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  • Question 1 - A 45-year-old man with hypertension complains of recurring headaches accompanied by sensitivity to...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man with hypertension complains of recurring headaches accompanied by sensitivity to light, nausea, and occasional vomiting. The headaches usually affect the right side of his head and sometimes cause temporary vision problems. They last up to 10 hours and occur approximately once every 4-6 weeks. The neurological examination and blood pressure are normal.

      What would be the most suitable initial medical treatment for acute attacks? Choose the ONE most appropriate first-line medical treatment from the options provided.

      Your Answer: Ibuprofen

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Migraines: A Comparison of Medications

      Migraines are a recurring type of headache that can last for several hours to a few days. They are often accompanied by symptoms such as sensitivity to light and sound, nausea, and vomiting. There are several medications available for the treatment of migraines, each with its own benefits and drawbacks.

      Ibuprofen is a simple analgesic that is recommended by the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) for the treatment of acute migraine attacks. It is safe for patients with ischaemic heart disease, but the daily dose should not exceed 1200 mg.

      Sumatriptan is a serotonin-receptor agonist that causes intracerebral vasoconstriction. It is recommended by NICE for the treatment of acute migraines, but it is contraindicated in patients with a history of ischaemic heart disease.

      Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant that is used for long-term prophylaxis of migraines. It is recommended by NICE for this use but not for acute treatment.

      Co-codamol, an opiate medication, is not recommended by NICE for the treatment of migraines due to the risk of medication-overuse headache and worsening of nausea and vomiting symptoms.

      Ergotamine tartrate, another medication that was previously used to treat migraines, is now limited in use due to its unpleasant side effects such as nausea and vomiting. NICE advises against its use for the treatment of acute migraines.

      In conclusion, the choice of medication for the treatment of migraines should be based on the patient’s medical history and the severity of their symptoms. Patients should consult with their healthcare provider to determine the best treatment plan for their individual needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      10.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 68-year-old psychiatric patient is brought to the Emergency Room, complaining of excessive...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old psychiatric patient is brought to the Emergency Room, complaining of excessive thirst. He is carrying multiple shopping bags and has spent a significant amount of money. Blood tests reveal a urea level of 20.5 mmol/l (reference range 2.5–7.1 mmol/l), a creatinine level of 190 μmol/l (reference range 53–106 μmol/l) and a sodium level of 144 mmol/l (reference range 135–145 mmol/l). Urinary osmolality is low.
      What is the most likely diagnosis based on this clinical presentation?

      Your Answer: Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH)

      Correct Answer: Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus (DI)

      Explanation:

      Medical Conditions Explained: Nephrogenic Diabetes Insipidus, Cranial Diabetes Insipidus, Chronic Reflux Nephropathy, Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone Secretion, and Psychogenic Polydipsia

      Nephrogenic Diabetes Insipidus (DI)
      Nephrogenic DI is a condition where the kidneys are unable to concentrate urine due to resistance to the action of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). This can be caused by lithium toxicity, which is commonly used to treat bipolar affective disorder. Symptoms include passing large volumes of dilute urine and a urinary specific gravity of 1.005 or less. Treatment involves replacing fluid losses with dextrose and water or hypo-osmolar intravenous fluids, as well as a low-protein, low-sodium diet. Alternative medication to lithium may be considered after consultation with a psychiatrist.

      Cranial Diabetes Insipidus
      Cranial DI, also known as central or neurogenic DI, is caused by decreased secretion of ADH, resulting in polyuria and polydipsia. Urine osmolality will be less than 300 mOsm/kg after a water deprivation test, and will rise to over 750 mOsm/kg after ADH administration.

      Chronic Reflux Nephropathy
      Reflux nephropathy is a condition where urine flows back from the bladder to the kidneys, causing renal damage. It is typically seen in children with urinary tract abnormalities, but can also occur with conditions that obstruct urine flow. Symptoms include those of nephrotic syndrome and urinary tract infections, but this diagnosis is not consistent with the clinical presentation in this scenario.

      Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone Secretion (SIADH)
      SIADH is characterized by hyponatremia and hypo-osmolality due to excessive secretion or action of ADH, resulting in impaired water excretion. However, the patient in this scenario is presenting with hypernatremia, which is not consistent with SIADH.

      Psychogenic Polydipsia
      Psychogenic polydipsia is excessive fluid intake without physiological stimuli, often caused by psychiatric disorders such as schizophrenia or bipolar affective disorder. It is accompanied by the sensation of dry mouth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      237.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 38-year-old woman complains of a sudden 'droop' on the right side of...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman complains of a sudden 'droop' on the right side of her face upon waking up this morning. She denies any weakness in her limbs, difficulty swallowing, or changes in her vision. Upon examination, you observe paralysis on the upper and lower right side of her face. Which of the following symptoms would be most indicative of Bell's palsy?

      Your Answer: Vesicular rash around the ear

      Correct Answer: Hyperacusis

      Explanation:

      Ramsey Hunt syndrome can be diagnosed based on the presence of a vesicular rash near the ear, which is often accompanied by hyperacusis in approximately one-third of patients.

      Understanding Bell’s Palsy

      Bell’s palsy is a sudden, one-sided facial nerve paralysis of unknown cause. It is more common in individuals aged 20-40 years and pregnant women. The condition is characterized by lower motor neuron facial nerve palsy, which affects the forehead. Unlike upper motor neuron lesions, the upper face is spared. Patients may also experience post-auricular pain, altered taste, dry eyes, and hyperacusis.

      The management of Bell’s palsy has been a subject of debate. However, it is now widely accepted that all patients should receive oral prednisolone within 72 hours of onset. The addition of antiviral medications is still a matter of discussion, but it may be beneficial for severe facial palsy. Eye care is also crucial to prevent exposure keratopathy, and patients should be prescribed artificial tears and eye lubricants. If they are unable to close their eyes at bedtime, they should tape them closed using microporous tape.

      If the paralysis shows no sign of improvement after three weeks, an urgent referral to ENT is necessary. Patients with long-standing weakness may require a referral to plastic surgery. The prognosis for Bell’s palsy is generally good, with most patients making a full recovery within 3-4 months. However, untreated patients may experience permanent moderate to severe weakness in around 15% of cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      10.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 4-year-old boy is brought to his General Practitioner (GP) by his mother....

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old boy is brought to his General Practitioner (GP) by his mother. She is concerned that he has had consistently delayed motor milestones and that he has severe behavioural difficulties. To stand up from a sitting position, he first kneels on all fours and then uses his hands to ‘walk himself up’. The GP notices that the child has hypertrophy of his calf muscles.
      Which of the following tests is useful in the diagnosis of the underlying condition?
      Select the SINGLE most useful test from the list below.

      Your Answer: Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) spine

      Correct Answer: Creatine kinase

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy and Wilson’s Disease

      Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) and Wilson’s disease are two conditions that can present with non-specific symptoms. Here, we discuss the diagnostic tests used to identify these conditions.

      DMD is an X-linked recessive condition that predominantly affects males. Diagnosis is usually made by significantly elevated creatine kinase levels and genetic testing. Muscle biopsy may also be required. Symptoms usually present by age three and include delayed walking, muscle weakness, pseudohypertrophy of calf muscles, and learning difficulties. An MRI spine or head is not helpful in diagnosis as DMD is not caused by a central nervous system or spinal pathology.

      Wilson’s disease often presents with signs of liver failure and non-specific symptoms such as tiredness, weight loss, and abdominal pain. Neurological symptoms such as tremors, loss of motor skills, and behavioural problems are more common in teenagers and adults. Diagnosis is made by measuring serum caeruloplasmin levels and genetic testing.

      In summary, elevated creatine kinase levels and genetic testing are used to diagnose DMD, while serum caeruloplasmin levels and genetic testing are used to diagnose Wilson’s disease. MRI scans are not helpful in the diagnosis of either condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      61.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 50-year-old woman is admitted to the Surgical Ward with severe loin-to-groin abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman is admitted to the Surgical Ward with severe loin-to-groin abdominal pain. A computed tomography scan of the kidney, ureter and bladder (CT-KUB) reveals a right-sided renal calculus. During the morning ward round she admits that for the previous few weeks she has been having trouble with increased urinary frequency, thirst, constipation and altered mood.
      A diagnosis of primary hyperparathyroidism is suspected. Some blood tests are taken which show:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Estimated glomerular filtration rate > 60 ml/min
      Adjusted calcium 3.0 mmol/l 2.1–2.6 mmol/l
      Phosphate 0.6 mmol/l 0.8–1.4 mmol/l
      Parathyroid hormone (PTH) 5.3 pmol/l 1.2–5.8 pmol/l
      Which of the following is the definitive management option?

      Select ONE option only.

      Your Answer: Bisphosphonates

      Correct Answer: Refer for parathyroid surgery

      Explanation:

      Referral for Parathyroid Surgery in Primary Hyperparathyroidism

      Primary hyperparathyroidism is a condition where the parathyroid glands produce too much parathyroid hormone (PTH), leading to high levels of calcium in the blood. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends parathyroidectomy as the preferred treatment for most patients with diagnosed primary hyperparathyroidism due to its high cure rates and reduced risk of drug side effects.

      Referral for parathyroid surgery is indicated for patients with confirmed hyperparathyroidism who have symptoms of hypercalcaemia, end-organ disease, or an albumin-adjusted serum calcium level of 2.85 mmol/l or above. This patient fits all three criteria and should be referred for parathyroid surgery.

      Bisphosphonates and cinacalcet are only indicated when parathyroid surgery is not acceptable, patients are unfit for surgery, or have mild hypercalcaemia and symptoms. Laxatives and watchful waiting are not appropriate management options for hyperparathyroidism.

      In conclusion, referral for parathyroid surgery is the most appropriate management option for patients with primary hyperparathyroidism who meet the criteria for surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      48.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 25-year-old homeless person is brought into the general practice surgery, having been...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old homeless person is brought into the general practice surgery, having been found nearby in a disoriented state.
      On examination, they have neck stiffness and a non-blanching rash on their arms. Their vital signs are stable except for fever and tachycardia. They score 13/15 on the Glasgow Coma Scale. An ambulance has been called to transfer them to the hospital.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate action to perform while awaiting the ambulance?

      Your Answer: Give an intravenous (IV) fluid bolus

      Correct Answer: Administer a dose of parenteral benzylpenicillin

      Explanation:

      Appropriate Actions for Suspected Bacterial Meningitis with Non-Blanching Rash

      When a patient presents with suspected bacterial meningitis and a non-blanching rash, it is crucial to take appropriate actions promptly. Administering a single dose of parenteral benzylpenicillin at the earliest opportunity is recommended, but this should not delay the transfer to the hospital. It is also important to notify the regional Public Health consultant about the suspected case.

      While administering paracetamol for fever and starting the patient on high-flow oxygen may be necessary in some cases, they would not take priority over the administration of parenteral benzylpenicillin. Additionally, an IV fluid bolus is not indicated unless the patient’s vital signs are unstable. By taking these appropriate actions, healthcare providers can help ensure the best possible outcome for patients with suspected bacterial meningitis and non-blanching rash.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 68-year-old retired teacher visits her primary care physician (PCP) complaining of gradual...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old retired teacher visits her primary care physician (PCP) complaining of gradual abdominal swelling that has been present for a few months. She reports experiencing general abdominal tenderness, which is more pronounced in her right flank. Her blood tests reveal normochromic/normocytic anaemia, decreased serum albumin level, and an elevated creatinine level of 170 μmol/l (reference range 35–7 μmol/l). Additionally, her Ca-125 level is elevated. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ovarian carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis: Abdominal Swelling and Tenderness in a Female Patient

      Ovarian carcinoma is the most likely diagnosis for a female patient presenting with abdominal swelling and tenderness. This type of cancer is the leading cause of gynecological cancer deaths in developed countries, with a higher incidence in women over 55 years of age and those with a family history of breast or ovarian cancer. Imaging studies, such as ultrasonography, CT, and MRI, can aid in diagnosis, along with elevated levels of Ca-125. Surgery is often the initial treatment, followed by chemotherapy. However, the prognosis for advanced cases is poor.

      Cervical carcinoma is unlikely in this patient, as it typically presents with abnormal vaginal bleeding, discomfort, and discharge, which are not reported.

      Cirrhosis of the liver is a possibility, but the patient does not display common signs and symptoms, such as coagulopathy, hepatic encephalopathy, or variceal bleeding.

      Wilson disease is a rare inherited disorder of copper metabolism that can cause hepatic dysfunction, but this patient does not display the characteristic hyperpigmentation, hepatomegaly, or diabetes mellitus.

      Haemochromatosis is also unlikely, as the patient does not display the clinical features of the disease, such as hyperpigmentation, hepatomegaly, or diabetes mellitus, and there is no evidence of iron overload.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      86.7
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  • Question 8 - A 35-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a cat bite on...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a cat bite on her hand while house-sitting for her neighbor. She complains of mild pain and swelling around the bite but denies having a fever. Upon examination, there is a small puncture wound on the palm of her left hand with mild erythema around it, but no visible purulent discharge. What is the best course of treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Co-amoxiclav

      Explanation:

      When a patient suffers an animal bite, it is likely that the wound will be infected with multiple types of bacteria. The most frequently identified bacteria in cultures from animal bites is Pasteurella multocida. To prevent infection, it is important to clean the wound thoroughly and provide the patient with tetanus and antibiotics. According to NICE guidelines, co-amoxiclav is the preferred antibiotic as it effectively targets the bacteria commonly found in animal bites.

      Animal and Human Bites: Causes and Management

      Animal and human bites are common injuries that can lead to infections caused by various microorganisms. Dogs and cats are the most common animals involved in bites, with Pasteurella multocida being the most commonly isolated organism. On the other hand, human bites can cause infections from both aerobic and anaerobic bacteria, including Streptococci spp., Staphylococcus aureus, Eikenella, Fusobacterium, and Prevotella.

      To manage animal and human bites, it is important to cleanse the wound thoroughly. Puncture wounds should not be sutured closed unless there is a risk of cosmesis. The current recommendation for treatment is co-amoxiclav, but if the patient is allergic to penicillin, doxycycline and metronidazole are recommended. It is also important to consider the risk of viral infections such as HIV and hepatitis C in human bites.

      In summary, animal and human bites can lead to infections caused by various microorganisms. Proper wound cleansing and appropriate antibiotic treatment are essential in managing these injuries. Additionally, healthcare providers should consider the risk of viral infections in human bites.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      2.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - An 80-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of chest pain and...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of chest pain and shortness of breath. Her oxygen saturation is 90%. After receiving oxygen, she experiences ventricular fibrillation and has a GCS of 3. ALS is initiated. The patient has a medical history of type 2 diabetes and multiple pulmonary emboli. What additional medication should be considered for her management during ALS?

      Your Answer: Alteplase

      Explanation:

      During CPR, thrombolytic drugs should be considered if a pulmonary embolism (PE) is suspected. Alteplase is a suitable option for advanced life support (ALS) in such cases. This is particularly relevant for patients who present with symptoms suggestive of a PE and have a medical history of previous pulmonary emboli. Thrombolysis can be a life-saving intervention for these patients.

      Adenosine is not appropriate for this situation as it is a class 5 antiarrhythmic used mainly for supraventricular tachycardia. Apixaban is an anticoagulant that is useful for long-term treatment and prevention of pulmonary emboli, but it is not suitable for immediate use in a hemodynamically unstable patient requiring advanced life support. Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that is used in peripheral arterial disease and acute coronary syndrome, but it has no role in the acute treatment of a life-threatening pulmonary embolism.

      The 2015 Resus Council guidelines for adult advanced life support outline the steps to be taken when dealing with patients with shockable and non-shockable rhythms. For both types of patients, chest compressions are a crucial part of the process, with a ratio of 30 compressions to 2 ventilations. Defibrillation is recommended for shockable rhythms, with a single shock for VF/pulseless VT followed by 2 minutes of CPR. Adrenaline and amiodarone are the drugs of choice for non-shockable rhythms, with adrenaline given as soon as possible and amiodarone administered after 3 shocks for VF/pulseless VT. Thrombolytic drugs should be considered if a pulmonary embolus is suspected. Atropine is no longer recommended for routine use in asystole or PEA. Oxygen should be titrated to achieve saturations of 94-98% following successful resuscitation. The Hs and Ts should be considered as potential reversible causes of cardiac arrest.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 55-year-old woman comes to the clinic with symptoms of petechiae, purpura, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman comes to the clinic with symptoms of petechiae, purpura, and epistaxis. She had a cold 6 weeks ago and has no known family history of bleeding disorders. Her lab results show a platelet count of 80 * 109/L (normal range: 150 - 400). What is the recommended first-line treatment for her likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Fresh frozen plasma (FFP) and cryoprecipitate transfusion

      Correct Answer: Oral prednisolone

      Explanation:

      Understanding Immune Thrombocytopenia (ITP) in Adults

      Immune thrombocytopenia (ITP) is a condition where the immune system attacks and reduces the number of platelets in the blood. This is caused by antibodies targeting the glycoprotein IIb/IIIa or Ib-V-IX complex. While children with ITP usually experience acute thrombocytopenia after an infection or vaccination, adults tend to have a more chronic form of the condition. ITP is more common in older females and may be detected incidentally during routine blood tests. Symptoms may include petechiae, purpura, and bleeding, but catastrophic bleeding is not a common presentation.

      To diagnose ITP, a full blood count and blood film are typically performed. While a bone marrow examination is no longer routinely used, antiplatelet antibody testing may be done, although it has poor sensitivity and does not affect clinical management. The first-line treatment for ITP is oral prednisolone, but pooled normal human immunoglobulin (IVIG) may also be used if active bleeding or an urgent invasive procedure is required. Splenectomy is now less commonly used as a treatment option.

      In some cases, ITP may be associated with autoimmune haemolytic anaemia (AIHA), which is known as Evan’s syndrome. It is important for individuals with ITP to work closely with their healthcare provider to manage their condition and prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 5-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department by his parents with...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department by his parents with a 3-day history of diarrhoea; he has also vomited twice today. He is alert and responsive and his observations are within normal limits.
      On examination, he has moist mucous membranes, normal skin turgor, normal skin colour, normal peripheral pulses and a normal capillary refill time. His abdomen is soft and nontender and his peripheries are warm.
      What is the most appropriate initial management option for this patient?

      Your Answer: Bolus intravenous (IV) 20 ml/kg of 0.9% sodium chloride solution

      Correct Answer: Oral rehydration solution (ORS)

      Explanation:

      Management of Dehydration in Children with Gastroenteritis

      Gastroenteritis is a common illness in children that can lead to dehydration if not managed properly. Oral rehydration solution (ORS) is the first-line treatment for children at increased risk of dehydration, including those who have vomited more than twice in the last 24 hours or have other risk factors such as age less than one year, low birth weight, or signs of malnutrition. However, if a child is clinically dehydrated and not responding to ORS, intravenous (IV) fluids may be necessary.

      It is important to encourage fluid intake in children with gastroenteritis, but carbonated drinks and fruit juices should be avoided as they can worsen diarrhea. If a child is unable to drink, an NG tube may be considered, but ORS should be attempted first. A bolus of IV fluids is only indicated in cases of suspected or confirmed shock.

      Overall, prompt recognition and management of dehydration in children with gastroenteritis can prevent serious complications and improve outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      282
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 56-year-old man undergoes a routine medical check-up for his job. He shows...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old man undergoes a routine medical check-up for his job. He shows no symptoms and his clinical examination is normal. What test would confirm a diagnosis of impaired fasting glucose?

      Your Answer: Fasting glucose 6.8 mmol/L on two occasions

      Explanation:

      An oral glucose tolerance test result of 8.4 mmol/L after 2 hours with a 75g glucose load suggests impaired glucose tolerance instead of impaired fasting glucose.

      Type 2 diabetes mellitus can be diagnosed through a plasma glucose or HbA1c sample. The diagnostic criteria vary depending on whether the patient is experiencing symptoms or not. If the patient is symptomatic, a fasting glucose level of 7.0 mmol/l or higher or a random glucose level of 11.1 mmol/l or higher (or after a 75g oral glucose tolerance test) indicates diabetes. If the patient is asymptomatic, the same criteria apply but must be demonstrated on two separate occasions.

      In 2011, the World Health Organization released supplementary guidance on the use of HbA1c for diagnosing diabetes. A HbA1c level of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) or higher is diagnostic of diabetes mellitus. However, a HbA1c value of less than 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) does not exclude diabetes and may not be as sensitive as fasting samples for detecting diabetes. For patients without symptoms, the test must be repeated to confirm the diagnosis. It is important to note that increased red cell turnover can cause misleading HbA1c results.

      There are certain conditions where HbA1c cannot be used for diagnosis, such as haemoglobinopathies, haemolytic anaemia, untreated iron deficiency anaemia, suspected gestational diabetes, children, HIV, chronic kidney disease, and people taking medication that may cause hyperglycaemia (such as corticosteroids).

      Impaired fasting glucose (IFG) is defined as a fasting glucose level of 6.1 mmol/l or higher but less than 7.0 mmol/l. Impaired glucose tolerance (IGT) is defined as a fasting plasma glucose level less than 7.0 mmol/l and an OGTT 2-hour value of 7.8 mmol/l or higher but less than 11.1 mmol/l. People with IFG should be offered an oral glucose tolerance test to rule out a diagnosis of diabetes. A result below 11.1 mmol/l but above 7.8 mmol/l indicates that the person does not have diabetes but does have IGT.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      257.6
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  • Question 13 - A 65-year-old man with a history of Parkinson's disease comes to the clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with a history of Parkinson's disease comes to the clinic complaining of an itchy, red rash on his neck, behind his ears, and around the nasolabial folds. He experienced a similar outbreak last year but did not seek medical attention. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Levodopa associated dermatitis

      Correct Answer: Seborrhoeic dermatitis

      Explanation:

      Patients with Parkinson’s disease are more likely to experience seborrhoeic dermatitis.

      Understanding Seborrhoeic Dermatitis in Adults

      Seborrhoeic dermatitis is a chronic skin condition that affects around 2% of the general population. It is caused by an inflammatory reaction related to the overgrowth of a fungus called Malassezia furfur, which is a normal inhabitant of the skin. The condition is characterized by eczematous lesions that appear on the sebum-rich areas of the body, such as the scalp, periorbital, auricular, and nasolabial folds. It can also lead to the development of otitis externa and blepharitis.

      Seborrhoeic dermatitis is often associated with other medical conditions, such as HIV and Parkinson’s disease. The management of the condition depends on the affected area. For scalp disease, over-the-counter preparations containing zinc pyrithione and tar are usually the first-line treatment. If these are not effective, ketoconazole is the preferred second-line agent. Selenium sulphide and topical corticosteroids may also be useful.

      For the face and body, topical antifungals such as ketoconazole and topical steroids are often used. However, it is important to use steroids for short periods only to avoid side effects. Seborrhoeic dermatitis can be difficult to treat, and recurrences are common. Therefore, it is important to work closely with a healthcare provider to manage the condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      9.6
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 57-year-old patient visits the GP clinic complaining of painful burning sensations in...

    Correct

    • A 57-year-old patient visits the GP clinic complaining of painful burning sensations in her chest for the past week, particularly after eating. She also mentions feeling bloated, which is a new experience for her. During the examination, the GP observes some abdominal tenderness and decides to order an upper GI endoscopy. The patient is currently taking aspirin, metformin, and omeprazole. What guidance should the GP offer her regarding the procedure?

      Your Answer: Stop the omeprazole two weeks before the procedure

      Explanation:

      To ensure proper identification of any pathology during the upper GI endoscopy, it is recommended that the patient discontinues the use of proton pump inhibitors, such as omeprazole, at least two weeks prior to the procedure.

      Investigating Gastro-Oesophageal Reflux Disease

      Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) can be difficult to diagnose as there is often a poor correlation between symptoms and the appearance of the oesophagus during endoscopy. However, there are certain indications for upper GI endoscopy, including age over 55 years, symptoms lasting more than four weeks or persistent symptoms despite treatment, dysphagia, relapsing symptoms, and weight loss. If endoscopy is negative, further investigation may be necessary. The gold standard test for diagnosis is 24-hour oesophageal pH monitoring. It is important to consider these investigations in order to accurately diagnose and treat GORD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      12.1
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 65-year-old man with a history of recurrent lower respiratory tract infections has...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with a history of recurrent lower respiratory tract infections has been diagnosed with bilateral bronchiectasis after undergoing a high resolution CT scan. What is the most crucial factor in managing his symptoms in the long run?

      Your Answer: Inhaled corticosteroids

      Correct Answer: Postural drainage

      Explanation:

      To manage symptoms in individuals with non-CF bronchiectasis, a combination of inspiratory muscle training and postural drainage can be effective.

      Managing Bronchiectasis

      Bronchiectasis is a condition where the airways become permanently dilated due to chronic inflammation or infection. Before starting treatment, it is important to identify any underlying causes that can be treated, such as immune deficiency. The management of bronchiectasis includes physical training, such as inspiratory muscle training, which has been shown to be effective for patients without cystic fibrosis. Postural drainage, antibiotics for exacerbations, and long-term rotating antibiotics for severe cases are also recommended. Bronchodilators may be used in selected cases, and immunizations are important to prevent infections. Surgery may be considered for localized disease. The most common organisms isolated from patients with bronchiectasis include Haemophilus influenzae, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Klebsiella spp., and Streptococcus pneumoniae.

      Spacing:

      Bronchiectasis is a condition where the airways become permanently dilated due to chronic inflammation or infection. Before starting treatment, it is important to identify any underlying causes that can be treated, such as immune deficiency.

      The management of bronchiectasis includes physical training, such as inspiratory muscle training, which has been shown to be effective for patients without cystic fibrosis. Postural drainage, antibiotics for exacerbations, and long-term rotating antibiotics for severe cases are also recommended. Bronchodilators may be used in selected cases, and immunizations are important to prevent infections. Surgery may be considered for localized disease.

      The most common organisms isolated from patients with bronchiectasis include Haemophilus influenzae, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Klebsiella spp., and Streptococcus pneumoniae.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      419.4
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 47-year-old man with kidney disease develops pulmonary tuberculosis. His recent blood tests...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old man with kidney disease develops pulmonary tuberculosis. His recent blood tests show an eGFR of 50 ml/min and a creatinine clearance of 30 ml/min. Which ONE drug should be administered in a reduced dose?

      Your Answer: Rifampicin

      Correct Answer: Ethambutol

      Explanation:

      The treatment of tuberculosis is a complex process that requires the expertise of a specialist in the field, such as a respiratory physician or an infectivologist. The first-line drugs used for active tuberculosis without CNS involvement are isoniazid, rifampicin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol. These drugs are given together for the first 2 months of therapy, followed by continued treatment with just isoniazid and rifampicin for an additional 4 months. Pyridoxine is added to the treatment regimen to reduce the risk of isoniazid-induced peripheral neuropathy. If there is CNS involvement, the four drugs (and pyridoxine) are given together for 2 months, followed by continued treatment with isoniazid (with pyridoxine) and rifampicin for an additional 10 months. It is important to monitor liver function tests before and during treatment, and to educate patients on the potential side effects of the drugs and when to seek medical attention. Treatment-resistant tuberculosis cases are becoming more common and require special management and public health considerations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 70-year-old man with a 12-year history of gastro-oesophageal reflux disease presents with...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man with a 12-year history of gastro-oesophageal reflux disease presents with dysphagia. Upon endoscopy, an obstructive lesion is observed that is highly suspicious of oesophageal cancer. What is the expected result of the biopsy?

      Your Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma

      Correct Answer: Adenocarcinoma

      Explanation:

      Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GORD) or Barrett’s esophagus are linked to the development of oesophageal adenocarcinoma.

      Oesophageal Cancer: Types, Risk Factors, Features, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Oesophageal cancer used to be mostly squamous cell carcinoma, but adenocarcinoma is now becoming more common, especially in patients with a history of gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) or Barrett’s. Adenocarcinoma is usually located near the gastroesophageal junction, while squamous cell tumours are found in the upper two-thirds of the oesophagus.

      Risk factors for adenocarcinoma include GORD, Barrett’s oesophagus, smoking, achalasia, and obesity. Squamous cell cancer is more common in the developing world and is associated with smoking, alcohol, achalasia, Plummer-Vinson syndrome, and diets rich in nitrosamines.

      The most common presenting symptom for both types of oesophageal cancer is dysphagia, followed by anorexia and weight loss. Other possible features include odynophagia, hoarseness, melaena, vomiting, and cough.

      Diagnosis is done through upper GI endoscopy with biopsy, endoscopic ultrasound for locoregional staging, CT scanning for initial staging, and FDG-PET CT for detecting occult metastases. Laparoscopy may also be performed to detect occult peritoneal disease.

      Operable disease is best managed by surgical resection, with the most common procedure being an Ivor-Lewis type oesophagectomy. However, the biggest surgical challenge is anastomotic leak, which can result in mediastinitis. Adjuvant chemotherapy may also be used in many patients.

      Overall, oesophageal cancer is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Understanding the types, risk factors, features, diagnosis, and treatment options can help patients and healthcare providers make informed decisions about managing this disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 65-year-old female is referred for management of a chronic ulcer above the...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old female is referred for management of a chronic ulcer above the left medial malleolus. The ankle-brachial pressure index readings are as follows:
      Right 0.95
      Left 0.95
      The ulcer has been treated with standard dressings by the District Nurse. What is the best course of action to increase the chances of healing the ulcer?

      Your Answer: Intermittent pneumatic compression

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Compression bandaging is recommended for the management of venous ulceration, as the ankle-brachial pressure index readings suggest that the ulcers are caused by venous insufficiency rather than arterial issues.

      Venous Ulceration and its Management

      Venous ulceration is a type of ulcer that is commonly seen above the medial malleolus. To assess for poor arterial flow that could impair healing, an ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI) is important in non-healing ulcers. A normal ABPI is usually between 0.9 – 1.2, while values below 0.9 indicate arterial disease. Interestingly, values above 1.3 may also indicate arterial disease, particularly in diabetics, due to false-negative results caused by arterial calcification.

      The only treatment that has been shown to be of real benefit for venous ulceration is compression bandaging, usually four-layer. Oral pentoxifylline, a peripheral vasodilator, can also improve the healing rate. There is some small evidence supporting the use of flavonoids, but little evidence to suggest benefit from hydrocolloid dressings, topical growth factors, ultrasound therapy, and intermittent pneumatic compression. Proper management of venous ulceration is crucial to promote healing and prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      3.5
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - An 87-year-old woman presents to the Haematology Clinic to review her latest blood...

    Incorrect

    • An 87-year-old woman presents to the Haematology Clinic to review her latest blood test results. These show that her international normalised ratio (INR) is 8.9 (normal range: 2–3). She usually takes warfarin for atrial fibrillation. The patient's General Practitioner has telephoned her to advise that she stop taking the warfarin. The patient says that she feels well and is asymptomatic.
      What is the most appropriate next step in this patient's management?

      Your Answer: Give intramuscular (IM) vitamin K immediately and re-check her INR in 24 hours

      Correct Answer: Give a dose of vitamin K immediately and re-check her INR in 24 hours

      Explanation:

      Managing High INR Levels in Patients on Warfarin: Treatment Options

      When a patient on warfarin presents with a high INR level, it is important to take immediate action to prevent spontaneous bleeding and haemorrhage. Here are some treatment options and their implications:

      1. Give a dose of vitamin K immediately and re-check her INR in 24 hours: Administering vitamin K is necessary to reverse the effects of warfarin, which is a vitamin K antagonist. In this situation, it is important to act quickly to reduce the INR level and prevent haemorrhage.

      2. Give intramuscular (IM) vitamin K immediately and re-check her INR in 24 hours: While IM vitamin K can be given in cases where peripheral access is difficult, it is slower acting. In a situation with a high INR level, it is important to reduce the INR as soon as possible to prevent haemorrhage.

      3. Give vitamin K immediately and re-check her INR in one week: While giving vitamin K is necessary to prevent spontaneous haemorrhage, it is important to recheck the INR relatively soon to ensure it has dropped below the required range. Waiting a week would be too long, and the INR should be rechecked within 24 hours of administering vitamin K.

      4. Stop warfarin for life: If the patient has no actual side-effects from warfarin, such as anaphylaxis, they can continue to use it long-term with tighter control.

      5. Switch from warfarin to aspirin: Aspirin cannot be used as a substitute for warfarin as it does not prevent thrombosis.

      In conclusion, managing high INR levels in patients on warfarin requires prompt action to prevent haemorrhage. Vitamin K administration is necessary, and the INR level should be rechecked within 24 hours to ensure it has dropped below the required range.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 12-month-old boy is brought into morning surgery by a concerned first-time mother....

    Correct

    • A 12-month-old boy is brought into morning surgery by a concerned first-time mother. She reports several episodes of her baby crying inconsolably and drawing his legs towards his chest since last night. Today he passed some bright red jelly-like blood in his nappy without any stool.
      Which of the following is the likely cause?

      Your Answer: Intussusception

      Explanation:

      Understanding Intussusception: A Common Cause of Abdominal Pain in Children

      Intussusception is a medical condition where one segment of the bowel invaginates into another, causing obstruction and compromise to the blood supply of that part of the bowel. This can lead to symptoms such as colicky abdominal pains, vomiting, and passing of redcurrant stools. It is a common cause of abdominal pain in children and requires immediate medical attention.

      Gastroenteritis, appendicitis, constipation, and volvulus are all conditions that can cause abdominal pain in children, but they are not likely to present with the specific symptoms of intussusception. Any child with suspected intussusception should be admitted to the hospital immediately for further investigation and observation.

      Understanding the symptoms and causes of intussusception can help parents and caregivers recognize the condition and seek prompt medical attention for their child.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      9.3
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  • Question 21 - As a foundation year two doctor in the emergency department, you are tasked...

    Incorrect

    • As a foundation year two doctor in the emergency department, you are tasked to assess a twenty-six-year-old man who fell on his right ankle while intoxicated last night. According to the patient, he was able to bear weight after the incident and continued his night out. However, he woke up the next day with ankle swelling and pain. Upon examination, you observed minimal swelling and bruising, but there is general tenderness and good mobility. What imaging modality would you recommend for this case?

      Your Answer: X-ray ankle in department

      Correct Answer: No imaging

      Explanation:

      The Ottowa ankle rules specify that imaging is necessary after trauma if there is point tenderness over the distal 6 cm of the lateral or medial malleolus, or an inability to bear weight by at least four steps immediately after the injury and in the emergency department. X-ray is the recommended first-line imaging. As this patient does not exhibit any of these indications, an x-ray is not needed.

      Ottawa Rules for Ankle Injuries

      The Ottawa Rules provide a guideline for determining whether an ankle x-ray is necessary after an injury. These rules have a sensitivity approaching 100%, meaning they are highly accurate. An ankle x-ray is only required if there is pain in the malleolar zone and one of the following findings: bony tenderness at the lateral malleolar zone or medial malleolar zone, or inability to walk four weight-bearing steps immediately after the injury and in the emergency department.

      The lateral malleolar zone is from the tip of the lateral malleolus to include the lower 6 cm of the posterior border of the fibular, while the medial malleolar zone is from the tip of the medial malleolus to the lower 6 cm of the posterior border of the tibia. These rules help healthcare professionals determine whether an ankle x-ray is necessary, which can save time and resources. It is important to note that there are also Ottawa rules available for foot and knee injuries. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can provide efficient and effective care for ankle injuries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      626.9
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 75-year-old man with type II diabetes mellitus is admitted to hospital with...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man with type II diabetes mellitus is admitted to hospital with pain and swelling in the left ear and face. On examination, he is febrile, the external auditory canal is red, tender and swollen with green purulent discharge. The left side of the face is swollen, with tenderness over the left temporal bone. He has left-sided facial nerve palsy involving the forehead.
      What is the primary micro-organism most likely responsible for this infection?

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Correct Answer: Pseudomonas aeruginosa

      Explanation:

      Bacterial Causes of Malignant Otitis Externa

      Malignant otitis externa is a serious infection that primarily affects patients with uncontrolled diabetes. The infection can spread to the temporal bone, causing osteomyelitis, cranial nerve palsies, and potentially central nervous system infection. The most common causative agent for this condition is Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

      Haemophilus influenzae is a Gram-negative coccobacillus that can cause various infections, including cellulitis, but it is not consistent with the symptoms of malignant otitis externa.

      Staphylococcus aureus, a commensal bacterium, can cause skin and soft-tissue infections, including malignant otitis externa. The characteristic signs and symptoms presented by the patient are more typical of this condition than cellulitis.

      Streptococcus pneumoniae is a common cause of pneumonia and meningitis, but it is not consistent with the symptoms of malignant otitis externa.

      Listeria monocytogenes is a rare cause of infection that primarily affects newborns, the elderly, and immunocompromised patients. It is not consistent with the clinical scenario provided.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      10.6
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 45-year-old history teacher has contacted his doctor reporting a one-hour episode of...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old history teacher has contacted his doctor reporting a one-hour episode of weakness in his left arm and leg earlier today, which has since resolved. He denies any facial drooping, residual weakness, or slurred speech. He insists that he feels completely healthy and only called because his wife urged him to. The patient has a previous diagnosis of a pulmonary embolism and is currently taking apixaban. What is the initial approach to managing this patient?

      Your Answer: TIA clinic within 24 hours

      Correct Answer: Urgent admission to the emergency department for urgent CT head

      Explanation:

      Immediate admission for imaging to rule out a hemorrhage is necessary if a patient with suspected TIA is on warfarin, a DOAC, or has a bleeding disorder.

      A transient ischaemic attack (TIA) is a brief period of neurological deficit caused by a vascular issue, lasting less than an hour. The original definition of a TIA was based on time, but it is now recognized that even short periods of ischaemia can result in pathological changes to the brain. Therefore, a new ’tissue-based’ definition is now used. The clinical features of a TIA are similar to those of a stroke, but the symptoms resolve within an hour. Possible features include unilateral weakness or sensory loss, aphasia or dysarthria, ataxia, vertigo, or loss of balance, visual problems, and sudden transient loss of vision in one eye (amaurosis fugax).

      NICE recommends immediate antithrombotic therapy with aspirin 300 mg unless the patient has a bleeding disorder or is taking an anticoagulant. If the patient has had more than one TIA or has a suspected cardioembolic source or severe carotid stenosis, specialist review is necessary. Urgent assessment is required within 24 hours for patients who have had a suspected TIA in the last 7 days. Referral for specialist assessment is necessary as soon as possible within 7 days for patients who have had a suspected TIA more than a week previously. Neuroimaging and carotid imaging are recommended, and antithrombotic therapy is necessary. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if the carotid stenosis is greater than 70% according to ECST criteria or greater than 50% according to NASCET criteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 62-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department with a worsening headache for...

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department with a worsening headache for one day. She noticed that the pain significantly worsened when she was brushing her hair. She also complains of pain in her jaw while talking.
      Which of the following investigations is the gold standard test to confirm the suspected diagnosis of giant-cell arteritis (GCA) in this patient?

      Your Answer: Temporal artery biopsy

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Giant-Cell Arteritis

      Giant-cell arteritis (GCA) is a medical emergency that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment to prevent irreversible vision loss. The gold-standard test for GCA is temporal artery biopsy, which should be performed as soon as the disease is suspected. However, treatment with corticosteroids should not be delayed until the biopsy results are available. Investigating antinuclear antibodies (ANA) is not useful, as they are usually negative in GCA. A CT scan of the brain is not typically performed for suspected GCA, but a CT angiography may be used to evaluate other large arteries. The erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and C-reactive protein (CRP) are commonly elevated in GCA and are part of the initial evaluation. A full blood count with peripheral smear may show normocytic normochromic anemia with or without thrombocytosis. Early recognition and appropriate management of GCA are crucial to prevent serious complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      85.1
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 45-year-old woman presents to the Ophthalmology department with a 3-day history of...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman presents to the Ophthalmology department with a 3-day history of an increasingly painful and swollen left eye. She complains of blurring of vision and pain, especially with eye movements.
      On examination, visual acuity is 6/24 in the left and 6/6 in the right. The periorbital area of the left eye is very swollen and erythematous. The eye itself is red and proptosed. The conjunctiva is chemosed. Eye movements in the left eye are quite restricted in all directions. There is relative afferent pupillary defect on the left. Fundoscopy shows a swollen optic disc in the left eye. Vital observations are as follows:
      Blood pressure 130/80 mmHg
      Heart rate 80 bpm
      Respiratory rate 20 per minute
      Oxygen saturation 97% on air
      Temperature 38.2 °C
      Computed tomography (CT) scan shows some opacities in the ethmoid sinuses.
      What is the definitive treatment for this eye problem?

      Your Answer: Drainage of the ethmoid sinuses

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Ethmoidal Sinusitis and Orbital Cellulitis

      Ethmoidal sinusitis is a common cause of orbital cellulitis, which requires prompt treatment to prevent complications. The most effective treatment for ethmoidal sinusitis is surgical drainage of the sinuses to remove the pus and debris. Antibiotics are also necessary to aid recovery, but they should be administered after the drainage procedure.

      While there are several antibiotics that can be used to treat orbital cellulitis, such as cefuroxime, metronidazole, co-amoxiclav, and Tazocin®, they are not sufficient to address the underlying cause of the condition. Therefore, drainage of the ethmoid sinuses is the definitive treatment for ethmoidal sinusitis and orbital cellulitis.

      In summary, the treatment options for ethmoidal sinusitis and orbital cellulitis include surgical drainage of the sinuses followed by antibiotics. Antibiotics alone are not enough to treat the condition, and the choice of antibiotic may vary depending on the patient’s age and other factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      18.5
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 25-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner (GP) with a 1-day history...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner (GP) with a 1-day history of itching and watery discharge from both eyes.
      On examination, the vision is 6/9 in both eyes. Both pupils are equally reactive to light. The conjunctivae are both chemosed with mild diffuse injection. The eyelids are slightly oedematous.
      Her past medical history includes eczema. Her vital observations are as follows:
      Blood pressure 110/70 mmHg
      Heart rate 65 bpm
      Respiratory rate 12
      Temperature 36.7 °C
      Oxygen saturation 99% on air
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Allergic conjunctivitis

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Different Types of Eye Infections: A Case Study

      The presentation points towards the diagnosis of allergic conjunctivitis. This is due to the patient’s history of itchiness, watery discharge, slightly swollen eyelids, and atopy. It was ruled out that the patient had bacterial conjunctivitis, as it typically presents with more purulent discharges bilaterally. Orbital cellulitis was also ruled out, as the eyelids and orbit would be very swollen and red with restriction and pain in eye movements, and the vital observations were normal. Preseptal cellulitis can present with oedematous eyelids, but the eye itself should be quiet and white. While viral conjunctivitis can present with watery discharges, the patient’s history of atopy and itchiness made allergic conjunctivitis the more likely diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      193.5
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 50-year-old woman with a long history of steroid-treated sarcoidosis presents with extreme...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman with a long history of steroid-treated sarcoidosis presents with extreme thirst and nocturia up to five times a night. Her serum calcium concentration is 2.3 mmol/l (reference range 2.2–2.7 mmol/l), random plasma glucose 4.6 mmol/l (reference range <11.1 mmol/l) and potassium 3.5 mmol/l (reference range 3.6–5.2 mmol/l). After an overnight fast, her serum sodium is 149 mmol/l (reference range 135–145 mmol/l).
      What is the cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Cranial diabetes insipidus

      Explanation:

      Polyuria and polydipsia can be caused by various conditions, including cranial diabetes insipidus, chronic cystitis, hypokalaemia-induced polyuria, iatrogenic adrenal insufficiency, and primary polydipsia. Cranial diabetes insipidus is characterized by decreased secretion of antidiuretic hormone, resulting in the passage of large volumes of dilute urine. Chronic cystitis is an ongoing inflammation of the lower urinary tract, while hypokalaemia-induced polyuria occurs when there is a low concentration of potassium in the filtrate. Iatrogenic adrenal insufficiency is a possible cause of polydipsia/polyuria, but less consistent with this scenario. Primary polydipsia is suspected when large volumes of very dilute urine occur with low-normal plasma osmolality. Differentiating between these conditions can be challenging, but a combination of plasma ADH assay and water deprivation testing can lead to greater accuracy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      20.6
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 48-year-old man comes to the General Practitioner complaining of feeling dizzy and...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old man comes to the General Practitioner complaining of feeling dizzy and experiencing shortness of breath during physical activity. He has a bicuspid aortic valve and is waiting for valve replacement surgery.
      Which of the following murmurs would be the most likely to occur in this patient?

      Your Answer: Ejection systolic murmur loudest over the 2nd intercostal space, left sternal edge

      Correct Answer: Ejection systolic murmur loudest over the 2nd intercostal space, right sternal edge

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Heart Murmurs Based on Location and Type

      Heart murmurs are abnormal sounds heard during a heartbeat and can indicate various cardiac conditions. The location and type of murmur can help differentiate between different conditions.

      Ejection systolic murmur loudest over the 2nd intercostal space, right sternal edge: This is typical for aortic stenosis, which is more likely to occur in a bicuspid aortic valve. The murmur may radiate to the carotids. Pulmonary stenosis, hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy, and atrial septal defect can also cause this type of murmur, but the location would be different.

      Ejection systolic murmur loudest over the 2nd intercostal space, left sternal edge: This location is typical for pulmonary stenosis, not aortic stenosis. The patient’s history indicates symptomatic aortic stenosis, making this finding inconsistent.

      Early diastolic murmur loudest over the 3rd intercostal space, left sternal edge: This type and location of murmur is typical for aortic regurgitation, not aortic stenosis. The location is Erb’s point, where S1 and S2 should both be heard.

      Mid-diastolic murmur loudest over the apex: This type and location of murmur is typical for mitral stenosis, not aortic stenosis. The apex is the mitral area, located at the 5th intercostal space in the midclavicular line.

      Pansystolic murmur loudest over the apex: This type and location of murmur is typical for mitral regurgitation, not aortic stenosis. The apex is the mitral area, located at the 5th intercostal space in the midclavicular line.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      12.1
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 30-year-old male arrives at the emergency department following a brawl at a...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old male arrives at the emergency department following a brawl at a local bar. He appears to be heavily intoxicated and is loudly claiming that he was bitten on the hand while attempting to throw a punch. Upon examination, there is evidence of a bite mark on his right hand that has broken the skin but has not caused any bleeding. The wound site shows no signs of redness, swelling, necrotic tissue, or discharge. Despite being disruptive and agitated, the man is otherwise stable and does not have a fever. What is the most appropriate course of action for managing his condition?

      Your Answer: Co-amoxiclav

      Explanation:

      Co-amoxiclav is the appropriate antibiotic for treating human bites, as well as animal bites. If a human bite breaks the skin and draws blood, antibiotics should be administered. In the scenario provided, the man was bitten in a high-risk area, which includes the hands, feet, face, genitals, skin overlying cartilaginous structures, or an area of poor circulation. Even if the bite did not draw blood, antibiotics should still be considered if the person is at high risk or if the bite is in a high-risk area. Co-amoxiclav is the first choice antibiotic for prophylaxis and treatment of human and animal bites. If the patient has a penicillin allergy or if co-amoxiclav is not suitable, doxycycline with metronidazole is the preferred alternative. Flucloxacillin is not effective in treating human and animal bites. If there is discharge present from the wound site, a swab should be taken for microbiological sampling, and antibiotic choice can be adjusted based on the results. Initial wound management should include removing foreign bodies, irrigating the site, and debridement, especially if the wound is dirty. Pain management should also be provided. However, due to the location of the bite in a high-risk area, antibiotics are necessary.

      Animal and Human Bites: Causes and Management

      Animal and human bites are common injuries that can lead to infections caused by various microorganisms. Dogs and cats are the most common animals involved in bites, with Pasteurella multocida being the most commonly isolated organism. On the other hand, human bites can cause infections from both aerobic and anaerobic bacteria, including Streptococci spp., Staphylococcus aureus, Eikenella, Fusobacterium, and Prevotella.

      To manage animal and human bites, it is important to cleanse the wound thoroughly. Puncture wounds should not be sutured closed unless there is a risk of cosmesis. The current recommendation for treatment is co-amoxiclav, but if the patient is allergic to penicillin, doxycycline and metronidazole are recommended. It is also important to consider the risk of viral infections such as HIV and hepatitis C in human bites.

      In summary, animal and human bites can lead to infections caused by various microorganisms. Proper wound cleansing and appropriate antibiotic treatment are essential in managing these injuries. Additionally, healthcare providers should consider the risk of viral infections in human bites.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 35-year-old woman visits the clinic to receive the outcome of her initial...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman visits the clinic to receive the outcome of her initial blood tests after discovering she is pregnant for the first time. She moved to the UK from Ukraine two years ago and did not receive the MMR vaccine during her childhood. Her rubella IgM and IgG tests both show negative results. What guidance would you offer her?

      Your Answer: To keep away from people who might have rubella and receive the MMR vaccine in the postnatal period

      Explanation:

      If a woman who is pregnant lacks immunity to rubella, she should receive the MMR vaccine after giving birth.

      In the absence of any indication that this pregnant woman has been exposed to rubella, she should avoid contact with individuals who may have the disease and receive the MMR vaccine after giving birth, as it cannot be administered during pregnancy. There is no recommended treatment for preventing rubella after exposure based on the clinical history. To prevent complications in future pregnancies, it is important to offer her the MMR vaccine.

      Rubella and Pregnancy: Risks, Features, Diagnosis, and Management

      Rubella, also known as German measles, is a viral infection caused by the togavirus. Thanks to the introduction of the MMR vaccine, it is now rare. However, if contracted during pregnancy, there is a risk of congenital rubella syndrome, which can cause serious harm to the fetus. It is important to note that the incubation period is 14-21 days, and individuals are infectious from 7 days before symptoms appear to 4 days after the onset of the rash.

      The risk of damage to the fetus is highest in the first 8-10 weeks of pregnancy, with a risk as high as 90%. However, damage is rare after 16 weeks. Features of congenital rubella syndrome include sensorineural deafness, congenital cataracts, congenital heart disease (e.g. patent ductus arteriosus), growth retardation, hepatosplenomegaly, purpuric skin lesions, ‘salt and pepper’ chorioretinitis, microphthalmia, and cerebral palsy.

      If a suspected case of rubella in pregnancy arises, it should be discussed immediately with the local Health Protection Unit (HPU) as type/timing of investigations may vary. IgM antibodies are raised in women recently exposed to the virus. It should be noted that it is very difficult to distinguish rubella from parvovirus B19 clinically. Therefore, it is important to also check parvovirus B19 serology as there is a 30% risk of transplacental infection, with a 5-10% risk of fetal loss.

      If a woman is tested at any point and no immunity is demonstrated, they should be advised to keep away from people who might have rubella. Non-immune mothers should be offered the MMR vaccination in the post-natal period. However, MMR vaccines should not be administered to women known to be pregnant or attempting to become pregnant.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      7.9
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  • Question 31 - A 4-week-old infant is referred by the health visitor for failure to thrive....

    Incorrect

    • A 4-week-old infant is referred by the health visitor for failure to thrive. The infant's weight has dropped from the 50th to the 9th centile on the growth chart. The parents disclose that the infant vomits after every meal, sometimes even hitting the wall. The mother had a normal pregnancy with regular antenatal scans, and the infant was delivered vaginally without complications. The newborn examination did not reveal any abnormalities. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cow's milk protein intolerance

      Correct Answer: Pyloric stenosis

      Explanation:

      The probable diagnosis is pyloric stenosis.

      Understanding Pyloric Stenosis

      Pyloric stenosis is a condition that usually occurs in infants between the second and fourth weeks of life. However, in rare cases, it may present later, up to four months. This condition is caused by the thickening of the circular muscles of the pylorus. Pyloric stenosis is more common in males, with an incidence of 4 per 1,000 live births. It is also more likely to affect first-borns and infants with a positive family history.

      The most common symptom of pyloric stenosis is projectile vomiting, which usually occurs about 30 minutes after a feed. Other symptoms may include constipation, dehydration, and a palpable mass in the upper abdomen. Prolonged vomiting can lead to hypochloraemic, hypokalaemic alkalosis, which can be life-threatening.

      Diagnosis of pyloric stenosis is typically made using ultrasound. Management of this condition involves a surgical procedure called Ramstedt pyloromyotomy. This procedure involves making a small incision in the pylorus to relieve the obstruction and allow for normal passage of food. With prompt diagnosis and treatment, infants with pyloric stenosis can make a full recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      351.1
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - At what age would a typical infant develop the capability to sit upright...

    Correct

    • At what age would a typical infant develop the capability to sit upright without assistance?

      Your Answer: 6-8 months

      Explanation:

      The answer, which is typically 7-8 months, differs slightly from the 6 months stated in the MRCPCH Development Guide.

      Gross Motor Developmental Milestones

      Gross motor skills refer to the ability to use large muscles in the body for activities such as crawling, walking, running, and jumping. These skills are essential for a child’s physical development and are achieved through a series of developmental milestones.
      At 3 months, a baby should have little or no head lag when pulled to sit and should have good head control when lying on their abdomen. By 6 months, they should be able to lift and grasp their feet when lying on their back, pull themselves to a sitting position, and roll from front to back. At 9 months, they should be able to pull themselves to a standing position and crawl. By 12 months, they should be able to cruise and walk with one hand held. At 18 months, they should be able to walk unsupported and squat to pick up a toy. By 2 years, they should be able to run and walk up and down stairs holding onto a rail. At 3 years, they should be able to ride a tricycle using pedals and walk up stairs without holding onto a rail. By 4 years, they should be able to hop on one leg.

      It is important to note that while the majority of children crawl on all fours before walking, some children may bottom-shuffle, which is a normal variant that runs in families. These milestones serve as a guide for parents and healthcare professionals to monitor a child’s physical development and identify any potential delays or concerns.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      3.2
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - A 56-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and benign...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and benign prostatic hyperplasia presents to dermatology with multiple lesions on his shin. Upon examination, symmetrical, tender, erythematous nodules are observed. The lesions are healing without scarring. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Erythema nodosum

      Explanation:

      The relevant diagnosis for this question relies solely on the description of the lesions, as the patient’s medical history is not a factor. Specifically, the tender shin lesions are indicative of erythema nodosum.

      Understanding Shin Lesions: Differential Diagnosis and Characteristic Features

      Shin lesions can be caused by a variety of conditions, and it is important to differentiate between them in order to provide appropriate treatment. The four most common conditions that can cause shin lesions are erythema nodosum, pretibial myxoedema, pyoderma gangrenosum, and necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum.

      Erythema nodosum is characterized by symmetrical, tender, erythematous nodules that heal without scarring. It is often caused by streptococcal infections, sarcoidosis, inflammatory bowel disease, or certain medications such as penicillins, sulphonamides, or oral contraceptive pills.

      Pretibial myxoedema, on the other hand, is seen in Graves’ disease and is characterized by symmetrical, erythematous lesions that give the skin a shiny, orange peel appearance.

      Pyoderma gangrenosum initially presents as a small red papule, which later develops into deep, red, necrotic ulcers with a violaceous border. It is idiopathic in 50% of cases, but may also be seen in inflammatory bowel disease, connective tissue disorders, and myeloproliferative disorders.

      Finally, necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum is characterized by shiny, painless areas of yellow/red skin typically found on the shin of diabetics. It is often associated with telangiectasia.

      In summary, understanding the differential diagnosis and characteristic features of shin lesions can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate treatment and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - A 43-year-old male patient presents with a chief complaint of hearing difficulty. During...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year-old male patient presents with a chief complaint of hearing difficulty. During the examination, you perform Weber's test and find that he hears the sound most loudly in his right ear. On conducting Rinne test, the sound is loudest when the tuning fork is placed in front of the ear canal on the left and loudest when placed on the mastoid process on the right. What type of hearing loss is evident in this case?

      Your Answer: Sensorineural hearing loss on the left

      Correct Answer: Conductive hearing loss on the right

      Explanation:

      The presence of conductive hearing loss can be identified by conducting Rinne and Weber tests. During the Rinne test, bone conduction will be more audible than air conduction, while the Weber test will indicate the affected ear.

      If the hearing loss is conductive and affects the right ear, bone conduction will be louder than air conduction. This is because the ear canal, middle ear, or tympanic membrane is unable to conduct sound waves effectively. The Weber test will also indicate that the affected ear is where the sound is loudest.

      The other options provided are incorrect as they do not align with the results of the examination. In sensorineural hearing loss, air conduction is louder than bone conduction.

      Conductive hearing loss can be caused by various factors, including impacted earwax, inner ear effusion, debris or foreign objects in the ear canal, a perforated eardrum, or otosclerosis.

      Rinne’s and Weber’s Test for Differentiating Conductive and Sensorineural Deafness

      Rinne’s and Weber’s tests are two diagnostic tools used to differentiate between conductive and sensorineural deafness. Rinne’s test involves placing a tuning fork over the mastoid process until the sound is no longer heard, then repositioning it just over the external acoustic meatus. A positive test indicates that air conduction (AC) is better than bone conduction (BC), while a negative test suggests conductive deafness if BC is greater than AC.

      On the other hand, Weber’s test involves placing a tuning fork in the middle of the forehead equidistant from the patient’s ears and asking which side is loudest. In unilateral sensorineural deafness, sound is localized to the unaffected side, while in unilateral conductive deafness, sound is localized to the affected side.

      To interpret the results of Rinne’s and Weber’s tests, a normal result indicates that AC is greater than BC bilaterally, and the sound is midline in Weber’s test. Conductive hearing loss is indicated by BC being greater than AC in the affected ear, while AC is greater than BC in the unaffected ear, and the sound lateralizes to the affected ear in Weber’s test. Sensorineural hearing loss is indicated by AC being greater than BC bilaterally, and the sound lateralizes to the unaffected ear in Weber’s test.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      36
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - While on your GP placement, you hear a cry for help coming from...

    Correct

    • While on your GP placement, you hear a cry for help coming from the reception area. Rushing over, you see a young girl who appears to be around 4 years old collapsed on the floor. Upon checking, you find that there are no signs of life.
      What would be your initial course of action in this situation?

      Your Answer: 5 rescue breaths

      Explanation:

      According to the latest Resuscitation Council guidelines for paediatric BLS, the correct initial action when there are no signs of breathing is to give 5 rescue breaths. This is different from the adult algorithm where chest compressions may be done first. Giving 2 rescue breaths initially is incorrect. Chest compressions are given at a ratio of 30:2 if there is only one rescuer and at a ratio of 15:2 if there are multiple rescuers, but only after the initial 5 rescue breaths have been given. It is important to remember that in children, respiratory arrest is more common than cardiac arrest.

      Paediatric Basic Life Support Guidelines

      Paediatric basic life support guidelines were updated in 2015 by the Resuscitation Council. Lay rescuers should use a compression:ventilation ratio of 30:2 for children under 1 year and between 1 year and puberty, a child is defined. If there are two or more rescuers, a ratio of 15:2 should be used.

      The algorithm for paediatric basic life support starts with checking if the child is unresponsive and shouting for help. The airway should be opened, and breathing should be checked by looking, listening, and feeling for breaths. If the child is not breathing, five rescue breaths should be given, and signs of circulation should be checked.

      For infants, the brachial or femoral pulse should be used, while children should use the femoral pulse. Chest compressions should be performed at a ratio of 15:2, with a rate of 100-120 compressions per minute for both infants and children. The depth of compressions should be at least one-third of the anterior-posterior dimension of the chest, which is approximately 4 cm for an infant and 5 cm for a child.

      In children, the lower half of the sternum should be compressed, while in infants, a two-thumb encircling technique should be used for chest compressions. These guidelines are crucial for anyone who may need to perform basic life support on a child, and it is essential to follow them carefully to ensure the best possible outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      5.7
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - A 54-year-old woman arrived at the hospital complaining of chest pain and difficulty...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old woman arrived at the hospital complaining of chest pain and difficulty breathing. She has a history of left breast cancer and had undergone local wide excision recently. She is scheduled to begin radiotherapy soon. After a diagnostic workup, it was discovered that she has a segmental pulmonary embolism. Her blood tests indicate good renal function. What is the most suitable treatment option for this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Low molecular weight heparin

      Correct Answer: Apixaban

      Explanation:

      For cancer patients with VTE, the recommended treatment is a DOAC for a period of 6 months. Among the DOACs, apixaban is the most suitable option as it has been found to have a lower risk of bleeding complications compared to LMWH and VKA. Moreover, patients taking apixaban can benefit from oral treatment and avoid frequent monitoring required with other anticoagulation treatments. Studies have also shown that apixaban is the most cost-effective option as it results in fewer bleeds.

      NICE updated their guidelines on the investigation and management of venous thromboembolism (VTE) in 2020. The use of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) is recommended as first-line treatment for most people with VTE, including as interim anticoagulants before a definite diagnosis is made. Routine cancer screening is no longer recommended following a VTE diagnosis. The cornerstone of VTE management is anticoagulant therapy, with DOACs being the preferred choice. All patients should have anticoagulation for at least 3 months, with the length of anticoagulation being determined by whether the VTE was provoked or unprovoked.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - A 25-year-old female presents with a history of weight loss and diarrhoea. To...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old female presents with a history of weight loss and diarrhoea. To investigate her symptoms, she undergoes a colonoscopy and a biopsy is taken. The biopsy report indicates the presence of pigment-laden macrophages suggestive of melanosis coli. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Laxative abuse

      Explanation:

      Understanding Melanosis Coli

      Melanosis coli is a condition that affects the pigmentation of the bowel wall. This disorder is characterized by the presence of pigment-laden macrophages, which can be observed through histology. The primary cause of melanosis coli is laxative abuse, particularly the use of anthraquinone compounds like senna.

      In simpler terms, melanosis coli is a condition that causes changes in the color of the bowel wall due to the accumulation of pigments. This condition is often associated with the excessive use of laxatives, which can lead to the accumulation of pigment-laden macrophages in the bowel wall. These macrophages are responsible for the discoloration of the bowel wall, which can be observed through histology. It is important to note that melanosis coli is not a life-threatening condition, but it can be a sign of underlying health issues that need to be addressed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      9.8
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - At the 4-month check, you observe bilateral hydroceles in a male infant. The...

    Correct

    • At the 4-month check, you observe bilateral hydroceles in a male infant. The swelling is limited to the scrotum and the testis can be felt in the scrotal sac. The infant is otherwise healthy and thriving. The mother expresses concern about the potential impact of the swelling on her son's fertility.

      What is the best course of action for managing this situation?

      Your Answer: Reassure mum that hydroceles are common in infants and often self resolve

      Explanation:

      It is common for newborn males to have communicating hydroceles, which usually resolve on their own. This is due to the processus vaginalis remaining open. Parents should be reassured that the hydroceles typically disappear within a few months. However, if the hydrocele persists beyond one year, it is recommended to refer the child to a urologist for possible repair. Ultrasound is not necessary to confirm the diagnosis. It is important to note that hydroceles do not impact fertility, but undescended testes can affect fertility if not treated.

      Common Scrotal Problems and Their Features

      Epididymal cysts, hydroceles, and varicoceles are the most common scrotal problems seen in primary care. Epididymal cysts are usually found posterior to the testicle and are separate from the body of the testicle. They may be associated with conditions such as polycystic kidney disease, cystic fibrosis, and von Hippel-Lindau syndrome. Diagnosis is confirmed by ultrasound, and management is usually supportive, although surgical removal or sclerotherapy may be attempted for larger or symptomatic cysts.

      Hydroceles, on the other hand, describe the accumulation of fluid within the tunica vaginalis. They may be communicating or non-communicating, and may develop secondary to conditions such as epididymo-orchitis, testicular torsion, or testicular tumors. Hydroceles are usually soft, non-tender swellings of the hemi-scrotum that transilluminate with a pen torch. Diagnosis may be clinical, but ultrasound is required if there is any doubt about the diagnosis or if the underlying testis cannot be palpated. Management depends on the severity of the presentation, with infantile hydroceles generally repaired if they do not resolve spontaneously by the age of 1-2 years.

      Varicoceles, on the other hand, are abnormal enlargements of the testicular veins that are usually asymptomatic but may be associated with subfertility. They are much more common on the left side and are classically described as a bag of worms. Diagnosis is confirmed by ultrasound with Doppler studies, and management is usually conservative, although surgery may be required if the patient is troubled by pain. There is ongoing debate regarding the effectiveness of surgery to treat infertility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      14.4
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - A 30-year-old teacher who recently returned after completing a 3-month assignment in Thailand...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old teacher who recently returned after completing a 3-month assignment in Thailand presented to the Emergency Department with fever, headache, confusion and vomiting in the last two days. She was suspected of having meningitis and underwent a lumbar puncture (LP). The LP findings are as follows:
      Normal opening pressure, clear cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).
      Investigation Result Normal value
      CSF white blood cell count (WBC) 400 cells/µl, 70% lymphocytes < 5 cells/µl
      CSF protein 0.5 g/l 0.15–0.4 g/l
      CSF glucose 3.8 mmol/l 2.6–4.5 mmol/l
      CSF–plasma-glucose ratio 0.72 ≥ 0.66
      What is the most likely diagnosis?
      Select the SINGLE best answer from the list below.
      Select ONE option only

      Your Answer: Bacterial meningitis

      Correct Answer: Viral meningitis

      Explanation:

      The cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) findings can help diagnose different types of meningitis. Viral meningitis typically shows clear CSF with a slightly elevated white blood cell count (5-1000 cells/µl, mostly lymphocytes), mildly elevated protein levels, and a normal or slightly low CSF-to-plasma-glucose ratio. Bacterial meningitis, on the other hand, often presents with turbid CSF, a high white blood cell count (>100 cells/µl, mostly neutrophils), elevated protein levels, and a very low CSF-to-plasma-glucose ratio. Fungal meningitis, such as cryptococcal meningitis, usually shows clear or cloudy CSF, a slightly elevated white blood cell count (5-100 cells/µl, mostly lymphocytes), elevated protein levels, and a low CSF-to-plasma-glucose ratio. Tuberculous meningitis typically presents with clear or cloudy CSF, a slightly elevated white blood cell count (5-100 cells/µl, mostly lymphocytes), significantly elevated protein levels, and a very low CSF-to-plasma-glucose ratio. A sub-arachnoid hemorrhage, which is not meningitis, typically presents with a sudden, severe headache and signs of increased intracranial pressure. The CSF in this case often shows xanthochromia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      19.3
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - Which of the following is not a recognized feature of Horner's syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not a recognized feature of Horner's syndrome?

      Your Answer: Heterochromia in congenital Horner's

      Correct Answer: Mydriasis

      Explanation:

      Horner’s syndrome is a medical condition that is characterized by a set of symptoms including a small pupil (miosis), drooping of the upper eyelid (ptosis), sunken eye (enophthalmos), and loss of sweating on one side of the face (anhidrosis). The presence of heterochromia, or a difference in iris color, is often seen in cases of congenital Horner’s syndrome. Anhidrosis is also a distinguishing feature that can help differentiate between central, pre-ganglionic, and post-ganglionic lesions. Pharmacologic tests, such as the use of apraclonidine drops, can be helpful in confirming the diagnosis of Horner’s syndrome and localizing the lesion.

      Central lesions, pre-ganglionic lesions, and post-ganglionic lesions can all cause Horner’s syndrome, with each type of lesion presenting with different symptoms. Central lesions can result in anhidrosis of the face, arm, and trunk, while pre-ganglionic lesions can cause anhidrosis of the face only. Post-ganglionic lesions, on the other hand, do not typically result in anhidrosis.

      There are many potential causes of Horner’s syndrome, including stroke, syringomyelia, multiple sclerosis, tumors, encephalitis, thyroidectomy, trauma, cervical rib, carotid artery dissection, carotid aneurysm, cavernous sinus thrombosis, and cluster headache. It is important to identify the underlying cause of Horner’s syndrome in order to determine the appropriate treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      4.9
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - A 56-year-old woman collapses during a hypertension clinic. She is not breathing and...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old woman collapses during a hypertension clinic. She is not breathing and a carotid pulse cannot be felt. What is the appropriate ratio of chest compressions to ventilation?

      Your Answer: 15:02

      Correct Answer: 30:02:00

      Explanation:

      The 2015 Resus Council guidelines for adult advanced life support outline the steps to be taken when dealing with patients with shockable and non-shockable rhythms. For both types of patients, chest compressions are a crucial part of the process, with a ratio of 30 compressions to 2 ventilations. Defibrillation is recommended for shockable rhythms, with a single shock for VF/pulseless VT followed by 2 minutes of CPR. Adrenaline and amiodarone are the drugs of choice for non-shockable rhythms, with adrenaline given as soon as possible and amiodarone administered after 3 shocks for VF/pulseless VT. Thrombolytic drugs should be considered if a pulmonary embolus is suspected. Atropine is no longer recommended for routine use in asystole or PEA. Oxygen should be titrated to achieve saturations of 94-98% following successful resuscitation. The Hs and Ts should be considered as potential reversible causes of cardiac arrest.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      505.8
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - You are examining a 65-year-old individual with acanthosis nigricans. You suggest screening for...

    Correct

    • You are examining a 65-year-old individual with acanthosis nigricans. You suggest screening for diabetes. Due to the widespread skin alterations, including some oral changes, what other potential underlying condition should be taken into account?

      Your Answer: Internal malignancy

      Explanation:

      While acanthosis nigricans may occur on its own in individuals with dark skin, it is typically a sign of insulin resistance and associated conditions such as type 2 diabetes, polycystic ovarian syndrome, Cushing’s syndrome, and hypothyroidism. Certain medications, including corticosteroids, insulin, and hormone medications, can also cause this condition. If acanthosis nigricans appears suddenly and in unusual areas such as the mouth, it may indicate the presence of an internal malignancy, particularly gastric cancer.

      Acanthosis nigricans is a condition characterized by the presence of symmetrical, brown, velvety plaques on the neck, axilla, and groin. This condition can be caused by various factors such as type 2 diabetes mellitus, gastrointestinal cancer, obesity, polycystic ovarian syndrome, acromegaly, Cushing’s disease, hypothyroidism, familial factors, Prader-Willi syndrome, and certain drugs like the combined oral contraceptive pill and nicotinic acid. The pathophysiology of acanthosis nigricans involves insulin resistance, which leads to hyperinsulinemia. This, in turn, stimulates the proliferation of keratinocytes and dermal fibroblasts through interaction with insulin-like growth factor receptor-1 (IGFR1).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - You are concerned that your patient may be experiencing premature menopause due to...

    Correct

    • You are concerned that your patient may be experiencing premature menopause due to her irregular menstrual cycle and hot flashes. Which of the following situations would provide evidence for this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Patient age 39 with raised FSH/LH and low oestradiol

      Explanation:

      Premature menopause is characterized by irregular menstrual cycles occurring before the age of 45, along with elevated FSH/LH levels and low oestradiol levels in blood tests. The pituitary gland releases more hormones in an attempt to stimulate the failing ovary to produce oestrogen, resulting in a negative feedback loop. Therefore, options 1, 3, 4, and 5 are incorrect. Option 5 depicts primary pituitary failure.

      Premature Ovarian Insufficiency: Causes and Management

      Premature ovarian insufficiency is a condition where menopausal symptoms and elevated gonadotrophin levels occur before the age of 40. It affects approximately 1 in 100 women and can be caused by various factors such as idiopathic reasons, family history, bilateral oophorectomy, radiotherapy, chemotherapy, infection, autoimmune disorders, and resistant ovary syndrome. The symptoms of premature ovarian insufficiency are similar to those of normal menopause, including hot flushes, night sweats, infertility, secondary amenorrhoea, raised FSH and LH levels, and low oestradiol.

      Management of premature ovarian insufficiency involves hormone replacement therapy (HRT) or a combined oral contraceptive pill until the age of the average menopause, which is 51 years. It is important to note that HRT does not provide contraception in case spontaneous ovarian activity resumes. Early diagnosis and management of premature ovarian insufficiency can help alleviate symptoms and improve quality of life for affected women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      10.1
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - A newborn girl born 4 hours ago has an APGAR score of 10....

    Incorrect

    • A newborn girl born 4 hours ago has an APGAR score of 10. She is not cyanosed, has a pulse of 150, cries on stimulation, her arms and legs resist extension and she has a good cry. However, she appears jaundiced. What should be done in this situation?

      Your Answer: Prescribe intravenous immunoglobulin

      Correct Answer: Measure and record the serum bilirubin level urgently.

      Explanation:

      Jaundice in newborns can occur within the first 24 hours of life and is always considered pathological. The causes of jaundice during this period include rhesus and ABO haemolytic diseases, hereditary spherocytosis, and glucose-6-phosphodehydrogenase deficiency. On the other hand, jaundice in neonates from 2-14 days is common and usually physiological, affecting up to 40% of babies. This type of jaundice is due to a combination of factors such as more red blood cells, fragile red blood cells, and less developed liver function. Breastfed babies are more likely to develop this type of jaundice.

      If jaundice persists after 14 days (21 days for premature babies), a prolonged jaundice screen is performed. This includes tests for conjugated and unconjugated bilirubin, direct antiglobulin test, thyroid function tests, full blood count and blood film, urine for MC&S and reducing sugars, and urea and electrolytes. Prolonged jaundice can be caused by biliary atresia, hypothyroidism, galactosaemia, urinary tract infection, breast milk jaundice, prematurity, and congenital infections such as CMV and toxoplasmosis. Breast milk jaundice is more common in breastfed babies and is thought to be due to high concentrations of beta-glucuronidase, which increases the intestinal absorption of unconjugated bilirubin. Prematurity also increases the risk of kernicterus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - A 52-year-old woman presents to an eye screening appointment, having been referred by...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old woman presents to an eye screening appointment, having been referred by her General Practitioner. She has a family history of type II diabetes mellitus. At the appointment, there are no signs of diabetic retinopathy.
      What is the most appropriate ongoing eye screening for this patient?

      Your Answer: Attend eye screening only if he experiences a change in vision

      Correct Answer: Annual visual acuity testing and retinal photography

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Annual Eye Screening for Diabetic Patients

      The National Health Service diabetic eye screening programme recommends that patients over the age of 12 with diabetes attend annual eye screening appointments. These appointments include visual acuity testing and retinal photography, which can detect changes consistent with background retinopathy or more severe forms of diabetic retinopathy. Patients with moderate, severe, or proliferative retinopathy will be referred for further assessment and may require more frequent screening following treatment.

      Tonometry, which measures intraocular pressure, is also important in the diagnosis of glaucoma. However, the gold-standard test for diagnosing diabetic retinopathy is dilated retinal photography with or without fundoscopy. Retinal photographs are preferable to fundoscopy because they provide a clear view of the entire retina and can be compared with previous images to monitor disease progression.

      It is important for diabetic patients to attend annual eye screening appointments, even if they have no changes in vision. Vision may be preserved until relatively advanced stages of the disease, and early detection of diabetic retinopathy can prevent irreversible loss of vision. Therefore, patients should not wait for changes in vision to occur before attending screening appointments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      14.2
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - A 50-year-old woman with a history of alcoholic liver disease presents to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman with a history of alcoholic liver disease presents to the clinic with advanced cirrhosis and ascites. A recent ascitic tap revealed a protein concentration of 12 g/L and no evidence of organisms. What is the best course of action to manage the risk of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis?

      Your Answer: No antibiotic prophylaxis is indicated

      Correct Answer: Oral ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      To prevent spontaneous bacterial peritonitis, it is recommended to administer oral ciprofloxacin or norfloxacin as prophylaxis to patients with ascites and protein concentration of 15 g/L or less.

      Understanding Spontaneous Bacterial Peritonitis

      Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP) is a type of peritonitis that typically affects individuals with ascites caused by liver cirrhosis. The condition is characterized by symptoms such as abdominal pain, fever, and ascites. Diagnosis is usually made through paracentesis, which involves analyzing the ascitic fluid for a neutrophil count of over 250 cells/ul. The most common organism found on ascitic fluid culture is E. coli.

      Management of SBP typically involves the administration of intravenous cefotaxime. Antibiotic prophylaxis is also recommended for patients with ascites who have previously experienced an episode of SBP or have a fluid protein level of less than 15 g/l and a Child-Pugh score of at least 9 or hepatorenal syndrome. NICE recommends prophylactic oral ciprofloxacin or norfloxacin until the ascites has resolved.

      Alcoholic liver disease is a significant predictor of poor prognosis in SBP. Understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and management of SBP is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      16
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - A 60-year-old woman comes to the doctor's office with concerns about small spots...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman comes to the doctor's office with concerns about small spots on her shoulder. She reports that the lesions are accompanied by several tiny blood vessels that radiate from the center. During the examination, you observe that applying pressure to the spots causes them to turn white and then refill from the center. What condition is typically associated with this type of lesion?

      Your Answer: Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia

      Correct Answer: Liver failure

      Explanation:

      When differentiating between spider naevi and telangiectasia, it is important to note that spider naevi fill from the centre when pressed, while telangiectasia fill from the edge. A woman presenting with a small lesion surrounded by tiny blood vessels radiating from the middle that refills from the centre is likely to have a spider naevus. This condition is commonly associated with liver failure, making it the most likely diagnosis.

      Understanding Spider Naevi

      Spider naevi, also known as spider angiomas, are characterized by a central red papule surrounded by capillaries. These lesions can be identified by their ability to blanch upon pressure. Spider naevi are typically found on the upper part of the body and are more common in childhood, affecting around 10-15% of people.

      To differentiate spider naevi from telangiectasia, one can press on the lesion and observe how it fills. Spider naevi fill from the center, while telangiectasia fills from the edge. It is important to note that spider naevi may be associated with liver disease, pregnancy, and the use of combined oral contraceptive pills.

      In summary, understanding spider naevi is important for proper diagnosis and management. By recognizing their distinct characteristics and potential associations, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate care for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - A 29-year-old woman comes to see her GP due to feeling down and...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old woman comes to see her GP due to feeling down and lonely. She reports being a naturally shy person and experiencing intense anxiety about being judged or rejected by others for her perceived inadequacies. This has led her to avoid forming close relationships and she has even stopped seeing the few friends she had. Her social anxiety affects all aspects of her life, including her choice of a solitary job, solo hobbies, and never having been in a romantic relationship. She finds it challenging to deviate from her limited daily routine, although she feels unfulfilled by it. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Avoidant personality disorder

      Explanation:

      The patient’s description of feeling lonely and avoiding social situations due to fear of negative evaluation and criticism suggests a diagnosis of avoidant personality disorder. This disorder is characterized by chronic patterns of interpersonal inhibition, fear of rejection, and social inhibition. The patient’s symptoms are pervasive and have been present since childhood or adolescence, indicating a personality disorder rather than a transient condition. While other disorders such as autism spectrum disorder, generalized anxiety disorder, and schizoid personality disorder may also involve social difficulties, they do not have the same fear of rejection and feelings of inadequacy that are characteristic of avoidant personality disorder.

      Personality disorders are a set of personality traits that are maladaptive and interfere with normal functioning in life. It is estimated that around 1 in 20 people have a personality disorder, which are typically categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes Odd or Eccentric disorders such as Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes Dramatic, Emotional, or Erratic disorders such as Antisocial, Borderline (Emotionally Unstable), Histrionic, and Narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes Anxious and Fearful disorders such as Obsessive-Compulsive, Avoidant, and Dependent.

      Paranoid individuals exhibit hypersensitivity and an unforgiving attitude when insulted, a reluctance to confide in others, and a preoccupation with conspirational beliefs and hidden meanings. Schizoid individuals show indifference to praise and criticism, a preference for solitary activities, and emotional coldness. Schizotypal individuals exhibit odd beliefs and magical thinking, unusual perceptual disturbances, and inappropriate affect. Antisocial individuals fail to conform to social norms, deceive others, and exhibit impulsiveness, irritability, and aggressiveness. Borderline individuals exhibit unstable interpersonal relationships, impulsivity, and affective instability. Histrionic individuals exhibit inappropriate sexual seductiveness, a need to be the center of attention, and self-dramatization. Narcissistic individuals exhibit a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and excessive need for admiration. Obsessive-compulsive individuals are occupied with details, rules, and organization to the point of hampering completion of tasks. Avoidant individuals avoid interpersonal contact due to fears of criticism or rejection, while dependent individuals have difficulty making decisions without excessive reassurance from others.

      Personality disorders are difficult to treat, but a number of approaches have been shown to help patients, including psychological therapies such as dialectical behavior therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      5.3
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - A 25-year-old student presents with four days of right otalgia, discharge and reduced...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old student presents with four days of right otalgia, discharge and reduced hearing. There is no significant past medical history, and she is systemically well. She never had any similar symptoms before.
      On examination, there is an inflamed auditory canal and a small amount of debris, the tympanic membrane appears to be normal.
      What is the best initial management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Start topical antibiotic and steroid

      Explanation:

      Management of Otitis Externa: Recommended Actions and Guidelines

      Otitis externa is a common condition that affects the outer ear canal. The management of this condition depends on the severity of the inflammation and the presence of other symptoms. Here are some recommended actions and guidelines for managing otitis externa:

      1. Start topical antibiotic and steroid: This is recommended for patients with acute otitis externa who present with more severe inflammation. The treatment should last for seven days.

      2. Start topical acetic acid 2% spray: This is recommended for patients with mild otitis externa who do not have hearing loss or discharge.

      3. Refer to ENT urgently: This is not part of initial management but should be considered for patients with chronic diffuse otitis externa when treatment is prolonged beyond two to three months.

      4. Start oral amoxicillin: Oral antibiotics are rarely indicated for otitis externa. They should only be considered for patients with severe infection or at high risk of severe infection.

      5. Take an ear swab and start topical antibiotic: Ear swab is not recommended as first-line management. It should only be done if there is no response to initial treatment or in recurrent infections.

      In summary, the management of otitis externa depends on the severity of the inflammation and the presence of other symptoms. Following these recommended actions and guidelines can help improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
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  • Question 50 - A 42-year-old woman presented with complaints of constant fatigue and underwent blood tests....

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman presented with complaints of constant fatigue and underwent blood tests. All results were within normal limits except for her thyroid function test (TFT) which revealed:
      TSH 12.5 mU/l
      Free T4 7.5 pmol/l
      What would be the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Levothyroxine

      Explanation:

      The TFTs indicate a diagnosis of hypothyroidism, which can be treated with levothyroxine. Carbimazole is not suitable for this condition as it is used to treat hyperthyroidism. To ensure proper absorption, levothyroxine should be taken 30 minutes before consuming food, caffeine, or other medications.

      Managing Hypothyroidism: Dosage, Monitoring, and Side-Effects

      Hypothyroidism is a condition where the thyroid gland does not produce enough thyroid hormone. The main treatment for hypothyroidism is levothyroxine, a synthetic form of thyroid hormone. When managing hypothyroidism, it is important to consider the patient’s age, cardiac history, and initial starting dose. Elderly patients and those with ischaemic heart disease should start with a lower dose of 25mcg od, while other patients can start with 50-100mcg od. After a change in dosage, thyroid function tests should be checked after 8-12 weeks to ensure the therapeutic goal of normalising the thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) level is achieved. The target TSH range is 0.5-2.5 mU/l.

      Women with hypothyroidism who become pregnant should have their dose increased by at least 25-50 micrograms levothyroxine due to the increased demands of pregnancy. The TSH should be monitored carefully, aiming for a low-normal value. It is important to note that there is no evidence to support combination therapy with levothyroxine and liothyronine.

      While levothyroxine is generally well-tolerated, there are some potential side-effects to be aware of. Over-treatment can lead to hyperthyroidism, while long-term use can reduce bone mineral density. In patients with cardiac disease, levothyroxine can worsen angina and lead to atrial fibrillation. It is also important to be aware of drug interactions, particularly with iron and calcium carbonate, which can reduce the absorption of levothyroxine. These medications should be given at least 4 hours apart.

      In summary, managing hypothyroidism involves careful consideration of dosage, monitoring of TSH levels, and awareness of potential side-effects and drug interactions. With appropriate management, patients with hypothyroidism can achieve normal thyroid function and improve their overall health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 51 - You are conducting an interview with a 24-year-old man who has arrived at...

    Incorrect

    • You are conducting an interview with a 24-year-old man who has arrived at the emergency department after self-harming. As you converse with him, you observe that his facial expression is devoid of emotion, his tone of voice is flat, and his body language lacks any animation. This is evident even when he talks about his traumatic experiences of childhood abuse. How would you record this in your documentation?

      Your Answer: Labile affect

      Correct Answer: Flattened affect

      Explanation:

      Affect and mood can be easily confused during a mental state exam. Affect refers to the current emotional state that can be observed, while mood is the predominant emotional state over a longer period. It is helpful to think of affect as the weather on a particular day and mood as the overall climate.

      Mood is determined by the patient’s history and can be described as their emotional state over the past month. Symptoms of depression or mania can be used to determine the patient’s mood. On the other hand, affect is the emotional state that is currently being displayed by the patient during the assessment. It is expressed through facial expressions, voice tone, and body movements. Affect can be normal, restricted, blunted, or flat. Labile affect is characterized by abrupt shifts in emotions.

      In the given scenario, the patient is displaying a flattened affect, which means there is no expression of emotion. Apathy may be a symptom present in the patient’s history, but the scenario is specifically referring to the current observed emotional state. Depressed mood may also be present, but it is discussed in the patient’s history and is not the same as affect. Symptoms of depressed mood include anhedonia, low mood, lack of energy, poor concentration, and poor sleep.

      Thought disorders can manifest in various ways, including circumstantiality, tangentiality, neologisms, clang associations, word salad, Knight’s move thinking, flight of ideas, perseveration, and echolalia. Circumstantiality involves providing excessive and unnecessary detail when answering a question, but eventually returning to the original point. Tangentiality, on the other hand, refers to wandering from a topic without returning to it. Neologisms are newly formed words, often created by combining two existing words. Clang associations occur when ideas are related only by their similar sounds or rhymes. Word salad is a type of speech that is completely incoherent, with real words strung together into nonsensical sentences. Knight’s move thinking is a severe form of loosening of associations, characterized by unexpected and illogical leaps from one idea to another. Flight of ideas is a thought disorder that involves jumping from one topic to another, but with discernible links between them. Perseveration is the repetition of ideas or words despite attempts to change the topic. Finally, echolalia is the repetition of someone else’s speech, including the question that was asked.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      1058.6
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  • Question 52 - Breast cancer is a disease that affects many women. What is true about...

    Correct

    • Breast cancer is a disease that affects many women. What is true about breast cancer? Choose one statement from the options provided.

      Your Answer: It is the second most common cancer in women.

      Explanation:

      Breast cancer is the second most common cancer in women and the leading cause of cancer death among women worldwide. Tamoxifen is a drug that can be used to treat breast cancer that requires estrogen to grow. It works by either blocking estrogen receptors or blocking the production of estrogen. For women with estrogen receptor-positive breast cancer, continuing tamoxifen for 10 years instead of stopping at 5 years can further reduce the risk of recurrence and mortality. However, tamoxifen does not affect the risk of breast cancer recurrence. The risk of endometrial cancer is slightly increased with tamoxifen treatment. Screening modalities include breast self-examination, clinical breast examination, mammography, ultrasonography, and magnetic resonance imaging. Early detection is crucial in preventing breast cancer, and screening intervals may need to be shortened to prevent more deaths. Physical examination and biopsy are also important diagnostic approaches. Treatment for breast cancer typically involves surgery, radiation therapy, and adjuvant hormone or chemotherapy when necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 53 - A 26-year-old primigravida presents for her first prenatal visit at 12 weeks. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old primigravida presents for her first prenatal visit at 12 weeks. She expresses worry about a condition her mother had during pregnancy that caused seizures. The patient has no medical history and her blood pressure measures 125/85 mmHg during the appointment. Urine dipstick results are normal. Her BMI is 38 kg/m². What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer: No treatment required

      Correct Answer: Aspirin

      Explanation:

      For pregnant women who are at moderate or high risk of pre-eclampsia, it is recommended to take aspirin in low doses of 75-150mg daily from 12 weeks of gestation until delivery. In this case, the patient has three moderate risk factors for pre-eclampsia and should be advised to take low-dose aspirin throughout her pregnancy. While hydralazine is an alternative antihypertensive medication to labetalol in pregnancy, it is not necessary for this patient as she is not hypertensive. Labetalol is the first-line antihypertensive medication for pregnant women. Magnesium is only indicated for severe pre-eclampsia to prevent or treat seizures in patients with eclampsia, which is not present in this patient.

      Pre-eclampsia is a condition that occurs during pregnancy and is characterized by high blood pressure, proteinuria, and edema. It can lead to complications such as eclampsia, neurological issues, fetal growth problems, liver involvement, and cardiac failure. Severe pre-eclampsia is marked by hypertension, proteinuria, headache, visual disturbances, and other symptoms. Risk factors for pre-eclampsia include hypertension in a previous pregnancy, chronic kidney disease, autoimmune disease, diabetes, chronic hypertension, first pregnancy, and age over 40. Aspirin may be recommended for women with high or moderate risk factors. Treatment involves emergency assessment, admission for observation, and medication such as labetalol, nifedipine, or hydralazine. Delivery of the baby is the most important step in management, with timing depending on the individual case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      13.2
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  • Question 54 - You perform a medication review for a 75-year-old woman who comes in for...

    Incorrect

    • You perform a medication review for a 75-year-old woman who comes in for a regular check-up. She has a medical history of ischaemic heart disease, stage 2 CKD, hypertension, and gout. Despite her conditions, she is able to function well on her own and her blood pressure today is 125/72 mmHg. Which medication would you suggest discontinuing?

      Your Answer: Ramipril

      Correct Answer: Bendroflumethiazide

      Explanation:

      Assessing medications in elderly patients can be challenging, as they may be taking unnecessary or harmful drugs. The STOPP-START Criteria (Gallagher et al., 2008) provides guidance on medications that should be considered for discontinuation in the elderly. In this case, the patient has gout, which can be aggravated by bendroflumethiazide, an outdated thiazide diuretic that is no longer recommended by NICE. Additionally, her blood pressure is well below the target for her age, which is 150/90 mmHg in clinic. Ramipril is a more suitable antihypertensive medication to continue for now, but it may also be discontinued if her blood pressure remains low. The patient requires aspirin and atorvastatin for her ischemic heart disease, and allopurinol for her gout.

      NICE Guidelines for Managing Hypertension

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic in addition to an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.

      The guidelines also provide a flow chart for the diagnosis and management of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, such as reducing salt intake, caffeine intake, and alcohol consumption, as well as exercising more and losing weight, should not be forgotten and is frequently tested in exams. Treatment options depend on the patient’s age, ethnicity, and other factors, and may involve a combination of drugs.

      NICE recommends treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old if they have target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For patients with stage 2 hypertension, drug treatment should be offered regardless of age. The guidelines also provide step-by-step treatment options, including adding a third or fourth drug if necessary.

      New drugs, such as direct renin inhibitors like Aliskiren, may have a role in patients who are intolerant of more established antihypertensive drugs. However, trials have only investigated the fall in blood pressure and no mortality data is available yet. Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist. The guidelines also provide blood pressure targets for different age groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      36.5
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  • Question 55 - A 67-year-old male presents to an urgent care centre with concerns about decreased...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old male presents to an urgent care centre with concerns about decreased frequency of urination. He reports only urinating once in the past 12 hours and feels unable to urinate despite the urge to do so. The patient has a medical history of diabetes mellitus managed with metformin and chronic back pain managed with ibuprofen and PPI cover. He has no known allergies. Blood tests reveal the following results: Na+ 139 mmol/L (135 - 145), K+ 4.8 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0), Bicarbonate 22 mmol/L (22 - 29), Urea 7.1 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0), and Creatinine 200 µmol/L (55 - 120). The patient's previous creatinine level was 119 µmol/L. The general practitioner refers the patient to the emergency department for further investigation. What is the correct classification?

      Your Answer: Acute Kidney Injury stage 5

      Correct Answer: Acute Kidney Injury stage 1

      Explanation:

      The patient in this vignette meets the criteria for AKI Stage 1, which is characterized by a moderate increase in serum creatinine (1.5-1.9 times the baseline) or reduced urine output (<0.5 mL/kg/hr) for at least 6 hours. The patient has risk factors such as age, diabetes mellitus, and NSAID use for back pain, which can contribute to AKI. It is important to note that AKI is a classification and not a diagnosis. AKI Stage 2 is characterized by a more significant increase in serum creatinine (2-2.9 times the baseline) or reduced urine output for at least 12 hours. The vignette does not show renal function that is severe enough to meet this classification. AKI Stage 3 is the most severe stage, with a serum creatinine increase of 3 times or more from baseline or reduced urine output for at least 24 hours. Again, the patient’s renal function is not severe enough to meet this classification. There is no AKI Stage 4 or 5. Chronic kidney disease is classified from stages 1-5 based on the patient’s estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR). A patient with CKD Stage 4 would have an eGFR of 15-29 ml/min/1.73m², while a patient with CKD Stage 5 would have end-stage renal disease with an eGFR <15 ml/min/1.73m² or be receiving renal replacement therapy. The NICE guidelines for acute kidney injury (AKI) identify risk factors such as emergency surgery, CKD, diabetes, and use of nephrotoxic drugs. Diagnostic criteria include a rise in creatinine, fall in urine output, or fall in eGFR. The KDIGO criteria are used to stage AKI, with stage 3 indicating the most severe cases. Referral to a nephrologist is recommended for certain cases, such as AKI with no known cause or inadequate response to treatment. Complications of AKI include CKD, hyperkalaemia, metabolic acidosis, and fluid overload.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      2.6
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  • Question 56 - A 32-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of dysuria and lower...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of dysuria and lower abdominal pain for the past three days. She has also noticed an unusual vaginal discharge since yesterday. She has been in a committed relationship for the past year and is sexually active. The urine dipstick is normal and her pregnancy test is negative.
      What is the most suitable investigation to be performed next, given the most probable diagnosis?
      Choose the SINGLE most appropriate investigation from the options below.

      Your Answer: High vaginal swab for nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT)

      Explanation:

      Investigations for Suspected Sexually Transmitted Infection in Women

      When a woman presents with lower abdominal pain, dysuria, and vaginal discharge, it is important to consider the possibility of a sexually transmitted infection (STI), particularly if she is under 25 years old, has had a new sexual partner or multiple partners in the past year, or has a history of STIs. A high vaginal swab for nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT) is the investigation of choice in women suspected of having an STI, such as chlamydia or gonorrhoea. If the NAAT is positive for gonorrhoea, swabs are collected for culture to test for antibiotic susceptibility. Blood tests for inflammatory markers may be useful if an acute abdomen is suspected. HIV serology is not the next investigation in this case, but those diagnosed with STIs are offered screening for HIV. An ultrasound scan of the abdomen and pelvis may be done if a complicated pelvic inflammatory disease is suspected, but it is unlikely to be helpful in this case. Urine culture would not be useful in the absence of urinary symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 57 - A 45-year-old woman has confirmed menopause. She is considering HRT (hormone replacement therapy)....

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman has confirmed menopause. She is considering HRT (hormone replacement therapy).
      Which of the following conditions has an increased risk of association with oestrogen-only HRT?

      Your Answer: Endometrial cancer

      Explanation:

      Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is a treatment that involves administering synthetic oestrogen and progestogen to women experiencing menopausal symptoms. HRT can be given as local (creams, pessaries, rings) or systemic therapy (oral drugs, transdermal patches and gels, implants) and may contain oestrogen alone, combined oestrogen and progestogen, selective oestrogen receptor modulator, or gonadomimetics. The average age for menopause is around 50-51 years, and symptoms include hot flushes, insomnia, weight gain, mood changes, and irregular menses. HRT should be initiated at the lowest possible dosage and titrated based on clinical response. However, HRT is not recommended for women who have undergone hysterectomy due to the risk of endometrial hyperplasia, a precursor to endometrial cancer. HRT may also increase the risk of breast cancer and heart attacks, and non-hormonal options should be considered for menopausal effects in women who have previously had breast cancer. There is no evidence to suggest that HRT is associated with an increased or decreased risk of developing cervical cancer, and observational studies of systemic HRT after breast cancer are generally reassuring. Oestrogen is believed to be a growth factor that enhances cholinergic neurotransmission and prevents oxidative cell damage, neuronal atrophy, and glucocorticoid-induced neuronal damage, which may help prevent dementia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      8.6
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  • Question 58 - A 6-year-old girl is brought to your clinic by her father. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl is brought to your clinic by her father. She has a history of asthma and has been using salbutamol as needed. However, her father reports that her symptoms have become more severe lately, with a persistent nighttime cough that disrupts her sleep and affects her performance during physical activities at school. Upon examination, there are no notable findings. What is your recommended course of action?

      Your Answer: Refer to paediatrics

      Correct Answer: Add an inhaled steroid

      Explanation:

      As per current clinical practice, the child is not using an inhaled corticosteroid. However, the 2016 British Thoracic Society guidelines suggest that all children and adults should be prescribed an inhaled corticosteroid upon diagnosis. The previous approach of using only a short-acting beta agonist as the initial step has been eliminated. Therefore, the best course of action would be to introduce a ‘very low’ dose inhaled corticosteroid.

      Managing Asthma in Children: NICE Guidelines

      Asthma management in children has been updated by NICE in 2017, following the 2016 BTS guidelines. The new guidelines for children aged 5-16 are similar to those for adults, with a stepwise approach for treatment. For newly-diagnosed asthma, short-acting beta agonist (SABA) is recommended. If symptoms persist, a combination of SABA and paediatric low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) is used. Leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA) is added if symptoms still persist, followed by long-acting beta agonist (LABA) if necessary. Maintenance and reliever therapy (MART) is used as a combination of ICS and LABA for daily maintenance therapy and symptom relief. For children under 5 years old, clinical judgement plays a greater role in diagnosis. The stepwise approach is similar to that for older children, with an 8-week trial of paediatric moderate-dose ICS before adding LTRA. If symptoms persist, referral to a paediatric asthma specialist is recommended.

      It should be noted that NICE does not recommend changing treatment for well-controlled asthma patients simply to adhere to the latest guidelines. The definitions of low, moderate, and high-dose ICS have also changed, with different definitions for adults and children. For children, <= 200 micrograms budesonide or equivalent is considered a paediatric low dose, 200-400 micrograms is a moderate dose, and > 400 micrograms is a high dose. Overall, the new NICE guidelines provide a clear and concise approach to managing asthma in children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 59 - A 27-year-old man with a medical history of sickle cell disease presents with...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man with a medical history of sickle cell disease presents with intense pain in his left hip. He mentions having received antibiotics from his general practitioner for a chest infection. How would you categorize this sickle cell crisis?

      Your Answer: Sequestration crises

      Correct Answer: Thrombotic crises

      Explanation:

      Sickle cell patients may experience thrombotic crises due to factors such as infection, dehydration, or deoxygenation. In this case, the patient’s severe pain and recent infection suggest a thrombotic crisis. Other types of crises, such as sequestration crises that present with acute chest syndrome, aplastic crises caused by parvovirus infection, or haemolytic crises with increased haemolysis, may have different symptoms. A thyrotoxic crisis would not be related to sickle cell disease.

      Sickle cell anaemia is a condition that involves periods of good health with intermittent crises. There are several types of crises that can occur, including thrombotic or painful crises, sequestration, acute chest syndrome, aplastic, and haemolytic. Thrombotic crises, also known as painful crises or vaso-occlusive crises, are triggered by factors such as infection, dehydration, and deoxygenation. These crises are diagnosed clinically and can result in infarcts in various organs, including the bones, lungs, spleen, and brain.

      Sequestration crises occur when sickling occurs within organs such as the spleen or lungs, leading to pooling of blood and worsening of anaemia. This type of crisis is associated with an increased reticulocyte count. Acute chest syndrome is caused by vaso-occlusion within the pulmonary microvasculature, resulting in infarction in the lung parenchyma. Symptoms include dyspnoea, chest pain, pulmonary infiltrates on chest x-ray, and low pO2. Management involves pain relief, respiratory support, antibiotics, and transfusion.

      Aplastic crises are caused by infection with parvovirus and result in a sudden fall in haemoglobin. Bone marrow suppression leads to a reduced reticulocyte count. Haemolytic crises are rare and involve a fall in haemoglobin due to an increased rate of haemolysis. It is important to recognise and manage these crises promptly, as they can lead to serious complications and even death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
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  • Question 60 - A 50-year-old male comes to the emergency department complaining of malaise, yellowing sclera,...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old male comes to the emergency department complaining of malaise, yellowing sclera, and increasing abdominal girth. He admits to drinking 80 cl of whisky daily and has had several unsuccessful attempts at community detoxification. The patient has a medical history of liver cirrhosis. During the examination, a significantly distended abdomen with a shifting dullness and an enlarged mass in the right upper quadrant are observed.

      What is the most suitable medication to prescribe for this patient?

      Your Answer: Spironolactone

      Explanation:

      For patients with ascites caused by liver cirrhosis, it is recommended to prescribe an aldosterone antagonist, such as spironolactone, as the preferred diuretic to combat sodium retention. A low-salt diet should also be implemented. While furosemide can be useful in combination with spironolactone, it is not effective in blocking aldosterone and should not be used as a single agent. Nephrotoxic medications, including naproxen, should be avoided. ACE inhibitors, like ramipril, can induce renal failure and should be used with caution and careful monitoring of blood pressure and renal function. Restricting high sodium concentration fluids will not be beneficial, but a low sodium diet is recommended to prevent water retention.

      Understanding Ascites: Causes and Management

      Ascites is a medical condition characterized by the accumulation of abnormal fluid in the abdomen. The causes of ascites can be classified into two groups based on the serum-ascites albumin gradient (SAAG) level. A SAAG level greater than 11g/L indicates portal hypertension, which is commonly caused by liver disorders such as cirrhosis, alcoholic liver disease, and liver metastases. On the other hand, a SAAG level less than 11g/L is caused by hypoalbuminaemia, malignancy, infections, and other factors such as bowel obstruction and biliary ascites.

      The management of ascites involves reducing dietary sodium and fluid restriction, especially if the sodium level is less than 125 mmol/L. Aldosterone antagonists like spironolactone and loop diuretics are often prescribed to patients. In some cases, drainage through therapeutic abdominal paracentesis is necessary. Large-volume paracentesis requires albumin cover to reduce the risk of paracentesis-induced circulatory dysfunction and mortality. Prophylactic antibiotics are also recommended to prevent spontaneous bacterial peritonitis. In severe cases, a transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS) may be considered.

      Understanding the causes and management of ascites is crucial in providing appropriate medical care to patients. Proper diagnosis and treatment can help alleviate symptoms and improve the patient’s quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 61 - A 65-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of breathlessness and a...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of breathlessness and a dry cough that has persisted for three weeks. She is a non-smoker and consumes 10 units of alcohol per week. The patient has a target rash on both of her lower limbs, and her chest x-ray reveals reticulonodular shadowing on the left lung. The medical team diagnoses her with bacterial pneumonia. What is the probable causative agent responsible for her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Mycoplasma pneumoniae

      Explanation:

      Based on the dry cough, symmetrical target-shaped rash with a central blister (erythema multiforme), and radiological findings, it is likely that the woman has Mycoplasma. While pneumococcal pneumonia is the most common type of pneumonia in the community, it would typically present with lobar consolidation on an x-ray and a productive cough, rather than a dry one. Klebsiella pneumonia is more common in alcoholics, but the woman’s drinking habits, while exceeding the recommended limit for women (14 units per week), are not severe enough to increase her risk of Klebsiella. Additionally, Klebsiella pneumonia typically causes a cavitating pneumonia in the upper lobes.

      Mycoplasma pneumoniae: A Cause of Atypical Pneumonia

      Mycoplasma pneumoniae is a type of bacteria that causes atypical pneumonia, which is more common in younger patients. This disease is associated with various complications such as erythema multiforme and cold autoimmune haemolytic anaemia. Epidemics of Mycoplasma pneumoniae typically occur every four years. It is important to recognize atypical pneumonia because it may not respond to penicillins or cephalosporins due to the bacteria lacking a peptidoglycan cell wall.

      The disease usually has a gradual onset and is preceded by flu-like symptoms, followed by a dry cough. X-rays may show bilateral consolidation. Complications may include cold agglutinins, erythema multiforme, erythema nodosum, meningoencephalitis, Guillain-Barre syndrome, bullous myringitis, pericarditis/myocarditis, and gastrointestinal and renal problems.

      Diagnosis is generally made through Mycoplasma serology and a positive cold agglutination test. Management involves the use of doxycycline or a macrolide such as erythromycin or clarithromycin.

      In comparison to Legionella pneumonia, which is caused by a different type of bacteria, Mycoplasma pneumoniae has a more gradual onset and is associated with different complications. It is important to differentiate between the two types of pneumonia to ensure appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 62 - Which of the following contraceptives may lead to a decrease in bone mineral...

    Correct

    • Which of the following contraceptives may lead to a decrease in bone mineral density among women?

      Your Answer: Depo Provera (injectable contraceptive)

      Explanation:

      Injectable Contraceptives: Depo Provera

      Injectable contraceptives are a popular form of birth control in the UK, with Depo Provera being the main option available. This contraceptive contains 150mg of medroxyprogesterone acetate and is administered via intramuscular injection every 12 weeks. It can be given up to 14 weeks after the last dose without the need for extra precautions. The primary method of action is by inhibiting ovulation, while secondary effects include cervical mucus thickening and endometrial thinning.

      However, there are some disadvantages to using Depo Provera. Once the injection is given, it cannot be reversed, and there may be a delayed return to fertility of up to 12 months. Adverse effects may include irregular bleeding and weight gain, and there is a potential increased risk of osteoporosis. It should only be used in adolescents if no other method of contraception is suitable.

      It is important to note that there are contraindications to using Depo Provera, such as current breast cancer (UKMEC 4) or past breast cancer (UKMEC 3). While Noristerat is another injectable contraceptive licensed in the UK, it is rarely used in clinical practice and is given every 8 weeks. Overall, injectable contraceptives can be an effective form of birth control, but it is important to weigh the potential risks and benefits before deciding on this method.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 63 - A 62-year-old man is admitted to the Acute Medical Ward with lower back...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old man is admitted to the Acute Medical Ward with lower back pain. He has a past medical history of prostate cancer and hypertension. His pain radiates down the left leg and he has reduced power in that leg. He also has a reduced anal tone. The lumbar spine X-ray shows no obvious fracture and there is no history of trauma.
      Given the likely diagnosis of metastatic spinal cord compression (MSCC), he was referred urgently for oncological and neurosurgical assessment.
      Which medication is the patient most likely to be started on?

      Your Answer: High-dose prednisolone

      Correct Answer: High-dose dexamethasone

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Metastatic Spinal Cord Compression

      Metastatic spinal cord compression (MSCC) is a serious condition that requires urgent medical attention. Red flags for lower back pain include associated lower limb pain, limb weakness, paraesthesia/numbness, and reduced perianal tone. If these features are present, especially in a patient with an oncological past medical history, urgent magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) should be performed to rule out spinal cord compression.

      Patients with MSCC should be referred urgently to the oncology and neurosurgical teams for immediate treatment and consideration of surgical intervention to relieve the compression. Management should include high-dose oral dexamethasone and urgent oncological assessment for consideration of radiotherapy or surgery. Diclofenac is not indicated in MSCC treatment, and high-dose prednisolone is not the corticosteroid of choice.

      Intravenous ceftriaxone is not effective in treating MSCC, as it is used to treat meningitis. Intravenous immunoglobulin therapy is also not indicated in MSCC treatment, as it is used to treat conditions such as immune thrombocytopenia, Kawasaki disease, and Guillain–Barré syndrome.

      In conclusion, early recognition and prompt treatment of MSCC are crucial to prevent permanent neurological damage. High-dose dexamethasone and urgent oncological assessment for consideration of radiotherapy or surgery are the recommended treatment options for MSCC.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      3
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  • Question 64 - A 54-year-old man with a history of alcoholic liver disease and cirrhosis is...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old man with a history of alcoholic liver disease and cirrhosis is scheduled for an oesophago-gastro-duodenoscopy (OGD) to screen for oesophageal varices. The OGD reveals several high-risk varices, and medical prophylaxis is advised. What medication would be the best choice?

      Your Answer: Propranolol

      Explanation:

      Propranolol, a non-selective beta-blocker, is utilized for the prevention of oesophageal bleeding. Bisoprolol and metoprolol, both cardio-selective beta-blockers, are not as effective as propranolol for the extended management of varices. Terlipressin, a vasopressin analogue, is recommended for the immediate treatment of variceal bleeding.

      Variceal haemorrhage is a serious condition that requires prompt management. The initial treatment involves resuscitation of the patient before endoscopy. Correcting clotting with FFP and vitamin K is important, as is the use of vasoactive agents such as terlipressin or octreotide. Prophylactic IV antibiotics are also recommended to reduce mortality in patients with liver cirrhosis. Endoscopic variceal band ligation is the preferred method of treatment, and the use of a Sengstaken-Blakemore tube or Transjugular Intrahepatic Portosystemic Shunt (TIPSS) may be necessary if bleeding cannot be controlled. Propranolol and EVL are effective in preventing rebleeding and mortality, and are recommended by NICE guidelines. Proton pump inhibitor cover is given to prevent EVL-induced ulceration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 65 - A 19-year-old young woman is enjoying a meal at a Chinese restaurant to...

    Correct

    • A 19-year-old young woman is enjoying a meal at a Chinese restaurant to celebrate her birthday. Despite having a nut allergy, the restaurant has taken precautions to ensure her safety. However, while trying a friend's chicken dish, she unknowingly ingested peanuts and experiences a severe allergic reaction, including difficulty breathing and facial swelling. Thankfully, her friend has an EpiPen® and administers it before calling for an ambulance. Although her symptoms improve, she remains unwell and struggling to breathe. Her friend remembers that a second EpiPen® can be used if necessary. When is it appropriate to administer the second dose of adrenaline?

      Your Answer: 5 minutes

      Explanation:

      Adrenaline can be administered every 5 minutes in the management of anaphylaxis. It is recommended that individuals with a history of anaphylaxis carry two auto-injectors with them in case a second dose is needed.

      Anaphylaxis is a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that affects the entire body. It can be caused by various triggers, including food, drugs, and insect venom. The symptoms of anaphylaxis typically occur suddenly and progress rapidly, affecting the airway, breathing, and circulation. Common signs include swelling of the throat and tongue, hoarse voice, respiratory wheeze, dyspnea, hypotension, and tachycardia. In addition, around 80-90% of patients experience skin and mucosal changes, such as generalized pruritus, erythematous rash, or urticaria.

      The management of anaphylaxis requires prompt and decisive action, as it is a medical emergency. The Resuscitation Council guidelines recommend intramuscular adrenaline as the most important drug for treating anaphylaxis. The recommended doses of adrenaline vary depending on the patient’s age, ranging from 100-150 micrograms for infants under 6 months to 500 micrograms for adults and children over 12 years. Adrenaline can be repeated every 5 minutes if necessary, and the best site for injection is the anterolateral aspect of the middle third of the thigh. In cases of refractory anaphylaxis, IV fluids and expert help should be sought.

      Following stabilisation, patients may be given non-sedating oral antihistamines to manage persisting skin symptoms. It is important to refer all patients with a new diagnosis of anaphylaxis to a specialist allergy clinic and provide them with an adrenaline injector as an interim measure before the specialist assessment. Patients should also be prescribed two adrenaline auto-injectors and trained on how to use them. A risk-stratified approach to discharge should be taken, as biphasic reactions can occur in up to 20% of patients. The Resus Council UK recommends a fast-track discharge for patients who have had a good response to a single dose of adrenaline and complete resolution of symptoms, while those who require two doses of IM adrenaline or have a history of biphasic reaction should be observed for at least 12 hours following symptom resolution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology/Allergy
      7
      Seconds
  • Question 66 - A 28-year-old female patient visits your clinic with a complaint of fishy-smelling vaginal...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female patient visits your clinic with a complaint of fishy-smelling vaginal discharge. You suspect bacterial vaginosis and decide to prescribe metronidazole. The patient has no known drug allergies and is generally healthy, except for taking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP). What is the most crucial advice you should provide her regarding the potential side effects of metronidazole?

      Your Answer: Metronidazole could cause liver problems

      Correct Answer: She should abstain from alcohol whilst taking metronidazole

      Explanation:

      Taking metronidazole and alcohol together can result in a disulfiram-like reaction, so patients should be cautioned against consuming alcohol while on the medication. Metronidazole is not associated with cholestasis, hepatotoxicity, or QT prolongation. As an enzyme inhibitor, metronidazole enhances the efficacy of the COCP. While Stevens-Johnson syndrome is a rare side effect of metronidazole, a photosensitive rash is not typically observed.

      Metronidazole is an antibiotic that functions by producing reactive cytotoxic metabolites within bacteria. This medication can cause adverse effects such as a disulfiram-like reaction when combined with alcohol and an increased anticoagulant effect when taken with warfarin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      217
      Seconds
  • Question 67 - A 10-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department after being hit on...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department after being hit on the side of his head by a cricket ball during a match. According to his teacher, he initially fell to the ground and complained of a sore head. However, he got up after two minutes, claimed to feel fine, and resumed playing. Unfortunately, after 30 minutes, he suddenly collapsed and lost consciousness. What kind of injury is he likely to have suffered?

      Your Answer: Subdural haematoma

      Correct Answer: Extradural haematoma

      Explanation:

      Extradural (epidural) hematoma – Head injury with a lucid interval

      Types of Traumatic Brain Injury

      Traumatic brain injury can result in primary and secondary brain injury. Primary brain injury can be focal or diffuse. Diffuse axonal injury occurs due to mechanical shearing, which causes disruption and tearing of axons. Intra-cranial haematomas can be extradural, subdural, or intracerebral, while contusions may occur adjacent to or contralateral to the side of impact. Secondary brain injury occurs when cerebral oedema, ischaemia, infection, tonsillar or tentorial herniation exacerbates the original injury. The normal cerebral auto regulatory processes are disrupted following trauma rendering the brain more susceptible to blood flow changes and hypoxia. The Cushings reflex often occurs late and is usually a pre-terminal event.

      Extradural haematoma is bleeding into the space between the dura mater and the skull. It often results from acceleration-deceleration trauma or a blow to the side of the head. The majority of epidural haematomas occur in the temporal region where skull fractures cause a rupture of the middle meningeal artery. Subdural haematoma is bleeding into the outermost meningeal layer. It most commonly occurs around the frontal and parietal lobes. Risk factors include old age, alcoholism, and anticoagulation. Subarachnoid haemorrhage classically causes a sudden occipital headache. It usually occurs spontaneously in the context of a ruptured cerebral aneurysm but may be seen in association with other injuries when a patient has sustained a traumatic brain injury. Intracerebral haematoma is a collection of blood within the substance of the brain. Causes/risk factors include hypertension, vascular lesion, cerebral amyloid angiopathy, trauma, brain tumour, or infarct. Patients will present similarly to an ischaemic stroke or with a decrease in consciousness. CT imaging will show a hyperdensity within the substance of the brain. Treatment is often conservative under the care of stroke physicians, but large clots in patients with impaired consciousness may warrant surgical evacuation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      7.8
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  • Question 68 - A 42-year-old woman presents with a sudden onset of vision loss in her...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman presents with a sudden onset of vision loss in her left eye. She reports experiencing pain with eye movement and a decrease in colour vision. She has no significant medical history and is not taking any medications.

      During the examination, her left eye has a visual acuity of 6/6 while her right eye has a visual acuity of 6/24. A relative afferent pupillary defect is observed in her left eye, and visual field testing reveals a central scotoma in the left eye.

      What is the most probable cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Retinitis pigmentosa

      Correct Answer: Optic neuritis

      Explanation:

      A central scotoma is a common feature of optic neuritis, along with visual loss, periocular pain, and dyschromatopsia (change in colour perception). Other classic signs on examination include a relative afferent pupillary defect. Unlike open-angle glaucoma, which typically causes painless, gradual loss of peripheral vision, optic neuritis often affects the central vision. Anterior ischaemic optic neuropathy, on the other hand, causes sudden, painless loss of vision and is more common in people over 50. Optic nerve glioma, which is rare after age 20 and may be associated with neurofibromatosis, can cause visual defects and headaches but is not typically associated with eye movement pain or colour desaturation.

      Optic neuritis is a condition that can be caused by multiple sclerosis, diabetes, or syphilis. It is characterized by a decrease in visual acuity in one eye over a period of hours or days, as well as poor color discrimination and pain that worsens with eye movement. Other symptoms include a relative afferent pupillary defect and a central scotoma. The condition can be diagnosed through an MRI of the brain and orbits with gadolinium contrast. Treatment typically involves high-dose steroids, and recovery usually takes 4-6 weeks. If an MRI shows more than three white-matter lesions, the risk of developing multiple sclerosis within five years is approximately 50%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      9.4
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  • Question 69 - A 33-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with acute chest pain described...

    Correct

    • A 33-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with acute chest pain described as tearing in nature. Upon clinical examination, a diastolic murmur consistent with aortic regurgitation is detected. Further investigation with chest computerised tomography (CT) confirms the presence of an ascending aortic dissection. The patient has a medical history of spontaneous pneumothorax and upward lens dislocation, but no significant family history. What is the probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Marfan syndrome

      Explanation:

      Common Genetic and Neurological Syndromes: Symptoms and Characteristics

      Marfan Syndrome, Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome, Homocystinuria, Korsakoff Syndrome, and Loffler Syndrome are all genetic and neurological syndromes that affect individuals in different ways.

      Marfan Syndrome is caused by a mutation in the fibrillin gene, resulting in weakened elastic fibers and aortic dissection. Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome is characterized by fragile blood vessels, hyperelastic skin, and aneurysm formation. Homocystinuria is an autosomal recessive condition that causes downward lens dislocation, thrombotic episodes, osteoporosis, and intellectual disability. Korsakoff Syndrome occurs after Wernicke’s encephalopathy and results in the inability to acquire new memories. Finally, Loffler Syndrome is a transient respiratory condition caused by the allergic infiltration of the lungs by eosinophils.

      Understanding the symptoms and characteristics of these syndromes is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      8.8
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  • Question 70 - A 4-year-old boy is brought to the Paediatric Emergency Department with a fever...

    Correct

    • A 4-year-old boy is brought to the Paediatric Emergency Department with a fever of one week. On evaluation, the child appears unwell, erythema of the palms and soles are noted, along with bilateral conjunctivitis. Examination of the oral cavity reveals cracked lips.
      In addition to the above findings, which one of the following features would prompt an urgent referral for echocardiography?

      Your Answer: Rash on the trunk and extremities

      Explanation:

      Clinical Features and Differential Diagnoses of Kawasaki Disease

      Kawasaki disease is a rare but serious condition that primarily affects children under the age of five. To diagnose Kawasaki disease, a patient must have a fever for at least five days and four out of five classical features: bilateral, non-exudative conjunctival injection, changes in lips and oral cavity, oedema and erythema in the hands and feet, polymorphous rash, and cervical lymphadenopathy. However, tonsillar exudate, leukopenia, neck stiffness, and small submental lymph nodes are not classical features of Kawasaki disease and should prompt consideration of other differential diagnoses. Patients with confirmed Kawasaki disease should undergo echocardiographic examination to detect potential coronary artery aneurysms. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent serious complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      18
      Seconds
  • Question 71 - A 35-year-old woman is referred to Rheumatology by her General Practitioner with general...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman is referred to Rheumatology by her General Practitioner with general ill-health. She has been complaining of general muscle weakness, a feeling of fatigue and a persistent cough. An autoimmune screen reveals high titres of anti-smooth muscle antibodies.
      Which of the following conditions is the most likely cause of this autoantibody profile?

      Your Answer: Autoimmune hepatitis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Anti-Smooth Muscle Antibodies and Their Association with Various Conditions

      Anti-smooth muscle antibodies (ASMA) are often present in autoimmune hepatitis type 1, primary biliary cholangitis, primary sclerosing cholangitis, and overlap syndromes. In contrast, low titres are seen with Epstein–Barr virus (EBV) infections and hepatitis A. Negative titres for ASMA are expected in healthy individuals.

      It is important to note that ASMA are not found in hypothyroidism or fibrosing alveolitis. Additionally, only low titres of ASMA can be seen with hepatitis A and EBV infections.

      Overall, the presence of ASMA can indicate the presence of underlying conditions and should be further investigated by a healthcare professional.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology/Allergy
      9.2
      Seconds
  • Question 72 - A 62-year-old woman complains of blood in her stool and unintentional weight loss....

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old woman complains of blood in her stool and unintentional weight loss. During rectal examination, you notice a suspicious lesion below the pectinate line, which raises concern for cancer. You proceed to check for any signs of lymphadenopathy.
      Where would you anticipate discovering enlarged lymph nodes?

      Your Answer: Inferior mesenteric

      Correct Answer: Inguinal

      Explanation:

      Lymph Node Drainage in the Pelvic Region

      The lymphatic drainage in the pelvic region is an important aspect of the body’s immune system. There are several lymph nodes in this area that drain different parts of the body. Here is a breakdown of the lymph node drainage in the pelvic region:

      1. Inguinal: The inguinal lymph nodes drain the anal canal inferior to the pectinate line. These nodes then drain into the lateral pelvic nodes.

      2. External iliac: The external iliac nodes drain the adductor region of the upper thigh, glans, clitoris, cervix, and upper bladder.

      3. Inferior mesenteric: The inferior mesenteric nodes drain the sigmoid, upper rectum, and descending colon.

      4. Internal iliac: The internal iliac nodes drain the rectum and the part of the anal canal superior to the pectinate line.

      5. Superior mesenteric: The superior mesenteric nodes drain parts of the upper gastrointestinal tract, specifically the duodenum and jejunum.

      Understanding the lymph node drainage in the pelvic region is important for diagnosing and treating certain conditions. By knowing which lymph nodes drain which parts of the body, healthcare professionals can better identify the source of an infection or cancer and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology/Allergy
      5
      Seconds
  • Question 73 - A 68-year-old female with a history of osteoporosis is prescribed alendronate. What is...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old female with a history of osteoporosis is prescribed alendronate. What is the most crucial side-effect to caution her about?

      Your Answer: Heartburn

      Explanation:

      Patients starting bisphosphonates should be warned about potential oesophageal problems, particularly with alendronate. Any new symptoms following the introduction of this drug should be reviewed by a medical professional.

      Bisphosphonates: Uses and Adverse Effects

      Bisphosphonates are drugs that mimic the action of pyrophosphate, a molecule that helps prevent bone demineralization. They work by inhibiting osteoclasts, which are cells that break down bone tissue. This reduces the risk of bone fractures and can be used to treat conditions such as osteoporosis, hypercalcemia, Paget’s disease, and pain from bone metastases.

      However, bisphosphonates can have adverse effects, including oesophageal reactions such as oesophagitis and ulcers, osteonecrosis of the jaw, and an increased risk of atypical stress fractures of the proximal femoral shaft in patients taking alendronate. Patients may also experience an acute phase response, which can cause fever, myalgia, and arthralgia. Hypocalcemia, or low calcium levels, can also occur due to reduced calcium efflux from bone, but this is usually not clinically significant.

      To minimize the risk of adverse effects, patients taking oral bisphosphonates should swallow the tablets whole with plenty of water while sitting or standing. They should take the medication on an empty stomach at least 30 minutes before breakfast or other oral medications and remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the tablet. Hypocalcemia and vitamin D deficiency should be corrected before starting bisphosphonate treatment, and calcium supplements should only be prescribed if dietary intake is inadequate. The duration of bisphosphonate treatment varies depending on the patient’s level of risk, and some authorities recommend stopping treatment after five years for low-risk patients with a femoral neck T-score of > -2.5.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 74 - A 28-year-old female patient, 14 weeks pregnant, comes in for a routine scan...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old female patient, 14 weeks pregnant, comes in for a routine scan and agrees to have her baby screened for chromosomal disorders using the 'combined test'. The scan and blood test are performed, and a few days later, she is informed that the results indicate a higher likelihood of her baby having Down's syndrome. She is asked to come to the hospital to discuss the results and what to do next.

      What specific combination of results from the combined test would have indicated an increased risk of Down's syndrome for this patient?

      Your Answer: Thickened nuchal translucency, increased B-HCG, reduced PAPP-A

      Explanation:

      To detect Down’s syndrome, doctors recommend the combined test which involves measuring the thickness of the nuchal translucency during the 12-week scan, as well as conducting blood tests for B-HCG and PAPP-A. This test can only be done between 11 and 13+6 weeks of pregnancy. If the nuchal translucency is thickened, B-HCG levels are high, and PAPP-A levels are low, there is an increased likelihood of Down’s syndrome. The other options listed are incorrect. If a woman misses the window for the combined test, she may be offered the triple or quadruple test between 15-20 weeks, which includes AFP as a marker for Down’s syndrome. Low levels of AFP indicate a higher risk of Down’s syndrome.

      NICE updated guidelines on antenatal care in 2021, recommending the combined test for screening for Down’s syndrome between 11-13+6 weeks. The test includes nuchal translucency measurement, serum B-HCG, and pregnancy-associated plasma protein A (PAPP-A). The quadruple test is offered between 15-20 weeks for women who book later in pregnancy. Results are interpreted as either a ‘lower chance’ or ‘higher chance’ of chromosomal abnormalities. If a woman receives a ‘higher chance’ result, she may be offered a non-invasive prenatal screening test (NIPT) or a diagnostic test. NIPT analyzes cell-free fetal DNA in the mother’s blood and has high sensitivity and specificity for detecting chromosomal abnormalities. Private companies offer NIPT screening from 10 weeks gestation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      11.8
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  • Question 75 - A 6-week-old girl is brought to the pediatrician by her father with symptoms...

    Correct

    • A 6-week-old girl is brought to the pediatrician by her father with symptoms of vomiting and diarrhea for the past 5 days. She has also developed a new rash that is bothering her and has a runny nose. The father denies any weight loss, fever, or other family members being sick.

      Upon further questioning, the father reveals that he has recently introduced formula milk as he is planning to return to work soon and wants the baby to get used to it. The pediatrician suspects that the infant may have an intolerance to cow's milk protein.

      What would be the most appropriate alternative feed to try for this baby?

      Your Answer: Extensively hydrolysed formula

      Explanation:

      Formula options for infants with different types of intolerance vary. For infants with cow’s milk protein intolerance, a partially hydrolysed formula is recommended as it contains proteins that are less allergenic. Amino acid-based formula is suitable for infants with severe intolerance, although it may not be as palatable. High protein formula is used for pre-term infants, but recent studies suggest that it may increase the risk of obesity in the long-term. Lactose-free formula is appropriate for infants with lactose intolerance, which is characterized by gastrointestinal symptoms rather than rash and runny nose.

      Understanding Cow’s Milk Protein Intolerance/Allergy

      Cow’s milk protein intolerance/allergy (CMPI/CMPA) is a condition that affects around 3-6% of children, typically presenting in the first 3 months of life in formula-fed infants. Both immediate and delayed reactions can occur, with CMPA used for immediate reactions and CMPI for mild-moderate delayed reactions. Symptoms include regurgitation, vomiting, diarrhea, urticaria, atopic eczema, colic symptoms, wheeze, chronic cough, and rarely, angioedema and anaphylaxis. Diagnosis is often clinical, with investigations including skin prick/patch testing and total IgE and specific IgE (RAST) for cow’s milk protein.

      Management for formula-fed infants includes using extensive hydrolyzed formula (eHF) milk as the first-line replacement formula for mild-moderate symptoms and amino acid-based formula (AAF) for severe CMPA or if no response to eHF. Around 10% of infants are also intolerant to soya milk. For breastfed infants, mothers should eliminate cow’s milk protein from their diet and consider prescribing calcium supplements to prevent deficiency. eHF milk can be used when breastfeeding stops until at least 6 months and up to 12 months of age.

      The prognosis for CMPI is usually good, with most children becoming milk tolerant by the age of 3-5 years. However, a challenge is often performed in a hospital setting as anaphylaxis can occur. It is important to refer infants with severe symptoms to a pediatrician for management. Understanding CMPI/CMPA and its management can help parents and healthcare providers provide appropriate care for affected children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      7.2
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  • Question 76 - A diabetic woman in her 50s presents with painful diabetic neuropathy in her...

    Correct

    • A diabetic woman in her 50s presents with painful diabetic neuropathy in her feet. She has no other significant medical history. What is the recommended initial treatment to alleviate her pain?

      Your Answer: Duloxetine

      Explanation:

      Diabetes can cause peripheral neuropathy, which typically results in sensory loss rather than motor loss. This often affects the lower legs first due to the length of the sensory neurons supplying this area, resulting in a glove and stocking distribution. Painful diabetic neuropathy is a common issue that can be managed with drugs such as amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin, or pregabalin. If these drugs do not work, tramadol may be used as a rescue therapy, and topical capsaicin may be used for localized neuropathic pain. Pain management clinics may also be helpful for patients with resistant problems.

      Gastrointestinal autonomic neuropathy can cause gastroparesis, which can lead to erratic blood glucose control, bloating, and vomiting. This can be managed with prokinetic agents such as metoclopramide, domperidone, or erythromycin. Chronic diarrhea, which often occurs at night, is another potential complication of diabetic neuropathy. Gastroesophageal reflux disease can also occur due to decreased lower esophageal sphincter pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      3.5
      Seconds
  • Question 77 - A 27-year-old woman comes in for her 8th week of pregnancy and reports...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old woman comes in for her 8th week of pregnancy and reports an uncomplicated pregnancy thus far. She is currently in good health and not experiencing any symptoms. However, she expresses concern about not being vaccinated against rubella as a child due to her parents' anti-vaccine beliefs. She is aware of the potential harm rubella can cause to her developing fetus and blood tests confirm that she is not immune to the virus.

      What advice should be given to her?

      Your Answer: She can have the MMR vaccine postnatally

      Explanation:

      In the case of a pregnant woman who is not immune to rubella, it is recommended to offer the MMR vaccination after giving birth. Rubella can cause severe harm to the developing foetus, especially during the first 8-10 weeks of pregnancy. Although congenital rubella syndrome is now rare due to widespread MMR vaccination, there has been a resurgence of measles, mumps, and rubella outbreaks in developed countries due to the anti-vaccination movement. The woman should avoid contact with individuals who may have rubella and cannot receive the vaccine while pregnant. Referral to an obstetrician is not necessary at this time since the woman is asymptomatic and in good health. The MMR vaccine should not be administered at 20 weeks of pregnancy, and if the woman is not immune, it should be offered postnatally. If there is a suspicion of rubella based on the woman’s clinical presentation, the local Health Protection Team should be notified, but this is not necessary in this case since there is no suspicion.

      Rubella and Pregnancy: Risks, Features, Diagnosis, and Management

      Rubella, also known as German measles, is a viral infection caused by the togavirus. Thanks to the introduction of the MMR vaccine, it is now rare. However, if contracted during pregnancy, there is a risk of congenital rubella syndrome, which can cause serious harm to the fetus. It is important to note that the incubation period is 14-21 days, and individuals are infectious from 7 days before symptoms appear to 4 days after the onset of the rash.

      The risk of damage to the fetus is highest in the first 8-10 weeks of pregnancy, with a risk as high as 90%. However, damage is rare after 16 weeks. Features of congenital rubella syndrome include sensorineural deafness, congenital cataracts, congenital heart disease (e.g. patent ductus arteriosus), growth retardation, hepatosplenomegaly, purpuric skin lesions, ‘salt and pepper’ chorioretinitis, microphthalmia, and cerebral palsy.

      If a suspected case of rubella in pregnancy arises, it should be discussed immediately with the local Health Protection Unit (HPU) as type/timing of investigations may vary. IgM antibodies are raised in women recently exposed to the virus. It should be noted that it is very difficult to distinguish rubella from parvovirus B19 clinically. Therefore, it is important to also check parvovirus B19 serology as there is a 30% risk of transplacental infection, with a 5-10% risk of fetal loss.

      If a woman is tested at any point and no immunity is demonstrated, they should be advised to keep away from people who might have rubella. Non-immune mothers should be offered the MMR vaccination in the post-natal period. However, MMR vaccines should not be administered to women known to be pregnant or attempting to become pregnant.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      356.2
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  • Question 78 - A 67-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his daughter who...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his daughter who is worried about his confusion after a recent chest infection. She mentions that he did not get better even after taking amoxicillin. During the examination, crackles are heard on the left side of his chest and his vital signs show a respiratory rate of 28/min, blood pressure of 90/60 mmHg, and heart rate of 110/min.

      What would be the suitable fluid therapy to administer?

      Your Answer: 500ml stat

      Explanation:

      This individual displays several indicators of red flag sepsis, such as confusion, hypotension, and elevated respiratory rate. It is imperative to initiate the sepsis 6 protocol.
      According to the NICE guidelines for sepsis, when administering intravenous fluid resuscitation to patients aged 16 and above, it is recommended to use crystalloids containing sodium levels between 130-154 mmol/litre, with a 500 ml bolus administered in less than 15 minutes.

      Understanding Sepsis: Classification and Management

      Sepsis is a life-threatening condition caused by a dysregulated host response to an infection. In recent years, the classification of sepsis has changed, with the old category of severe sepsis no longer in use. Instead, the Surviving Sepsis Guidelines now recognize sepsis as life-threatening organ dysfunction caused by a dysregulated host response to infection, and septic shock as a more severe form of sepsis. The term ‘systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS)’ has also fallen out of favor.

      To manage sepsis, it is important to identify and treat the underlying cause of the infection and support the patient regardless of the cause or severity. However, if any red flags are present, the ‘sepsis six’ should be started immediately. This includes administering oxygen, taking blood cultures, giving broad-spectrum antibiotics, giving intravenous fluid challenges, measuring serum lactate, and measuring accurate hourly urine output.

      NICE released its own guidelines in 2016, which focus on the risk stratification and management of patients with suspected sepsis. For risk stratification, NICE recommends using red flag and amber flag criteria. If any red flags are present, the sepsis six should be started immediately. If any amber flags are present, the patient should be closely monitored and managed accordingly.

      To help identify and categorize patients, the Sequential (Sepsis-Related) Organ Failure Assessment Score (SOFA) is increasingly used. The score grades abnormality by organ system and accounts for clinical interventions. A SOFA score of 2 or more reflects an overall mortality risk of approximately 10% in a general hospital population with suspected infection. Even patients presenting with modest dysfunction can deteriorate further, emphasizing the seriousness of this condition and the need for prompt and appropriate intervention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      11
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  • Question 79 - A 55-year-old man is found to have an irregularly, irregular pulse during a...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man is found to have an irregularly, irregular pulse during a routine check-up. An ECG reveals absent P waves and irregular R-R intervals. The patient has moderate renal impairment. What is the most appropriate treatment option?

      Your Answer: Warfarin

      Correct Answer: No treatment

      Explanation:

      Understanding Anticoagulation Treatment for Atrial Fibrillation: A CHADS-VASc Scoring System Overview

      Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a common rhythm disturbance that can increase the risk of stroke. To determine the appropriate treatment for primary prevention of stroke, healthcare professionals use the CHADS-VASc scoring system. This system assigns points based on various risk factors, including age, sex, hypertension, diabetes, previous stroke or transient ischemic attack, and vascular disease.

      This score is based on a point system in which 2 points are assigned for a history of stroke or transient ischemic attack or age 75 years or more and 1 point each is assigned for age 65 to 74 years; a history of hypertension, diabetes, recent cardiac failure, vascular disease (myocardial infarction, complex aortic plaque, and peripheral arterial disease (PAD), including prior revascularization, amputation due to PAD, or angiographic evidence of PAD, etc.); and female gender, resulting in a maximum score of 9 points.

      Score Risk Anticoagulation Therapy
      0 (male) or 1 (female) Low No anticoagulant therapy
      1 (male) Moderate Oral anticoagulant should be considered
      2 or greater High Oral anticoagulant is recommended

      Aspirin is not recommended for primary prevention of stroke in patients with AF, but may be used for secondary prevention after a stroke. Clexane, a low-molecular-weight heparin, is not used for long-term treatment of AF. Dipyridamole may be used in combination with clopidogrel or aspirin for stroke treatment, but not for prevention in AF patients.

      It is important to accurately identify AF and assess the patient’s risk using the CHADS-VASc scoring system to determine the appropriate anticoagulation treatment. NOACs are only licensed for non-valvular AF, so patients with valvular AF should be treated with warfarin or seek advice from a specialist.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      15.4
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  • Question 80 - As a side-effect, which antidepressants cause the cheese effect (a hypertensive reaction)?

    ...

    Correct

    • As a side-effect, which antidepressants cause the cheese effect (a hypertensive reaction)?

      Your Answer: Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis: Jaundice and Abdominal Symptoms

      Gilbert Syndrome:
      Gilbert syndrome is an inherited condition that can manifest as jaundice on clinical examination. Patients may also experience non-specific symptoms such as abdominal cramps, fatigue, and malaise. Fasting, febrile illness, alcohol, or exercise can exacerbate jaundice in patients with Gilbert syndrome. Diagnosis is based on a thorough history and physical examination, as well as blood tests that show unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia.

      Haemolytic Anaemia:
      Haemolysis is the premature destruction of erythrocytes, which can lead to anaemia if bone marrow activity cannot compensate for erythrocyte loss. Mild haemolysis can be asymptomatic, while severe haemolysis can cause life-threatening symptoms such as angina and cardiopulmonary decompensation. Changes in lactate dehydrogenase and serum haptoglobin levels are the most sensitive general tests for haemolytic anaemia.

      Hepatitis A:
      Hepatitis A is a viral infection that results almost exclusively from ingestion, typically through faecal-oral transmission. Symptoms include fatigue, anorexia, nausea, and vomiting. LFT abnormalities are common, and diagnosis is based on serologic testing for immunoglobulin M (IgM) antibody to HAV.

      Hepatitis B:
      Hepatitis B is a viral infection that is transmitted haematogenously and sexually. Symptoms include fatigue, anorexia, nausea, and vomiting. LFT abnormalities are common, and diagnosis is based on serologic testing for hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg).

      Cholecystitis:
      Cholecystitis is inflammation of the gall bladder that occurs most commonly because of an obstruction of the cystic duct by gallstones arising from the gall bladder. Symptoms include upper abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and fever. Signs of peritoneal irritation may also be present.

      Conclusion:
      In summary, the differential diagnosis of jaundice and abdominal symptoms includes Gilbert syndrome, haemolytic anaemia, hepatitis A, hepatitis B, and cholecystitis. Diagnosis is based on a thorough history and physical examination, as well as blood tests and serologic testing as appropriate. Treatment

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 81 - A 5-year-old boy presents with learning difficulties and macrocephaly. What is the probable...

    Correct

    • A 5-year-old boy presents with learning difficulties and macrocephaly. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Fragile X

      Explanation:

      Fragile X is a condition characterized by learning difficulties, macrocephaly, large ears, and macro-orchidism in young boys.

      Childhood syndromes are a group of medical conditions that affect children and are characterized by a set of common features. Patau syndrome, also known as trisomy 13, is a syndrome that is characterized by microcephaly, small eyes, cleft lip/palate, polydactyly, and scalp lesions. Edward’s syndrome, also known as trisomy 18, is characterized by micrognathia, low-set ears, rocker bottom feet, and overlapping of fingers. Fragile X syndrome is characterized by learning difficulties, macrocephaly, long face, large ears, and macro-orchidism. Noonan syndrome is characterized by a webbed neck, pectus excavatum, short stature, and pulmonary stenosis. Pierre-Robin syndrome is characterized by micrognathia, posterior displacement of the tongue, and cleft palate. Prader-Willi syndrome is characterized by hypotonia, hypogonadism, and obesity. William’s syndrome is characterized by short stature, learning difficulties, friendly, extrovert personality, and transient neonatal hypercalcaemia. Cri du chat syndrome, also known as chromosome 5p deletion syndrome, is characterized by a characteristic cry, feeding difficulties and poor weight gain, learning difficulties, microcephaly and micrognathism, and hypertelorism. It is important to note that Treacher-Collins syndrome is similar to Pierre-Robin syndrome, but it is autosomal dominant and usually has a family history of similar problems.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 82 - A 28-year-old woman attends the early pregnancy assessment clinic for a scan after...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman attends the early pregnancy assessment clinic for a scan after a previous ectopic pregnancy treated with salpingotomy. The scan reveals an empty uterus and adnexal fluid with a yolk sac, indicating another ectopic pregnancy. The patient expresses a preference for the least invasive management option. What would be a contraindication for expectant management in this case?

      Your Answer: An ectopic pregnancy of < 30mm in size

      Correct Answer: Abdominal pain

      Explanation:

      Expectant management of an ectopic pregnancy is only possible if the embryo is unruptured, less than 35mm in size, has no heartbeat, is asymptomatic, and has a B-hCG level of less than 1,000IU/L and is declining. However, this management option is very uncommon as most patients present with symptoms.

      Ectopic pregnancy is a serious condition that requires prompt investigation and management. Women who are stable are typically investigated and managed in an early pregnancy assessment unit, while those who are unstable should be referred to the emergency department. The investigation of choice for ectopic pregnancy is a transvaginal ultrasound, which will confirm the presence of a positive pregnancy test.

      There are three ways to manage ectopic pregnancies: expectant management, medical management, and surgical management. The choice of management will depend on various criteria, such as the size of the ectopic pregnancy, whether it is ruptured or not, and the patient’s symptoms and hCG levels. Expectant management involves closely monitoring the patient over 48 hours, while medical management involves giving the patient methotrexate and requires follow-up. Surgical management can involve salpingectomy or salpingotomy, depending on the patient’s risk factors for infertility.

      Salpingectomy is the first-line treatment for women with no other risk factors for infertility, while salpingotomy should be considered for women with contralateral tube damage. However, around 1 in 5 women who undergo a salpingotomy require further treatment, such as methotrexate and/or a salpingectomy. It is important to carefully consider the patient’s individual circumstances and make a decision that will provide the best possible outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      8.9
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  • Question 83 - Treatment of an acute attack of gout with allopurinol may result in which...

    Correct

    • Treatment of an acute attack of gout with allopurinol may result in which of the following?

      Select the SINGLE result from the list below.

      Your Answer: Exacerbation and prolongation of the attack

      Explanation:

      To effectively treat gout, it is important to understand the proper use of allopurinol. Starting prophylactic treatment with allopurinol should be delayed until 1-2 weeks after the inflammation has settled to avoid exacerbating and prolonging the attack. It may take several weeks to reduce uric acid levels to normal, and the dose should be titrated every few weeks until sUA levels are below 300 mmol/l. It is not recommended to start allopurinol during an acute attack, as it is unlikely to lead to complete remission of symptoms. Allopurinol use is not associated with an increased risk of acute pyelonephritis, but renal impairment may occur if the starting dose is too high. In mild cases, self-care may be considered, but if drug treatment is necessary, NSAIDs or colchicine can be prescribed. It is important to measure the baseline sUA level and consider prophylaxis in high-risk patients. When starting allopurinol, a low dose of NSAID or colchicine should be co-prescribed for at least 1 month to prevent acute attacks of gout.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 84 - A 6-week-old infant presents to the clinic with a red rash on their...

    Correct

    • A 6-week-old infant presents to the clinic with a red rash on their scalp accompanied by yellow flakes. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Seborrhoeic dermatitis

      Explanation:

      Seborrhoeic Dermatitis in Children: Symptoms and Management

      Seborrhoeic dermatitis is a common skin condition that affects children, typically appearing on the scalp, nappy area, face, and limb flexures. One of the earliest signs is cradle cap, which can develop in the first few weeks of life. This condition is characterized by a red rash with coarse yellow scales.

      Fortunately, seborrhoeic dermatitis in children is not harmful and usually resolves within a few weeks. Parents can help manage the condition by massaging a topical emollient onto the scalp to loosen scales, brushing gently with a soft brush, and washing off with shampoo. If the condition is severe or persistent, a topical imidazole cream may be prescribed.

      It’s important to note that seborrhoeic dermatitis in children tends to resolve spontaneously by around 8 months of age. Parents should not be overly concerned and can take comfort in knowing that this condition is common and easily managed. By following these simple steps, parents can help their child feel more comfortable and alleviate any discomfort associated with seborrhoeic dermatitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 85 - A 35-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of a headache that she describes...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of a headache that she describes as worsening over the past three weeks. She reports that the headache wakes her during the night, and is worse when she coughs.

      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cluster headache

      Correct Answer: Brain tumour

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms suggest a headache caused by increased pressure within the skull, which is often associated with a space-occupying lesion such as a brain tumor. This type of headache is typically worse in the morning and aggravated by bending forward, coughing, or sneezing. As the tumor grows, other symptoms such as vomiting, seizures, and neurological deficits may develop. Brain tumors can be primary or metastatic, with the most common types being astrocytoma, glioblastoma, oligodendroglioma, ependymoma, meningioma, and primary CNS lymphoma.

      The patient’s history does not support a diagnosis of giant cell arteritis, which typically affects individuals over 50 years old and presents with an abrupt-onset headache, scalp tenderness, jaw pain, visual disturbances, and constitutional symptoms such as fever and weight loss. The diagnosis of GCA requires specific criteria, including age at onset, new headache, temporal artery abnormality, elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate, and abnormal artery biopsy.

      The patient’s symptoms are also not consistent with cluster headaches, which typically affect younger males and present with severe, unilateral pain around the eye, accompanied by lacrimation and nasal congestion. Cluster headaches have a circadian pattern and occur in episodes, followed by symptom-free periods.

      Migraine is another type of headache that is not likely in this case, as the patient’s symptoms do not fit the typical pattern of unilateral, pulsating pain lasting 4-72 hours, accompanied by nausea/vomiting and photophobia.

      Finally, subarachnoid hemorrhage is a medical emergency that presents with a sudden, severe headache, often described as the worst headache of one’s life, along with other symptoms such as vomiting, loss of consciousness, seizures, and neurological deficits. However, the patient’s headache has been progressing over weeks, which is not consistent with SAH.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 86 - A 25-year-old man visits his general practice surgery, explaining that his depression has...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man visits his general practice surgery, explaining that his depression has been cured after four months taking sertraline. He says he is ready to stop taking the medication immediately and is looking forward to being 'normal again'.
      What is the most appropriate management advice you can give this patient?

      Your Answer: He should follow the medication for a further six weeks

      Correct Answer: He should be treated for at least six months

      Explanation:

      Duration of Antidepressant Treatment for Depression

      It is recommended that a single episode of depression should be treated for at least six months after recovery to prevent relapse. Recurrent episodes warrant at least 12 months of treatment after recovery. Stopping antidepressant treatment immediately on recovery puts patients at a high risk of relapse, with 50% of patients experiencing a relapse of their depressive symptoms. During the recovery phase, adults should receive the same dose used for the treatment of the acute phase. The medication should then be tapered off over a few weeks, according to the type of antidepressant used.

      Stopping medication prematurely, such as after one month or six weeks, would put the patient at a high risk of relapse. If the patient has been using antidepressants over a very short term and has found it maximally effective, they may be able to come off medication sooner than six months. However, this should be managed with caution and only recommended if there are other extenuating factors which would cause them to want to stop, such as side-effects or poor compliance. In this case, the patient has been using sertraline for four months already, has not indicated poor compliance, and there is no indication of issues with side-effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      4.7
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  • Question 87 - What is a risk factor for developmental dysplasia of the hip in infants?...

    Correct

    • What is a risk factor for developmental dysplasia of the hip in infants?

      Your Answer: Oligohydramnios

      Explanation:

      Developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) is a condition that affects 1-3% of newborns and is more common in females, firstborn children, and those with a positive family history or breech presentation. It used to be called congenital dislocation of the hip (CDH). DDH is more often found in the left hip and can be bilateral in 20% of cases. Screening for DDH is recommended for infants with certain risk factors, and all infants are screened using the Barlow and Ortolani tests at the newborn and six-week baby check. Clinical examination includes testing for leg length symmetry, restricted hip abduction, and knee level when hips and knees are flexed. Ultrasound is used to confirm the diagnosis if clinically suspected, but x-ray is the first line investigation for infants over 4.5 months. Management includes the use of a Pavlik harness for children under 4-5 months and surgery for older children with unstable hips.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      3.5
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  • Question 88 - A 72-year-old man who smokes visits your GP clinic and inquires about potential...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man who smokes visits your GP clinic and inquires about potential complications associated with surgical resection of his malignant parotid gland tumour. What is the classic complication linked to parotid gland surgery?

      Your Answer: Upper motor neurone facial palsy

      Correct Answer: Lower motor neurone facial palsy

      Explanation:

      A lower motor neurone facial palsy can be caused by parotid pathology.

      After exiting the stylomastoid foramen, the facial nerve passes through the parotid gland and divides into five branches: temporal, zygomatic, buccal, marginal mandibular, and cervical. If there is any pathology within the parotid gland, it can lead to a lower motor neurone facial palsy. Additionally, surgery to the parotid gland can also result in this complication.

      Facial Nerve Palsy: Causes and Path

      Facial nerve palsy is a condition that affects the facial nerve, which supplies the muscles of facial expression, digastric muscle, and glandular structures. It can be caused by various factors, including sarcoidosis, Guillain-Barre syndrome, Lyme disease, acoustic neuromas, and Bell’s palsy. Bilateral facial nerve palsy is less common and can be caused by the same factors as unilateral palsy, but it can also be a result of neurofibromatosis type 2.

      The facial nerve has two paths: the subarachnoid path and the facial canal path. The subarachnoid path originates from the pons and passes through the petrous temporal bone into the internal auditory meatus with the vestibulocochlear nerve. The facial canal path passes superior to the vestibule of the inner ear and contains the geniculate ganglion at the medial aspect of the middle ear. It has three branches: the greater petrosal nerve, the nerve to stapedius, and the chorda tympani. The facial nerve then passes through the stylomastoid foramen and gives rise to the posterior auricular nerve and a branch to the posterior belly of the digastric and stylohyoid muscle.

      It is important to differentiate between lower motor neuron and upper motor neuron lesions in facial nerve palsy. An upper motor neuron lesion spares the upper face, while a lower motor neuron lesion affects all facial muscles. Multiple sclerosis and diabetes mellitus can also cause an upper motor neuron palsy. Understanding the causes and path of facial nerve palsy can aid in its diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      7.4
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  • Question 89 - A 26-year-old patient visits the GP clinic seeking a sexual health examination. He...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old patient visits the GP clinic seeking a sexual health examination. He engages in sexual activity with men and practices unprotected anal intercourse as both the insertive and receptive partner. He has never undergone any HIV testing and desires a prompt result. What is the most suitable test to request for this patient?

      Your Answer: HIV p24 antigen and HIV antibody test

      Explanation:

      The current standard for HIV diagnosis and screening involves a combination of p24 antigen and HIV antibody tests. This is because the HIV antibody may not be detectable until 4-6 weeks after infection, while the p24 antigen can show up as early as 1 week after infection. By using both tests, a more accurate assessment of infectious status can be made, allowing for discussions about pre-exposure prophylaxis and safe sexual practices. HIV viral load levels are not used for diagnosis, but can be helpful in assessing treatment efficacy after diagnosis has been confirmed. It is important to note that viral load testing should not be used alone, but rather in conjunction with the antibody and antigen tests.

      Understanding HIV Seroconversion and Diagnosis

      HIV seroconversion is a process where the body develops antibodies to the HIV virus after being infected. This process is symptomatic in 60-80% of patients and usually presents as a glandular fever type illness. Symptoms may include sore throat, lymphadenopathy, malaise, myalgia, arthralgia, diarrhea, maculopapular rash, mouth ulcers, and rarely meningoencephalitis. The severity of symptoms is associated with a poorer long-term prognosis and typically occurs 3-12 weeks after infection.

      Diagnosing HIV involves testing for HIV antibodies, which may not be present in early infection. However, most people develop antibodies to HIV at 4-6 weeks, and 99% do so by 3 months. The diagnosis usually consists of both a screening ELISA test and a confirmatory Western Blot Assay. Additionally, a p24 antigen test may be used to detect a viral core protein that appears early in the blood as the viral RNA levels rise. Combination tests that test for both HIV p24 antigen and HIV antibody are now standard for the diagnosis and screening of HIV. If the combined test is positive, it should be repeated to confirm the diagnosis. Testing for HIV in asymptomatic patients should be done at 4 weeks after possible exposure, and after an initial negative result, a repeat test should be offered at 12 weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      6.2
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  • Question 90 - A 75-year-old man presents to the emergency department with nosebleeds, extensive bruising, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man presents to the emergency department with nosebleeds, extensive bruising, and mucosal bleeding. His vital signs are stable, and laboratory results reveal a platelet count of 23 * 109/L (150 - 400), which is significantly lower than his previous blood test taken a week ago. The patient reports taking a new medication for nocturnal leg cramps. Which of the following medications could be responsible for his thrombocytopenia?

      Your Answer: Gabapentin

      Correct Answer: Quinine

      Explanation:

      Quinine is the only medication in this list that is strongly linked to the development of drug-induced thrombocytopaenia. However, excessive consumption of tonic water containing quinine can also lead to this condition in certain individuals. While all the other medications in the list can be used to treat nocturnal leg cramps, they do not have a significant association with thrombocytopaenia.

      Understanding Drug-Induced Thrombocytopenia

      Drug-induced thrombocytopenia is a condition where a person’s platelet count drops due to the use of certain medications. This type of thrombocytopenia is believed to be immune-mediated, meaning that the body’s immune system mistakenly attacks and destroys platelets. Some of the drugs that can cause this condition include quinine, abciximab, NSAIDs, diuretics like furosemide, antibiotics such as penicillins, sulphonamides, and rifampicin, anticonvulsants like carbamazepine and valproate, and heparin.

      It is important to note that not everyone who takes these medications will develop drug-induced thrombocytopenia. However, those who do may experience symptoms such as easy bruising, bleeding gums, nosebleeds, and prolonged bleeding from cuts. In severe cases, the condition can lead to life-threatening bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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  • Question 91 - A 45-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with an acutely red and...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with an acutely red and swollen left great toe, with no history of trauma. A diagnosis of gout is suspected.
      Which of the following risk factors make it most likely that the patient will develop this condition?

      Your Answer: Alcohol excess

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Risk Factors for Gout

      Gout is a painful condition caused by hyperuricaemia, which can be influenced by various risk factors. While the cause of hyperuricaemia is multifactorial, certain factors have been identified as predisposing individuals to gout. These include high BMI, male gender, cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, and the use of certain drugs such as diuretics. Additionally, alcohol excess, particularly from spirits and beer, has been shown to increase the risk of gout. However, eczema and smoking are not recognized as risk factors for gout. Interestingly, gout is more common in men and rare in premenopausal women, and being overweight, rather than underweight, has been proposed as a risk factor for gout. Understanding these risk factors can help individuals take steps to prevent or manage gout.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      6.9
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  • Question 92 - A 31-year-old female patient, who is three weeks postpartum, presents with a breast...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old female patient, who is three weeks postpartum, presents with a breast lump. On examination, there is a fluctuant mass around 4 cm in diameter at the left upper quadrant adjacent to the nipple. There is overlying skin erythema and the lump is tenderness to touch. She is currently breast feeding but has been finding it very painful.
      What is the most probable causative agent for this condition?

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus epidermidis

      Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      The primary cause of breast abscess in lactational women is Staphylococcus aureus, while Candida species is not a frequent culprit. On the other hand, Group B streptococcus and Klebsiella pneumoniae are responsible for breast abscess in non-lactating women.

      Breast Abscess: Causes and Management

      Breast abscess is a condition that commonly affects lactating women, with Staphylococcus aureus being the most common cause. The condition is characterized by the presence of a tender, fluctuant mass in the breast. To manage the condition, healthcare providers may opt for either incision and drainage or needle aspiration, typically using ultrasound. Antibiotics are also prescribed to help manage the infection.

      Breast abscess is a condition that can cause discomfort and pain in lactating women. It is caused by Staphylococcus aureus, a common bacterium that can infect the breast tissue. The condition is characterized by the presence of a tender, fluctuant mass in the breast. To manage the condition, healthcare providers may opt for either incision and drainage or needle aspiration, typically using ultrasound. Antibiotics are also prescribed to help manage the infection. Proper management of breast abscess is crucial to prevent complications and ensure a speedy recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      12.4
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  • Question 93 - A 75-year-old woman presents with recurrent headaches and confusion for the past week....

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old woman presents with recurrent headaches and confusion for the past week. She has a history of alcohol abuse and a medical history of atrial fibrillation and type 2 diabetes mellitus. Her daughter reports that she has been experiencing frequent episodes of confusion over the past few days. In the previous year, she was evaluated for frequent falls. Her current medications include bisoprolol, metformin, and warfarin. On neurological examination, no abnormalities were found, and her blood sugar level is 6.7 mmol/l. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Subdural haematoma

      Explanation:

      The patient’s age, alcoholism, and use of anticoagulants put them at risk for a subdural hematoma, which can cause confusion and changes in consciousness. Headaches are a common symptom, unlike Korsakoff’s syndrome and Wernicke’s encephalopathy.

      Types of Traumatic Brain Injury

      Traumatic brain injury can result in primary and secondary brain injury. Primary brain injury can be focal or diffuse. Diffuse axonal injury occurs due to mechanical shearing, which causes disruption and tearing of axons. Intra-cranial haematomas can be extradural, subdural, or intracerebral, while contusions may occur adjacent to or contralateral to the side of impact. Secondary brain injury occurs when cerebral oedema, ischaemia, infection, tonsillar or tentorial herniation exacerbates the original injury. The normal cerebral auto regulatory processes are disrupted following trauma rendering the brain more susceptible to blood flow changes and hypoxia. The Cushings reflex often occurs late and is usually a pre-terminal event.

      Extradural haematoma is bleeding into the space between the dura mater and the skull. It often results from acceleration-deceleration trauma or a blow to the side of the head. The majority of epidural haematomas occur in the temporal region where skull fractures cause a rupture of the middle meningeal artery. Subdural haematoma is bleeding into the outermost meningeal layer. It most commonly occurs around the frontal and parietal lobes. Risk factors include old age, alcoholism, and anticoagulation. Subarachnoid haemorrhage classically causes a sudden occipital headache. It usually occurs spontaneously in the context of a ruptured cerebral aneurysm but may be seen in association with other injuries when a patient has sustained a traumatic brain injury. Intracerebral haematoma is a collection of blood within the substance of the brain. Causes/risk factors include hypertension, vascular lesion, cerebral amyloid angiopathy, trauma, brain tumour, or infarct. Patients will present similarly to an ischaemic stroke or with a decrease in consciousness. CT imaging will show a hyperdensity within the substance of the brain. Treatment is often conservative under the care of stroke physicians, but large clots in patients with impaired consciousness may warrant surgical evacuation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      10.9
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  • Question 94 - What is a cause of acyanotic congenital heart disease? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a cause of acyanotic congenital heart disease?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary valve stenosis

      Correct Answer: Coarctation of the aorta

      Explanation:

      Coarctation of the aorta does not cause cyanosis.

      Congenital heart disease can be categorized into two types: acyanotic and cyanotic. Acyanotic heart diseases are more common and include ventricular septal defects (VSD), atrial septal defect (ASD), patent ductus arteriosus (PDA), coarctation of the aorta, and aortic valve stenosis. VSD is the most common acyanotic heart disease, accounting for 30% of cases. ASDs are less common than VSDs, but they are more frequently diagnosed in adult patients as they tend to present later. On the other hand, cyanotic heart diseases are less common and include tetralogy of Fallot, transposition of the great arteries (TGA), and tricuspid atresia. Fallot’s is more common than TGA, but TGA is the more common lesion at birth as patients with Fallot’s generally present at around 1-2 months. The presence of cyanosis in pulmonary valve stenosis depends on the severity and any other coexistent defects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 95 - A 27-year-old woman experiences intense vomiting within four hours of consuming lunch at...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman experiences intense vomiting within four hours of consuming lunch at a nearby restaurant. What organism is the most probable cause of this reaction?

      Your Answer: Campylobacter

      Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      The diagnosis can be inferred as a result of the short incubation period and intense vomiting.

      Gastroenteritis can occur either at home or while traveling, known as travelers’ diarrhea. This condition is characterized by at least three loose to watery stools in 24 hours, accompanied by abdominal cramps, fever, nausea, vomiting, or blood in the stool. The most common cause of travelers’ diarrhea is Escherichia coli. Acute food poisoning is another pattern of illness that results in sudden onset of nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea after ingesting a toxin. Staphylococcus aureus, Bacillus cereus, or Clostridium perfringens are typically responsible for acute food poisoning.

      There are several types of infections that can cause gastroenteritis, each with its own typical presentation. Escherichia coli is common among travelers and causes watery stools, abdominal cramps, and nausea. Giardiasis results in prolonged, non-bloody diarrhea, while cholera causes profuse, watery diarrhea and severe dehydration leading to weight loss. Shigella causes bloody diarrhea, vomiting, and abdominal pain, while Staphylococcus aureus results in severe vomiting with a short incubation period. Campylobacter typically starts with a flu-like prodrome and progresses to crampy abdominal pains, fever, and diarrhea, which may be bloody and mimic appendicitis. Bacillus cereus can cause two types of illness, vomiting within six hours, typically due to rice, or diarrheal illness occurring after six hours. Amoebiasis has a gradual onset of bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain, and tenderness that may last for several weeks.

      The incubation period for gastroenteritis varies depending on the type of infection. Staphylococcus aureus and Bacillus cereus have an incubation period of 1-6 hours, while Salmonella and Escherichia coli have an incubation period of 12-48 hours. Shigella and Campylobacter have an incubation period of 48-72 hours, while Giardiasis and Amoebiasis have an incubation period of more than seven days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      3.6
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  • Question 96 - A 42-year-old woman is admitted to the gastroenterology ward with persistent bloody diarrhoea,...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman is admitted to the gastroenterology ward with persistent bloody diarrhoea, abdominal pain and fever. She has a history of Crohn's disease and is suspected to be experiencing an acute flare. Methotrexate is prescribed as part of her treatment. What potential side-effect should be monitored for?

      Your Answer: Increase in appetite

      Correct Answer: Pneumonitis

      Explanation:

      Methotrexate has the potential to cause pneumonitis, which is characterized by symptoms such as cough, fever, and difficulty breathing. Failure to promptly identify and treat pneumonitis can result in permanent lung damage. Therefore, the British National Formulary advises patients to seek medical attention if they experience any of these symptoms, and physicians should monitor for signs of pneumonitis during each visit and discontinue the medication if it is suspected. It should be noted that acute respiratory distress syndrome is not a known side effect of methotrexate.

      Methotrexate: An Antimetabolite with Potentially Life-Threatening Side Effects

      Methotrexate is an antimetabolite drug that inhibits the enzyme dihydrofolate reductase, which is essential for the synthesis of purines and pyrimidines. It is commonly used to treat inflammatory arthritis, psoriasis, and some types of leukemia. However, it is considered an important drug due to its potential for life-threatening side effects. Careful prescribing and close monitoring are essential to ensure patient safety.

      The adverse effects of methotrexate include mucositis, myelosuppression, pneumonitis, pulmonary fibrosis, and liver fibrosis. The most common pulmonary manifestation is pneumonitis, which typically develops within a year of starting treatment and presents with non-productive cough, dyspnea, malaise, and fever. Women should avoid pregnancy for at least 6 months after treatment has stopped, and men using methotrexate need to use effective contraception for at least 6 months after treatment.

      When prescribing methotrexate, it is important to follow guidelines and monitor patients regularly. Methotrexate is taken weekly, and FBC, U&E, and LFTs need to be regularly monitored. The starting dose is 7.5 mg weekly, and folic acid 5mg once weekly should be co-prescribed, taken more than 24 hours after the methotrexate dose. Only one strength of methotrexate tablet should be prescribed, usually 2.5 mg. It is also important to avoid prescribing trimethoprim or co-trimoxazole concurrently, as it increases the risk of marrow aplasia, and high-dose aspirin increases the risk of methotrexate toxicity.

      In case of methotrexate toxicity, the treatment of choice is folinic acid. Methotrexate is a drug with a high potential for patient harm, and it is crucial to be familiar with guidelines relating to its use to ensure patient safety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 97 - A 67-year-old male visits his primary care clinic complaining of progressive dyspnea on...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old male visits his primary care clinic complaining of progressive dyspnea on exertion and a dry cough. He has a smoking history of 35 pack-years. He denies chest pain, weight loss, or hemoptysis. In the past, he was prescribed bronchodilators for COPD, but they did not alleviate his symptoms.

      During the examination, the physician detects fine crackles at the lung bases bilaterally, and the patient has significant finger clubbing. The physician orders a chest X-ray, pulmonary function tests, and refers him urgently to a respiratory clinic.

      What pulmonary function test pattern would you expect to see based on the most likely underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: FEV1:FVC reduced, TLCO increased

      Correct Answer: FEV1:FVC normal or increased, TLCO reduced

      Explanation:

      In cases of IPF, the TLCO (gas transfer test) is reduced, indicating a restrictive lung disease that results in a reduced FEV1 and reduced FVC. This leads to a normal or increased FEV1:FVC ratio, which is a distinguishing factor from obstructive lung diseases like COPD or asthma. Therefore, the correct statement is that in IPF, the FEV1:FVC ratio is normal or increased, while the TLCO is reduced.

      Understanding Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis

      Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF) is a chronic lung condition that causes progressive fibrosis of the interstitium of the lungs. Unlike other causes of lung fibrosis, IPF has no underlying cause. It is typically seen in patients aged 50-70 years and is more common in men.

      The symptoms of IPF include progressive exertional dyspnoea, dry cough, clubbing, and bibasal fine end-inspiratory crepitations on auscultation. Diagnosis is made through spirometry, impaired gas exchange tests, and imaging such as chest x-rays and high-resolution CT scans.

      Management of IPF includes pulmonary rehabilitation, but very few medications have been shown to be effective. Some evidence suggests that pirfenidone, an antifibrotic agent, may be useful in selected patients. Many patients will eventually require supplementary oxygen and a lung transplant.

      The prognosis for IPF is poor, with an average life expectancy of around 3-4 years. CT scans can show advanced pulmonary fibrosis, including honeycombing. While there is no cure for IPF, early diagnosis and management can help improve quality of life and potentially prolong survival.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 98 - A 62-year-old woman is referred to the medical team from the orthopaedic ward....

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old woman is referred to the medical team from the orthopaedic ward. She underwent a right total-hip replacement six days ago. She is known to have mild COPD and is on regular inhaled steroids and a short-acting b2 agonist. She now complains of left-sided chest pain and is also dyspnoeic. Your clinical diagnosis is pulmonary embolism (PE).
      Which of the following is usually NOT a feature of PE in this patient?

      Your Answer: Bradycardia

      Explanation:

      Symptoms and Signs of Pulmonary Embolism

      Pulmonary embolism (PE) is a serious condition that can be life-threatening. It is important to recognize the symptoms and signs of PE to ensure prompt diagnosis and treatment. Here are some of the common symptoms and signs of PE:

      Dyspnoea: This is the most common symptom of PE, present in about 75% of patients. Dyspnoea can occur at rest or on exertion.

      Tachypnoea: This is defined as a respiratory rate of more than 20 breaths per minute and is present in about 55% of patients with PE.

      Tachycardia: This is present in about 25% of cases of PE. It is important to note that a transition from tachycardia to bradycardia may suggest the development of right ventricular strain and potentially cardiogenic shock.

      New-onset atrial fibrillation: This is a less common feature of PE, occurring in less than 10% of cases. Atrial flutter, atrial fibrillation, and premature beats should alert the doctor to possible right-heart strain.

      Bradycardia: This is not a classic feature of PE. However, if a patient with PE transitions from tachycardia to bradycardia, it may suggest the development of right ventricular strain and potentially cardiogenic shock.

      In summary, dyspnoea, tachypnoea, tachycardia, and new-onset atrial fibrillation are some of the common symptoms and signs of PE. It is important to have a high level of suspicion for PE, especially in high-risk patients, to ensure prompt diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      6.8
      Seconds
  • Question 99 - A mother is referred to a paediatric gynaecologist with her 12-year-old daughter. Her...

    Incorrect

    • A mother is referred to a paediatric gynaecologist with her 12-year-old daughter. Her daughter is extremely short for her age, is deaf in both ears and has shown no signs of pubertal development. On examination, the clinician notes neck webbing, a high arched palate and low-set ears. He suspects that the child may have Turner syndrome.
      Which of the following chromosomal abnormalities best describes Turner syndrome?

      Your Answer: 46,XY

      Correct Answer: 45,XO

      Explanation:

      Understanding Turner Syndrome: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Turner Syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects females and is caused by the absence of an entire sex chromosome or a partial deletion of the X chromosome. The normal female karyotype is 46XX, but in Turner Syndrome, it is 45X or 46XdelXp. This condition affects 1 in 2500 female births and is associated with various clinical features such as dwarfism, sexual infantilism, neck webbing, and streak gonads. Other associated stigmata include shield chest, high arched palate, low-set ears, lymphoedema, deafness, coarctation of the aorta, and pigmented moles.

      Mosaicism is common in Turner Syndrome, which means that the severity of the condition can vary from person to person. Girls with Turner Syndrome are infertile and require hormone replacement therapy until menopause. Treatment aims to achieve normal pubertal progression through estradiol replacement therapy.

      In conclusion, understanding Turner Syndrome is crucial for early diagnosis and management of the condition. With proper treatment and support, individuals with Turner Syndrome can lead healthy and fulfilling lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      2.4
      Seconds
  • Question 100 - An 80-year-old woman presents with complaints of dry, gritty, and painful eyes bilaterally....

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old woman presents with complaints of dry, gritty, and painful eyes bilaterally. She has been experiencing these symptoms for a few years and has found little relief with frequent use of lubricating eye drops. Upon examination, both eyelids were crusted and had irregular margins. The meibomian orifices on both lids were obstructed with oily material. What is the underlying cause of this woman's dry eye condition?

      Your Answer: Meibomian blepharitis

      Explanation:

      When the tarsal glands are chronically infected, they can hinder the production of the precorneal tear film, which is responsible for slowing down the evaporation of tears. This can ultimately lead to dry eyes.

      The tarsal glands, also known as Meibomian glands, produce an oily substance that forms the outer layer of the precorneal tear film. This oily substance helps to prevent tear evaporation, while also improving tear stability and spreading. However, when Meibomian blepharitis occurs, the production of this oil is reduced, causing excessive water from the tear film to evaporate and resulting in dry eyes. None of the other options listed are relevant to this issue, as they do not involve dysfunction of the Meibomian glands.

      Understanding Dry Eye Syndrome

      Dry eye syndrome is a condition that causes discomfort in both eyes, with symptoms such as dryness, grittiness, and soreness that worsen throughout the day. Exposure to wind can also cause watering of the eyes. People with Meibomian gland dysfunction may experience symptoms that are worse upon waking, with eyelids sticking together and redness of the eyelids. In some cases, dry eye syndrome can lead to complications such as conjunctivitis or corneal ulceration, which can cause severe pain, photophobia, redness, and loss of visual acuity.

      Although there may be no abnormalities on examination, eyelid hygiene is the most appropriate management step for dry eye syndrome. This can help control blepharitis, which is a common condition associated with dry eye syndrome. By understanding the symptoms and appropriate management steps, individuals with dry eye syndrome can find relief and improve their overall eye health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      11.6
      Seconds

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Paediatrics (7/13) 54%
Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease (4/5) 80%
Infectious Diseases (6/10) 60%
Reproductive Medicine (8/12) 67%
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Haematology/Oncology (0/5) 0%
Dermatology (2/5) 40%
Gastroenterology/Nutrition (4/5) 80%
Respiratory Medicine (1/4) 25%
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Ophthalmology (3/6) 50%
ENT (1/3) 33%
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