis. Non-parametric tests include the Mann-Whitney U test, which compares ordinal, interval, or ratio scales of unpaired data, and the Wilcoxon signed-rank test, which compares two sets of observations on a single sample. The chi-squared test is used to compare proportions or percentages, while Spearman and Kendall rank are used for correlation analysis.
It is important to choose the appropriate significance test for the type of data being analyzed in order to obtain accurate and reliable results. By understanding the different types of significance tests available, researchers can make informed decisions about which test to use for their particular study.
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Question 24
Correct
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A 29-year-old Turkish woman comes to your clinic complaining of growing fatigue and exhaustion. During the clinical examination, you observe pale conjunctiva and peripheral cyanosis. Her complete blood count and haematinics indicate iron deficiency anaemia. You prescribe a course of ferrous fumarate (iron supplement) and advise her to steer clear of certain things that could hinder its absorption. What is one of the things you tell her to avoid?
Your Answer: Tea
Explanation:The absorption of iron in the intestine may be reduced by tannin, which is present in tea.
Iron is abundant in fava beans.
Iron Metabolism: Absorption, Distribution, Transport, Storage, and Excretion
Iron is an essential mineral that plays a crucial role in various physiological processes. The absorption of iron occurs mainly in the upper small intestine, particularly the duodenum. Only about 10% of dietary iron is absorbed, and ferrous iron (Fe2+) is much better absorbed than ferric iron (Fe3+). The absorption of iron is regulated according to the body’s need and can be increased by vitamin C and gastric acid. However, it can be decreased by proton pump inhibitors, tetracycline, gastric achlorhydria, and tannin found in tea.
The total body iron is approximately 4g, with 70% of it being present in hemoglobin, 25% in ferritin and haemosiderin, 4% in myoglobin, and 0.1% in plasma iron. Iron is transported in the plasma as Fe3+ bound to transferrin. It is stored in tissues as ferritin, and the lost iron is excreted via the intestinal tract following desquamation.
In summary, iron metabolism involves the absorption, distribution, transport, storage, and excretion of iron in the body. Understanding these processes is crucial in maintaining iron homeostasis and preventing iron-related disorders.
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Question 25
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You are a foundation year 3 doctor who has been requested to undergo blood testing for the detection of antibodies against the novel coronavirus (COVID-19) as a part of a hospital-wide screening initiative. You inquire with the phlebotomist about the specific antibody being evaluated, and he confirms that it is an IgG antibody test.
What is the primary function of this antibody?Your Answer: Enhances phagocytosis of the novel coronavirus
Explanation:The presence of IgG antibodies in COVID-19 patients can be detected within seven to ten days after infection, indicating recent infection. These antibodies play a role in enhancing the phagocytosis of bacteria and viruses. IgA is the primary immunoglobulin found in breast milk and urogenital tract secretions, while IgM is typically the first antibody produced during a viral attack, indicating an active infection or recent recovery. IgE is associated with providing immunity against parasites.
Immunoglobulins, also known as antibodies, are proteins produced by the immune system to help fight off infections and diseases. There are five types of immunoglobulins found in the body, each with their own unique characteristics.
IgG is the most abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and plays a crucial role in enhancing phagocytosis of bacteria and viruses. It also fixes complement and can be passed to the fetal circulation.
IgA is the most commonly produced immunoglobulin in the body and is found in the secretions of digestive, respiratory, and urogenital tracts and systems. It provides localized protection on mucous membranes and is transported across the interior of the cell via transcytosis.
IgM is the first immunoglobulin to be secreted in response to an infection and fixes complement, but does not pass to the fetal circulation. It is also responsible for producing anti-A, B blood antibodies.
IgD’s role in the immune system is largely unknown, but it is involved in the activation of B cells.
IgE is the least abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and is responsible for mediating type 1 hypersensitivity reactions. It provides immunity to parasites such as helminths and binds to Fc receptors found on the surface of mast cells and basophils.
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- General Principles
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of a productive cough and difficulty breathing. After being diagnosed with community-acquired pneumonia, she is given initial treatment. However, she suddenly experiences lip swelling and worsening shortness of breath. Upon examination, a widespread rash and an audible expiratory wheeze are discovered. What is the recommended first-line pharmacological treatment for this patient?
Your Answer: Adrenaline 0.5ml (1 in 10,000) IM
Correct Answer: Adrenaline 0.5ml (1 in 1,000) IM
Explanation:Anaphylaxis is a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that affects the entire body. It can be caused by various triggers, including food, drugs, and insect venom. The symptoms of anaphylaxis typically develop suddenly and progress rapidly, affecting the airway, breathing, and circulation. Swelling of the throat and tongue, hoarse voice, and stridor are common airway problems, while respiratory wheeze and dyspnea are common breathing problems. Hypotension and tachycardia are common circulation problems. Skin and mucosal changes, such as generalized pruritus and widespread erythematous or urticarial rash, are also present in around 80-90% of patients.
The most important drug in the management of anaphylaxis is intramuscular adrenaline, which should be administered as soon as possible. The recommended doses of adrenaline vary depending on the patient’s age, with the highest dose being 500 micrograms for adults and children over 12 years old. Adrenaline can be repeated every 5 minutes if necessary. If the patient’s respiratory and/or cardiovascular problems persist despite two doses of IM adrenaline, IV fluids should be given for shock, and expert help should be sought for consideration of an IV adrenaline infusion.
Following stabilisation, non-sedating oral antihistamines may be given to patients with persisting skin symptoms. Patients with a new diagnosis of anaphylaxis should be referred to a specialist allergy clinic, and an adrenaline injector should be given as an interim measure before the specialist allergy assessment. Patients should be prescribed two adrenaline auto-injectors, and training should be provided on how to use them. A risk-stratified approach to discharge should be taken, as biphasic reactions can occur in up to 20% of patients. The Resus Council UK recommends a fast-track discharge for patients who have had a good response to a single dose of adrenaline and have been given an adrenaline auto-injector and trained how to use it. Patients who require two doses of IM adrenaline or have had a previous biphasic reaction should be observed for a minimum of 6 hours after symptom resolution, while those who have had a severe reaction requiring more than two doses of IM adrenaline or have severe asthma should be observed for a minimum of 12 hours after symptom resolution. Patients who present late at night or in areas where access to emergency care may be difficult should also be observed for a minimum of 12
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman visits her GP with a swollen and hot lower limb. She reports that the condition developed a week ago, a few days after a stray cat scratched her on her way home. The patient also complains of feeling generally unwell, with fever and nausea. Besides her limb, she has type 2 diabetes and is clinically obese.
Upon a thorough examination, the GP diagnosis cellulitis and prescribes oral antibiotics. The patient is advised to return if her symptoms worsen or fail to improve after the antibiotic course.
What parts of the patient's leg are infected in this case?Your Answer: Epidermis
Correct Answer: Deeper dermis & subcutaneous tissues
Explanation:Cellulitis is a type of infection that affects the deeper dermis and subcutaneous tissues, while erysipelas only affects the upper dermis and superficial lymphatics. If left untreated, cellulitis can lead to serious complications such as amputation, sepsis, and even death. The most common bacteria that cause cellulitis are Streptococcus pyogenes and Staphylococcus aureus.
It’s important to note that the epidermis is not typically affected in cellulitis. Impetigo, on the other hand, is a common infection of the epidermis that is highly contagious and often affects children.
If the upper dermis and superficial lymphatics are infected, erysipelas is the likely diagnosis. This condition is similar to cellulitis and is managed in a similar way.
Necrotising fasciitis, a rapidly progressive and life-threatening infection, is not cellulitis. This type of infection affects the deep muscles and fascia.
Lastly, it’s worth noting that deep vein thrombosis, which presents similarly to cellulitis, is not a type of cellulitis. It’s a condition where clots form in the deep veins.
Understanding Cellulitis: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment
Cellulitis is a common skin infection caused by Streptococcus pyogenes or Staphylococcus aureus. It is characterized by inflammation of the skin and subcutaneous tissues, usually on the shins, accompanied by erythema, pain, swelling, and sometimes fever. The diagnosis of cellulitis is based on clinical features, and no further investigations are required in primary care. However, bloods and blood cultures may be requested if the patient is admitted and septicaemia is suspected.
To guide the management of patients with cellulitis, NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend using the Eron classification. Patients with Eron Class III or Class IV cellulitis, severe or rapidly deteriorating cellulitis, very young or frail patients, immunocompromised patients, patients with significant lymphoedema, or facial or periorbital cellulitis (unless very mild) should be admitted for intravenous antibiotics. Patients with Eron Class II cellulitis may not require admission if the facilities and expertise are available in the community to give intravenous antibiotics and monitor the patient.
The first-line treatment for mild/moderate cellulitis is flucloxacillin, while clarithromycin, erythromycin (in pregnancy), or doxycycline is recommended for patients allergic to penicillin. Patients with severe cellulitis should be offered co-amoxiclav, cefuroxime, clindamycin, or ceftriaxone. Understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment of cellulitis is crucial for effective management and prevention of complications.
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Question 28
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A 42-year-old man presents to the clinic with complaints of gradual hair loss. Upon physical examination, it is noted that he has a receding hairline in the front and thinning of hair at the crown. Further inquiry reveals a family history of early hair loss. The diagnosis of androgenic alopecia is made, and the physician decides to prescribe a medication that inhibits the conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone.
What is the most probable drug that the physician will prescribe?Your Answer: Finasteride
Explanation:Finasteride is a medication that is commonly used to treat male-pattern baldness. This condition is caused by the presence of dihydrotestosterone (DHT), which is produced when testosterone is converted by the enzyme 5α-reductase. Finasteride works by inhibiting this enzyme, which reduces the production of DHT. It is believed that high levels of DHT can damage hair follicles, leading to weaker and shorter hair. By decreasing DHT production, finasteride can help to slow down or even reverse hair loss.
Griseofulvin is another medication that is used to treat a different condition affecting the scalp. This medication is an antifungal agent and is effective in treating tinea capitis, which is a superficial fungal infection of the scalp.
Flutamide is a medication that is used to treat prostate carcinoma. It works by blocking androgen receptors, which can slow down the growth of cancer cells.
Letrozole is a medication that is used to treat breast cancer in women. It works by inhibiting the conversion of androgens to estrogen. However, it is not effective in treating male-pattern baldness, as the problem in this condition is not related to estrogen levels.
Understanding Finasteride: Its Uses and Side Effects
Finasteride is a medication that works by inhibiting the activity of an enzyme called 5 alpha-reductase. This enzyme is responsible for converting testosterone into dihydrotestosterone, a hormone that contributes to the development of benign prostatic hyperplasia and male-pattern baldness. By blocking this enzyme, finasteride can help alleviate the symptoms of these conditions.
Finasteride is commonly used to treat benign prostatic hyperplasia, a condition in which the prostate gland becomes enlarged and causes urinary problems. It is also used to treat male-pattern baldness, a genetic condition that causes hair loss in men. However, like any medication, finasteride can cause side effects. Some of the most common side effects of finasteride include impotence, decreased libido, ejaculation disorders, gynaecomastia, and breast tenderness. Additionally, finasteride can cause decreased levels of serum prostate-specific antigen, a protein that is often used to screen for prostate cancer.
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Question 29
Correct
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An 80-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of sudden chest pain that spreads to his jaw and shoulder. His ECG reveals signs of an ST-elevation myocardial infarction, and he is promptly sent for primary coronary intervention, during which a stent is inserted into his left anterior descending artery. To manage his condition, he is prescribed dual antiplatelet therapy consisting of aspirin and ticagrelor. What is the correct explanation for how these drugs work?
Your Answer: Aspirin irreversibly blocks the formation of thromboxane A2
Explanation:The correct answer is that aspirin irreversibly blocks the formation of thromboxane A2. This is because aspirin binds to and inhibits the COX-1 enzyme, which is responsible for producing thromboxane A2. Thromboxane A2 causes platelet aggregation and vasoconstriction, so blocking its formation with aspirin has the opposite effect of decreasing platelet aggregation and promoting vasodilation.
The other answer options are incorrect. Aspirin is not an ADP receptor antagonist, which is a different type of medication that inhibits platelet activation through a different mechanism. Aspirin also does not reversibly block the formation of thromboxane A2, as its binding to COX-1 is irreversible. Finally, ticagrelor is not an inhibitor of thromboxane A2 formation, but rather an ADP receptor antagonist that inhibits platelet activation through a different pathway.
Arachidonic Acid Metabolism: The Role of Leukotrienes and Endoperoxides
Arachidonic acid is a fatty acid that plays a crucial role in the body’s inflammatory response. The metabolism of arachidonic acid involves the production of various compounds, including leukotrienes and endoperoxides. Leukotrienes are produced by leukocytes and can cause constriction of the lungs. LTB4 is produced before leukocytes arrive, while the rest of the leukotrienes (A, C, D, and E) cause lung constriction.
Endoperoxides, on the other hand, are produced by the cyclooxygenase enzyme and can lead to the formation of thromboxane and prostacyclin. Thromboxane is associated with platelet aggregation and vasoconstriction, which can lead to thrombosis. Prostacyclin, on the other hand, has the opposite effect and can cause vasodilation and inhibit platelet aggregation.
Understanding the metabolism of arachidonic acid and the role of these compounds can help in the development of treatments for inflammatory conditions and cardiovascular diseases.
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Question 30
Correct
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A biomolecular research study is being conducted on the effects of glycine on central neurotransmission in elderly individuals.
Which of the following best describes the neurological effect of glycine in this population?Your Answer: Increase chloride influx to create inhibitory effect
Explanation:Glycine functions as an inhibitory neurotransmitter by promoting the transmission of chloride ions into a cell, resulting in an inhibitory effect on the nervous system.
The Role of Glycine in the Body
Glycine is an amino acid that is essential for the production of proteins in the body. While it is not considered an essential amino acid, as it can be synthesized from serine, it plays a crucial role in the body’s functions. Glycine is the primary inhibitory neurotransmitter in the spinal cord and brainstem, where it prevents glutamate-mediated depolarization of the postsynaptic terminal via NMDA receptors. It is also used as an intermediate in the synthesis of porphyrins and purines.
The glycine cleavage system is the major pathway for glycine breakdown, which largely occurs in the liver. However, a defect in this system can lead to glycine encephalopathy, a rare autosomal recessive disorder characterized by myoclonic seizures soon after birth. This disorder is caused by high levels of glycine in the blood and cerebrospinal fluid. While glycine is usually only found in small amounts in proteins, it makes up 35% of collagen. Overall, glycine plays a vital role in the body’s functions and is necessary for maintaining proper health.
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Question 31
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A 16-year-old girl comes to the doctor with a cellulitic infection in her leg. The infection was caused by a pathogen that triggered an immune response from T cells. Where did the T cells develop?
Your Answer: Thymus
Explanation:The bone marrow sends T cells to the thymus, where they mature in organized zones within multi-lobar structures. During thymic education, they acquire a functional TCR and express either CD4 or CD8 molecules.
Cell Surface Proteins and Their Functions
Cell surface proteins play a crucial role in identifying and distinguishing different types of cells. The table above lists the most common cell surface markers associated with particular cell types, such as CD34 for haematopoietic stem cells and CD19 for B cells. Meanwhile, the table below describes the major clusters of differentiation (CD) molecules and their functions. For instance, CD3 is the signalling component of the T cell receptor (TCR) complex, while CD4 is a co-receptor for MHC class II and is used by HIV to enter T cells. CD56, on the other hand, is a unique marker for natural killer cells, while CD95 acts as the FAS receptor and is involved in apoptosis.
Understanding the functions of these cell surface proteins is crucial in various fields, such as immunology and cancer research. By identifying and targeting specific cell surface markers, researchers can develop more effective treatments for diseases and disorders.
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Question 32
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You are the nephrology consultant conducting a post-take ward round. The next patient is a 38-year-old man who was admitted after an overdose of aspirin. His wife reported he took 50 tablets.
Upon admission, he received 55g of activated charcoal and IV sodium bicarbonate. You are contemplating initiating haemodialysis for this patient.
What is the rationale behind your decision to proceed with haemodialysis?Your Answer: Acute renal failure
Explanation:Salicylate overdose can cause a combination of respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis. The respiratory center is initially stimulated, leading to hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis. However, the direct acid effects of salicylates, combined with acute renal failure, can later cause metabolic acidosis. In children, metabolic acidosis tends to be more prominent. Other symptoms of salicylate overdose include tinnitus, lethargy, sweating, pyrexia, nausea/vomiting, hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia, seizures, and coma.
The treatment for salicylate overdose involves general measures such as airway, breathing, and circulation support, as well as administering activated charcoal. Urinary alkalinization with intravenous sodium bicarbonate can help eliminate aspirin in the urine. In severe cases, hemodialysis may be necessary. Indications for hemodialysis include a serum concentration of over 700 mg/L, metabolic acidosis that is resistant to treatment, acute renal failure, pulmonary edema, seizures, and coma.
Salicylates can also cause the uncoupling of oxidative phosphorylation, which leads to decreased adenosine triphosphate production, increased oxygen consumption, and increased carbon dioxide and heat production. It is important to recognize the symptoms of salicylate overdose and seek prompt medical attention to prevent serious complications.
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Question 33
Correct
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A man in his early 50s visits his doctor regarding a recent high cholesterol result. The doctor suggests prescribing a type of medication known as a statin to lower his cholesterol levels.
What specific enzyme do statins target?Your Answer: HMG-CoA reductase
Explanation:Rate-Determining Enzymes in Metabolic Processes
Metabolic processes involve a series of chemical reactions that occur in living organisms to maintain life. Enzymes play a crucial role in these processes by catalyzing the reactions. However, not all enzymes have the same impact on the rate of the reaction. Some enzymes are rate-determining, meaning that they control the overall rate of the process. The table above lists the rate-determining enzymes involved in common metabolic processes.
For example, in the TCA cycle, isocitrate dehydrogenase is the rate-determining enzyme. In glycolysis, phosphofructokinase-1 controls the rate of the process. In gluconeogenesis, fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase is the rate-determining enzyme. Similarly, glycogen synthase controls the rate of glycogenesis, while glycogen phosphorylase controls the rate of glycogenolysis.
Other metabolic processes, such as lipogenesis, lipolysis, cholesterol synthesis, and ketogenesis, also have rate-determining enzymes. Acetyl-CoA carboxylase controls the rate of lipogenesis, while carnitine-palmitoyl transferase I controls the rate of lipolysis. HMG-CoA reductase is the rate-determining enzyme in cholesterol synthesis, while HMG-CoA synthase controls the rate of ketogenesis.
The urea cycle, de novo pyrimidine synthesis, and de novo purine synthesis also have rate-determining enzymes. Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I controls the rate of the urea cycle, while carbamoyl phosphate synthetase II controls the rate of de novo pyrimidine synthesis. Glutamine-PRPP amidotransferase is the rate-determining enzyme in de novo purine synthesis.
Understanding the rate-determining enzymes in metabolic processes is crucial for developing treatments for metabolic disorders and diseases. By targeting these enzymes, researchers can potentially regulate the rate of the process and improve the health outcomes of individuals with these conditions.
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Question 34
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old female presents to her primary care physician complaining of fatigue and dizziness. She has a medical history of anxiety, binge-drinking, bulimia nervosa, and self-harm.
During the examination, the patient appears pale, and mild organomegaly is detected upon palpation of her abdomen.
The following laboratory results were obtained:
- Hemoglobin (Hb): 78 g/l
- Platelets: 200 * 109/l
- White blood cells (WBC): 5 * 109/l
- Mean corpuscular volume (MCV): 76
- Bone marrow aspirate: Sideroblasts present
What could be the underlying cause of her symptoms?Your Answer: Vitamin B1 deficiency
Correct Answer: Vitamin B6 deficiency
Explanation:Sideroblastic anaemia can be caused by a deficiency in Vitamin B6. Other deficiencies and their associated features include muscle weakness and anergia for Vitamin B1 (thiamine), bleeding gums and prolonged wound healing for Vitamin C, alopecia and dermatitis for Vitamin B7 (biotin), and pellagra, diarrhoea, and dermatitis for Vitamin B3 (niacin). Additionally, a deficiency in Vitamin B6 can lead to seizures due to its role as a cofactor in the synthesis of GABA, as well as peripheral neuropathy.
The Importance of Vitamin B6 in the Body
Vitamin B6 is a type of water-soluble vitamin that belongs to the B complex group. Once it enters the body, it is converted into pyridoxal phosphate (PLP), which acts as a cofactor for various biochemical reactions such as transamination, deamination, and decarboxylation. These reactions are essential for the proper functioning of the body.
However, a deficiency in vitamin B6 can lead to various health problems such as peripheral neuropathy and sideroblastic anemia. One of the common causes of vitamin B6 deficiency is isoniazid therapy, which is used to treat tuberculosis. Therefore, it is important to ensure that the body receives an adequate amount of vitamin B6 to maintain optimal health.
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man, Tom, is brought into the emergency department after a fall. He was discovered by his daughter. Tom is disoriented and unable to provide a clear explanation of what happened. His daughter knows that Tom takes a blood thinner but cannot recall its name. She does know that Tom began taking it after having a metallic heart valve and that he can no longer eat grapefruit for breakfast.
A CT scan of Tom's head reveals a significant acute subdural hemorrhage, and the emergency department physician prescribes IV vitamin K.
How does IV vitamin K assist in this situation?Your Answer: Activates clotting factors III, IV, V and VIII
Correct Answer: Activates clotting factors II, VII, IX and X
Explanation:Vitamin K plays a crucial role as a co-factor in the activation of clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X through carboxylation. The patient’s use of warfarin, an anticoagulant medication, suggests that they have a metallic heart valve. Warfarin inhibits vitamin K-epoxide-reductase (VKOR), which is responsible for converting vitamin K into its active state. By inhibiting VKOR, warfarin prevents the activation of the vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. However, administering the active form of vitamin K can reverse the effects of warfarin by allowing the activation of these clotting factors without VKOR. It is important for patients taking warfarin to be mindful of their diet, as some foods can interact with the medication and affect its effectiveness. Clotting factors III, IV, V, and VIII are not affected by warfarin as they function independently of vitamin K. Vitamin K does not bind directly to warfarin or affect its metabolism.
Understanding Vitamin K
Vitamin K is a type of fat-soluble vitamin that plays a crucial role in the carboxylation of clotting factors such as II, VII, IX, and X. This vitamin acts as a cofactor in the process, which is essential for blood clotting. In clinical settings, vitamin K is used to reverse the effects of warfarinisation, a process that inhibits blood clotting. However, it may take up to four hours for the INR to change after administering vitamin K.
Vitamin K deficiency can occur in conditions that affect fat absorption since it is a fat-soluble vitamin. Additionally, prolonged use of broad-spectrum antibiotics can eliminate gut flora, leading to a deficiency in vitamin K. It is essential to maintain adequate levels of vitamin K to ensure proper blood clotting and prevent bleeding disorders.
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Question 36
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman presents with chest wall cellulitis after a mastectomy. Upon examination, her skin appears significantly red. Among the following acute inflammatory mediators, which one is unlikely to cause vasodilation?
Your Answer: Prostaglandins
Correct Answer: Serotonin
Explanation:Erythema is a common characteristic of acute inflammation, which is caused by various potent mediators that promote vascular dilatation. These mediators include histamine, prostaglandins, nitric oxide, platelet activating factor, complement C5a (and C3a), and lysosomal compounds. Although serotonin is also associated with acute inflammation, it acts as a vasoconstrictor. However, the effects of serotonin depend on the condition of the vessels in the tissues. When tissues and vessels are healthy, they respond to a serotonin infusion with vasodilation, resulting in flushing (as seen in carcinoid syndrome). Conversely, when released from damaged platelets, serotonin worsens cardiac ischemia in myocardial infarcts.
Acute inflammation is a response to cell injury in vascularized tissue. It is triggered by chemical factors produced in response to a stimulus, such as fibrin, antibodies, bradykinin, and the complement system. The goal of acute inflammation is to neutralize the offending agent and initiate the repair process. The main characteristics of inflammation are fluid exudation, exudation of plasma proteins, and migration of white blood cells.
The vascular changes that occur during acute inflammation include transient vasoconstriction, vasodilation, increased permeability of vessels, RBC concentration, and neutrophil margination. These changes are followed by leukocyte extravasation, margination, rolling, and adhesion of neutrophils, transmigration across the endothelium, and migration towards chemotactic stimulus.
Leukocyte activation is induced by microbes, products of necrotic cells, antigen-antibody complexes, production of prostaglandins, degranulation and secretion of lysosomal enzymes, cytokine secretion, and modulation of leukocyte adhesion molecules. This leads to phagocytosis and termination of the acute inflammatory response.
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Question 37
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A 28-week-old premature baby is born and develops tachypnoea, tachycardia, and chest wall retractions shortly after birth. The neonate also shows blue discolouration of the skin. The doctor starts administering intravenous fluids and CPAP and informs the parents that the baby's lungs are lacking surfactant, a substance that aids breathing.
What type of cells produce surfactant?Your Answer: Type 2 pneumocytes
Explanation:Infant respiratory distress syndrome, also known as surfactant deficiency disorder, is caused by a lack of surfactant development and is commonly found in premature infants. To identify the correct answer, we must focus on lung cells, excluding paneth cells and microfold cells found in the intestinal epithelium, as well as alveolar macrophages, which are responsible for clearing infections and debris. The correct answer is type 2 pneumocytes, which produce pulmonary surfactant, while type 1 pneumocytes facilitate gas exchange between the alveoli and the blood.
Surfactant Deficient Lung Disease in Premature Infants
Surfactant deficient lung disease (SDLD), previously known as hyaline membrane disease, is a condition that affects premature infants. It occurs due to the underproduction of surfactant and the immaturity of the lungs’ structure. The risk of SDLD decreases with gestation, with 50% of infants born at 26-28 weeks and 25% of infants born at 30-31 weeks being affected. Other risk factors include male sex, diabetic mothers, Caesarean section, and being the second born of premature twins.
The clinical features of SDLD are similar to those of respiratory distress in newborns, including tachypnea, intercostal recession, expiratory grunting, and cyanosis. Chest x-rays typically show a ground-glass appearance with an indistinct heart border.
Prevention during pregnancy involves administering maternal corticosteroids to induce fetal lung maturation. Management of SDLD includes oxygen therapy, assisted ventilation, and exogenous surfactant given via an endotracheal tube.
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Question 38
Correct
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A 26-year-old male patient complains of malaise, weight loss, and lymphadenopathy. After a lymph node biopsy, the histology report reveals the presence of granuloma formation and central necrosis. What could be the probable underlying cause?
Your Answer: Infection with Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Explanation:In TB, the presence of necrosis within granulomas is a common histological feature that suggests an infectious cause. On the other hand, Churg Strauss syndrome is a type of vasculitis that typically shows granulomas in its histological presentation, but necrosis is not commonly observed.
Understanding Tuberculosis: The Pathophysiology and Risk Factors
Tuberculosis is a bacterial infection caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis. The pathophysiology of tuberculosis involves the migration of macrophages to regional lymph nodes, forming a Ghon complex. This complex leads to the formation of a granuloma, which is a collection of epithelioid histiocytes with caseous necrosis in the center. The inflammatory response is mediated by a type 4 hypersensitivity reaction. While healthy individuals can contain the disease, immunocompromised individuals are at risk of developing disseminated (miliary) TB.
Several risk factors increase the likelihood of developing tuberculosis. These include having lived in Asia, Latin America, Eastern Europe, or Africa for years, exposure to an infectious TB case, and being infected with HIV. Immunocompromised individuals, such as diabetics, patients on immunosuppressive therapy, malnourished individuals, or those with haematological malignancies, are also at risk. Additionally, silicosis and apical fibrosis increase the likelihood of developing tuberculosis. Understanding the pathophysiology and risk factors of tuberculosis is crucial in preventing and treating this infectious disease.
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Question 39
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman presents with cellulitis surrounding her leg ulcer. A skin swab is taken and she is started on oral flucloxacillin. The swab results reveal Group A streptococcus. What modifications should be made to her antibiotic treatment?
Your Answer: No change
Correct Answer: Add penicillin
Explanation:When it comes to group A streptococcal infections, penicillin is the preferred antibiotic. If a patient with cellulitis is confirmed to have a streptococcal infection, the BNF recommends discontinuing flucloxacillin because of its high sensitivity. However, it’s important to consider the inconsistent absorption of phenoxymethylpenicillin.
Streptococci are spherical bacteria that are gram-positive. They can be classified into two types based on their hemolytic properties: alpha and beta. Alpha haemolytic streptococci, such as Streptococcus pneumoniae and Streptococcus viridans, cause partial hemolysis. Pneumococcus is a common cause of pneumonia, meningitis, and otitis media. Beta haemolytic streptococci, on the other hand, cause complete hemolysis and can be further divided into groups A-H. Only groups A, B, and D are significant in humans. Group A streptococci, particularly Streptococcus pyogenes, are responsible for various infections such as erysipelas, impetigo, cellulitis, and pharyngitis/tonsillitis. They can also cause rheumatic fever or post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis due to immunological reactions. Scarlet fever can also be caused by erythrogenic toxins produced by group A streptococci. Group B streptococci, specifically Streptococcus agalactiae, can lead to neonatal meningitis and septicaemia. Enterococcus belongs to group D streptococci.
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- General Principles
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man with cystic fibrosis comes in for a routine checkup. You observe that he is not taking any vitamin supplements and are worried about the potential impact on his health.
What inquiries would you make about his eyes?Your Answer: Pain and redness of his eyes
Correct Answer: Difficulty seeing in the dark
Explanation:Night blindness is a symptom of vitamin A deficiency.
If a person has cystic fibrosis, they may experience fat malabsorption which can lead to a deficiency in vitamin A, causing night blindness.
While pain and redness in the eye can be caused by various factors, it is important to consider vitamin A deficiency as a possible cause, especially if the patient has no risk factors for other conditions such as scleritis or acute angle glaucoma.
Worsened central vision and distorted straight lines are common symptoms of age-related macular degeneration, which typically affects older individuals. Therefore, it would not be relevant to ask about these symptoms in a young patient.
Open angle glaucoma is a condition that can cause peripheral vision loss, and its incidence increases with age.
Vitamin A, also known as retinol, is a type of fat soluble vitamin that plays several important roles in the body. One of its key functions is being converted into retinal, which is a crucial visual pigment. Additionally, vitamin A is essential for proper epithelial cell differentiation and acts as an antioxidant to protect cells from damage.
When the body lacks sufficient vitamin A, it can lead to a condition known as night blindness. This is because retinal is necessary for the eyes to adjust to low light conditions, and a deficiency can impair this process. Therefore, it is important to ensure adequate intake of vitamin A through a balanced diet or supplements to maintain optimal health.
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- General Principles
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Question 41
Correct
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A 2-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department by her father, who reports that she has been unwell for a few weeks, refusing food and crying excessively. He mentions that she has lost weight and appears much paler than usual. Upon examination, a large mass is detected in the abdomen, crossing the midline.
A CT scan of the abdomen is scheduled after a urinalysis reveals elevated levels of homovanillic acid and vanillylmandelic acid. Based on the probable diagnosis, what is a common association?Your Answer: N-MYC proto-oncogene
Explanation:Neuroblastoma is a malignant tumor that arises from sympathetic nervous tissue, with the adrenal glands being the most common primary site. It typically affects children under the age of 2 and can grow and spread rapidly, causing symptoms such as faltering growth, nausea and vomiting, and a palpable abdominal mass that often crosses the midline. Urinalysis can detect catecholamine derivatives, which can aid in diagnosis, and imaging is necessary to identify the site of origin.
Treatment depends on the tumor’s risk stratification, which is determined by staging and N-MYC status. Mutations in the N-MYC proto-oncogene are associated with a worse prognosis. APC gene mutations, which cause familial adenomatous polyposis and increase the risk of bowel cancer, are not linked to neuroblastoma. Similarly, the BRCA gene, which is implicated in breast and ovarian cancers, is not associated with neuroblastoma. Elevated calcitonin levels may indicate medullary thyroid cancer but are not associated with neuroblastoma. Elevated Ca-19-9 levels are seen in pancreatic or cholangiocarcinoma and are not associated with neuroblastoma.
Oncogenes are genes that promote cancer and are derived from normal genes called proto-oncogenes. Proto-oncogenes play a crucial role in cellular growth and differentiation. However, a gain of function in oncogenes increases the risk of cancer. Only one mutated copy of the gene is needed for cancer to occur, making it a dominant effect. Oncogenes are responsible for up to 20% of human cancers and can become oncogenes through mutation, chromosomal translocation, or increased protein expression.
In contrast, tumor suppressor genes restrict or repress cellular proliferation in normal cells. Their inactivation through mutation or germ line incorporation is implicated in various cancers, including renal, colonic, breast, and bladder cancer. Tumor suppressor genes, such as p53, offer protection by causing apoptosis of damaged cells. Other well-known genes include BRCA1 and BRCA2. Loss of function in tumor suppressor genes results in an increased risk of cancer, while gain of function in oncogenes increases the risk of cancer.
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Question 42
Correct
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A 28-year-old patient arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of severe headache and abdominal pain that started 2 hours ago. Upon assessment, the patient's blood pressure is measured at 210/115 mmHg and heart rate at 140 beats per minute.
Further tests reveal elevated levels of urinary metanephrines and serum noradrenaline. A CT scan of the abdomen confirms the presence of a pheochromocytoma in the right adrenal gland.
In which part of the nervous system is this neurotransmitter secreted?Your Answer: postganglionic neurotransmitter of the sympathetic nervous system
Explanation:The correct answer is that noradrenaline is the postganglionic neurotransmitter of the sympathetic nervous system. It is secreted by postsynaptic neurons of the sympathetic nervous system and acts on effector organs such as vascular smooth muscle and sweat glands. The other options provided are incorrect as they refer to different neurotransmitters and nervous systems.
Understanding Norepinephrine: Its Synthesis and Effects on Mental Health
Norepinephrine is a neurotransmitter that is synthesized in the locus ceruleus, a small region in the brainstem. This neurotransmitter plays a crucial role in the body’s fight or flight response, which is activated in response to stress or danger. When released, norepinephrine increases heart rate, blood pressure, and breathing rate, preparing the body to respond to a perceived threat.
In terms of mental health, norepinephrine levels have been linked to anxiety and depression. Elevated levels of norepinephrine have been observed in individuals with anxiety, which can lead to symptoms such as increased heart rate, sweating, and trembling. On the other hand, depleted levels of norepinephrine have been associated with depression, which can cause feelings of sadness, hopelessness, and low energy.
It is important to note that norepinephrine is just one of many neurotransmitters that play a role in mental health. However, understanding its synthesis and effects can provide insight into the complex interplay between brain chemistry and mental health. By studying neurotransmitters like norepinephrine, researchers can develop new treatments and therapies for individuals struggling with anxiety, depression, and other mental health conditions.
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- General Principles
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Question 43
Correct
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A 9-year-old girl is taken to her doctor by her father with intense throat discomfort and is diagnosed with a probable bacterial throat infection. The doctor prescribes an antibiotic that specifically targets bacterial protein synthesis.
What is the name of the prescribed antibiotic?Your Answer: Erythromycin
Explanation:Bacterial protein synthesis is the target of erythromycin.
Bacterial division is inhibited by ciprofloxacin through targeting DNA gyrase.
The production of bacterial cell wall is inhibited by penicillin through targeting the beta-lactam ring.
The activation of folic acid in susceptible organisms is inhibited by trimethoprim.
The mechanism of action of antibiotics can be categorized into inhibiting cell wall formation, protein synthesis, DNA synthesis, and RNA synthesis. Beta-lactams such as penicillins and cephalosporins inhibit cell wall formation by blocking cross-linking of peptidoglycan cell walls. Antibiotics that inhibit protein synthesis include aminoglycosides, chloramphenicol, macrolides, tetracyclines, and fusidic acid. Quinolones, metronidazole, sulphonamides, and trimethoprim inhibit DNA synthesis, while rifampicin inhibits RNA synthesis.
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Question 44
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As a junior doctor on the infectious diseases ward, you come across a 42-year-old man who has been experiencing shortness of breath, haemoptysis, weight loss, and cough for the past two months. He has lost 5kg in weight and has recently returned from India where he worked for 18 months. Blood tests show no abnormalities, but a chest x-ray reveals left upper zone consolidation surrounding a round, mass lesion. Further evaluation through high-resolution CT (HRCT) of the chest shows left upper lobe consolidation surrounding a 1.7cm, smooth rimmed lesion with a degree of calcification, with no evidence of cavitation or other acute lung pathology. The diagnosis is primary tuberculosis with evidence of tuberculoma formation. Which cytokine is integral to the development of this man's CT findings?
Your Answer: Interferon-gamma
Explanation:Interferon-gamma is primarily produced by natural killer cells and T helper cells, and plays a key role in macrophage activation, leading to the formation of granulomas. It is also important in preventing tuberculosis by inhibiting intracellular phagolysosomal maturation, allowing for the destruction of infected cells. Interferon-alpha, produced by leukocytes and dendritic cells, has strong antiviral action and activates natural killer cells to form an antiviral and anti-tumor response. Interferon-beta, produced primarily by fibroblasts, also has strong antiviral action and is important in the formation of antiviral and anti-tumor responses. Interleukin-12 is important in tuberculosis infection by activating T helper cell differentiation and natural killer cell activation, and aiding in interferon-gamma release for further macrophage activation, but it does not lead to granuloma formation.
Understanding Interferons
Interferons are a type of cytokine that the body produces in response to viral infections and neoplasia. They are categorized based on the type of receptor they bind to and their cellular origin. IFN-alpha and IFN-beta bind to type 1 receptors, while IFN-gamma binds only to type 2 receptors.
IFN-alpha is produced by leucocytes and has antiviral properties. It is commonly used to treat hepatitis B and C, Kaposi’s sarcoma, metastatic renal cell cancer, and hairy cell leukemia. However, it can cause flu-like symptoms and depression as side effects.
IFN-beta is produced by fibroblasts and also has antiviral properties. It is particularly useful in reducing the frequency of exacerbations in patients with relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis.
IFN-gamma is mainly produced by natural killer cells and T helper cells. It has weaker antiviral properties but plays a significant role in immunomodulation, particularly in macrophage activation. It may be beneficial in treating chronic granulomatous disease and osteopetrosis.
Understanding the different types of interferons and their functions can help in the development of targeted treatments for various diseases.
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Question 45
Incorrect
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A 3-year-old girl visits her pediatrician with a chest infection. She has been experiencing recurrent chest infections for the past year and has been failing to grow, with her weight and height below the fourth percentile. Her mother reports that she has been having frequent bowel movements that appear greasy and have an unpleasant odor. A sweat test is ordered and comes back positive.
In the probable condition, what is the function of leukotriene B4 (LTB4)?Your Answer: Bronchoconstriction
Correct Answer: Neutrophil chemotaxis
Explanation:The correct answer is neutrophil chemotaxis. This child’s symptoms and positive sweat test indicate a diagnosis of cystic fibrosis, which leads to recurrent infections and activation of LTB4. LTB4 then recruits neutrophils, causing airway inflammation and eventual lung damage. LTC4, LTD4, and LTE4 are known for their role in bronchial smooth muscle contraction, while thromboxane A2 (TXA2) is responsible for platelet aggregation and vasoconstriction.
Arachidonic Acid Metabolism: The Role of Leukotrienes and Endoperoxides
Arachidonic acid is a fatty acid that plays a crucial role in the body’s inflammatory response. The metabolism of arachidonic acid involves the production of various compounds, including leukotrienes and endoperoxides. Leukotrienes are produced by leukocytes and can cause constriction of the lungs. LTB4 is produced before leukocytes arrive, while the rest of the leukotrienes (A, C, D, and E) cause lung constriction.
Endoperoxides, on the other hand, are produced by the cyclooxygenase enzyme and can lead to the formation of thromboxane and prostacyclin. Thromboxane is associated with platelet aggregation and vasoconstriction, which can lead to thrombosis. Prostacyclin, on the other hand, has the opposite effect and can cause vasodilation and inhibit platelet aggregation.
Understanding the metabolism of arachidonic acid and the role of these compounds can help in the development of treatments for inflammatory conditions and cardiovascular diseases.
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Question 46
Correct
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A toddler is brought to the emergency room with elevated respiratory rate. The child is 2 years old and appears otherwise normal. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A baby was delivered through an emergency Caesarean section at 40 weeks due to pathological cardiotocography. The baby had Apgar scores of 9 and 10 at 1 and 5 minutes, respectively. However, the midwife noticed an elevated respiratory rate soon after delivery. The mother's antenatal history was unremarkable, and her observations were normal during labor.Your Answer: Transient tachypnoea of the newborn (TTN)
Explanation:Understanding Transient Tachypnoea of the Newborn
Transient tachypnoea of the newborn (TTN) is a common respiratory condition that affects newborns. It is caused by the delayed absorption of fluid in the lungs, which can lead to breathing difficulties. TTN is more common in babies born via caesarean section, as the fluid in their lungs may not be squeezed out during the birth process.
Diagnosis of TTN is usually made through a chest x-ray, which may show hyperinflation of the lungs and fluid in the horizontal fissure. Treatment for TTN involves observation and supportive care, with supplementary oxygen sometimes required to maintain oxygen levels.
The good news is that TTN usually resolves within 1-2 days, and most babies recover fully without any long-term complications.
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Question 47
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A pharmaceutical company is seeking participants for a clinical trial of a new drug treatment for Crohn's disease. They aim to enroll approximately 250 individuals with the condition to determine whether the drug is effective in reducing disease activity compared to a placebo.
What stage of the clinical trial process does this treatment currently fall under?Your Answer: Phase 2
Explanation:Phase 2 trials involve testing efficacy and adverse effects on actual patients, typically with a small sample size of around 200 individuals. In this study, the focus is on comparing the efficacy of the treatment to a placebo, which aligns with the objectives of a phase 2 trial.
Stages of Drug Development
Drug development is a complex process that involves several stages before a drug can be approved for marketing. The process begins with Phase 1, which involves small studies on healthy volunteers to assess the pharmacodynamics and pharmacokinetics of the drug. This phase typically involves around 100 participants.
Phase 2 follows, which involves small studies on actual patients to examine the drug’s efficacy and adverse effects. This phase typically involves between 100-300 patients.
Phase 3 is the largest phase and involves larger studies of between 500-5,000 patients. This phase examines the drug’s efficacy and adverse effects and may compare it with existing treatments. Special groups such as the elderly or those with renal issues may also be studied during this phase.
If the drug is shown to be safe and effective, it may be approved for marketing. However, Phase 4, also known as post-marketing surveillance, is still necessary. This phase involves monitoring the drug’s safety and effectiveness in a larger population over a longer period of time.
In summary, drug development involves several stages, each with its own specific purpose and participant size. The process is rigorous to ensure that drugs are safe and effective before they are marketed to the public.
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Question 48
Correct
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A 17-year-old female comes to the doctor's office. She had unprotected sex five days ago and is now five days into her pregnancy. At what stage is the fertilized tissue?
Your Answer: Blastocyst
Explanation:After the sperm penetrates the secondary oocyte, the germinal vesicle breakdown is stimulated by the LH surge, leading to the completion of meiosis and the formation of the first polar body. Following fertilization, pronuclear and zygote formation occur, followed by rapid cleavage, compaction, and polarization.
Around day 5, the blastocyst is formed, and implantation occurs between days 5 and 6. On day 1, the zygote is formed, and by late day 1, it reaches the 2-cell stage. The 4-cell stage is reached early on day 2, the 8-cell stage early on day 3, and the 16-cell stage late on day 3. The morula is formed on day 4, and the blastocyst is formed on day 5.
Embryology is the study of the development of an organism from the moment of fertilization to birth. During the first week of embryonic development, the fertilized egg implants itself into the uterine wall. By the second week, the bilaminar disk is formed, consisting of two layers of cells. The primitive streak appears in the third week, marking the beginning of gastrulation and the formation of the notochord.
As the embryo enters its fourth week, limb buds begin to form, and the neural tube closes. The heart also begins to beat during this time. By week 10, the genitals are differentiated, and the embryo exhibits intermittent breathing movements. These early events in embryonic development are crucial for the formation of the body’s major organs and structures. Understanding the timeline of these events can provide insight into the complex process of human development.
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Question 49
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old male presents with a non-healing ulcer on his left foot. Blood cultures grow MRSA. Which antibiotic would you consider in addition to vancomycin to cover this?
Your Answer: Ciprofloxacin
Correct Answer: Rifampicin
Explanation:Other antibiotics may not be effective against MRSA due to its resistance.
Understanding MRSA and its Screening and Treatment
Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is a type of bacteria that is resistant to many antibiotics. It is a dangerous organism that can cause hospital-acquired infections. To prevent the spread of MRSA, patients awaiting elective admissions and all emergency admissions are screened for the bacteria. The screening involves a nasal swab and examination of skin lesions or wounds. If a patient is identified as a carrier of MRSA, they can be treated with mupirocin for the nose and chlorhexidine gluconate for the skin. Antibiotics such as vancomycin, teicoplanin, and linezolid are commonly used to treat MRSA infections. However, newer antibiotics like linezolid, quinupristin/dalfopristin combinations, and tigecycline should be reserved for resistant cases. It is important to understand MRSA and its screening and treatment to prevent the spread of this dangerous organism.
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Question 50
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A 35-year-old male visits his GP with a similar complaint. He reports grazing his leg while hiking in the hills. Despite cleaning the wound, he experiences inflammation and tenderness upon touch. Additionally, he has a fever and feels ill. Due to his penicillin allergy, you prescribe clarithromycin. What is the most precise explanation of this drug's mechanism of action?
Your Answer: Inhibition of the 50s ribosome subunit
Explanation:Macrolides prevent the production of proteins by attaching to the 23S rRNA found in the 50S ribosomal subunit, which hinders translocation. Clarithromycin, a macrolide, obstructs protein synthesis by binding to the 50S subunit of the bacterial ribosome. Tetracyclines, on the other hand, inhibit the 30S subunit. Bacterial nucleic acid synthesis is disrupted by quinolones, sulfonamides, and trimethoprim. Penicillin and cephalosporins work by interfering with cell wall synthesis, while lincomycins prevent bacterial cell membrane synthesis.
Macrolides are a class of antibiotics that include erythromycin, clarithromycin, and azithromycin. They work by blocking translocation during bacterial protein synthesis, ultimately inhibiting bacterial growth. While they are generally considered bacteriostatic, their effectiveness can vary depending on the dose and type of organism being treated. Resistance to macrolides can occur through post-transcriptional methylation of the 23S bacterial ribosomal RNA.
However, macrolides can also have adverse effects. They may cause prolongation of the QT interval and gastrointestinal side-effects, such as nausea. Cholestatic jaundice is a potential risk, but using erythromycin stearate may reduce this risk. Additionally, macrolides are known to inhibit the cytochrome P450 isoenzyme CYP3A4, which metabolizes statins. Therefore, it is important to stop taking statins while on a course of macrolides to avoid the risk of myopathy and rhabdomyolysis. Azithromycin is also associated with hearing loss and tinnitus.
Overall, while macrolides can be effective antibiotics, they do come with potential risks and side-effects. It is important to weigh the benefits and risks before starting a course of treatment with these antibiotics.
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Question 51
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A 12-year-old girl with a complicated medical history, including asthma and epilepsy, is scheduled for a medication review. Upon reviewing her medical records, you notice that she is currently taking a medication that is contraindicated for her age group. Which of the following medications is contraindicated for this patient?
Your Answer: Doxycycline
Explanation:Doxycycline, a type of tetracycline antibiotic, should not be used in children under 12 years of age.
Understanding Tetracyclines: Antibiotics Used in Clinical Practice
Tetracyclines are a group of antibiotics that are commonly used in clinical practice. They work by inhibiting protein synthesis, specifically by binding to the 30S subunit and blocking the binding of aminoacyl-tRNA. However, bacteria can develop resistance to tetracyclines through increased efflux by plasmid-encoded transport pumps or ribosomal protection.
Tetracyclines are used to treat a variety of conditions such as acne vulgaris, Lyme disease, Chlamydia, and Mycoplasma pneumoniae. However, they should not be given to children under 12 years of age or to pregnant or breastfeeding women due to the risk of discolouration of the infant’s teeth.
While tetracyclines are generally well-tolerated, they can cause adverse effects such as photosensitivity, angioedema, and black hairy tongue. It is important to be aware of these potential side effects and to use tetracyclines only as prescribed by a healthcare professional.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 52
Correct
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A nulliparous woman visits her obstetrician at 28 weeks of pregnancy. She has a history of asthma and has noticed a deterioration in her asthma symptoms over the past few days. She is concerned that her asthma may affect her unborn child, as she has read online about the presence of extra antibodies in her blood due to asthma. Which immunoglobulin can be transmitted to her baby?
Your Answer: IgG
Explanation:The immunoglobulin that fixes complement and is able to pass to the fetal circulation is IgG. This immunoglobulin is produced by plasma cells and is present in all body fluids, being the most abundant in the body. IgG is the only immunoglobulin that can provide immunity to a fetus by crossing the placenta. It indirectly promotes phagocytosis through complement activation. To remember this, you can associate the letter G with gestation.
On the other hand, IgA is the predominant immunoglobulin found in breast milk and in the secretions of digestive, respiratory, and urogenital tracts and systems. However, it does not transmit to the fetus during pregnancy.
IgD does not pass into the fetal circulation and is poorly understood. It is found on naive B cells and is involved in B cell activation, which in turn activates mast cell release. Mast cells produce antimicrobial factors involved in immune defense.
Finally, IgE is involved in asthma and allergic reactions, as well as in protecting against parasitic worms and other allergens. It acts by binding to the allergen, activating mast cells and basophils. However, it does not pass into the fetal circulation.
Immunoglobulins, also known as antibodies, are proteins produced by the immune system to help fight off infections and diseases. There are five types of immunoglobulins found in the body, each with their own unique characteristics.
IgG is the most abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and plays a crucial role in enhancing phagocytosis of bacteria and viruses. It also fixes complement and can be passed to the fetal circulation.
IgA is the most commonly produced immunoglobulin in the body and is found in the secretions of digestive, respiratory, and urogenital tracts and systems. It provides localized protection on mucous membranes and is transported across the interior of the cell via transcytosis.
IgM is the first immunoglobulin to be secreted in response to an infection and fixes complement, but does not pass to the fetal circulation. It is also responsible for producing anti-A, B blood antibodies.
IgD’s role in the immune system is largely unknown, but it is involved in the activation of B cells.
IgE is the least abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and is responsible for mediating type 1 hypersensitivity reactions. It provides immunity to parasites such as helminths and binds to Fc receptors found on the surface of mast cells and basophils.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 53
Incorrect
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As a medical student in general practice, a 45-year-old male patient complains of fatigue and is diagnosed with anemia. What is the recommended daily intake of iron for an average person?
Your Answer: 5-8g
Correct Answer: 8-14mg
Explanation:According to the NHS, the recommended daily intake of iron is 8.7mg for men (aged 19-64) and 14.8mg for women (aged 19-50). Women aged 50-64 require 8.7mg per day. It is possible to obtain sufficient iron from a balanced diet.
Iron Metabolism: Absorption, Distribution, Transport, Storage, and Excretion
Iron is an essential mineral that plays a crucial role in various physiological processes. The absorption of iron occurs mainly in the upper small intestine, particularly the duodenum. Only about 10% of dietary iron is absorbed, and ferrous iron (Fe2+) is much better absorbed than ferric iron (Fe3+). The absorption of iron is regulated according to the body’s need and can be increased by vitamin C and gastric acid. However, it can be decreased by proton pump inhibitors, tetracycline, gastric achlorhydria, and tannin found in tea.
The total body iron is approximately 4g, with 70% of it being present in hemoglobin, 25% in ferritin and haemosiderin, 4% in myoglobin, and 0.1% in plasma iron. Iron is transported in the plasma as Fe3+ bound to transferrin. It is stored in tissues as ferritin, and the lost iron is excreted via the intestinal tract following desquamation.
In summary, iron metabolism involves the absorption, distribution, transport, storage, and excretion of iron in the body. Understanding these processes is crucial in maintaining iron homeostasis and preventing iron-related disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 54
Incorrect
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What immunological changes are observed in advancing HIV infection?
Your Answer: Increased type IV hypersensitivity responses
Correct Answer: Increase in B2-microglobulin levels
Explanation:Immunological Changes in Progressive HIV
In progressive HIV, there are several immunological changes that occur. These changes include a reduction in CD4 count, an increase in B2-microglobulin, a decrease in IL-2 production, polyclonal B-cell activation, a decrease in NK cell function, and reduced delayed hypersensitivity responses. These changes can lead to a weakened immune system and an increased susceptibility to infections. It is important for individuals with HIV to receive proper medical care and treatment to manage these immunological changes and maintain their overall health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 55
Correct
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A 30-year-old female arrives at the antenatal emergency unit with vaginal bleeding. After diagnosis, she is treated for a miscarriage using misoprostol.
Misoprostol is an agonist of the prostaglandin E2 (PGE2) receptor, which is a type of G-protein coupled receptor. Can you identify another receptor that is transduced in the same manner?Your Answer: Adrenoceptors
Explanation:Adrenoceptors belong to the G-protein coupled receptor family, while the glucocorticoid and oestrogen receptors are steroid receptors, and the epidermal growth factor receptor is a receptor tyrosine kinase.
Adrenoceptors are a type of receptor found in the body that respond to the hormone adrenaline. There are four main types of adrenoceptors: alpha-1, alpha-2, beta-1, and beta-2. Each type of adrenoceptor is responsible for different physiological responses in the body.
Alpha-1 adrenoceptors are found in various tissues throughout the body and are responsible for vasoconstriction, relaxation of GI smooth muscle, salivary secretion, and hepatic glycogenolysis. On the other hand, alpha-2 adrenoceptors are mainly presynaptic and inhibit the release of neurotransmitters such as norepinephrine and acetylcholine from autonomic nerves. They also inhibit insulin and promote platelet aggregation.
Beta-1 adrenoceptors are mainly located in the heart and are responsible for increasing heart rate and force. Beta-2 adrenoceptors, on the other hand, are found in various tissues such as the lungs, blood vessels, and GI tract. They are responsible for vasodilation, bronchodilation, and relaxation of GI smooth muscle. Lastly, beta-3 adrenoceptors are found in adipose tissue and promote lipolysis.
All adrenoceptors are G-protein coupled, meaning they activate intracellular signaling pathways when activated by adrenaline. Alpha-1 adrenoceptors activate phospholipase C, which leads to the production of inositol triphosphate (IP3) and diacylglycerol (DAG). Alpha-2 adrenoceptors inhibit adenylate cyclase, while beta-1 and beta-2 adrenoceptors stimulate adenylate cyclase. Beta-3 adrenoceptors also stimulate adenylate cyclase.
In summary, adrenoceptors play a crucial role in regulating various physiological responses in the body. Understanding their functions and signaling pathways can help in the development of drugs that target these receptors for therapeutic purposes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 56
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman is being seen in the Oncology department for evaluation. She has been diagnosed with osteosarcoma of the left femur. Her medical history reveals a previous diagnosis of rhabdomyosarcoma, which was effectively treated when she was eleven years old.
What is the typical biological function of the protein impacted in the patient's underlying genetic disorder?Your Answer: Identification of double-strand DNA breaks
Correct Answer: Holding the cell cycle at the G1/S phase checkpoint to allow detection and repair of DNA damage
Explanation:The TP53 gene, which encodes the protein p53, is crucial in preventing the cell cycle from entering the S phase until DNA has been checked and repaired. This is particularly important in individuals with Li-Fraumeni syndrome (LFS), an inherited susceptibility to cancer that often results in the development of multiple sarcomas from a young age. LFS is caused by a mutation in one allele of the TP53 gene. One of the key functions of p53 is to hold the cell cycle at the G1/S checkpoint, allowing for the detection and repair of any DNA damage before replication occurs.
The identification of double-strand DNA breaks is not a function of p53. This is typically carried out by the MRN protein complex, which acts upstream of DNA repair proteins such as BRCA1 and BRCA2.
Inhibition of apoptosis is also not a primary function of p53. While p53 can promote apoptosis if cell cycle checkpoints are not satisfied, its primary role is in regulating the cell cycle.
Similarly, mismatch repair of single-strand DNA breaks is not a function of p53. This is typically carried out by mismatch repair proteins such as MLH-1 and MSH-2, which may be mutated in the familial cancer syndrome Lynch syndrome.
Understanding p53 and its Role in Cancer
p53 is a gene that helps suppress tumours and is located on chromosome 17p. It is frequently mutated in breast, colon, and lung cancer. The gene is believed to be essential in regulating the cell cycle, preventing cells from entering the S phase until DNA has been checked and repaired. Additionally, p53 may play a crucial role in apoptosis, the process of programmed cell death.
Li-Fraumeni syndrome is a rare genetic disorder that is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern. It is characterised by the early onset of various cancers, including sarcoma, breast cancer, and leukaemia. The condition is caused by mutations in the p53 gene, which can lead to a loss of its tumour-suppressing function. Understanding the role of p53 in cancer can help researchers develop new treatments and therapies for those affected by the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 57
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old man experiences septic shock after undergoing a Hartmans procedure for perforated diverticular disease. He is initiated on an adrenaline drip. What is the least probable outcome?
Your Answer: Lipolysis
Correct Answer: Coronary artery vasospasm
Explanation:The β 1 receptors mediate its cardiac effects, while the β 2 receptors in the coronary arteries remain unaffected.
Understanding Adrenaline and Its Effects on the Body
Adrenaline is a hormone that is responsible for the body’s fight or flight response. It is released by the adrenal glands and acts on both alpha and beta adrenergic receptors. Adrenaline has various effects on the body, including increasing cardiac output and total peripheral resistance, causing vasoconstriction in the skin and kidneys, and stimulating glycogenolysis and glycolysis in the liver and muscle.
Adrenaline also has different actions on alpha and beta adrenergic receptors. It inhibits insulin secretion by the pancreas and stimulates glycogenolysis in the liver and muscle through alpha receptors. On the other hand, it stimulates glucagon secretion in the pancreas, ACTH, and lipolysis by adipose tissue through beta receptors. Adrenaline also acts on beta 2 receptors in skeletal muscle vessels, causing vasodilation.
Adrenaline is used in emergency situations such as anaphylaxis and cardiac arrest. The recommended adult life support adrenaline doses for anaphylaxis are 0.5ml 1:1,000 IM, while for cardiac arrest, it is 10ml 1:10,000 IV or 1ml of 1:1000 IV. However, accidental injection of adrenaline can occur, and in such cases, local infiltration of phentolamine is recommended.
In conclusion, adrenaline is a hormone that plays a crucial role in the body’s response to stress. It has various effects on the body, including increasing cardiac output and total peripheral resistance, causing vasoconstriction in the skin and kidneys, and stimulating glycogenolysis and glycolysis in the liver and muscle. Adrenaline is used in emergency situations such as anaphylaxis and cardiac arrest, and accidental injection can be managed through local infiltration of phentolamine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 58
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old patient presents at 22 weeks gestation with an abnormal ultrasound scan. The scan shows hydrops fetalis. Upon questioning, the woman reveals that her 6-year-old daughter was recently diagnosed with parvovirus B19 by their family doctor.
What could be the probable cause of hydrops fetalis in this scenario?Your Answer: Autoimmune haemolysis
Correct Answer: Suppression of foetal erythropoiesis
Explanation:Hydrops fetalis is a condition where the fetus has fluid accumulation in at least two compartments, such as the kidneys and polyhydramnios. One cause of this condition is infection with parvovirus B19, which suppresses fetal erythropoiesis and leads to fetal anemia and heart failure. This, in turn, causes fluid accumulation seen on ultrasound. Parvovirus B19 commonly affects children and can cause erythema infectiosum, also known as slapped cheek disease.
While autoimmune hemolysis can also cause hydrops fetalis, it is typically associated with ABO or rhesus incompatibility. This occurs when maternal antibodies attack fetal red blood cells, leading to immune-mediated hemolysis and hydrops fetalis. This is not the same mechanism as that caused by parvovirus B19 infection.
Cardiac malformations and exposure to teratogens during pregnancy can also cause heart failure and hydrops fetalis, but this is not typically associated with parvovirus B19 infection. Similarly, fetal kidney failure can lead to fluid accumulation and hydrops fetalis, but it is not caused by antenatal parvovirus B19 infection. Pulmonary hypertension is another cause of heart failure, but it is not common in fetuses and is more commonly seen in the elderly population. It is not caused by parvovirus B19 infection in fetuses.
Parvovirus B19: A Virus with Various Clinical Presentations
Parvovirus B19 is a type of DNA virus that can cause different clinical presentations. One of the most common is erythema infectiosum, also known as fifth disease or slapped-cheek syndrome. This illness may manifest as a mild feverish condition or a noticeable rash that appears after a few days. The rash is characterized by rose-red cheeks, which is why it is called slapped-cheek syndrome. It may spread to other parts of the body but rarely involves the palms and soles. The rash usually peaks after a week and then fades, but it may recur for some months after exposure to triggers such as warm baths, sunlight, heat, or fever. Most children recover without specific treatment, and school exclusion is unnecessary as the child is no longer infectious once the rash emerges. However, in adults, the virus may cause acute arthritis.
Aside from erythema infectiosum, parvovirus B19 can also present as asymptomatic, pancytopenia in immunosuppressed patients, or aplastic crises in sickle-cell disease. The virus suppresses erythropoiesis for about a week, so aplastic anemia is rare unless there is a chronic hemolytic anemia. In pregnant women, the virus can cross the placenta and cause severe anemia due to viral suppression of fetal erythropoiesis, which may lead to heart failure secondary to severe anemia and the accumulation of fluid in fetal serous cavities such as ascites, pleural and pericardial effusions. This condition is called hydrops fetalis and is treated with intrauterine blood transfusions.
It is important to note that parvovirus B19 can affect an unborn baby in the first 20 weeks of pregnancy. If a woman is exposed early in pregnancy, she should seek prompt advice from her antenatal care provider as maternal IgM and IgG will need to be checked. The virus is spread by the respiratory route, and a person is infectious 3 to 5 days before the appearance of the rash. Children are no longer infectious once the rash appears, and there is no specific treatment. Therefore, school exclusion is unnecessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 59
Correct
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A 16-year-old boy visits his doctor with a complaint of dark brown urine for the past 2 days. He mentions feeling unwell for the past week with a fever and a sore throat. The doctor conducts a urinalysis and finds the following results:
- Glucose: Negative
- Ketones: Negative
- Blood: Positive
- Protein: Negative
- Leucocytes: Negative
- Nitrites: Negative
The doctor explains to the patient that he likely had an upper respiratory tract infection last week. The most commonly produced immunoglobulin in his body has combined with infection cells and deposited in his kidneys, causing blood in his urine.
What type of immunoglobulin is responsible for this patient's condition, based on the given information?Your Answer: IgA
Explanation:The most commonly produced immunoglobulin in the body is IgA, which is also associated with Berger’s disease or IgA nephropathy. This condition is often characterized by macroscopic haematuria following an upper respiratory tract strep infection, with urinalysis revealing blood and sometimes protein. IgA is frequently involved in type 3 immune-complex mediated hypersensitivity reactions, along with IgG.
IgD’s specific role in immunology is still being studied, but it is believed to activate B cells. Meanwhile, IgE is primarily known for its role in preventing parasites, although it is also associated with type 1 hypersensitivity reactions like asthma, eczema, and hay-fever. IgG, on the other hand, is the immunoglobulin with the highest concentration in the blood, but it is not produced as much as IgA and is not implicated in Berger’s disease.
Immunoglobulins, also known as antibodies, are proteins produced by the immune system to help fight off infections and diseases. There are five types of immunoglobulins found in the body, each with their own unique characteristics.
IgG is the most abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and plays a crucial role in enhancing phagocytosis of bacteria and viruses. It also fixes complement and can be passed to the fetal circulation.
IgA is the most commonly produced immunoglobulin in the body and is found in the secretions of digestive, respiratory, and urogenital tracts and systems. It provides localized protection on mucous membranes and is transported across the interior of the cell via transcytosis.
IgM is the first immunoglobulin to be secreted in response to an infection and fixes complement, but does not pass to the fetal circulation. It is also responsible for producing anti-A, B blood antibodies.
IgD’s role in the immune system is largely unknown, but it is involved in the activation of B cells.
IgE is the least abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and is responsible for mediating type 1 hypersensitivity reactions. It provides immunity to parasites such as helminths and binds to Fc receptors found on the surface of mast cells and basophils.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 60
Incorrect
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To plan for the recruitment of new geriatric nurses, what data would the hospital need to collect to assess the period prevalence of geriatric patients?
Your Answer: The number of diabetes cases in the population at this point in time
Correct Answer: The number of diabetes cases out of the total population during a specified period of time
Explanation:The period prevalence of diabetes is calculated by dividing the number of identified cases during a specified period of time by the total number of people in that population. This provides an estimate of the proportion of individuals in the population who have diabetes during that time frame.
Understanding Incidence and Prevalence
Incidence and prevalence are two terms used to describe the frequency of a condition in a population. The incidence refers to the number of new cases per population in a given time period, while the prevalence refers to the total number of cases per population at a particular point in time. Prevalence can be further divided into point prevalence and period prevalence, depending on the time frame used to measure it.
To calculate prevalence, one can use the formula prevalence = incidence * duration of condition. This means that in chronic diseases, the prevalence is much greater than the incidence, while in acute diseases, the prevalence and incidence are similar. For example, the incidence of the common cold may be greater than its prevalence.
Understanding the difference between incidence and prevalence is important in epidemiology and public health, as it helps to identify the burden of a disease in a population and inform healthcare policies and interventions. By measuring both incidence and prevalence, researchers can track the spread of a disease over time and assess the effectiveness of prevention and treatment strategies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 61
Correct
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A 68-year-old woman presents to rheumatology with complaints of morning stiffness and pain in her wrists and hands. After evaluation, she is diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis. Despite trying various medications, she does not experience any relief. The rheumatologist decides to initiate a trial of anakinra. What is the primary cell type responsible for producing the cytokine that this medication inhibits?
Your Answer: Macrophages
Explanation:Macrophages are the main source of IL-1, which is a cytokine responsible for acute inflammation and inducing fever. Anakinra is an IL-1 receptor antagonist used to treat pro-inflammatory conditions like rheumatoid arthritis. B cells and natural killer cells also secrete IL-1, but to a lesser extent than macrophages. T helper cells secrete other cytokines like IL-4 and IL-5.
Overview of Cytokines and Their Functions
Cytokines are signaling molecules that play a crucial role in the immune system. Interleukins are a type of cytokine that are produced by various immune cells and have specific functions. IL-1, produced by macrophages, induces acute inflammation and fever. IL-2, produced by Th1 cells, stimulates the growth and differentiation of T cell responses. IL-3, produced by activated T helper cells, stimulates the differentiation and proliferation of myeloid progenitor cells. IL-4, produced by Th2 cells, stimulates the proliferation and differentiation of B cells. IL-5, also produced by Th2 cells, stimulates the production of eosinophils. IL-6, produced by macrophages and Th2 cells, stimulates the differentiation of B cells and induces fever. IL-8, produced by macrophages, promotes neutrophil chemotaxis. IL-10, produced by Th2 cells, inhibits Th1 cytokine production and is known as an anti-inflammatory cytokine. IL-12, produced by dendritic cells, macrophages, and B cells, activates NK cells and stimulates the differentiation of naive T cells into Th1 cells.
In addition to interleukins, there are other cytokines with specific functions. Tumor necrosis factor-alpha, produced by macrophages, induces fever and promotes neutrophil chemotaxis. Interferon-gamma, produced by Th1 cells, activates macrophages. Understanding the functions of cytokines is important in developing treatments for various immune-related diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 62
Correct
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A child was born prematurely at 34 weeks gestation with no labor complications. 24 hours after birth, the child seems lethargic and refuses to eat. The temperature is 38.2 ºC. The blood and cerebrospinal fluid cultures are negative, but the urine culture is positive for gram-negative rods. There are no other children in the hospital with similar symptoms. What is the most probable organism responsible for this infection?
Your Answer: Escherichia coli
Explanation:Escherichia coli is a gram-negative rod and is frequently implicated in neonatal infections, with urine cultures being the most common method of detection.
Staphylococcus aureus, a gram-positive cocci, does not align with the results of the urine culture.
While group B streptococci, particularly Streptococcus agalactiae, are often responsible for postpartum neonatal infections, they stain as gram-positive.
Listeria monocytogenes, a gram-positive anaerobe, also contradicts the findings of the urine culture.
Answer 5 needs to be revised.
Escherichia coli: A Common Gut Commensal with Various Disease Manifestations
Escherichia coli is a type of Gram-negative rod that is commonly found in the gut as a normal commensal. It is a facultative anaerobe and can ferment lactose. However, E. coli infections can lead to various diseases in humans, including diarrhoeal illnesses, urinary tract infections (UTIs), and neonatal meningitis. The classification of E. coli is based on the antigens that can trigger an immune response. These antigens include the lipopolysaccharide layer (O), capsule (K), and flagellin (H). For instance, neonatal meningitis caused by E. coli is usually due to a serotype that contains the capsular antigen K-1.
One particular strain of E. coli, O157:H7, is associated with severe, haemorrhagic, watery diarrhoea. It has a high mortality rate and can lead to haemolytic uraemic syndrome. This strain is often transmitted through contaminated ground beef. Despite being a common gut commensal, E. coli can cause various diseases that can be life-threatening. Therefore, proper hygiene and food safety practices are essential in preventing E. coli infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 63
Incorrect
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A 19-year-old female comes to the clinic complaining of an itchy rash surrounding her belly button. She reports that the rash appeared a few days after getting her navel pierced. Upon examination, there is a vesicular rash with an erythematous base.
What are the primary cells involved in the disease affecting this patient?Your Answer: Macrophages
Correct Answer: Th1 lymphocytes
Explanation:Th1 cells play a role in the cell mediated response, which is seen in contact dermatitis, a type 4 delayed hypersensitivity reaction. This reaction occurs due to the activation of Th1 lymphocyte cells and presents as a delayed reaction after exposure to the allergen.
Th2 lymphocytes, on the other hand, are involved in the humoral (antibody) process and activate B-cells.
Antigen presenting cells, such as macrophages and dendritic cells, process antigenic material and present them to lymphocytes.
The classical complement pathway is activated by antigen-antibody complexes (IgM/IgG). In systemic diseases like systemic lupus erythematosus, anti-glomerular basement membrane (anti-GBM) disease, and anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic autoantibody (ANCA)-associated glomerulonephritis, the presence of autoantibodies and the autoantibody-mediated involvement of the classical pathway of the complement cascade is the cause of glomerulonephritis.
T-Helper Cells: Two Major Subsets and Their Functions
T-Helper cells are a type of white blood cell that play a crucial role in the immune system. There are two major subsets of T-Helper cells, each with their own specific functions. The first subset is Th1, which is involved in the cell-mediated response and delayed (type IV) hypersensitivity. Th1 cells secrete cytokines such as IFN-gamma, IL-2, and IL-3, which help activate other immune cells and promote inflammation.
The second subset is Th2, which is involved in mediating humoral (antibody) immunity. Th2 cells are responsible for stimulating the production of antibodies, such as IgE in asthma. They secrete cytokines such as IL-4, IL-5, IL-6, IL-10, and IL-13, which help activate B cells and promote the production of antibodies.
Understanding the functions of these two subsets of T-Helper cells is important for developing treatments for various immune-related disorders. For example, drugs that target Th1 cells may be useful in treating autoimmune diseases, while drugs that target Th2 cells may be useful in treating allergies and asthma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 64
Correct
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What is the mechanism of action of macrolides in elderly patients?
Your Answer: Inhibits protein synthesis
Explanation:Macrolides act on the 50S subunit of ribosomes to inhibit protein synthesis.
Antibiotics work in different ways to kill or inhibit the growth of bacteria. The commonly used antibiotics can be classified based on their gross mechanism of action. The first group inhibits cell wall formation by either preventing peptidoglycan cross-linking (penicillins, cephalosporins, carbapenems) or peptidoglycan synthesis (glycopeptides like vancomycin). The second group inhibits protein synthesis by acting on either the 50S subunit (macrolides, chloramphenicol, clindamycin, linezolid, streptogrammins) or the 30S subunit (aminoglycosides, tetracyclines) of the bacterial ribosome. The third group inhibits DNA synthesis (quinolones like ciprofloxacin) or damages DNA (metronidazole). The fourth group inhibits folic acid formation (sulphonamides and trimethoprim), while the fifth group inhibits RNA synthesis (rifampicin). Understanding the mechanism of action of antibiotics is important in selecting the appropriate drug for a particular bacterial infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 65
Correct
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A 67-year-old man experienced sudden onset chest pain and difficulty breathing at home. Upon examination, an electrocardiogram revealed ST-elevation in the anterior leads, indicating an anterior ST-elevation myocardial infarction. He was transported to the nearest primary percutaneous coronary intervention center where he underwent angioplasty and received two stents in the left anterior descending artery. Abciximab was administered during the procedure. What is the mechanism of action of this medication?
Your Answer: Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor antagonist
Explanation:Abciximab is a type of medication that blocks the glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor, which has been found to reduce the occurrence of negative coronary events (such as heart attack or death) within the first month after primary angioplasty.
Another medication commonly used after cardiac stent implantation is clopidogrel, which inhibits ADP receptors and is part of the standard dual antiplatelet therapy.
Fondaparinux is an indirect factor Xa inhibitor that is often used to treat non-ST elevation myocardial infarctions and unstable angina, but is less frequently used in angioplasty due to the risk of bleeding.
Monoclonal antibodies are becoming increasingly important in the field of medicine. They are created using a technique called somatic cell hybridization, which involves fusing myeloma cells with spleen cells from an immunized mouse to produce a hybridoma. This hybridoma acts as a factory for producing monoclonal antibodies.
However, a major limitation of this technique is that mouse antibodies can be immunogenic, leading to the formation of human anti-mouse antibodies. To overcome this problem, a process called humanizing is used. This involves combining the variable region from the mouse body with the constant region from a human antibody.
There are several clinical examples of monoclonal antibodies, including infliximab for rheumatoid arthritis and Crohn’s, rituximab for non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma and rheumatoid arthritis, and cetuximab for metastatic colorectal cancer and head and neck cancer. Monoclonal antibodies are also used for medical imaging when combined with a radioisotope, identifying cell surface markers in biopsied tissue, and diagnosing viral infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 66
Correct
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A 28-year-old man visits his GP complaining of weight loss, fevers, and night sweats that have persisted for several months. Upon examination, he has non-tender lymphadenopathy. He is referred to a specialist and eventually diagnosed with Hodgkin's lymphoma. At the haematological cancer multidisciplinary team meeting, it is decided to initiate vincristine treatment.
At what stage of the cell cycle does this medication take effect?Your Answer: Metaphase
Explanation:Vincristine disrupts the metaphase stage of the cell cycle. This is when chromosomes align in the middle of the cell and begin to separate. By binding to the tubulin protein, Vincristine prevents the formation of microtubules, which stops the initiation of chromosome separation. As a result, the cell undergoes apoptosis. Vincristine does not act during anaphase, cytokinesis, or prophase.
Mitosis: The Process of Somatic Cell Division
Mitosis is a type of cell division that occurs in somatic cells during the M phase of the cell cycle. This process allows for the replication and growth of tissues by producing genetically identical diploid daughter cells. Before mitosis begins, the cell prepares itself during the S phase by duplicating its chromosomes. The phases of mitosis include prophase, prometaphase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase, and cytokinesis. During prophase, the chromatin in the nucleus condenses, and during prometaphase, the nuclear membrane breaks down, allowing microtubules to attach to the chromosomes. In metaphase, the chromosomes align at the middle of the cell, and in anaphase, the paired chromosomes separate at the kinetochores and move to opposite sides of the cell. Telophase occurs when chromatids arrive at opposite poles of the cell, and cytokinesis is the final stage where an actin-myosin complex in the center of the cell contacts, resulting in it being pinched into two daughter cells.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 67
Correct
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A 65-year-old man presents with left foot drop and gradual weakness. He describes associated muscle twitching and cramping of the legs. On examination, there is marked weakness and hyperreflexia bilaterally. Left lower limb sensation is intact.
He is ultimately referred to a specialist team, who diagnose amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS). The patient asks about whether or not the condition is hereditary, as he has children. It is explained that ALS is familial in 5-10% of cases, but the rest are considered sporadic. After genetic testing, his condition is put down to a sporadic mutation affecting RNA splicing.
Where does this cellular process take place?Your Answer: Nucleus
Explanation:RNA splicing occurs in the nucleus of the cell, where introns are removed from pre-mRNA and exons are joined together to form mRNA. It does not take place in the cytoplasm, mitochondria, rough endoplasmic reticulum, or smooth endoplasmic reticulum.
Functions of Cell Organelles
The functions of major cell organelles can be summarized in a table. The rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) is responsible for the translation and folding of new proteins, as well as the manufacture of lysosomal enzymes. It is also the site of N-linked glycosylation. Cells such as pancreatic cells, goblet cells, and plasma cells have extensive RER. On the other hand, the smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) is involved in steroid and lipid synthesis. Cells of the adrenal cortex, hepatocytes, and reproductive organs have extensive SER.
The Golgi apparatus modifies, sorts, and packages molecules that are destined for cell secretion. The addition of mannose-6-phosphate to proteins designates transport to lysosome. The mitochondrion is responsible for aerobic respiration and contains mitochondrial genome as circular DNA. The nucleus is involved in DNA maintenance, RNA transcription, and RNA splicing, which removes the non-coding sequences of genes (introns) from pre-mRNA and joins the protein-coding sequences (exons).
The lysosome is responsible for the breakdown of large molecules such as proteins and polysaccharides. The nucleolus produces ribosomes, while the ribosome translates RNA into proteins. The peroxisome is involved in the catabolism of very long chain fatty acids and amino acids, resulting in the formation of hydrogen peroxide. Lastly, the proteasome, along with the lysosome pathway, is involved in the degradation of protein molecules that have been tagged with ubiquitin.
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- General Principles
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Question 68
Incorrect
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In a clinical study evaluating the effectiveness of a new medication for reducing cholesterol levels, the mean age of the placebo group was 50 with a standard deviation of 3.
If the data is normally distributed, what percentage of participants in the placebo group were over the age of 55?Your Answer: 40%
Correct Answer: 2.5%
Explanation:I’m sorry, your input is not clear. Please provide more information or context for me to understand what you are asking for.
The normal distribution, also known as the Gaussian distribution or ‘bell-shaped’ distribution, is commonly used to describe the spread of biological and clinical measurements. It is symmetrical, meaning that the mean, mode, and median are all equal. Additionally, a large percentage of values fall within a certain range of the mean. For example, 68.3% of values lie within 1 standard deviation (SD) of the mean, 95.4% lie within 2 SD, and 99.7% lie within 3 SD. This is often reversed, so that 95% of sample values lie within 1.96 SD of the mean. The range of the mean plus or minus 1.96 SD is called the 95% confidence interval, meaning that if a repeat sample of 100 observations were taken from the same group, 95 of them would be expected to fall within that range. The standard deviation is a measure of how much dispersion exists from the mean, and is calculated as the square root of the variance.
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- General Principles
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Question 69
Correct
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The external validity of a research pertains to what?
Your Answer: The degree to which the conclusions in a study would hold for other persons in other places and at other times
Explanation:Validity refers to how accurately something measures what it claims to measure. There are two main types of validity: internal and external. Internal validity refers to the confidence we have in the cause and effect relationship in a study. This means we are confident that the independent variable caused the observed change in the dependent variable, rather than other factors. There are several threats to internal validity, such as poor control of extraneous variables and loss of participants over time. External validity refers to the degree to which the conclusions of a study can be applied to other people, places, and times. Threats to external validity include the representativeness of the sample and the artificiality of the research setting. There are also other types of validity, such as face validity and content validity, which refer to the general impression and full content of a test, respectively. Criterion validity compares tests, while construct validity measures the extent to which a test measures the construct it aims to.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 70
Correct
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A 30-year-old man visits the sexual health clinic with complaints of dysuria and penile discharge. He is concerned about having a sexually transmitted infection due to engaging in unprotected sex with multiple partners in the past month. During the examination, the clinician takes an urethral swab, smears it on a slide, and performs a gram stain. Upon examining the slide under the microscope, the clinician informs the man that he has probably contracted gonorrhoeae.
What would be the appearance of this organism when viewed under the microscope?Your Answer: Gram-negative diplococci
Explanation:Gram-negative diplococci can be used to identify Neisseria gonorrhoeae on gram staining.
Streptococcus pneumonia is a type of bacterium that appears as gram-positive diplococci.
Gram-positive cocci in clusters are characteristic of Staphylococcus aureus.
The Acinetobacter group and the Haemophilus group are examples of gram-negative coccobacilli.
Understanding gonorrhoeae: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
gonorrhoeae is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the Gram-negative diplococcus Neisseria gonorrhoeae. It can occur on any mucous membrane surface, including the genitourinary tract, rectum, and pharynx. Symptoms in males include urethral discharge and dysuria, while females may experience cervicitis leading to vaginal discharge. However, rectal and pharyngeal infections are usually asymptomatic. Unfortunately, immunisation is not possible, and reinfection is common due to antigen variation of type IV pili and Opa proteins.
If left untreated, gonorrhoeae can lead to local complications such as urethral strictures, epididymitis, and salpingitis, which may result in infertility. Disseminated infection may also occur, with gonococcal infection being the most common cause of septic arthritis in young adults. The pathophysiology of disseminated gonococcal infection is not fully understood but is thought to be due to haematogenous spread from mucosal infection.
Management of gonorrhoeae involves the use of antibiotics. Ciprofloxacin used to be the treatment of choice, but there is now increased resistance to it. Cephalosporins are now more widely used, with a single dose of IM ceftriaxone 1g being the new first-line treatment. If sensitivities are known, a single dose of oral ciprofloxacin 500mg may be given. Disseminated gonococcal infection and gonococcal arthritis may also occur, with symptoms including tenosynovitis, migratory polyarthritis, and dermatitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 71
Correct
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What is the rate limiting enzyme of the citric acid cycle?
Your Answer: Isocitrate dehydrogenase
Explanation:Isocitrate dehydrogenase is the rate limiting enzyme for the TCA cycle, which occurs in the mitochondrial matrix in the presence of oxygen and results in the complete oxidation of acetyl Co-A in aerobic respiration. phosphofructokinase-1 is the rate limiting enzyme for glycolysis, while glycogen synthase and glycogen phosphorylase are the rate limiting enzymes for glycogenesis and glycogenolysis, respectively. The rate limiting enzyme for the pentose phosphate pathway is glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase.
Rate-Determining Enzymes in Metabolic Processes
Metabolic processes involve a series of chemical reactions that occur in living organisms to maintain life. Enzymes play a crucial role in these processes by catalyzing the reactions. However, not all enzymes have the same impact on the rate of the reaction. Some enzymes are rate-determining, meaning that they control the overall rate of the process. The table above lists the rate-determining enzymes involved in common metabolic processes.
For example, in the TCA cycle, isocitrate dehydrogenase is the rate-determining enzyme. In glycolysis, phosphofructokinase-1 controls the rate of the process. In gluconeogenesis, fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase is the rate-determining enzyme. Similarly, glycogen synthase controls the rate of glycogenesis, while glycogen phosphorylase controls the rate of glycogenolysis.
Other metabolic processes, such as lipogenesis, lipolysis, cholesterol synthesis, and ketogenesis, also have rate-determining enzymes. Acetyl-CoA carboxylase controls the rate of lipogenesis, while carnitine-palmitoyl transferase I controls the rate of lipolysis. HMG-CoA reductase is the rate-determining enzyme in cholesterol synthesis, while HMG-CoA synthase controls the rate of ketogenesis.
The urea cycle, de novo pyrimidine synthesis, and de novo purine synthesis also have rate-determining enzymes. Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I controls the rate of the urea cycle, while carbamoyl phosphate synthetase II controls the rate of de novo pyrimidine synthesis. Glutamine-PRPP amidotransferase is the rate-determining enzyme in de novo purine synthesis.
Understanding the rate-determining enzymes in metabolic processes is crucial for developing treatments for metabolic disorders and diseases. By targeting these enzymes, researchers can potentially regulate the rate of the process and improve the health outcomes of individuals with these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 72
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old businessman presents to the clinic with a history of fever, chills and a headache after returning from a business trip to Nigeria and the Democratic Republic of Congo. Previous studies have shown that 70% of patients who present with these symptoms and a travel history to Sub-Saharan Africa have Malaria.
The rapid test for Malaria that you plan to use has a sensitivity of 92% and specificity of 98%.
What is the positive likelihood ratio for the test result with the given information?Your Answer: 95
Correct Answer: 46
Explanation:The likelihood ratio is a useful tool for determining the probability of a patient having a particular disease or condition. It is calculated by dividing the sensitivity of the test by the complement of the specificity. A higher likelihood ratio indicates a greater likelihood of the patient having the condition, while a lower likelihood ratio suggests that the patient is less likely to have the condition. The positive likelihood ratio indicates the change in odds of a positive diagnosis, while the negative likelihood ratio indicates the change in odds of a negative diagnosis.
Precision refers to the consistency of a test in producing the same results when repeated multiple times. It is an important aspect of test reliability and can impact the accuracy of the results. In order to assess precision, multiple tests are performed on the same sample and the results are compared. A test with high precision will produce similar results each time it is performed, while a test with low precision will produce inconsistent results. It is important to consider precision when interpreting test results and making clinical decisions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 73
Correct
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A 32-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of a leg that has been getting redder, hotter, and more swollen over the past three days. The doctor suspects cellulitis. As the immune system fights off the infection, it employs various mechanisms to eliminate foreign antigens. During the adaptive phase, which cells present antigens to Helper T cells?
Your Answer: MHC II
Explanation:Helper T cells identify antigens that are displayed by MHC class II molecules. These molecules are exclusively present on professional antigen presenting cells like B cells. During the humoral response, B cells present antigens to Helper T cells (CD4+).
In the humoral response, B7, a protein found on antigen presenting cells, is a component of the second signal.
MHC I molecules present antigens to cytotoxic T cells during an intracellular response.
CD40 is a receptor that is present on B cells. During the humoral response, CD40 ligand (which is present on T Helper cells) binds to CD40 as part of the second signal.
The adaptive immune response involves several types of cells, including helper T cells, cytotoxic T cells, B cells, and plasma cells. Helper T cells are responsible for the cell-mediated immune response and recognize antigens presented by MHC class II molecules. They express CD4, CD3, TCR, and CD28 and are a major source of IL-2. Cytotoxic T cells also participate in the cell-mediated immune response and recognize antigens presented by MHC class I molecules. They induce apoptosis in virally infected and tumor cells and express CD8 and CD3. Both helper T cells and cytotoxic T cells mediate acute and chronic organ rejection.
B cells are the primary cells of the humoral immune response and act as antigen-presenting cells. They also mediate hyperacute organ rejection. Plasma cells are differentiated from B cells and produce large amounts of antibody specific to a particular antigen. Overall, these cells work together to mount a targeted and specific immune response to invading pathogens or abnormal cells.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 74
Correct
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A 25-year-old G1P0 female, who had missed all antenatal appointments, delivers a neonate vaginally at 35 weeks gestation following premature preterm rupture of membrane (PPROM). The baby has an APGAR score of 6 and 6 at 1 and 5 minutes of life respectively. During examination in the delivery room, the baby appears lethargic, grunting with use of intercostal muscles, and has tachypnea and tachycardia. The baby's temperature is measured to be 39.1ºC. What is the most likely organism responsible for this baby's presentation?
Your Answer: Group B Streptococcus
Explanation:Early-onset neonatal sepsis in the UK is commonly caused by group B streptococcus infection, which is likely the case for this baby who is exhibiting symptoms within 24 hours of birth. Symptoms of neonatal sepsis include fever, tachycardia, respiratory distress, jaundice, and seizures. The mother’s lack of antenatal appointments increases the likelihood of an untreated GBS infection. Escherichia coli is another common cause, while Listeria monocytogenes is rare and typically only seen during outbreaks. Hospital-acquired infections from coagulase-negative staphylococci are unlikely in this case as the baby has not undergone any invasive procedures.
Neonatal sepsis is a serious bacterial or viral infection in the blood that affects babies within the first 28 days of life. It is categorized into early-onset (EOS) and late-onset (LOS) sepsis, with each category having distinct causes and presentations. The most common causes of neonatal sepsis are group B streptococcus (GBS) and Escherichia coli. Premature and low birth weight babies are at higher risk, as well as those born to mothers with GBS colonization or infection during pregnancy. Symptoms can range from subtle signs of illness to clear septic shock, and may include respiratory distress, jaundice, seizures, and poor feeding. Diagnosis is usually established through blood culture, and treatment involves early identification and use of intravenous antibiotics. Other important management factors include maintaining adequate oxygenation and fluid/electrolyte status, and preventing or managing hypoglycemia and metabolic acidosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 75
Correct
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A 49-year-old man presents to the hospital with complaints of weakness in his legs and tingling sensation in his feet. His wife noticed a problem with his gait over the past few weeks. The patient also reports increasing forgetfulness. During examination, the Romberg test is positive. The patient has a medical history of Crohn's disease and is currently on treatment with 5-aminosalicylic acid and prednisone. A peripheral blood smear shows the presence of larger than normal and pale red blood cells. What laboratory finding is most likely to be present in this patient?
Your Answer: Elevated methylmalonic acid levels
Explanation:Megaloblastic anemia can be caused by either folate deficiency or vitamin B12 deficiency, but it is important to differentiate between the two. In this case, the patient’s neurological symptoms suggest a diagnosis of vitamin B12 deficiency. This can be confirmed by checking methylmalonic acid levels, which are normal in folate deficiency but elevated in vitamin B12 deficiency. Homocysteine levels are raised in both conditions and cannot be used to differentiate between them. Reduced iron and elevated ferritin levels are common in anemia of chronic disease, which is associated with inflammatory and autoimmune conditions.
Vitamin B12 is a type of water-soluble vitamin that belongs to the B complex group. Unlike other vitamins, it can only be found in animal-based foods. The human body typically stores enough vitamin B12 to last for up to 5 years. This vitamin plays a crucial role in various bodily functions, including acting as a co-factor for the conversion of homocysteine into methionine through the enzyme homocysteine methyltransferase, as well as for the isomerization of methylmalonyl CoA to Succinyl Co A via the enzyme methylmalonyl mutase. Additionally, it is used to regenerate folic acid in the body.
However, there are several causes of vitamin B12 deficiency, including pernicious anaemia, Diphyllobothrium latum infection, and Crohn’s disease. When the body lacks vitamin B12, it can lead to macrocytic, megaloblastic anaemia and peripheral neuropathy. To prevent these consequences, it is important to ensure that the body has enough vitamin B12 through a balanced diet or supplements.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 76
Correct
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A young woman visits her doctor and shares the news that she is expecting her first child. She expresses her excitement and wonders if the baby starts breathing while still in the womb. The doctor explains that breathing movements do occur intermittently even in the early weeks of pregnancy.
At what point during the pregnancy are these movements believed to start?Your Answer: Week 10
Explanation:The development of the lungs begins at week 4 of embryonic development with the formation of the respiratory diverticulum. By week 5, the diverticulum divides into left and right buds, with the stem forming the trachea and larynx. As the weeks progress, the branching yields secondary and tertiary bronchial buds, which will form the future bronchopulmonary segments. By week 10, intermittent breathing movements can be observed, although the lungs are not yet developed enough to support life outside of the uterus.
Embryology is the study of the development of an organism from the moment of fertilization to birth. During the first week of embryonic development, the fertilized egg implants itself into the uterine wall. By the second week, the bilaminar disk is formed, consisting of two layers of cells. The primitive streak appears in the third week, marking the beginning of gastrulation and the formation of the notochord.
As the embryo enters its fourth week, limb buds begin to form, and the neural tube closes. The heart also begins to beat during this time. By week 10, the genitals are differentiated, and the embryo exhibits intermittent breathing movements. These early events in embryonic development are crucial for the formation of the body’s major organs and structures. Understanding the timeline of these events can provide insight into the complex process of human development.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 77
Correct
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A 59-year-old woman is scheduled for a stenting procedure under general anaesthesia to alleviate symptoms of her pancreatic cancer. Following the procedure, she is given intravenous morphine every four hours for pain relief at a rate of 10 mg. Upon discharge, the palliative service switches her to an oral morphine preparation, prescribing her the equivalent dose of 20 mg every four hours. The patient is informed that despite receiving twice the amount of morphine, the concentration reaching her circulation will be lower due to a particular phenomenon.
What is the phenomenon responsible for this?Your Answer: First pass metabolism in the liver
Explanation:The majority of reduction in drug concentration before it reaches the systemic circulation is due to the first pass effect, which occurs in the liver. When oral medication is absorbed in the alimentary canal, it passes through the hepatic portal system where it undergoes oxidation and reduction reactions mediated by cytochrome P450 enzymes. This can result in a significant decline in bioavailability, particularly for drugs with a high first pass effect like morphine. While cytochrome P450 enzymes are involved in first pass metabolism, they do not perform conjugation which is part of phase II. Distribution of drugs and interactions with other drugs may also cause decreased concentration in the systemic circulation, but to a lesser extent.
Understanding Drug Metabolism: Phase I and Phase II Reactions
Drug metabolism involves two types of biochemical reactions, namely phase I and phase II reactions. Phase I reactions include oxidation, reduction, and hydrolysis, which are mainly performed by P450 enzymes. However, some drugs are metabolized by specific enzymes such as alcohol dehydrogenase and xanthine oxidase. The products of phase I reactions are typically more active and potentially toxic. On the other hand, phase II reactions involve conjugation, where glucuronyl, acetyl, methyl, sulphate, and other groups are typically involved. The products of phase II reactions are typically inactive and excreted in urine or bile. The majority of phase I and phase II reactions take place in the liver.
First-Pass Metabolism and Drugs Affected by Zero-Order Kinetics and Acetylator Status
First-pass metabolism is a phenomenon where the concentration of a drug is greatly reduced before it reaches the systemic circulation due to hepatic metabolism. This effect is seen in many drugs, including aspirin, isosorbide dinitrate, glyceryl trinitrate, lignocaine, propranolol, verapamil, isoprenaline, testosterone, and hydrocortisone.
Zero-order kinetics describe metabolism that is independent of the concentration of the reactant. This is due to metabolic pathways becoming saturated, resulting in a constant amount of drug being eliminated per unit time. Drugs exhibiting zero-order kinetics include phenytoin, salicylates (e.g. high-dose aspirin), heparin, and ethanol.
Acetylator status is also an important consideration in drug metabolism. Approximately 50% of the UK population are deficient in hepatic N-acetyltransferase. Drugs affected by acetylator status include isoniazid, procainamide, hydralazine, dapsone, and sulfasalazine. Understanding these concepts is important in predicting drug efficacy and toxicity, as well as in optimizing drug dosing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 78
Correct
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In a 70-year-old man undergoing a sigmoid colectomy for diverticular disease, what measures can be taken to minimize the risk of postoperative wound infection?
Your Answer: Administration of single dose of broad spectrum antibiotics prior to the procedure
Explanation:The risk of wound infection can be reduced by administering prophylactic antibiotics, while the use of plain incise drapes should be avoided as they increase the risk. On the other hand, iodophor impregnated drapes have been proven to lower the risk of wound infection. It is not advisable to shave one day before surgery as it can increase the risk of infection.
Surgical site infections (SSI) are a common complication following surgery, occurring when normal bacteria and other pathogens enter the body through a breach in tissue surfaces. These infections can cause significant morbidity and mortality, with up to 20% of all healthcare-associated infections being SSIs. Patients undergoing surgery have at least a 5% chance of developing an SSI. In many cases, the bacteria causing the infection come from the patient’s own body. Certain measures can increase the risk of SSI, such as using a razor to shave the wound or using a non-iodine impregnated incise drape.
To prevent SSI, certain steps can be taken before, during, and after surgery. Body hair should not be removed routinely, but if necessary, electrical clippers with a single-use head should be used instead of razors. Antibiotic prophylaxis should be given for certain types of surgery, and a single-dose IV antibiotic should be given on anesthesia. If a tourniquet is used, prophylactic antibiotics should be given earlier. During surgery, the skin should be prepared with alcoholic chlorhexidine, and the surgical site should be covered with a dressing. Postoperatively, tissue viability advice should be given for managing surgical wounds healing by secondary intention.
The use of diathermy for skin incisions is not recommended in the NICE guidelines, as several randomized controlled trials have shown no increase in the risk of SSI when diathermy is used. It has also been found that wound edge protectors do not provide any benefit in preventing SSI. A recent meta-analysis has shown that the administration of supplementary oxygen does not reduce the risk of wound infection, contrary to previous individual RCTs. By following these preventative measures, the risk of SSI can be significantly reduced, leading to better outcomes for patients undergoing surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 79
Correct
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A 30-year-old male visits his doctor with a swollen, red, and hot arm that has spread to his leg over the last 4 days, leading the doctor to suspect cellulitis. What is the role of B cells in the humoral response during the infectious process?
During the infective process, B cells play a crucial role in the humoral response.Your Answer: Presents antigen
Explanation:B cells have the ability to act as an antigen presenting cell. One of their functions is to present antigen through MHC II to Helper T cells. CD40L found on Helper T cells interacts with CD40 on B cells. Toll-like receptors found on T cells interact with MHC molecules. IL-2 secreted by Helper T cells interacts with B cells, stimulating them to become plasma cells and memory cells. MHC I molecules interact with cytotoxic T cells.
The adaptive immune response involves several types of cells, including helper T cells, cytotoxic T cells, B cells, and plasma cells. Helper T cells are responsible for the cell-mediated immune response and recognize antigens presented by MHC class II molecules. They express CD4, CD3, TCR, and CD28 and are a major source of IL-2. Cytotoxic T cells also participate in the cell-mediated immune response and recognize antigens presented by MHC class I molecules. They induce apoptosis in virally infected and tumor cells and express CD8 and CD3. Both helper T cells and cytotoxic T cells mediate acute and chronic organ rejection.
B cells are the primary cells of the humoral immune response and act as antigen-presenting cells. They also mediate hyperacute organ rejection. Plasma cells are differentiated from B cells and produce large amounts of antibody specific to a particular antigen. Overall, these cells work together to mount a targeted and specific immune response to invading pathogens or abnormal cells.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 80
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old male patient presents to his GP with a medical history of recurring infections such as sinusitis, bronchitis, and pneumonia. Upon examination, the patient's IgM levels are elevated, while IgA, IgG, and IgE levels are low. This indicates an immune disorder that affects the class switching of B cell antibodies, leading to an inability of immunoglobulins to differentiate from the IgM isotype.
What factors are crucial for this process to occur?Your Answer: Th1 cells
Correct Answer: Th2 cells
Explanation:Immunoglobulin class switching is a process where B cells change their production of immunoglobulin from one type to another. This process is facilitated by Th2 cells, which provide specific signals to activated B cells via their CD40 and cytokine receptors. Hypergammaglobulinaemia, an immune disorder affecting antibody production, may occur when there are abnormalities in B cell class switching due to insufficient signalling from T helper cells or an inability of B cells to receive these signals. Cytotoxic T cells do not play a role in antibody formation, while Th1 cells work alongside cytotoxic T cells and macrophages as part of the cellular immune system. Macrophages, on the other hand, function as antigen presenting cells in the adaptive immune response.
Immunoglobulins, also known as antibodies, are proteins produced by the immune system to help fight off infections and diseases. There are five types of immunoglobulins found in the body, each with their own unique characteristics.
IgG is the most abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and plays a crucial role in enhancing phagocytosis of bacteria and viruses. It also fixes complement and can be passed to the fetal circulation.
IgA is the most commonly produced immunoglobulin in the body and is found in the secretions of digestive, respiratory, and urogenital tracts and systems. It provides localized protection on mucous membranes and is transported across the interior of the cell via transcytosis.
IgM is the first immunoglobulin to be secreted in response to an infection and fixes complement, but does not pass to the fetal circulation. It is also responsible for producing anti-A, B blood antibodies.
IgD’s role in the immune system is largely unknown, but it is involved in the activation of B cells.
IgE is the least abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and is responsible for mediating type 1 hypersensitivity reactions. It provides immunity to parasites such as helminths and binds to Fc receptors found on the surface of mast cells and basophils.
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- General Principles
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Question 81
Correct
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A 32-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of abdominal pain and diarrhoea that has been ongoing for 2 days. He mentions that he recently came to the UK from Vietnam to visit his family and has been here for 4 days.
Upon examination, there is no guarding or rebound tenderness, but an urticarial rash is visible on his abdomen. A slight wheeze is audible, and he has a fever. The patient also shows papulovesicular lesions on the soles of his feet.
Which helminths are most likely responsible for causing this man's symptoms?Your Answer: Strongyloides stercoralis
Explanation:Strongyloides stercoralis is a type of intestinal nematode that can cause Strongyloidiasis. Symptoms of this condition include abdominal pain and diarrhea, as well as the appearance of papulovesicular lesions on the soles of the feet and an urticarial rash. This parasitic infection is commonly found in tropical and subtropical regions around the world.
Pinworm, also known as Enterobius vermicularis, typically causes perianal itching that is particularly bothersome at night.
Onchocerca volvulus is known to cause blindness and hyperpigmentation of the skin.
Trichinella spiralis can lead to myositis, periorbital edema, and fever after consuming raw pork.
Helminths are a group of parasitic worms that can infect humans and cause various diseases. Nematodes, also known as roundworms, are one type of helminth. Strongyloides stercoralis is a type of roundworm that enters the body through the skin and can cause symptoms such as diarrhea, abdominal pain, and skin lesions. Treatment for this infection typically involves the use of ivermectin or benzimidazoles. Enterobius vermicularis, also known as pinworm, is another type of roundworm that can cause perianal itching and other symptoms. Diagnosis is made by examining sticky tape applied to the perianal area. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles.
Hookworms, such as Ancylostoma duodenale and Necator americanus, are another type of roundworm that can cause gastrointestinal infections and anemia. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles. Loa loa is a type of roundworm that is transmitted by deer fly and mango fly and can cause red, itchy swellings called Calabar swellings. Treatment involves the use of diethylcarbamazine. Trichinella spiralis is a type of roundworm that can develop after eating raw pork and can cause fever, periorbital edema, and myositis. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles.
Onchocerca volvulus is a type of roundworm that causes river blindness and is spread by female blackflies. Treatment involves the use of ivermectin. Wuchereria bancrofti is another type of roundworm that is transmitted by female mosquitoes and can cause blockage of lymphatics and elephantiasis. Treatment involves the use of diethylcarbamazine. Toxocara canis, also known as dog roundworm, is transmitted through ingestion of infective eggs and can cause visceral larva migrans and retinal granulomas. Treatment involves the use of diethylcarbamazine. Ascaris lumbricoides, also known as giant roundworm, can cause intestinal obstruction and occasionally migrate to the lung. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles.
Cestodes, also known as tapeworms, are another type of helminth. Echinococcus granulosus is a tapeworm that is transmitted through ingestion of eggs in dog feces and can cause liver cysts and anaphylaxis if the cyst ruptures
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Question 82
Incorrect
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A middle-aged patient from East Asia is presenting symptoms of distal peripheral polyneuropathy, including paraesthesia and reduced knee jerks, which are caused by a chronic deficiency of a certain vitamin. This vitamin's specific diphosphate form acts as a co-factor for the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex during the conversion of pyruvate into acetyl-CoA.
What is the name of the vitamin that this patient is lacking?Your Answer: B6
Correct Answer: B1
Explanation:The correct answer is Vitamin B1, which is a cofactor for the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex. The patient is experiencing dry beriberi, which is a chronic deficiency of Vitamin B1 that can cause distal peripheral polyneuropathy. The deficiency can be caused by alcohol dependence, malabsorption, or inadequate intake. Vitamin B1’s phosphate derivative, thiamine pyrophosphate, acts as a coenzyme for multiple carbohydrates and amino-acid complexes, including the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex.
Vitamin A is an incorrect answer as its deficiency does not cause the symptoms experienced by the patient. Vitamin A is essential for the function of the retina and its deficiency can lead to skin and ocular impairment, such as xerophthalmia and night blindness. Inadequate intake, fat malabsorption, or pancreatic, liver, and intestinal disease are common causes of Vitamin A deficiency.
Vitamin B6 is also an incorrect answer as the symptoms listed are not relevant to its deficiency.
The Importance of Vitamin B1 (Thiamine) in the Body
Vitamin B1, also known as thiamine, is a water-soluble vitamin that belongs to the B complex group. It plays a crucial role in the body as one of its phosphate derivatives, thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP), acts as a coenzyme in various enzymatic reactions. These reactions include the catabolism of sugars and amino acids, such as pyruvate dehydrogenase complex, alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase complex, and branched-chain amino acid dehydrogenase complex.
Thiamine deficiency can lead to clinical consequences, particularly in highly aerobic tissues like the brain and heart. The brain can develop Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome, which presents symptoms such as nystagmus, ophthalmoplegia, and ataxia. Meanwhile, the heart can develop wet beriberi, which causes dilated cardiomyopathy. Other conditions associated with thiamine deficiency include dry beriberi, which leads to peripheral neuropathy, and Korsakoff’s syndrome, which causes amnesia and confabulation.
The primary causes of thiamine deficiency are alcohol excess and malnutrition. Alcoholics are routinely recommended to take thiamine supplements to prevent deficiency. Overall, thiamine is an essential vitamin that plays a vital role in the body’s metabolic processes.
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- General Principles
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Question 83
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department with a sudden onset of confusion. According to her family, she had made a resolution to quit drinking alcohol.
Her blood tests show:
Thiamine 25 nmol/L 50 – 220 nmol/L
Based on this data, what other clinical symptom is likely to be present?Your Answer: Confabulation
Explanation:Thiamine deficiency can have a significant impact on organs that rely heavily on aerobic respiration, such as the brain and heart. This deficiency can lead to Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome, which is characterized by confusion, ataxia, ophthalmoplegia/nystagmus, anterograde and retrograde amnesia, and confabulation. Thiamine is a precursor for the cofactor of two enzymes that are crucial to the Krebs cycle, namely pyruvate dehydrogenase and alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase. While thiamine deficiency can affect the nervous system, causing peripheral sensory loss bilaterally, with associated weakness and absent ankle reflexes, it is not associated with a cape-like distribution of pain and temperature sensory loss, which is linked to syringomyelia. Ground glass opacifications on chest X-ray are not associated with thiamine deficiency, as they are a non-specific clinical feature of various lung pathologies. Auer rods on full blood count are specific to myelodysplastic disorders such as acute myeloid leukaemia and are not seen in thiamine deficiency disorders such as wet or dry beriberi.
The Importance of Vitamin B1 (Thiamine) in the Body
Vitamin B1, also known as thiamine, is a water-soluble vitamin that belongs to the B complex group. It plays a crucial role in the body as one of its phosphate derivatives, thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP), acts as a coenzyme in various enzymatic reactions. These reactions include the catabolism of sugars and amino acids, such as pyruvate dehydrogenase complex, alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase complex, and branched-chain amino acid dehydrogenase complex.
Thiamine deficiency can lead to clinical consequences, particularly in highly aerobic tissues like the brain and heart. The brain can develop Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome, which presents symptoms such as nystagmus, ophthalmoplegia, and ataxia. Meanwhile, the heart can develop wet beriberi, which causes dilated cardiomyopathy. Other conditions associated with thiamine deficiency include dry beriberi, which leads to peripheral neuropathy, and Korsakoff’s syndrome, which causes amnesia and confabulation.
The primary causes of thiamine deficiency are alcohol excess and malnutrition. Alcoholics are routinely recommended to take thiamine supplements to prevent deficiency. Overall, thiamine is an essential vitamin that plays a vital role in the body’s metabolic processes.
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Question 84
Correct
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A 5-year-old male is referred to a paediatrician for recurrent seizures. He is observed to have poor cognitive performance and is significantly lagging behind his peers in school. During chest examination, a pansystolic murmur is detected on the left sternal edge, and he displays an unusual facial appearance. Blood tests reveal hypocalcaemia, hyperphosphataemia, and low parathyroid hormone levels. The paediatrician suspects Di George syndrome and orders a test to determine the total number of T cells. Which cell surface marker is used to quantify the total T cell count?
Your Answer: CD3
Explanation:The presence of CD3 on the surface of all T cells makes it a useful marker for determining the total number of T cells. Individuals with Di George syndrome, which is characterized by underdevelopment of the thymus, typically have low CD3 counts. CD4 is a cell surface marker specific to T helper cells, while CD5 is commonly found in mantle cell lymphomas. CD8, on the other hand, is a cell surface marker present on cytotoxic T cells.
Cell Surface Proteins and Their Functions
Cell surface proteins play a crucial role in identifying and distinguishing different types of cells. The table above lists the most common cell surface markers associated with particular cell types, such as CD34 for haematopoietic stem cells and CD19 for B cells. Meanwhile, the table below describes the major clusters of differentiation (CD) molecules and their functions. For instance, CD3 is the signalling component of the T cell receptor (TCR) complex, while CD4 is a co-receptor for MHC class II and is used by HIV to enter T cells. CD56, on the other hand, is a unique marker for natural killer cells, while CD95 acts as the FAS receptor and is involved in apoptosis.
Understanding the functions of these cell surface proteins is crucial in various fields, such as immunology and cancer research. By identifying and targeting specific cell surface markers, researchers can develop more effective treatments for diseases and disorders.
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Question 85
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a burn on his arm. The on-call plastic surgeon wants to prevent infection and prescribes a dressing containing an antibiotic that inhibits folic acid formation. Which antibiotic works via this mechanism of action?
Your Answer: Doxycycline (a tetracycline)
Correct Answer: Sulfadiazine (a sulphonamide)
Explanation:Antibiotics work in different ways to kill or inhibit the growth of bacteria. The commonly used antibiotics can be classified based on their gross mechanism of action. The first group inhibits cell wall formation by either preventing peptidoglycan cross-linking (penicillins, cephalosporins, carbapenems) or peptidoglycan synthesis (glycopeptides like vancomycin). The second group inhibits protein synthesis by acting on either the 50S subunit (macrolides, chloramphenicol, clindamycin, linezolid, streptogrammins) or the 30S subunit (aminoglycosides, tetracyclines) of the bacterial ribosome. The third group inhibits DNA synthesis (quinolones like ciprofloxacin) or damages DNA (metronidazole). The fourth group inhibits folic acid formation (sulphonamides and trimethoprim), while the fifth group inhibits RNA synthesis (rifampicin). Understanding the mechanism of action of antibiotics is important in selecting the appropriate drug for a particular bacterial infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
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Question 86
Incorrect
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A 89-year-old man has been admitted to the geriatric ward due to increasing shortness of breath noticed by the staff at his nursing home over the past 48 hours. He has a medical history of heart failure and is taking several medications, including diuretics. A recent blood test shows that his potassium levels are slightly above the normal range. Which diuretic is known to cause elevated serum potassium levels?
Your Answer: Furosemide
Correct Answer: Amiloride
Explanation:Amiloride causes hyperkalaemia as it is a potassium-sparing diuretic. On the other hand, loop diuretics such as furosemide, torsemide and bumetanide are associated with hypokalaemia and hyponatraemia. Thiazide diuretics like bendroflumethiazide are linked to hypokalaemia.
The patient’s medical history includes heart failure and he is experiencing an increase in shortness of breath. Although there are many possible reasons for shortness of breath, considering his medical history, a deterioration of his heart failure or inadequate treatment of heart failure are two plausible explanations.
Potassium-sparing diuretics are classified into two types: epithelial sodium channel blockers (such as amiloride and triamterene) and aldosterone antagonists (such as spironolactone and eplerenone). However, caution should be exercised when using these drugs in patients taking ACE inhibitors as they can cause hyperkalaemia. Amiloride is a weak diuretic that blocks the epithelial sodium channel in the distal convoluted tubule. It is usually given with thiazides or loop diuretics as an alternative to potassium supplementation since these drugs often cause hypokalaemia. On the other hand, aldosterone antagonists like spironolactone act in the cortical collecting duct and are used to treat conditions such as ascites, heart failure, nephrotic syndrome, and Conn’s syndrome. In patients with cirrhosis, relatively large doses of spironolactone (100 or 200 mg) are often used to manage secondary hyperaldosteronism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
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Question 87
Correct
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A mother takes her 7-month-old daughter to the doctor as she noticed her left pupil appeared white in all their recent pictures. The doctor urgently refers them and a diagnosis of retinoblastoma is made. What type of genetic inheritance is associated with this condition?
Your Answer: Autosomal dominant
Explanation:Retinoblastoma is caused by a mutation in the retinoblastoma gene that is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. This leads to the development of a malignant tumor in the retina.
In cases where the condition runs in families, it is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern with incomplete penetrance.
Typically, children with retinoblastoma are either born with the tumor or develop it shortly after birth. In newborns, a white pupil is a concerning symptom that requires prompt medical attention.
Therefore, retinoblastoma is not caused by an X or Y-linked gene, an autosomal recessive gene, or a spontaneous mutation.
Autosomal Dominant Conditions: A List of Inherited Disorders
Autosomal dominant conditions are genetic disorders that are passed down from one generation to the next through a dominant gene. Unlike autosomal recessive conditions, which require two copies of a mutated gene to cause the disorder, autosomal dominant conditions only require one copy of the mutated gene. While some autosomal dominant conditions are considered structural, such as Marfan’s syndrome and osteogenesis imperfecta, others are considered metabolic, such as hyperlipidemia type II and hypokalemic periodic paralysis.
The following is a list of autosomal dominant conditions:
– Achondroplasia
– Acute intermittent porphyria
– Adult polycystic disease
– Antithrombin III deficiency
– Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
– Familial adenomatous polyposis
– Hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia
– Hereditary spherocytosis
– Hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma
– Huntington’s disease
– Hyperlipidaemia type II
– Hypokalaemic periodic paralysis
– Malignant hyperthermia
– Marfan’s syndromes
– Myotonic dystrophy
– Neurofibromatosis
– Noonan syndrome
– Osteogenesis imperfecta
– Peutz-Jeghers syndrome
– Retinoblastoma
– Romano-Ward syndrome
– Tuberous sclerosis
– Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome
– Von Willebrand’s disease*It’s important to note that while most types of von Willebrand’s disease are inherited as autosomal dominant, type 3 von Willebrand’s disease is inherited as an autosomal recessive trait.
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This question is part of the following fields:
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Question 88
Correct
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Which one of the following statements regarding epidemiological measures is accurate?
Your Answer: Cross-sectional surveys can be used to estimate the prevalence of a condition in the population
Explanation:Understanding Incidence and Prevalence
Incidence and prevalence are two terms used to describe the frequency of a condition in a population. The incidence refers to the number of new cases per population in a given time period, while the prevalence refers to the total number of cases per population at a particular point in time. Prevalence can be further divided into point prevalence and period prevalence, depending on the time frame used to measure it.
To calculate prevalence, one can use the formula prevalence = incidence * duration of condition. This means that in chronic diseases, the prevalence is much greater than the incidence, while in acute diseases, the prevalence and incidence are similar. For example, the incidence of the common cold may be greater than its prevalence.
Understanding the difference between incidence and prevalence is important in epidemiology and public health, as it helps to identify the burden of a disease in a population and inform healthcare policies and interventions. By measuring both incidence and prevalence, researchers can track the spread of a disease over time and assess the effectiveness of prevention and treatment strategies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
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Question 89
Correct
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A 55-year-old male presents with severe, central, crushing chest pain associated with sweating and nausea. He is a heavy smoker and has a medical history of type 2 diabetes, hypertension, morbid obesity and hyperlipidaemia. Upon admission, his troponin levels are significantly elevated and his electrocardiogram shows ST elevation in the anterior leads. He undergoes percutaneous coronary intervention and is prescribed several medications, including abciximab. What is the mechanism of action of this drug?
Your Answer: Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor antagonist
Explanation:Abciximab is a type of medication that blocks the glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptors, which are responsible for platelet aggregation. By preventing platelet aggregation, it can help prevent the formation of blood clots in the coronary arteries.
Dabigatran is a direct thrombin inhibitor that is used to treat and prevent blood clots in patients with atrial fibrillation.
Rivaroxaban is a factor Xa inhibitor that is commonly used to prevent and treat blood clots.
Clopidogrel is a P2Y12 inhibitor that is often prescribed to prevent occlusive vascular disease in patients with peripheral arterial disease.
Monoclonal antibodies are becoming increasingly important in the field of medicine. They are created using a technique called somatic cell hybridization, which involves fusing myeloma cells with spleen cells from an immunized mouse to produce a hybridoma. This hybridoma acts as a factory for producing monoclonal antibodies.
However, a major limitation of this technique is that mouse antibodies can be immunogenic, leading to the formation of human anti-mouse antibodies. To overcome this problem, a process called humanizing is used. This involves combining the variable region from the mouse body with the constant region from a human antibody.
There are several clinical examples of monoclonal antibodies, including infliximab for rheumatoid arthritis and Crohn’s, rituximab for non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma and rheumatoid arthritis, and cetuximab for metastatic colorectal cancer and head and neck cancer. Monoclonal antibodies are also used for medical imaging when combined with a radioisotope, identifying cell surface markers in biopsied tissue, and diagnosing viral infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
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Question 90
Correct
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A 28-year-old man presents to your clinic with painful swellings in his groin. He reports that he first noticed the swellings 3 days ago and has been experiencing pain, tenesmus, and blood on defecation for the past week. He denies any other symptoms.
You inquire about his sexual history. He reports having had unprotected sex with a new partner 2 weeks ago.
What is the probable cause of his symptoms, considering his clinical presentation and sexual history?Your Answer: Chlamydia trachomatis
Explanation:Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV) is caused by Chlamydia trachomatis serovars L1, L2, and L3 and can present with proctitis and swollen lymph nodes in the groin. This sexually transmitted infection can affect various parts of the body, including the rectum, mouth/throat, and genitals, and is typically contracted through unprotected sexual activity.
Hepatitis B can also be transmitted through sexual contact, but its symptoms are often non-specific, such as anorexia, fever, arthralgia, vomiting, and dark urine.
Syphilis, caused by Treponema pallidum, typically presents with a painless ulcer, fatigue, headaches, joint pain, and lymphadenopathy in men, but it is unlikely to cause proctitis.
HIV, a virus that can lead to AIDS if left untreated, is a risk factor for LGV but usually presents with flu-like symptoms and remains asymptomatic for many years.
Understanding Lymphogranuloma Venereum
Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV) is a sexually transmitted infection caused by Chlamydia trachomatis serovars L1, L2, and L3. This infection is commonly found in men who have sex with men and those who have HIV. While historically it was more prevalent in tropical regions, it is now seen in developed countries as well.
The infection typically progresses through three stages. The first stage involves a small, painless pustule that later forms an ulcer. In the second stage, painful inguinal lymphadenopathy occurs, which may occasionally form fistulating buboes. The third stage involves proctocolitis.
LGV is treated using doxycycline.
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This question is part of the following fields:
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Question 91
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman had undergone bilateral breast augmentation surgery several years ago. Recently, she has been experiencing discomfort and tension in her breasts, leading to the removal of the implants. During the procedure, the surgeon discovered a dense membrane surrounding the implants with a coarse granular appearance. The tissue was sent for histology, which revealed fibrosis with the presence of calcification. What is the underlying process responsible for these changes? Is it hyperplasia, dysplasia, metastatic calcification, dystrophic calcification, or necrosis? It is important to note that breast implants can often develop a pseudocapsule, which may undergo dystrophic calcification over time.
Your Answer: Metastatic calcification
Correct Answer: Dystrophic calcification
Explanation:Breast implants can develop a pseudocapsule around them, which may eventually undergo dystrophic calcification.
Types of Pathological Calcification
Pathological calcification refers to the abnormal deposition of calcium in tissues. There are two types of pathological calcification: dystrophic and metastatic. Dystrophic calcification occurs when calcium deposits accumulate in tissues that have undergone degeneration, damage, or disease, even when serum calcium levels are normal. On the other hand, metastatic calcification occurs when calcium deposits accumulate in otherwise normal tissues due to increased serum calcium levels.
In dystrophic calcification, the calcium deposits are a result of tissue damage or disease, which triggers an inflammatory response. This response leads to the release of cytokines and other molecules that attract calcium to the affected area. In metastatic calcification, the increased serum calcium levels can be caused by various factors such as hyperparathyroidism, renal failure, or vitamin D toxicity. The excess calcium then accumulates in tissues that are not normally prone to calcification, such as the kidneys, lungs, and blood vessels.
Understanding the different types of pathological calcification is important in diagnosing and treating various diseases. Dystrophic calcification can occur in a variety of conditions, including atherosclerosis, arthritis, and cancer. Metastatic calcification, on the other hand, is commonly seen in patients with chronic kidney disease or hyperparathyroidism. By identifying the type of calcification present, healthcare professionals can better manage and treat the underlying condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 92
Incorrect
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A 9-year-old boy comes to the clinic with an unexplained fever and a noticeable mass in his abdomen. During the physical examination, the doctor observes painless lymphadenopathy. A biopsy of the mass is taken and sent to the laboratory for analysis. The results reveal a 'starry sky' pattern under microscopy, which is characteristic of a high-grade non-hodgkin lymphoma.
What is the gene implicated in this disease process?Your Answer: BCL-2
Correct Answer: c-MYC
Explanation:The patient exhibits symptoms consistent with Burkitt’s lymphoma, including a fever, a palpable abdominal mass, and painless lymphadenopathy. A biopsy confirms the diagnosis, revealing the characteristic ‘starry-sky’ pattern associated with Burkitt’s lymphoma. This type of cancer is linked to the c-MYC gene. In contrast, chronic myeloid leukemia is associated with the ABL gene, neuroblastoma with n-MYC, and multiple endocrine neoplasia with RET.
Oncogenes are genes that promote cancer and are derived from normal genes called proto-oncogenes. Proto-oncogenes play a crucial role in cellular growth and differentiation. However, a gain of function in oncogenes increases the risk of cancer. Only one mutated copy of the gene is needed for cancer to occur, making it a dominant effect. Oncogenes are responsible for up to 20% of human cancers and can become oncogenes through mutation, chromosomal translocation, or increased protein expression.
In contrast, tumor suppressor genes restrict or repress cellular proliferation in normal cells. Their inactivation through mutation or germ line incorporation is implicated in various cancers, including renal, colonic, breast, and bladder cancer. Tumor suppressor genes, such as p53, offer protection by causing apoptosis of damaged cells. Other well-known genes include BRCA1 and BRCA2. Loss of function in tumor suppressor genes results in an increased risk of cancer, while gain of function in oncogenes increases the risk of cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 93
Correct
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A 25-year-old man has recently come back from travelling around South America, particularly Brazil. He reports experiencing fever and sweating every few days, along with a headache and joint pain. Upon further inquiry, he confesses to having multiple mosquito bites during his vacation. What is the probable pathogen responsible for his symptoms?
Your Answer: Plasmodium falciparum
Explanation:The patient is exhibiting symptoms that are characteristic of falciparum malaria, including fluctuating temperatures over a period of three days, arthralgia, headache, and sweating. The key piece of information in the patient’s history is their exposure to mosquito bites in an area where malaria is prevalent. Based on these factors, the likely causative organism is falciparum malaria.
Understanding Falciparum Malaria and its Complications
Falciparum malaria is the most common and severe type of malaria. It is characterized by schizonts on a blood film, parasitaemia greater than 2%, hypoglycaemia, acidosis, temperature above 39°C, severe anaemia, and various complications. Complications of falciparum malaria include cerebral malaria, acute renal failure, acute respiratory distress syndrome, hypoglycaemia, and disseminated intravascular coagulation.
In areas where strains resistant to chloroquine are prevalent, the 2010 WHO guidelines recommend artemisinin-based combination therapies (ACTs) as first-line therapy for uncomplicated falciparum malaria. Examples of ACTs include artemether plus lumefantrine, artesunate plus amodiaquine, artesunate plus mefloquine, artesunate plus sulfadoxine-pyrimethamine, and dihydroartemisinin plus piperaquine.
For severe falciparum malaria, a parasite count of more than 2% usually requires parenteral treatment regardless of clinical state. The WHO now recommends intravenous artesunate over intravenous quinine. If the parasite count is greater than 10%, exchange transfusion should be considered. Shock may indicate coexistent bacterial septicaemia, as malaria rarely causes haemodynamic collapse.
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Question 94
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department due to breathing difficulties. Upon examination, you observe that his lips are swollen and he has a red rash on his abdomen. After further inquiry, you discover that the breathing difficulties started after consuming a peanut butter sandwich. The boy is administered intramuscular adrenaline, which results in an improvement in his breathing. An elevated serum tryptase level is detected.
Which specific cell is accountable for producing the immunoglobulin that caused this patient's symptoms?Your Answer: Eosinophils
Correct Answer: Plasma cells
Explanation:Plasma cells are responsible for synthesising IgE. During a type 1 hypersensitivity reaction, IgE released by plasma cells can cause anaphylaxis, which can lead to symptoms such as urticarial rashes, bronchospasm, and haemodynamic collapse. Common allergens associated with anaphylaxis include peanuts, shellfish, eggs, or pollen. When IgE is released, it triggers basophil and mast cell degranulation of histamine, leading to vasodilation and bronchospasm, which can cause haemodynamic collapse.
CD4+ lymphocytes are not responsible for synthesising IgE, as they are T-helper cells.
Eosinophils are not responsible for synthesising IgE, as they are involved in the anti-parasitic immune response and play a role in the pathogenesis of asthma.
Kupffer cells are not responsible for synthesising IgE, as they are specialised macrophages of the liver.
Monocytes are not responsible for synthesising IgE, as they are white blood cells involved in the innate immune response.
Immunoglobulins, also known as antibodies, are proteins produced by the immune system to help fight off infections and diseases. There are five types of immunoglobulins found in the body, each with their own unique characteristics.
IgG is the most abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and plays a crucial role in enhancing phagocytosis of bacteria and viruses. It also fixes complement and can be passed to the fetal circulation.
IgA is the most commonly produced immunoglobulin in the body and is found in the secretions of digestive, respiratory, and urogenital tracts and systems. It provides localized protection on mucous membranes and is transported across the interior of the cell via transcytosis.
IgM is the first immunoglobulin to be secreted in response to an infection and fixes complement, but does not pass to the fetal circulation. It is also responsible for producing anti-A, B blood antibodies.
IgD’s role in the immune system is largely unknown, but it is involved in the activation of B cells.
IgE is the least abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and is responsible for mediating type 1 hypersensitivity reactions. It provides immunity to parasites such as helminths and binds to Fc receptors found on the surface of mast cells and basophils.
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This question is part of the following fields:
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Question 95
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old man visits his GP complaining of fevers, night sweats, and haemoptysis that have persisted for three weeks. He recently moved to the country from Bangladesh and did not receive any childhood vaccinations. The patient's medical history is otherwise unremarkable. During the examination, the doctor notices tender bruise-like lesions on the man's anterior shins. Sputum microscopy reveals acid-fast bacilli, and the doctor prescribes isoniazid. What is the mechanism of action of this drug?
Your Answer: Inhibition of DNA gyrase
Correct Answer: Inhibition of mycolic acid synthesis
Explanation:The mechanism of isoniazid is the inhibition of mycolic acid synthesis. This is relevant to the patient’s presentation of tuberculosis, as Mycobacterium tuberculosis has mycolic acids in its cell wall. Isoniazid affects cell wall integrity by inhibiting the synthesis of mycolic acids, which are responsible for the acid-fast staining of the bacteria.
It is important to note that the mechanisms of other antibiotics, such as fluoroquinolones and glycopeptides, are different and not relevant to this case. Rifampicin, another antibiotic used to treat tuberculosis, works by inhibiting DNA-dependent RNA polymerase.
Tuberculosis is a bacterial infection that can be treated with a combination of drugs. Each drug has a specific mechanism of action and can also cause side-effects. Rifampicin works by inhibiting bacterial DNA dependent RNA polymerase, which prevents the transcription of DNA into mRNA. However, it is a potent liver enzyme inducer and can cause hepatitis, orange secretions, and flu-like symptoms.
Isoniazid, on the other hand, inhibits mycolic acid synthesis. It can cause peripheral neuropathy, which can be prevented with pyridoxine (Vitamin B6). It can also cause hepatitis and agranulocytosis, but it is a liver enzyme inhibitor.
Pyrazinamide is converted by pyrazinamidase into pyrazinoic acid, which inhibits fatty acid synthase (FAS) I. However, it can cause hyperuricaemia, leading to gout, as well as arthralgia and myalgia. It can also cause hepatitis.
Finally, Ethambutol inhibits the enzyme arabinosyl transferase, which polymerizes arabinose into arabinan. However, it can cause optic neuritis, so it is important to check visual acuity before and during treatment. The dose also needs adjusting in patients with renal impairment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
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Question 96
Correct
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A study on depression is criticized for producing results that do not generalize to younger patient populations. This test can be said to have poor:
External validity
66%
Predictive validity
15%
Construct validity
5%
Divergent validity
8%
Face validity
5%
Good external validity means that the results of a study generalize well to other populations, including younger individuals. Is this aspect of validity more or less important for you?Your Answer: External validity
Explanation:When a study has good external validity, its findings can be applied to other populations with confidence.
Validity refers to how accurately something measures what it claims to measure. There are two main types of validity: internal and external. Internal validity refers to the confidence we have in the cause and effect relationship in a study. This means we are confident that the independent variable caused the observed change in the dependent variable, rather than other factors. There are several threats to internal validity, such as poor control of extraneous variables and loss of participants over time. External validity refers to the degree to which the conclusions of a study can be applied to other people, places, and times. Threats to external validity include the representativeness of the sample and the artificiality of the research setting. There are also other types of validity, such as face validity and content validity, which refer to the general impression and full content of a test, respectively. Criterion validity compares tests, while construct validity measures the extent to which a test measures the construct it aims to.
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This question is part of the following fields:
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Question 97
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old woman has just been prescribed a new antibiotic for her acne. The doctor warns her about the potential harm to a developing fetus and suggests using contraception. Additionally, the doctor advises the patient to always apply sun cream due to the medication's increased risk of sunburn. Upon reviewing the drug information form, the patient discovers that the antibiotic can cause teeth discoloration in children.
What is the mechanism of action for this antibiotic class?Your Answer: Binds to the bacterial dihydrofolate reductase enzyme to interfere with DNA synthesis
Correct Answer: Binds to the 30S subunit of bacterial ribosomes to impair protein synthesis
Explanation:Tetracyclines act by binding to the 30S subunit of ribosomes, which inhibits protein synthesis. Although commonly prescribed for moderate-severe acne, caution should be exercised as they are teratogenic and can cause skin sensitivity, gastrointestinal disturbances, and kidney impairment. Tetracyclines should not be taken with high calcium foods or drinks such as milk due to their ability to bind to calcium ions in developing bones and teeth. The other answer options, including binding to penicillin binding proteins, bacterial dihydrofolate reductase enzyme, topoisomerase IV/DNA gyrase-DNA complexes, and the 50S subunit of bacterial ribosomes, are incorrect as they are mechanisms of action for other antibiotics.
Antibiotics work in different ways to kill or inhibit the growth of bacteria. The commonly used antibiotics can be classified based on their gross mechanism of action. The first group inhibits cell wall formation by either preventing peptidoglycan cross-linking (penicillins, cephalosporins, carbapenems) or peptidoglycan synthesis (glycopeptides like vancomycin). The second group inhibits protein synthesis by acting on either the 50S subunit (macrolides, chloramphenicol, clindamycin, linezolid, streptogrammins) or the 30S subunit (aminoglycosides, tetracyclines) of the bacterial ribosome. The third group inhibits DNA synthesis (quinolones like ciprofloxacin) or damages DNA (metronidazole). The fourth group inhibits folic acid formation (sulphonamides and trimethoprim), while the fifth group inhibits RNA synthesis (rifampicin). Understanding the mechanism of action of antibiotics is important in selecting the appropriate drug for a particular bacterial infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
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Question 98
Correct
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During a routine ophthalmology appointment, a 5-year-old child is diagnosed with a cataract in their left eye. The child's medical history reveals that they have galactokinase deficiency. The parents are concerned about what caused the cataract and how to prevent it from happening again.
The ophthalmologist explains that the cataract is a result of an excess of a particular chemical produced due to galactokinase deficiency. What could have caused the formation of the cataract in this child?Your Answer: Accumulation of galactitol
Explanation:Galactokinase deficiency causes an accumulation of galactitol, which can be deposited in the lenses and lead to the formation of cataracts.
Reduced metabolism of branched chain amino acids can result in an excess of valine, leucine, and isoleucine in patients with maple syrup urine disease.
Phenylketonuria is characterized by an excess of phenylalanine.
Disorders of Galactose Metabolism
Galactose metabolism is a complex process that involves the breakdown of galactose, a type of sugar found in milk and dairy products. There are two main disorders associated with galactose metabolism: classic galactosemia and galactokinase deficiency. Both of these disorders are inherited in an autosomal recessive manner.
Classic galactosemia is caused by a deficiency in the enzyme galactose-1-phosphate uridyltransferase, which leads to the accumulation of galactose-1-phosphate. This disorder is characterized by symptoms such as failure to thrive, infantile cataracts, and hepatomegaly.
On the other hand, galactokinase deficiency is caused by a deficiency in the enzyme galactokinase, which results in the accumulation of galactitol. This disorder is characterized by infantile cataracts, as galactitol accumulates in the lens. Unlike classic galactosemia, there is no hepatic involvement in galactokinase deficiency.
In summary, disorders of galactose metabolism can have serious consequences and require careful management. Early diagnosis and treatment are essential for improving outcomes and preventing complications.
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Question 99
Incorrect
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A 5-month-old female infant was brought to the hospital due to abdominal distension and diarrhea. Her birth was complicated and required resuscitation. Upon examination, she showed signs of malnourishment, axial hypotonia, and abnormal facial features. Blood tests revealed elevated levels of long-chain fatty acids. What organelle is responsible for the breakdown of long-chain fatty acids?
Your Answer: Proteasome
Correct Answer: Peroxisome
Explanation:The breakdown of long chain fatty acids is primarily carried out by peroxisomes. However, this patient is exhibiting symptoms of Zellweger syndrome, a genetic disorder that impairs peroxisome function.
The rough endoplasmic reticulum plays a crucial role in the translation and folding of newly synthesized proteins. The nucleus is responsible for housing and regulating DNA, as well as facilitating RNA transcription. Meanwhile, proteasomes are responsible for breaking down proteins that have been marked with ubiquitin.
Functions of Cell Organelles
The functions of major cell organelles can be summarized in a table. The rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) is responsible for the translation and folding of new proteins, as well as the manufacture of lysosomal enzymes. It is also the site of N-linked glycosylation. Cells such as pancreatic cells, goblet cells, and plasma cells have extensive RER. On the other hand, the smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) is involved in steroid and lipid synthesis. Cells of the adrenal cortex, hepatocytes, and reproductive organs have extensive SER.
The Golgi apparatus modifies, sorts, and packages molecules that are destined for cell secretion. The addition of mannose-6-phosphate to proteins designates transport to lysosome. The mitochondrion is responsible for aerobic respiration and contains mitochondrial genome as circular DNA. The nucleus is involved in DNA maintenance, RNA transcription, and RNA splicing, which removes the non-coding sequences of genes (introns) from pre-mRNA and joins the protein-coding sequences (exons).
The lysosome is responsible for the breakdown of large molecules such as proteins and polysaccharides. The nucleolus produces ribosomes, while the ribosome translates RNA into proteins. The peroxisome is involved in the catabolism of very long chain fatty acids and amino acids, resulting in the formation of hydrogen peroxide. Lastly, the proteasome, along with the lysosome pathway, is involved in the degradation of protein molecules that have been tagged with ubiquitin.
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Question 100
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A 50-year-old male visits the rheumatology clinic with a history of rheumatoid arthritis and is presently taking rituximab, which decreases the production of antibodies. Which immune cell is most likely to be affected by this medication?
Your Answer: B cells
Explanation:Rituximab is a biological drug used to treat rheumatoid arthritis by depleting B-cells and reducing inflammation. It increases the risk of infection and requires TB status checks before treatment.
Monoclonal antibodies are becoming increasingly important in the field of medicine. They are created using a technique called somatic cell hybridization, which involves fusing myeloma cells with spleen cells from an immunized mouse to produce a hybridoma. This hybridoma acts as a factory for producing monoclonal antibodies.
However, a major limitation of this technique is that mouse antibodies can be immunogenic, leading to the formation of human anti-mouse antibodies. To overcome this problem, a process called humanizing is used. This involves combining the variable region from the mouse body with the constant region from a human antibody.
There are several clinical examples of monoclonal antibodies, including infliximab for rheumatoid arthritis and Crohn’s, rituximab for non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma and rheumatoid arthritis, and cetuximab for metastatic colorectal cancer and head and neck cancer. Monoclonal antibodies are also used for medical imaging when combined with a radioisotope, identifying cell surface markers in biopsied tissue, and diagnosing viral infections.
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