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  • Question 1 - A 42-year-old female visits the doctor after being diagnosed with HIV. Her CD4...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old female visits the doctor after being diagnosed with HIV. Her CD4 count was last recorded at 45 cells/mL and she reports experiencing blurred vision and blind spots. She expresses fear about the impact of HIV on her eyes. What is the most severe eye complication associated with HIV infection?

      Your Answer: Cytomegalovirus (CMV) retinitis

      Explanation:

      Understanding HIV-Related Cytomegalovirus Retinitis

      Cytomegalovirus (CMV) retinitis is a common condition that affects individuals with a CD4 count of less than 50. It is diagnosed clinically as there are no specific diagnostic tests available. The condition is characterized by visual impairment, such as blurred vision, and can be identified through fundoscopy, which shows a characteristic appearance of retinal haemorrhages and necrosis, often referred to as a pizza retina.

      Management of CMV retinitis involves the use of IV ganciclovir, which was previously a lifelong treatment. However, new evidence suggests that it may be discontinued once the CD4 count reaches 150 after HAART. Alternatively, IV foscarnet or cidofovir may be used as an alternative treatment option.

      In summary, CMV retinitis is a common condition that affects individuals with a low CD4 count. It is diagnosed clinically and can be identified through fundoscopy. Management involves the use of IV ganciclovir, which may be discontinued once the CD4 count reaches 150 after HAART, or alternative treatments such as IV foscarnet or cidofovir.

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  • Question 2 - An infant is born with exomphalos. What embryological structure is responsible for the...

    Incorrect

    • An infant is born with exomphalos. What embryological structure is responsible for the development of this defective muscle layer in the abdominal wall?

      Your Answer: Ectoderm

      Correct Answer: Mesoderm

      Explanation:

      The mesoderm is responsible for the development of connective tissue and muscles.

      Embryological Layers and Their Derivatives

      Embryonic development involves the formation of three primary germ layers: ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm. Each layer gives rise to specific tissues and organs in the developing embryo. The ectoderm forms the surface ectoderm, which gives rise to the epidermis, mammary glands, and lens of the eye, as well as the neural tube, which gives rise to the central nervous system (CNS) and associated structures such as the posterior pituitary and retina. The neural crest, which arises from the neural tube, gives rise to a variety of structures including autonomic nerves, cranial nerves, facial and skull bones, and adrenal cortex. The mesoderm gives rise to connective tissue, muscle, bones (except facial and skull), and organs such as the kidneys, ureters, gonads, and spleen. The endoderm gives rise to the epithelial lining of the gastrointestinal tract, liver, pancreas, thyroid, parathyroid, and thymus.

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  • Question 3 - A 40-year-old man with Crohn's disease presents to his general practitioner with complaints...

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    • A 40-year-old man with Crohn's disease presents to his general practitioner with complaints of worsening dyspnea. Upon initial investigations, he is diagnosed with iron-deficiency anemia. Which part of his intestine may be currently affected by his Crohn's disease due to this deficiency?

      Your Answer: Duodenum

      Explanation:

      The duodenum is where iron absorption primarily occurs. Inflammatory conditions affecting this area can hinder iron absorption and potentially result in anaemia. The ascending colon, ileum, and jejunum are not the main sites of iron absorption, as they primarily absorb water, vitamin B12 and bile acids, and sugars, amino acids, and fatty acids, respectively.

      Iron Metabolism: Absorption, Distribution, Transport, Storage, and Excretion

      Iron is an essential mineral that plays a crucial role in various physiological processes. The absorption of iron occurs mainly in the upper small intestine, particularly the duodenum. Only about 10% of dietary iron is absorbed, and ferrous iron (Fe2+) is much better absorbed than ferric iron (Fe3+). The absorption of iron is regulated according to the body’s need and can be increased by vitamin C and gastric acid. However, it can be decreased by proton pump inhibitors, tetracycline, gastric achlorhydria, and tannin found in tea.

      The total body iron is approximately 4g, with 70% of it being present in hemoglobin, 25% in ferritin and haemosiderin, 4% in myoglobin, and 0.1% in plasma iron. Iron is transported in the plasma as Fe3+ bound to transferrin. It is stored in tissues as ferritin, and the lost iron is excreted via the intestinal tract following desquamation.

      In summary, iron metabolism involves the absorption, distribution, transport, storage, and excretion of iron in the body. Understanding these processes is crucial in maintaining iron homeostasis and preventing iron-related disorders.

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  • Question 4 - A familiar alcoholic in their late 40s is brought to the Acute Admissions...

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    • A familiar alcoholic in their late 40s is brought to the Acute Admissions Unit (AMU) exhibiting signs of confusion, ataxia, and ophthalmoplegia. Which vitamin deficiency is most likely responsible for these psychological symptoms?

      Your Answer: Vitamin B1

      Explanation:

      Chronic alcoholism can lead to a deficiency in Vitamin B1 (thiamine), which is an important aspect to manage in such patients. This deficiency can cause Wernicke encephalopathy, which presents with ataxia, confusion, and ophthalmoplegia. Thiamine is crucial for neurons to utilise carbohydrates and its absence can cause permanent damage. Therefore, it is essential to check and replace thiamine levels as soon as possible. Deficiencies in Vitamin B5, B6, and folate do not cause the symptoms seen in this patient.

      The Importance of Vitamin B1 (Thiamine) in the Body

      Vitamin B1, also known as thiamine, is a water-soluble vitamin that belongs to the B complex group. It plays a crucial role in the body as one of its phosphate derivatives, thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP), acts as a coenzyme in various enzymatic reactions. These reactions include the catabolism of sugars and amino acids, such as pyruvate dehydrogenase complex, alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase complex, and branched-chain amino acid dehydrogenase complex.

      Thiamine deficiency can lead to clinical consequences, particularly in highly aerobic tissues like the brain and heart. The brain can develop Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome, which presents symptoms such as nystagmus, ophthalmoplegia, and ataxia. Meanwhile, the heart can develop wet beriberi, which causes dilated cardiomyopathy. Other conditions associated with thiamine deficiency include dry beriberi, which leads to peripheral neuropathy, and Korsakoff’s syndrome, which causes amnesia and confabulation.

      The primary causes of thiamine deficiency are alcohol excess and malnutrition. Alcoholics are routinely recommended to take thiamine supplements to prevent deficiency. Overall, thiamine is an essential vitamin that plays a vital role in the body’s metabolic processes.

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  • Question 5 - A 35-year-old woman presents with a 4 week history of weakness that worsens...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents with a 4 week history of weakness that worsens towards the end of the day. She has difficulty getting out of her chair in the evening and complains of difficulty keeping her eyes open while driving at night, despite not feeling tired.

      During examination, bilateral facial nerve weakness, complex ophthalmoplegia, and symmetrical proximal power loss (MRC power 4/5) are noted. Repetitive stimulation of movements reveals fatigability.

      What Gell and Coombs hypersensitivity class is likely causing her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Type 3

      Correct Answer: Type 5

      Explanation:

      The individual is a young woman who is exhibiting symptoms of proximal myopathy and complex ophthalmoplegia, along with signs of fatigue. These symptoms are indicative of myasthenia gravis, an autoimmune disorder that occurs due to the presence of antibodies that target acetylcholine nicotinic postsynaptic receptors.

      Classification of Hypersensitivity Reactions

      Hypersensitivity reactions are classified into four types according to the Gell and Coombs classification. Type I, also known as anaphylactic hypersensitivity, occurs when an antigen reacts with IgE bound to mast cells. This type of reaction is commonly seen in atopic conditions such as asthma, eczema, and hay fever. Type II hypersensitivity occurs when cell-bound IgG or IgM binds to an antigen on the cell surface, leading to autoimmune conditions such as autoimmune hemolytic anemia, ITP, and Goodpasture’s syndrome. Type III hypersensitivity occurs when free antigen and antibody (IgG, IgA) combine to form immune complexes, leading to conditions such as serum sickness, systemic lupus erythematosus, and post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis. Type IV hypersensitivity is T-cell mediated and includes conditions such as tuberculosis, graft versus host disease, and allergic contact dermatitis.

      In recent times, a fifth category has been added to the classification of hypersensitivity reactions. Type V hypersensitivity occurs when antibodies recognize and bind to cell surface receptors, either stimulating them or blocking ligand binding. This type of reaction is seen in conditions such as Graves’ disease and myasthenia gravis. Understanding the classification of hypersensitivity reactions is important in the diagnosis and management of these conditions.

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  • Question 6 - A 38-year-old cattle farmer has been referred for an ultrasound scan of his...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old cattle farmer has been referred for an ultrasound scan of his liver by his doctor due to experiencing upper abdominal discomfort and nausea for the past 6 months. There are no specific triggers for his symptoms, but he mentions that he has had a stressful year as a few of his cattle have been ill and required treatment for parasites.

      Upon examination, he has mild tenderness in the upper right abdominal quadrant, but no other significant findings. The ultrasound reveals hepatic cysts.

      Which organism is most likely responsible for his condition?

      Your Answer: Echinococcus granulosus

      Explanation:

      A sheep farmer has been diagnosed with hepatic cysts on ultrasound, which is likely caused by Echinococcus granulosus infection.

      Echinococcus granulosus is a tapeworm commonly found in farmers who raise sheep. The tapeworm is transmitted through the ingestion of hydatid cysts by dogs, which then spread the infection through their feces. Symptoms may not appear for a long time as the cysts grow slowly, but patients may experience abdominal discomfort and nausea. Hepatic cysts can be detected through liver ultrasound.

      Clonorchis sinensis infection is caused by consuming undercooked fish and can lead to biliary tract obstruction, resulting in symptoms such as abdominal pain, jaundice, and nausea. It is also a risk factor for cholangiocarcinoma.

      Enterobius vermicularis, or pinworm, is usually asymptomatic but can cause perianal itching, especially at night. Diagnosis is made by examining sticky tape applied to the perianal area under a microscope.

      Strongyloides stercoralis is a roundworm commonly found in soil. Infected patients may experience diarrhea, abdominal pain, and papulovesicular lesions where the larvae have penetrated the skin.

      Helminths are a group of parasitic worms that can infect humans and cause various diseases. Nematodes, also known as roundworms, are one type of helminth. Strongyloides stercoralis is a type of roundworm that enters the body through the skin and can cause symptoms such as diarrhea, abdominal pain, and skin lesions. Treatment for this infection typically involves the use of ivermectin or benzimidazoles. Enterobius vermicularis, also known as pinworm, is another type of roundworm that can cause perianal itching and other symptoms. Diagnosis is made by examining sticky tape applied to the perianal area. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles.

      Hookworms, such as Ancylostoma duodenale and Necator americanus, are another type of roundworm that can cause gastrointestinal infections and anemia. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles. Loa loa is a type of roundworm that is transmitted by deer fly and mango fly and can cause red, itchy swellings called Calabar swellings. Treatment involves the use of diethylcarbamazine. Trichinella spiralis is a type of roundworm that can develop after eating raw pork and can cause fever, periorbital edema, and myositis. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles.

      Onchocerca volvulus is a type of roundworm that causes river blindness and is spread by female blackflies. Treatment involves the use of ivermectin. Wuchereria bancrofti is another type of roundworm that is transmitted by female mosquitoes and can cause blockage of lymphatics and elephantiasis. Treatment involves the use of diethylcarbamazine. Toxocara canis, also known as dog roundworm, is transmitted through ingestion of infective eggs and can cause visceral larva migrans and retinal granulomas. Treatment involves the use of diethylcarbamazine. Ascaris lumbricoides, also known as giant roundworm, can cause intestinal obstruction and occasionally migrate to the lung. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles.

      Cestodes, also known as tapeworms, are another type of helminth. Echinococcus granulosus is a tapeworm that is transmitted through ingestion of eggs in dog feces and can cause liver cysts and anaphylaxis if the cyst ruptures

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  • Question 7 - You are designing a research project to study the effects of the hexose...

    Incorrect

    • You are designing a research project to study the effects of the hexose monophosphate shunt on oxidative stress in cells.

      What is the rate limiting step for the hexose monophosphate shunt if the cells are aged?

      Your Answer: Isocitrate dehydrogenase

      Correct Answer: Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase

      Explanation:

      The enzyme that limits the rate of the hexose monophosphate shunt is G6PD.

      The hexose monophosphate shunt plays a crucial role in generating NADPH, which is necessary for reducing glutathione. The reduced glutathione produced is vital for protecting cells against oxidative stress. G6PD is the enzyme that limits the rate of the pentose phosphate pathway.

      Glycogen phosphorylase is the enzyme that limits the rate of glycogenolysis.

      Isocitrate dehydrogenase is the enzyme that limits the rate of the citric acid cycle.

      The rate of glycolysis is limited by phosphofructokinase-1.

      Rate-Determining Enzymes in Metabolic Processes

      Metabolic processes involve a series of chemical reactions that occur in living organisms to maintain life. Enzymes play a crucial role in these processes by catalyzing the reactions. However, not all enzymes have the same impact on the rate of the reaction. Some enzymes are rate-determining, meaning that they control the overall rate of the process. The table above lists the rate-determining enzymes involved in common metabolic processes.

      For example, in the TCA cycle, isocitrate dehydrogenase is the rate-determining enzyme. In glycolysis, phosphofructokinase-1 controls the rate of the process. In gluconeogenesis, fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase is the rate-determining enzyme. Similarly, glycogen synthase controls the rate of glycogenesis, while glycogen phosphorylase controls the rate of glycogenolysis.

      Other metabolic processes, such as lipogenesis, lipolysis, cholesterol synthesis, and ketogenesis, also have rate-determining enzymes. Acetyl-CoA carboxylase controls the rate of lipogenesis, while carnitine-palmitoyl transferase I controls the rate of lipolysis. HMG-CoA reductase is the rate-determining enzyme in cholesterol synthesis, while HMG-CoA synthase controls the rate of ketogenesis.

      The urea cycle, de novo pyrimidine synthesis, and de novo purine synthesis also have rate-determining enzymes. Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I controls the rate of the urea cycle, while carbamoyl phosphate synthetase II controls the rate of de novo pyrimidine synthesis. Glutamine-PRPP amidotransferase is the rate-determining enzyme in de novo purine synthesis.

      Understanding the rate-determining enzymes in metabolic processes is crucial for developing treatments for metabolic disorders and diseases. By targeting these enzymes, researchers can potentially regulate the rate of the process and improve the health outcomes of individuals with these conditions.

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  • Question 8 - A 65-year-old woman visits her GP clinic with a complaint of deteriorating eyesight,...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman visits her GP clinic with a complaint of deteriorating eyesight, particularly at night. She reports experiencing difficulty navigating around her home in the evening and has ceased driving at night due to her symptoms. Additionally, she has been feeling more fatigued than usual. The patient's medical history includes chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, heart failure, and non-alcoholic fatty liver disease-related liver cirrhosis.

      Which nutrient deficiency is the probable cause of this woman's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Vitamin A

      Explanation:

      One of the first symptoms of vitamin A deficiency is night blindness, making vitamin A the correct answer. This deficiency causes tissues, including the cornea and retina, to dry out and become damaged over time. Additionally, liver cirrhosis can lead to a deficiency in vitamin A, further supporting this answer.

      However, calcium deficiency, iron deficiency, and vitamin B12 deficiency are not the correct answers as they do not cause night blindness. Calcium deficiency may present with symptoms such as extreme fatigue, tetany, muscle spasms, carpopedal spasms, or paraesthesia in the hands or feet. Iron deficiency may cause fatigue, pallor of the skin and conjunctiva, palpitations, or shortness of breath. Vitamin B12 deficiency may lead to jaundice, glossitis, irritability, depression, cognitive decline, vision changes, or paraesthesia.

      Vitamin A, also known as retinol, is a type of fat soluble vitamin that plays several important roles in the body. One of its key functions is being converted into retinal, which is a crucial visual pigment. Additionally, vitamin A is essential for proper epithelial cell differentiation and acts as an antioxidant to protect cells from damage.

      When the body lacks sufficient vitamin A, it can lead to a condition known as night blindness. This is because retinal is necessary for the eyes to adjust to low light conditions, and a deficiency can impair this process. Therefore, it is important to ensure adequate intake of vitamin A through a balanced diet or supplements to maintain optimal health.

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  • Question 9 - A teenage girl is walking home from a party when she is approached...

    Incorrect

    • A teenage girl is walking home from a party when she is approached by three men on the street. She becomes scared and experiences a fight-or-flight reaction, causing her heart rate and breathing rate to increase. What is the name of the neurotransmitter released by the postganglionic neurons responsible for this response?

      Your Answer: Adrenaline

      Correct Answer: Noradrenaline

      Explanation:

      The neurotransmitter released by postganglionic neurons of the sympathetic nervous system is noradrenaline. This system triggers the fight-or-flight response and uses acetylcholine and noradrenaline as neurotransmitters. In contrast, the parasympathetic nervous system uses acetylcholine for both pre- and postganglionic neurons. Adrenaline is released by the adrenal glands into the bloodstream, while dopamine and serotonin are neurotransmitters in the central nervous system and do not play a role in the autonomic nervous system.

      Understanding Norepinephrine: Its Synthesis and Effects on Mental Health

      Norepinephrine is a neurotransmitter that is synthesized in the locus ceruleus, a small region in the brainstem. This neurotransmitter plays a crucial role in the body’s fight or flight response, which is activated in response to stress or danger. When released, norepinephrine increases heart rate, blood pressure, and breathing rate, preparing the body to respond to a perceived threat.

      In terms of mental health, norepinephrine levels have been linked to anxiety and depression. Elevated levels of norepinephrine have been observed in individuals with anxiety, which can lead to symptoms such as increased heart rate, sweating, and trembling. On the other hand, depleted levels of norepinephrine have been associated with depression, which can cause feelings of sadness, hopelessness, and low energy.

      It is important to note that norepinephrine is just one of many neurotransmitters that play a role in mental health. However, understanding its synthesis and effects can provide insight into the complex interplay between brain chemistry and mental health. By studying neurotransmitters like norepinephrine, researchers can develop new treatments and therapies for individuals struggling with anxiety, depression, and other mental health conditions.

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  • Question 10 - A 28-year-old woman is referred to a neurologist by her GP due to...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman is referred to a neurologist by her GP due to developing increasingly severe involuntary movements, mood swings, and difficulty concentrating. The doctor suspects a diagnosis of Huntington's disease.

      Upon further inquiry, the patient discloses that her mother and grandmother were both diagnosed with the same condition at ages 32 and 36, respectively.

      What is the most suitable phrase to describe this trend?

      Your Answer: Anticipation

      Explanation:

      Trinucleotide repeat disorders, such as Huntington’s disease, exhibit anticipation, which is the earlier onset of symptoms in successive generations. This phenomenon is also observed in other neurological disorders like myotonic dystrophy. It is important to note that Huntington’s disease is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner, not autosomal recessive. Codominance and epistasis are not related to the earlier onset of symptoms in successive generations and are therefore not applicable.

      Trinucleotide repeat disorders are genetic conditions that occur due to an abnormal number of repeats of a repetitive sequence of three nucleotides. These expansions are unstable and may enlarge, leading to an earlier age of onset in successive generations, a phenomenon known as anticipation. In most cases, an increase in the severity of symptoms is also observed. It is important to note that these disorders are predominantly neurological in nature. Examples of such disorders include Fragile X, Huntington’s, myotonic dystrophy, Friedreich’s ataxia, spinocerebellar ataxia, spinobulbar muscular atrophy, and dentatorubral pallidoluysian atrophy. It is interesting to note that Friedreich’s ataxia is an exception to the rule and does not demonstrate anticipation.

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  • Question 11 - A 30-year-old patient comes to you with symptoms of fever, thrush, malaise, and...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old patient comes to you with symptoms of fever, thrush, malaise, and generalised lymphadenopathy. Your supervisor requests that you conduct an HIV blood test. What steps should you take?

      Your Answer: Explain the implications for testing for HIV to the patient, seek permission and take the bloods yourself

      Explanation:

      According to the GMC’s guidance on HIV & AIDS ethical considerations from October 1995 to October 1997, consent must be obtained for HIV testing due to the potential negative impact a diagnosis may have on an individual’s social and financial situation. Additionally, healthcare professionals are prohibited from refusing treatment to patients based on their medical condition, even if it poses a risk to the healthcare provider.

      HIV seroconversion is a process where the body develops antibodies against the virus. This process is symptomatic in 60-80% of patients and usually presents as a glandular fever type illness. The severity of symptoms is associated with a poorer long-term prognosis. The symptoms typically occur 3-12 weeks after infection and include a sore throat, lymphadenopathy, malaise, myalgia, arthralgia, diarrhea, maculopapular rash, mouth ulcers, and rarely meningoencephalitis.

      Diagnosing HIV involves testing for HIV antibodies, which may not be present in early infection. However, most people develop antibodies to HIV at 4-6 weeks, and 99% do so by 3 months. The diagnosis usually involves both a screening ELISA test and a confirmatory Western Blot Assay. Additionally, a p24 antigen test can be used to detect a viral core protein that appears early in the blood as the viral RNA levels rise. Combination tests that test for both HIV p24 antigen and HIV antibody are now standard for the diagnosis and screening of HIV. If the combined test is positive, it should be repeated to confirm the diagnosis. Some centers may also test the viral load (HIV RNA levels) if HIV is suspected at the same time. Testing for HIV in asymptomatic patients should be done at 4 weeks after possible exposure, and after an initial negative result, a repeat test should be offered at 12 weeks.

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  • Question 12 - A 6-year-old girl is taken to the pediatrician. Her father reports that she...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old girl is taken to the pediatrician. Her father reports that she experiences wheezing and difficulty breathing when she is around their dog. Besides IgE, which complement proteins can trigger mast cells and basophils to produce allergic reactions?

      Your Answer: C3a and C5a

      Explanation:

      Mast cells and basophils can be activated by various factors, including IgE, C3a and C5a, substance P released by local sensory nerves, and direct contact with pathogens.

      Overview of Complement Pathways

      Complement pathways are a group of proteins that play a crucial role in the body’s immune and inflammatory response. These proteins are involved in various processes such as chemotaxis, cell lysis, and opsonisation. There are two main complement pathways: classical and alternative.

      The classical pathway is initiated by antigen-antibody complexes, specifically IgM and IgG. The proteins involved in this pathway include C1qrs, C2, and C4. On the other hand, the alternative pathway is initiated by polysaccharides found in Gram-negative bacteria and IgA. The proteins involved in this pathway are C3, factor B, and properdin.

      Understanding the complement pathways is important in the diagnosis and treatment of various diseases. Dysregulation of these pathways can lead to autoimmune disorders, infections, and other inflammatory conditions. By identifying the specific complement pathway involved in a disease, targeted therapies can be developed to effectively treat the condition.

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  • Question 13 - A 65-year-old farmer presents to the emergency department with weakness, fatigue and a...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old farmer presents to the emergency department with weakness, fatigue and a dry mouth that has gradually developed over the past week. The weakness has progressed so that now he struggles to keep his head up and cannot lift his arms above the horizontal. On examination, he has reduced tone and power in his neck and arms. The biceps reflex is bilaterally absent. Neurological examination of the legs is unremarkable. Four weeks prior to this admission he cut his leg on some dirty machinery while working in the field and did not seek medical attention. The wound appears infected and swabs taken from the wound show anaerobic Gram-positive bacilli.

      What is the underlying mechanism causing the weakness in this 65-year-old farmer?

      Your Answer: SNARE protein cleavage in the presynaptic terminal at the neuromuscular junction

      Explanation:

      Botulinum toxin causes a flaccid paralysis by cleaving SNARE proteins in the presynaptic terminal at the neuromuscular junction. This is the correct mechanism of action and is consistent with the patient’s symptoms. The history of weakness progressing over the past week and the bilateral appearance suggest that this is not a stroke or the result of a spider bite. While tetanus toxin and alpha-latrotoxin also affect SNARE proteins, they cause spastic paralysis and are less likely in this case. Organophosphorus poisoning is also unlikely due to the lack of a clear exposure history.

      Medical Uses of Botulinum Toxin

      Botulinum toxin, commonly known as Botox, is not just used for cosmetic purposes. There are several licensed indications for its use in medical treatments. These include blepharospasm, hemifacial spasm, focal spasticity in patients with cerebral palsy, hand and wrist disability associated with stroke, spasmodic torticollis, severe hyperhidrosis of the axillae, and achalasia.

      Blepharospasm is a condition where the eyelids twitch uncontrollably, while hemifacial spasm is a similar condition that affects one side of the face. Focal spasticity is a condition where certain muscles become stiff and difficult to move, often due to damage to the brain or spinal cord. Botulinum toxin can help relax these muscles and improve mobility.

      Spasmodic torticollis is a condition where the neck muscles contract involuntarily, causing the head to twist or turn to one side. Severe hyperhidrosis of the axillae is excessive sweating in the armpits, which can be embarrassing and uncomfortable. Achalasia is a condition where the muscles in the esophagus do not work properly, making it difficult to swallow.

      In all of these cases, botulinum toxin can be a useful treatment option. It works by blocking the signals that cause muscles to contract, leading to temporary muscle relaxation. While it is important to use botulinum toxin under the guidance of a medical professional, it can be a safe and effective treatment for a range of conditions.

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  • Question 14 - A 14-year-old girl has been brought to the GP by her mother after...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old girl has been brought to the GP by her mother after experiencing a sore throat and cough for the past week. Following an examination, the GP determines that she is likely suffering from a viral infection that will resolve on its own.

      Which specific immune cells are responsible for directly fighting this type of infection by inducing apoptosis?

      Your Answer: Cytotoxic T cells

      Explanation:

      The induction of apoptosis in virally infected and tumour cells is carried out by cytotoxic T cells.

      The adaptive immune response involves several types of cells, including helper T cells, cytotoxic T cells, B cells, and plasma cells. Helper T cells are responsible for the cell-mediated immune response and recognize antigens presented by MHC class II molecules. They express CD4, CD3, TCR, and CD28 and are a major source of IL-2. Cytotoxic T cells also participate in the cell-mediated immune response and recognize antigens presented by MHC class I molecules. They induce apoptosis in virally infected and tumor cells and express CD8 and CD3. Both helper T cells and cytotoxic T cells mediate acute and chronic organ rejection.

      B cells are the primary cells of the humoral immune response and act as antigen-presenting cells. They also mediate hyperacute organ rejection. Plasma cells are differentiated from B cells and produce large amounts of antibody specific to a particular antigen. Overall, these cells work together to mount a targeted and specific immune response to invading pathogens or abnormal cells.

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  • Question 15 - A 78-year-old man is admitted to the care of the elderly ward with...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old man is admitted to the care of the elderly ward with urosepsis and an acute kidney injury stage 2. His medical history includes type 2 diabetes, ischaemic heart disease and prostate cancer.

      Assessing his risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE), you determine that he is at high risk. To prevent VTE, you initiate subcutaneous enoxaparin, a low molecular weight heparin. What is the mechanism of action of this medication?

      Your Answer: Directly inhibits factor Xa

      Correct Answer: Activates antithrombin III and forms a complex that inhibits factor Xa

      Explanation:

      The activation of antithrombin III (ATIII) is the mechanism by which low-molecular weight heparins (LMWH) produce an anti-coagulant effect. ATIII is a glycoprotein that inhibits several enzymes involved in the clotting cascade, including thrombin, factor Xa, and factor IXa. All heparins work to enhance the effect of ATIII, but LMWH specifically binds to ATIII and produces a conformational change that accelerates its inhibition of factor Xa.

      In contrast, unfractionated heparin also produces a conformational change in ATIII, but due to its larger size, it can also inhibit other clotting factors such as thrombin, factors IXa, XIa, and XIIa.

      Direct oral anticoagulants such as apixaban and rivaroxaban directly inhibit factor Xa, while dabigatran is a direct thrombin inhibitor. Aspirin, on the other hand, inhibits the production of thromboxane A2 by inhibiting COX-1 and COX-2, resulting in reduced platelet aggregation.

      Heparin is a type of anticoagulant medication that comes in two main forms: unfractionated heparin and low molecular weight heparin (LMWH). Both types work by activating antithrombin III, but unfractionated heparin forms a complex that inhibits thrombin, factors Xa, IXa, XIa, and XIIa, while LMWH only increases the action of antithrombin III on factor Xa. Adverse effects of heparins include bleeding, thrombocytopenia, osteoporosis, and hyperkalemia. LMWH has a lower risk of causing heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) and osteoporosis compared to unfractionated heparin. HIT is an immune-mediated condition where antibodies form against complexes of platelet factor 4 (PF4) and heparin, leading to platelet activation and a prothrombotic state. Treatment for HIT includes direct thrombin inhibitors or danaparoid. Heparin overdose can be partially reversed by protamine sulfate.

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  • Question 16 - A 42-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of a hot and painful leg....

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of a hot and painful leg. Upon examination, the lower right limb shows a distinct area of erythema that is warm to the touch. The patient has no significant medical history and is not taking any medications, but has a penicillin allergy. The GP decides to prescribe clindamycin. What is the mechanism of action of this antibiotic?

      Your Answer: Binds to the 50S subunit of the ribosome

      Explanation:

      Clindamycin hinders bacterial protein synthesis by binding to the 50S subunit of the ribosome, leading to the eventual death of bacterial cells. Quinolone antibiotics, such as ciprofloxacin, prevent bacterial replication by inhibiting bacterial DNA gyrase, which is responsible for unwinding and duplicating bacterial DNA. Beta-lactam antibiotics, like penicillins and cephalosporins, impair the bacterial cell wall, causing damage that ultimately results in bacterial cell death. Trimethoprim inhibits bacterial dihydrofolate reductase, which reduces the amount of purines available for DNA synthesis within the bacteria, thereby reducing bacterial replication. Tetracyclines, on the other hand, inhibit the 30S subunit of bacterial ribosomes, which has a similar effect to inhibiting the 50S subunit, leading to reduced protein synthesis.

      Antibiotics work in different ways to kill or inhibit the growth of bacteria. The commonly used antibiotics can be classified based on their gross mechanism of action. The first group inhibits cell wall formation by either preventing peptidoglycan cross-linking (penicillins, cephalosporins, carbapenems) or peptidoglycan synthesis (glycopeptides like vancomycin). The second group inhibits protein synthesis by acting on either the 50S subunit (macrolides, chloramphenicol, clindamycin, linezolid, streptogrammins) or the 30S subunit (aminoglycosides, tetracyclines) of the bacterial ribosome. The third group inhibits DNA synthesis (quinolones like ciprofloxacin) or damages DNA (metronidazole). The fourth group inhibits folic acid formation (sulphonamides and trimethoprim), while the fifth group inhibits RNA synthesis (rifampicin). Understanding the mechanism of action of antibiotics is important in selecting the appropriate drug for a particular bacterial infection.

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  • Question 17 - A 75-year-old man is brought to the hospital with a urinary tract infection....

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old man is brought to the hospital with a urinary tract infection. He has a history of hypertension and mild cognitive impairment.

      The medical team observes that he has had recurrent urinary tract infections caused by Escherichia coli in the past year.

      Which culture medium is required for the growth of this microorganism?

      Your Answer: MacConkey agar

      Explanation:

      The correct medium for culturing Escherichia coli and obtaining pink colonies is MacConkey agar. This is because E. coli is a lactose-fermenting bacteria, and MacConkey’s agar contains lactose that is utilized by such bacteria to produce acid, resulting in the formation of pink colonies. Charcoal-yeast agar, chocolate agar, and Lowenstein-Jensen agar are not appropriate for culturing E. coli as they are used for isolating other bacteria that cause different illnesses.

      Culture Requirements for Common Organisms

      Different microorganisms require specific culture conditions to grow and thrive. The table above lists some of the culture requirements for the more common organisms. For instance, Neisseria gonorrhoeae requires Thayer-Martin agar, which is a variant of chocolate agar, and the addition of Vancomycin, Polymyxin, and Nystatin to inhibit Gram-positive, Gram-negative, and fungal growth, respectively. Haemophilus influenzae, on the other hand, grows on chocolate agar with factors V (NAD+) and X (hematin).

      To remember the culture requirements for some of these organisms, some mnemonics can be used. For example, Nice Homes have chocolate can help recall that Neisseria and Haemophilus grow on chocolate agar. If I Tell-U the Corny joke Right, you’ll Laugh can be used to remember that Corynebacterium diphtheriae grows on tellurite agar or Loeffler’s media. Lactating pink monkeys can help recall that lactose fermenting bacteria, such as Escherichia coli, grow on MacConkey agar resulting in pink colonies. Finally, BORDETella pertussis can be used to remember that Bordetella pertussis grows on Bordet-Gengou (potato) agar.

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  • Question 18 - A 62-year-old man presents to the ED with ataxia, confusion, and nystagmus. The...

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old man presents to the ED with ataxia, confusion, and nystagmus. The diagnosis of Wernicke's encephalopathy is confirmed by a thiamine deficiency found in his blood tests. Which enzyme's production is reliant on this vitamin?

      Your Answer: Pyruvate dehydrogenase

      Explanation:

      Vitamin B1, also known as thiamine, is a cofactor for a group of enzymes needed for the Krebs cycle, including pyruvate dehydrogenase. Deficiency in vitamin B1 can lead to a deprivation of energy and a buildup of lactate, which can cause pathological brain function. This can manifest as cerebellar signs such as ataxia and nystagmus, as well as confusion. Thiamine deficiency is commonly seen in alcoholics. Amylase, lysyl hydroxylase, and retinoic acid are not related to this condition and would not account for the symptoms described in the stem.

      The Importance of Vitamin B1 (Thiamine) in the Body

      Vitamin B1, also known as thiamine, is a water-soluble vitamin that belongs to the B complex group. It plays a crucial role in the body as one of its phosphate derivatives, thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP), acts as a coenzyme in various enzymatic reactions. These reactions include the catabolism of sugars and amino acids, such as pyruvate dehydrogenase complex, alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase complex, and branched-chain amino acid dehydrogenase complex.

      Thiamine deficiency can lead to clinical consequences, particularly in highly aerobic tissues like the brain and heart. The brain can develop Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome, which presents symptoms such as nystagmus, ophthalmoplegia, and ataxia. Meanwhile, the heart can develop wet beriberi, which causes dilated cardiomyopathy. Other conditions associated with thiamine deficiency include dry beriberi, which leads to peripheral neuropathy, and Korsakoff’s syndrome, which causes amnesia and confabulation.

      The primary causes of thiamine deficiency are alcohol excess and malnutrition. Alcoholics are routinely recommended to take thiamine supplements to prevent deficiency. Overall, thiamine is an essential vitamin that plays a vital role in the body’s metabolic processes.

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  • Question 19 - A 62-year-old female visits a medical facility for evaluation after reporting to her...

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old female visits a medical facility for evaluation after reporting to her doctor about a lump in her right breast. Upon conducting a mammography and biopsy of the breast tissue, it is confirmed that she has invasive ductal carcinoma.

      Which oncogene is primarily linked to this condition?

      Your Answer: HER2/neu

      Explanation:

      Oncogenes are genes that promote cancer and are derived from normal genes called proto-oncogenes. Proto-oncogenes play a crucial role in cellular growth and differentiation. However, a gain of function in oncogenes increases the risk of cancer. Only one mutated copy of the gene is needed for cancer to occur, making it a dominant effect. Oncogenes are responsible for up to 20% of human cancers and can become oncogenes through mutation, chromosomal translocation, or increased protein expression.

      In contrast, tumor suppressor genes restrict or repress cellular proliferation in normal cells. Their inactivation through mutation or germ line incorporation is implicated in various cancers, including renal, colonic, breast, and bladder cancer. Tumor suppressor genes, such as p53, offer protection by causing apoptosis of damaged cells. Other well-known genes include BRCA1 and BRCA2. Loss of function in tumor suppressor genes results in an increased risk of cancer, while gain of function in oncogenes increases the risk of cancer.

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  • Question 20 - A 75-year-old man has been discharged from the hospital after experiencing an acute...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old man has been discharged from the hospital after experiencing an acute coronary syndrome and undergoing percutaneous coronary intervention. He has been prescribed aspirin, bisoprolol, ramipril, and atorvastatin. Can you explain the mechanism of action of aspirin?

      Your Answer: Suppresses production of prostaglandins and thromboxane A2

      Explanation:

      Aspirin inhibits the COX enzyme, which results in the suppression of prostaglandins and thromboxane A2 production. This inhibition is non-reversible and affects both COX 1 and 2.

      How Aspirin Works and its Use in Cardiovascular Disease

      Aspirin is a medication that works by blocking the action of cyclooxygenase-1 and 2, which are responsible for the synthesis of prostaglandin, prostacyclin, and thromboxane. By blocking the formation of thromboxane A2 in platelets, aspirin reduces their ability to aggregate, making it a widely used medication in cardiovascular disease. However, recent trials have cast doubt on the use of aspirin in primary prevention of cardiovascular disease, and guidelines have not yet changed to reflect this. Aspirin should not be used in children under 16 due to the risk of Reye’s syndrome, except in cases of Kawasaki disease where the benefits outweigh the risks. As for its use in ischaemic heart disease, aspirin is recommended as a first-line treatment. It can also potentiate the effects of oral hypoglycaemics, warfarin, and steroids. It is important to note that recent guidelines recommend clopidogrel as a first-line treatment for ischaemic stroke and peripheral arterial disease, while the use of aspirin in TIAs remains a topic of debate among different guidelines.

      Overall, aspirin’s mechanism of action and its use in cardiovascular disease make it a valuable medication in certain cases. However, recent studies have raised questions about its effectiveness in primary prevention, and prescribers should be aware of the potential risks and benefits when considering its use.

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  • Question 21 - Which of the following organisms is responsible for causing erysipelas? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following organisms is responsible for causing erysipelas?

      Your Answer: Streptococcus pyogenes

      Explanation:

      Streptococci are spherical bacteria that are gram-positive. They can be classified into two types based on their hemolytic properties: alpha and beta. Alpha haemolytic streptococci, such as Streptococcus pneumoniae and Streptococcus viridans, cause partial hemolysis. Pneumococcus is a common cause of pneumonia, meningitis, and otitis media. Beta haemolytic streptococci, on the other hand, cause complete hemolysis and can be further divided into groups A-H. Only groups A, B, and D are significant in humans. Group A streptococci, particularly Streptococcus pyogenes, are responsible for various infections such as erysipelas, impetigo, cellulitis, and pharyngitis/tonsillitis. They can also cause rheumatic fever or post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis due to immunological reactions. Scarlet fever can also be caused by erythrogenic toxins produced by group A streptococci. Group B streptococci, specifically Streptococcus agalactiae, can lead to neonatal meningitis and septicaemia. Enterococcus belongs to group D streptococci.

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  • Question 22 - A 29-year-old woman is brought in after overdosing on diazepam during a fight...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman is brought in after overdosing on diazepam during a fight with her partner. She is disoriented, confused, and has difficulty maintaining balance. Her breathing is shallow and slow. Her vital signs show a heart rate of 50/min, blood pressure of 98/50 mmHg, respiratory rate of 9/min, and temperature of 36.5ºC. The medical team intubates her and secures her airway.

      What antidote could be administered as part of her treatment?

      Your Answer: Naloxone

      Correct Answer: Flumazenil

      Explanation:

      Flumazenil is the antidote used to treat severe benzodiazepine overdose. If the patient’s condition does not improve with supportive measures, flumazenil may be administered.

      Methanol poisoning is treated with fomepizole, while opioid overdose is treated with naloxone. Chlordiazepoxide is also a benzodiazepine.

      The management of overdoses and poisonings involves specific treatments for each toxin. For example, in cases of paracetamol overdose, activated charcoal may be given if ingested within an hour, and N-acetylcysteine or liver transplantation may be necessary. Salicylate overdose may require urinary alkalinization with IV bicarbonate or haemodialysis. Opioid/opiate overdose can be treated with naloxone, while benzodiazepine overdose may require flumazenil, although this is only used in severe cases due to the risk of seizures. Tricyclic antidepressant overdose may require IV bicarbonate to reduce the risk of seizures and arrhythmias, while lithium toxicity may respond to volume resuscitation with normal saline or haemodialysis. Warfarin overdose can be treated with vitamin K or prothrombin complex, while heparin overdose may require protamine sulphate. Beta-blocker overdose may require atropine or glucagon. Ethylene glycol poisoning can be treated with fomepizole or ethanol, while methanol poisoning may require the same treatment or haemodialysis. Organophosphate insecticide poisoning can be treated with atropine, and digoxin overdose may require digoxin-specific antibody fragments. Iron overdose may require desferrioxamine, and lead poisoning may require dimercaprol or calcium edetate. Carbon monoxide poisoning can be treated with 100% oxygen or hyperbaric oxygen, while cyanide poisoning may require hydroxocobalamin or a combination of amyl nitrite, sodium nitrite, and sodium thiosulfate.

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  • Question 23 - A 55-year-old woman is prescribed doxazosin, an alpha-1-receptor antagonist, for hypertension. What side...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman is prescribed doxazosin, an alpha-1-receptor antagonist, for hypertension. What side effects should she be informed about?

      Your Answer: Flushing

      Correct Answer: Postural hypotension

      Explanation:

      Doxazosin, an alpha-1 antagonist, is known to cause postural hypotension as a prominent side effect. This is due to its ability to cause vasodilation and lead to pooling of venous blood in the legs, which can result in dizziness and syncope when standing from a sitting position. Dry cough, palpitations, and flushing are not commonly associated with doxazosin.

      antihypertensive drugs are used to treat high blood pressure, but they can also have side-effects. ACE inhibitors can cause coughing and high levels of potassium in the blood. Bendroflumethiazide can lead to gout, low levels of potassium and sodium in the blood, and impaired glucose tolerance. Calcium channel blockers may cause headaches, flushing, and swelling in the ankles. Beta-blockers can cause bronchospasm (especially in people with asthma), fatigue, and cold extremities. Doxazosin can cause a drop in blood pressure when standing up. It is important to be aware of these potential side-effects when taking antihypertensive medication.

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  • Question 24 - A 10-year-old boy presents to your clinic with his mother. He has been...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old boy presents to your clinic with his mother. He has been diagnosed with asthma for two years and is currently on a low dose inhaled corticosteroid and reliever inhaler. However, his mother is concerned as he still experiences symptoms and needs to use his reliever inhaler four to five times per week. You plan to prescribe a medication that targets leukotrienes, which are known to contribute to bronchoconstriction. What is the mechanism of action of this drug?

      Your Answer: It blocks leukotriene binding to and activating smooth muscle, preventing leukotriene-induced bronchoconstriction

      Explanation:

      Montelukast is a drug that works as a leukotriene receptor antagonist, which means it blocks the activation of smooth muscle by leukotrienes and prevents bronchoconstriction. Mast cell stabilising drugs, on the other hand, do not have any effect on leukotriene-induced bronchoconstriction as they only prevent the release of histamine and other inflammatory cell mediators. Nedocromil is an example of a mast cell stabiliser used for asthma. Montelukast does not affect mucus production or leukotriene synthesis or recycling. It specifically blocks leukotriene binding to smooth muscle receptors in the airways.

      Arachidonic Acid Metabolism: The Role of Leukotrienes and Endoperoxides

      Arachidonic acid is a fatty acid that plays a crucial role in the body’s inflammatory response. The metabolism of arachidonic acid involves the production of various compounds, including leukotrienes and endoperoxides. Leukotrienes are produced by leukocytes and can cause constriction of the lungs. LTB4 is produced before leukocytes arrive, while the rest of the leukotrienes (A, C, D, and E) cause lung constriction.

      Endoperoxides, on the other hand, are produced by the cyclooxygenase enzyme and can lead to the formation of thromboxane and prostacyclin. Thromboxane is associated with platelet aggregation and vasoconstriction, which can lead to thrombosis. Prostacyclin, on the other hand, has the opposite effect and can cause vasodilation and inhibit platelet aggregation.

      Understanding the metabolism of arachidonic acid and the role of these compounds can help in the development of treatments for inflammatory conditions and cardiovascular diseases.

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  • Question 25 - A four-week-old baby boy is brought to the emergency department with persistent jaundice...

    Incorrect

    • A four-week-old baby boy is brought to the emergency department with persistent jaundice since birth. Despite one week of phototherapy, the yellowing has not improved. The mother reports that the baby was born at 39 weeks' gestation without any birth trauma or injury. Newborn screening tests, including a thyroid function test, were normal. The mother and baby are both blood group O and Rh-negative, with no known family history of haematological conditions or liver problems. The mother has also noticed that the baby has been passing pale stools and dark urine.

      On examination, the baby appears healthy and has no fever, with scleral icterus present. The baby is moving all four limbs and has symmetrical Moro's reflex. The abdomen is soft and non-tender, with no palpable masses.

      What is the likely condition affecting this four-week-old baby boy?

      Your Answer: Unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia

      Correct Answer: Conjugated hyperbilirubinaemia

      Explanation:

      If a newborn has jaundice for more than 14 days, it is likely due to conjugated hyperbilirubinemia. This type of prolonged neonatal jaundice is usually caused by post-hepatic factors, such as biliary atresia or choledochal cysts. Haemolysis may also cause jaundice, but in this case, it is unlikely due to the absence of conjunctival pallor, no family history of haematological conditions, and both the mother and baby being blood group O and Rh-negative. Congenital infections, like cytomegalovirus infection, may also cause jaundice, but the baby appears healthy and does not show any signs of TORCH infections.

      Understanding Jaundice in Newborns

      Jaundice is a common condition in newborns that occurs due to the accumulation of bilirubin in the blood. The severity and duration of jaundice can vary depending on the cause and age of the baby. Jaundice in the first 24 hours is always considered pathological and can be caused by conditions such as rhesus haemolytic disease, ABO haemolytic disease, hereditary spherocytosis, and glucose-6-phosphodehydrogenase deficiency.

      Jaundice in the neonate from 2-14 days is usually physiological and affects up to 40% of babies. It is more commonly seen in breastfed babies and is due to a combination of factors such as more red blood cells, fragile red blood cells, and less developed liver function. However, if jaundice persists after 14 days (21 days if premature), a prolonged jaundice screen is performed to identify the cause. This includes tests for conjugated and unconjugated bilirubin, direct antiglobulin test, TFTs, FBC and blood film, urine for MC&S and reducing sugars, and U&Es and LFTs.

      Prolonged jaundice can be caused by conditions such as biliary atresia, hypothyroidism, galactosaemia, urinary tract infection, breast milk jaundice, prematurity, and congenital infections like CMV and toxoplasmosis. Breast milk jaundice is more common in breastfed babies and is thought to be due to high concentrations of beta-glucuronidase, which increases the intestinal absorption of unconjugated bilirubin. It is important to identify the cause of prolonged jaundice as some conditions like biliary atresia require urgent surgical intervention, while others like hypothyroidism can lead to developmental delays if left untreated.

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  • Question 26 - A 35-year-old male patient, who has recently returned from India, presents to the...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old male patient, who has recently returned from India, presents to the clinic with fever, right upper quadrant abdominal pain, and two episodes of profuse, bloody stools. Physical examination indicates tenderness in the right upper quadrant but no guarding or rigidity. The vital signs show a heart rate of 96 beats/min, a blood pressure of 110/60 mmHg, a temperature of 37.2ºC (98.96ºF), and a respiratory rate of 20 breaths/min. Ultrasound abdomen reveals a hypoechoic mass in the posterior liver. CT scan of the abdomen detects a low-density mass with peripheral enhancing rim consistent with an abscess on the posterior part of the right lobe of the liver.

      What is the most likely organism responsible for this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Entamoeba histolytica

      Explanation:

      Entamoeba histolytica is the cause of amoebiasis, a disease that affects a significant portion of the population and spreads through the faecal-oral route. While some patients may not show any symptoms, others may experience mild or severe symptoms such as fever, abdominal pain, profuse bloody diarrhoea, and liver or colonic abscess. Amoebic liver abscess typically appears as a single mass in the right lobe, sometimes multiple, with contents resembling ‘anchovy sauce’.

      Bacillus cereus is an incorrect answer as it causes food poisoning through contaminated foods like rice, potatoes, and cheese, leading to watery diarrhoea.

      Campylobacter jejuni can cause bloody diarrhoea, but it is usually preceded by prodromal symptoms like fever, rigours, dizziness, and body aches. It spreads through raw milk, undercooked poultry, and contaminated water.

      Clostridium difficile is also incorrect as it causes antibiotic-associated diarrhoea, which occurs after antibiotic treatment alters the microbial flora of the large intestine, making it susceptible to infection by Clostridium difficile.

      Understanding Amoebiasis

      Amoebiasis is a disease caused by Entamoeba histolytica, a type of protozoan that spreads through the faecal-oral route. It is a prevalent disease, with an estimated 10% of the world’s population being chronically infected. The infection can be asymptomatic, cause mild diarrhoea, or severe amoebic dysentery. Amoebiasis can also lead to liver and colonic abscesses.

      Amoebic dysentery is a severe form of the disease that causes profuse, bloody diarrhoea. The incubation period for this type of amoebiasis can be long, and stool microscopy may show trophozoites if examined within 15 minutes or kept warm. Treatment for amoebic dysentery is with metronidazole.

      Amoebic liver abscess is another type of amoebiasis that usually appears as a single mass in the right lobe, although it may be multiple. The contents of the abscess are often described as ‘anchovy sauce,’ and the patient may experience fever and RUQ pain. Serology is positive in more than 90% of cases.

      Treatment for invasive amoebiasis should be followed by a luminal amoebicide to eradicate the cystic stage, which is resistant to metronidazole and tinidazole, the drugs used against the invasive stage. Understanding the different types of amoebiasis and their symptoms is crucial in diagnosing and treating this disease.

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  • Question 27 - In the Vaughan Williams classification of antihypertensives, lisinopril is an example of a:...

    Incorrect

    • In the Vaughan Williams classification of antihypertensives, lisinopril is an example of a:

      Your Answer: Class II agent

      Correct Answer: Class IV agent

      Explanation:

      The Vaughan Williams Classification of Antiarrhythmics

      The Vaughan Williams classification is a widely used system for categorizing antiarrhythmic drugs based on their mechanism of action. The classification system is divided into four classes, each with a different mechanism of action. Class I drugs block sodium channels, Class II drugs are beta-adrenoceptor antagonists, Class III drugs block potassium channels, and Class IV drugs are calcium channel blockers.

      Class Ia drugs, such as quinidine and procainamide, increase the duration of the action potential by blocking sodium channels. However, quinidine toxicity can cause cinchonism, which is characterized by symptoms such as headache, tinnitus, and thrombocytopenia. Procainamide may also cause drug-induced lupus.

      Class Ib drugs, such as lidocaine and mexiletine, decrease the duration of the action potential by blocking sodium channels. Class Ic drugs, such as flecainide and propafenone, have no effect on the duration of the action potential but still block sodium channels.

      Class II drugs, such as propranolol and metoprolol, are beta-adrenoceptor antagonists that decrease the heart rate and contractility of the heart.

      Class III drugs, such as amiodarone and sotalol, block potassium channels, which prolongs the duration of the action potential.

      Class IV drugs, such as verapamil and diltiazem, are calcium channel blockers that decrease the influx of calcium ions into the heart, which slows down the heart rate and reduces contractility.

      It should be noted that some common antiarrhythmic drugs, such as adenosine, atropine, digoxin, and magnesium, are not included in the Vaughan Williams classification.

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  • Question 28 - A 65-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with abrupt and intense eye...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with abrupt and intense eye pain, a red eye, and a mid-dilated fixed pupil on the right side. The on-call ophthalmologist suspects acute angle closure glaucoma and prescribes several medications, including pilocarpine, to reduce intraocular pressure.

      What is the mechanism of action of pilocarpine?

      Your Answer: Muscarinic agonist

      Explanation:

      A muscarinic agonist, pilocarpine stimulates muscarinic acetylcholine receptors, which are categorized into 5 subtypes (M1-M5) and are G-protein coupled receptors.

      Drugs Acting on Common Receptors

      The following table provides examples of drugs that act on common receptors in the body. These receptors include alpha, beta, dopamine, GABA, histamine, muscarinic, nicotinic, oxytocin, and serotonin. For each receptor, both agonists and antagonists are listed.

      For example, decongestants such as phenylephrine and oxymetazoline act as agonists on alpha-1 receptors, while topical brimonidine is an agonist on alpha-2 receptors. On the other hand, drugs used to treat benign prostatic hyperplasia, such as tamsulosin, act as antagonists on alpha-1 receptors.

      Similarly, inotropes like dobutamine act as agonists on beta-1 receptors, while beta-blockers such as atenolol and bisoprolol act as antagonists on both non-selective and selective beta receptors. Bronchodilators like salbutamol act as agonists on beta-2 receptors, while non-selective beta-blockers like propranolol and labetalol act as antagonists.

      Understanding the actions of drugs on common receptors is important in pharmacology and can help healthcare professionals make informed decisions when prescribing medications.

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  • Question 29 - A 25-year-old male patient arrives at the Emergency department complaining of increasing difficulty...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old male patient arrives at the Emergency department complaining of increasing difficulty in breathing and swelling of his mouth and tongue that developed over the last two hours. Upon examination, he displays significant angioedema and signs of impending airway obstruction. The patient was promptly administered intramuscular adrenaline and transferred to the high dependency unit. During the medical history taking, the patient's mother discloses that he is generally healthy but had recently started taking a new antibiotic prescribed by his GP. What is the likely cause of the patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: IgE-mediated histamine release

      Explanation:

      Type 1 hypersensitivity is mediated by IgE and can lead to anaphylaxis, which is a severe and sudden allergic reaction. Anaphylaxis is characterized by the release of histamine from mast cells and basophils due to IgE-mediated reactions. It is crucial to recognize the symptoms of anaphylaxis and administer intramuscular adrenaline promptly as it can be life-threatening. Understanding the different types of hypersensitivity reactions is essential in diagnosing and treating allergic reactions.

      Classification of Hypersensitivity Reactions

      Hypersensitivity reactions are classified into four types according to the Gell and Coombs classification. Type I, also known as anaphylactic hypersensitivity, occurs when an antigen reacts with IgE bound to mast cells. This type of reaction is commonly seen in atopic conditions such as asthma, eczema, and hay fever. Type II hypersensitivity occurs when cell-bound IgG or IgM binds to an antigen on the cell surface, leading to autoimmune conditions such as autoimmune hemolytic anemia, ITP, and Goodpasture’s syndrome. Type III hypersensitivity occurs when free antigen and antibody (IgG, IgA) combine to form immune complexes, leading to conditions such as serum sickness, systemic lupus erythematosus, and post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis. Type IV hypersensitivity is T-cell mediated and includes conditions such as tuberculosis, graft versus host disease, and allergic contact dermatitis.

      In recent times, a fifth category has been added to the classification of hypersensitivity reactions. Type V hypersensitivity occurs when antibodies recognize and bind to cell surface receptors, either stimulating them or blocking ligand binding. This type of reaction is seen in conditions such as Graves’ disease and myasthenia gravis. Understanding the classification of hypersensitivity reactions is important in the diagnosis and management of these conditions.

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  • Question 30 - A 67-year-old man arrives at the emergency department following a car crash with...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man arrives at the emergency department following a car crash with significant injuries. To address his decreasing heart rate, the medical team administers adrenaline. Which set of receptors does adrenaline primarily act upon in this scenario?

      Your Answer: α1

      Correct Answer: β1

      Explanation:

      The adrenoceptors, also known as adrenergic receptors, are a type of G protein-coupled receptors that respond to catecholamines, particularly norepinephrine and epinephrine.

      These receptors are present in various cells, and when a catecholamine binds to them, it typically activates the sympathetic nervous system. This system triggers the fight-or-flight response, which involves widening the pupils, accelerating the heart rate, releasing energy, and redirecting blood flow from non-essential organs to skeletal muscles. Adrenaline is used to enhance cardiac muscle function by targeting β1 adrenergic receptors.

      Inotropes are drugs that primarily increase cardiac output and are different from vasoconstrictor drugs that are used for peripheral vasodilation. Catecholamine type agents are commonly used in inotropes and work by increasing cAMP levels through adenylate cyclase stimulation. This leads to intracellular calcium ion mobilisation and an increase in the force of contraction. Adrenaline works as a beta adrenergic receptor agonist at lower doses and an alpha receptor agonist at higher doses. Dopamine causes dopamine receptor-mediated renal and mesenteric vascular dilatation and beta 1 receptor agonism at higher doses, resulting in increased cardiac output. Dobutamine is a predominantly beta 1 receptor agonist with weak beta 2 and alpha receptor agonist properties. Noradrenaline is a catecholamine type agent and predominantly acts as an alpha receptor agonist and serves as a peripheral vasoconstrictor. Milrinone is a phosphodiesterase inhibitor that acts specifically on the cardiac phosphodiesterase and increases cardiac output.

      The cardiovascular receptor action of inotropes varies depending on the drug. Adrenaline and noradrenaline act on alpha and beta receptors, with adrenaline acting as a beta adrenergic receptor agonist at lower doses and an alpha receptor agonist at higher doses. Dobutamine acts predominantly on beta 1 receptors with weak beta 2 and alpha receptor agonist properties. Dopamine acts on dopamine receptors, causing renal and spleen vasodilation and beta 1 receptor agonism at higher doses. The minor receptor effects are shown in brackets. The effects of receptor binding include vasoconstriction for alpha-1 and alpha-2 receptors, increased cardiac contractility and heart rate for beta-1 receptors, and vasodilation for beta-2 receptors. D-1 receptors cause renal and spleen vasodilation, while D-2 receptors inhibit the release of noradrenaline. Overall, inotropes are a class of drugs that increase cardiac output through various receptor actions.

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  • Question 31 - A study was conducted to evaluate the effectiveness of hip protectors in reducing...

    Incorrect

    • A study was conducted to evaluate the effectiveness of hip protectors in reducing femoral neck fractures among elderly patients residing in nursing homes with an average age of 83 years. 800 patients were randomly assigned to either the hip protector group or the standard care group over a two-year period.

      The findings revealed that out of the 400 patients in the hip protector group, 10 experienced a femoral neck fracture during the two-year period. On the other hand, out of the 400 patients in the control group, 20 had a femoral neck fracture during the same period.

      What is the absolute risk reduction?

      Your Answer: 0.5

      Correct Answer: 0.025

      Explanation:

      Numbers needed to treat (NNT) is a measure that determines how many patients need to receive a particular intervention to reduce the expected number of outcomes by one. To calculate NNT, you divide 1 by the absolute risk reduction (ARR) and round up to the nearest whole number. ARR can be calculated by finding the absolute difference between the control event rate (CER) and the experimental event rate (EER). There are two ways to calculate ARR, depending on whether the outcome of the study is desirable or undesirable. If the outcome is undesirable, then ARR equals CER minus EER. If the outcome is desirable, then ARR is equal to EER minus CER. It is important to note that ARR may also be referred to as absolute benefit increase.

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  • Question 32 - A 50-year-old male presents for an elective cholecystectomy. The anaesthetist administers the necessary...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male presents for an elective cholecystectomy. The anaesthetist administers the necessary medications, including an antiemetic, before the surgery. However, after 10 minutes, the patient experiences upward eye deviation and muscle spasms in the neck and arms. An IV injection of procyclidine is given.

      What is the mechanism of action of procyclidine?

      Your Answer: Dopamine agonist

      Correct Answer: Muscarinic antagonist

      Explanation:

      Procyclidine is capable of crossing the blood-brain barrier and acts as a muscarinic antagonist. It is commonly used to alleviate oculogyric crisis, which is caused by an excess of cholinergic activity at the neuromuscular junction due to dopamine deficiency resulting from the administration of dopamine D2 antagonists like metoclopramide. Procyclidine works by reducing cholinergic transmission in such cases.

      Understanding Oculogyric Crisis: Symptoms, Causes, and Management

      Oculogyric crisis is a medical condition characterized by involuntary upward deviation of the eyes, often accompanied by restlessness and agitation. This condition is usually triggered by certain drugs or medical conditions, such as antipsychotics, metoclopramide, and postencephalitic Parkinson’s disease.

      The symptoms of oculogyric crisis can be distressing and uncomfortable for the patient. They may experience a sudden and uncontrollable movement of their eyes, which can cause discomfort and disorientation. In some cases, the patient may also feel restless and agitated, making it difficult for them to focus or relax.

      To manage oculogyric crisis, doctors may prescribe intravenous antimuscarinic medications such as benztropine or procyclidine. These drugs work by blocking the action of acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter that is involved in muscle movement. By reducing the activity of acetylcholine, these medications can help to alleviate the symptoms of oculogyric crisis and restore normal eye movement.

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  • Question 33 - A 50-year-old male presents with yellow discoloration of his nails. Upon examination, he...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male presents with yellow discoloration of his nails. Upon examination, he has thickened yellow toenails. Your plan of action is to treat him with terbinafine.

      What is the mechanism of action for terbinafine?

      Your Answer: Binds with ergosterol

      Correct Answer: Inhibits the fungal enzyme squalene epoxidase

      Explanation:

      Terbinafine causes cellular death by inhibiting the fungal enzyme squalene epoxidase and is used to treat fungal nail infections, ringworm, and pityriasis versicolor.

      Griseofulvin disrupts the mitotic spindle by interacting with microtubules.

      Amphotericin B forms a transmembrane channel by binding with ergosterol.

      Flucytosine is converted to 5-fluorouracil by cytosine deaminase, which disrupts fungal protein synthesis by inhibiting thymidylate synthase.

      Caspofungin inhibits the synthesis of beta-glucan, a major component of the fungal cell wall.

      Antifungal agents are drugs used to treat fungal infections. There are several types of antifungal agents, each with a unique mechanism of action and potential adverse effects. Azoles work by inhibiting 14α-demethylase, an enzyme that produces ergosterol, a component of fungal cell membranes. However, they can also inhibit the P450 system in the liver, leading to potential liver toxicity. Amphotericin B binds with ergosterol to form a transmembrane channel that causes leakage of monovalent ions, but it can also cause nephrotoxicity and flu-like symptoms. Terbinafine inhibits squalene epoxidase, while griseofulvin interacts with microtubules to disrupt mitotic spindle. However, griseofulvin can induce the P450 system and is teratogenic. Flucytosine is converted by cytosine deaminase to 5-fluorouracil, which inhibits thymidylate synthase and disrupts fungal protein synthesis, but it can cause vomiting. Caspofungin inhibits the synthesis of beta-glucan, a major fungal cell wall component, and can cause flushing. Nystatin binds with ergosterol to form a transmembrane channel that causes leakage of monovalent ions, but it is very toxic and can only be used topically, such as for oral thrush.

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  • Question 34 - A 35-year-old male patient visits his GP complaining of abdominal pain and bloody...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old male patient visits his GP complaining of abdominal pain and bloody diarrhoea that has been ongoing for 2 days. He recalls eating a beef burger at a barbecue 6 days ago, and other attendees have reported similar symptoms. The patient has not traveled abroad recently. Upon conducting a stool culture, the results show the presence of aerobic gram-negative rod bacteria. What is the most probable organism responsible for the patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Campylobacter jejuni

      Correct Answer: Escherichia coli

      Explanation:

      Escherichia coli, an aerobic gram-negative rod, is known to cause food poisoning when individuals consume undercooked beef. Campylobacter jejuni, Neisseria meningitidis, and Salmonella enterica are all incorrect answers as they are different types of bacteria and not associated with undercooked beef-related food poisoning.

      Classification of Bacteria Made Easy

      Bacteria are classified based on their shape, staining properties, and other characteristics. One way to simplify the classification process is to remember that Gram-positive cocci include staphylococci and streptococci, while Gram-negative cocci include Neisseria meningitidis, Neisseria gonorrhoeae, and Moraxella catarrhalis. To categorize all bacteria, only a few Gram-positive rods or bacilli need to be memorized, which can be remembered using the mnemonic ABCD L: Actinomyces, Bacillus anthracis (anthrax), Clostridium, Diphtheria (Corynebacterium diphtheriae), and Listeria monocytogenes.

      The remaining organisms are Gram-negative rods, such as Escherichia coli, Haemophilus influenzae, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Salmonella sp., Shigella sp., and Campylobacter jejuni. By keeping these classifications in mind, it becomes easier to identify and differentiate between different types of bacteria.

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  • Question 35 - At what age is a child most vulnerable to infection due to their...

    Incorrect

    • At what age is a child most vulnerable to infection due to their underdeveloped humoral response, and what type of antibodies can they receive from their mother during pregnancy?

      A child in the early stages of life may be susceptible to infections as their humoral response is not yet fully developed. However, during pregnancy, a mother can pass on some immunity to her child through the placenta. Which specific type of antibodies are capable of crossing the placental barrier?

      Your Answer: IgE

      Correct Answer: IgG

      Explanation:

      IgG is the sole antibody that can cross the placenta and complement deficiencies. This is achieved through receptor-mediated active transport, which is highly specific to IgG. The transfer of this antibody is contingent on a healthy placenta. The transfer process commences at 17 weeks of gestation and intensifies to the point where fetal IgG levels surpass maternal levels at 40 weeks. No other antibodies are transferred.

      Immunoglobulins, also known as antibodies, are proteins produced by the immune system to help fight off infections and diseases. There are five types of immunoglobulins found in the body, each with their own unique characteristics.

      IgG is the most abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and plays a crucial role in enhancing phagocytosis of bacteria and viruses. It also fixes complement and can be passed to the fetal circulation.

      IgA is the most commonly produced immunoglobulin in the body and is found in the secretions of digestive, respiratory, and urogenital tracts and systems. It provides localized protection on mucous membranes and is transported across the interior of the cell via transcytosis.

      IgM is the first immunoglobulin to be secreted in response to an infection and fixes complement, but does not pass to the fetal circulation. It is also responsible for producing anti-A, B blood antibodies.

      IgD’s role in the immune system is largely unknown, but it is involved in the activation of B cells.

      IgE is the least abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and is responsible for mediating type 1 hypersensitivity reactions. It provides immunity to parasites such as helminths and binds to Fc receptors found on the surface of mast cells and basophils.

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  • Question 36 - A 5-year-old male is found to have a small head, a smooth philtrum,...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old male is found to have a small head, a smooth philtrum, and epicanthic folds. He also experiences cyanosis when exerting himself and has difficulty eating due to a cleft palate. Based on this presentation, what is the child at higher risk for?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary hypoplasia

      Correct Answer: Recurrent infections

      Explanation:

      The child’s symptoms suggest that they may have DiGeorge syndrome (22q11 deletion), which is characterized by thymus hypoplasia leading to recurrent infections. Other symptoms associated with this condition can be remembered using the acronym CATCH-22, which includes cardiac anomalies, abnormal facies, cleft palate, hypoparathyroidism leading to hypocalcaemia, and the location of the deletion on chromosome 22.

      Atopic conditions such as eczema, allergies, and asthma are also common in some individuals.

      Premature aortic sclerosis is often seen in individuals with Turner syndrome (45 XO), while pulmonary hypoplasia is associated with the Potter sequence. Elevated cholesterol levels may be caused by a genetic hypercholesterolaemia syndrome.

      DiGeorge syndrome, also known as velocardiofacial syndrome and 22q11.2 deletion syndrome, is a primary immunodeficiency disorder that results from a microdeletion of a section of chromosome 22. This autosomal dominant condition is characterized by T-cell deficiency and dysfunction, which puts individuals at risk of viral and fungal infections. Other features of DiGeorge syndrome include hypoplasia of the parathyroid gland, which can lead to hypocalcaemic tetany, and thymus hypoplasia.

      The presentation of DiGeorge syndrome can vary, but it can be remembered using the mnemonic CATCH22. This stands for cardiac abnormalities, abnormal facies, thymic aplasia, cleft palate, hypocalcaemia/hypoparathyroidism, and the fact that it is caused by a deletion on chromosome 22. Overall, DiGeorge syndrome is a complex disorder that affects multiple systems in the body and requires careful management and monitoring.

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  • Question 37 - A 68-year-old man is scheduled for a fenestrated endovascular aortic repair (FEVAR) to...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man is scheduled for a fenestrated endovascular aortic repair (FEVAR) to treat a 12cm juxtarenal abdominal aortic aneurysm. Prior to the procedure, he is given propofol IV for induction of anesthesia and subsequent intubation and ventilation. Can you explain how this drug affects the central nervous system?

      Your Answer: AMPA receptor antagonist

      Correct Answer: GABA receptor agonist

      Explanation:

      Propofol acts primarily by activating GABA receptors, which results in the influx of chloride ions and stabilization of the resting potential, leading to reduced excitatory activity. AMPA receptor antagonists may have potential in treating epilepsy, while flumazenil, a reversal agent for benzodiazepine overdose, exhibits GABA antagonism. Ketamine, on the other hand, is a potent sedative that works by blocking NMDA receptors and is used as an induction agent in anesthesia in certain situations, such as pre-hospital care. Although H1 receptor activation in the tuberomammillary nucleus plays a crucial role in the sleep-wake cycle, drugs that activate this pathway have not been utilized as hypnotics.

      Overview of Commonly Used IV Induction Agents

      Propofol, sodium thiopentone, ketamine, and etomidate are some of the commonly used IV induction agents in anesthesia. Propofol is a GABA receptor agonist that has a rapid onset of anesthesia but may cause pain on IV injection. It is widely used for maintaining sedation on ITU, total IV anesthesia, and daycase surgery. Sodium thiopentone has an extremely rapid onset of action, making it the agent of choice for rapid sequence induction. However, it may cause marked myocardial depression and metabolites build up quickly, making it unsuitable for maintenance infusion. Ketamine, an NMDA receptor antagonist, has moderate to strong analgesic properties and produces little myocardial depression, making it a suitable agent for anesthesia in those who are hemodynamically unstable. However, it may induce a state of dissociative anesthesia resulting in nightmares. Etomidate has a favorable cardiac safety profile with very little hemodynamic instability but has no analgesic properties and is unsuitable for maintaining sedation as prolonged use may result in adrenal suppression. Postoperative vomiting is common with etomidate.

      Overall, each of these IV induction agents has specific features that make them suitable for different situations. Anesthesiologists must carefully consider the patient’s medical history, current condition, and the type of surgery being performed when selecting an appropriate induction agent.

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  • Question 38 - A study is conducted at a GP practice examining the records of alcohol...

    Incorrect

    • A study is conducted at a GP practice examining the records of alcohol consumption in enrolled patients. Out of the 600 patients at the practice, 120 are categorized as regular drinkers in the system on that day.

      What is the most appropriate way to describe this?

      Your Answer: Incidence rate

      Correct Answer: Point prevalence

      Explanation:

      The point prevalence is calculated by dividing the number of cases in a defined population by the number of people in the same population at a specific time. In this study, the point prevalence of current smokers was determined among enrolled patients at a GP practice on a single day.

      Understanding Incidence and Prevalence

      Incidence and prevalence are two terms used to describe the frequency of a condition in a population. The incidence refers to the number of new cases per population in a given time period, while the prevalence refers to the total number of cases per population at a particular point in time. Prevalence can be further divided into point prevalence and period prevalence, depending on the time frame used to measure it.

      To calculate prevalence, one can use the formula prevalence = incidence * duration of condition. This means that in chronic diseases, the prevalence is much greater than the incidence, while in acute diseases, the prevalence and incidence are similar. For example, the incidence of the common cold may be greater than its prevalence.

      Understanding the difference between incidence and prevalence is important in epidemiology and public health, as it helps to identify the burden of a disease in a population and inform healthcare policies and interventions. By measuring both incidence and prevalence, researchers can track the spread of a disease over time and assess the effectiveness of prevention and treatment strategies.

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  • Question 39 - A 5-year-old child is presented by their mother with complaints of sticky eyes...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old child is presented by their mother with complaints of sticky eyes and constant rubbing. Upon examination, you observe crusty flakes around the eyelashes and stickiness in both eyes. You prescribe chloramphenicol 5% eye drops to be used four times a day until symptoms subside and provide a leaflet on bacterial conjunctivitis. What is the correct mechanism of action of this medication?

      Your Answer: Forms a transmembrane protein which results in monovalent ion leakage

      Correct Answer: Inhibits protein synthesis by acting on 50S ribosomal subunit

      Explanation:

      Chloramphenicol hinders the process of protein synthesis by targeting the 50S ribosomal subunit.

      Amphotericin creates a transmembrane protein that causes the leakage of monovalent ions.

      Penicillin functions by preventing the cross-linking of peptidoglycan cell walls, which disrupts the structural integrity of bacterial cells.

      Rifampicin inhibits DNA-dependent RNA polymerase, leading to the suppression of RNA synthesis and eventual cell death.

      Terbinafine blocks the biosynthesis of ergosterol, a crucial component of fungal cell membranes, by inhibiting squalene epoxidase.

      Antibiotics work in different ways to kill or inhibit the growth of bacteria. The commonly used antibiotics can be classified based on their gross mechanism of action. The first group inhibits cell wall formation by either preventing peptidoglycan cross-linking (penicillins, cephalosporins, carbapenems) or peptidoglycan synthesis (glycopeptides like vancomycin). The second group inhibits protein synthesis by acting on either the 50S subunit (macrolides, chloramphenicol, clindamycin, linezolid, streptogrammins) or the 30S subunit (aminoglycosides, tetracyclines) of the bacterial ribosome. The third group inhibits DNA synthesis (quinolones like ciprofloxacin) or damages DNA (metronidazole). The fourth group inhibits folic acid formation (sulphonamides and trimethoprim), while the fifth group inhibits RNA synthesis (rifampicin). Understanding the mechanism of action of antibiotics is important in selecting the appropriate drug for a particular bacterial infection.

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  • Question 40 - A 9-year-old male child is brought to the pediatrician by his father who...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old male child is brought to the pediatrician by his father who is very worried about his child. The father reports that his son often forgets to flush the toilet, and has noticed his urine is usually brown-black by the time he sees it.

      During the examination, the child appears to be in good spirits and health, and the only notable finding is discoloration of his ear cartilage.

      The pediatrician explains to the father that the most likely cause of his child's presentation is alkaptonuria, a metabolic disorder caused by a deficiency of a crucial enzyme.

      Which enzyme is the pediatrician referring to?

      Your Answer: Phenylalanine deficiency

      Correct Answer: Homogentisic dioxygenase deficiency

      Explanation:

      The lack of homogentisic dioxygenase is the root cause of Alkaptonuria, while Pompe disease is a rare and fatal muscular disease that results from a deficiency of the enzyme acid alpha-glucosidase (GAA). In Alkaptonuria, the inability to metabolize phenylalanine and tyrosine leads to the accumulation of toxic homogentisic acid. To manage this condition, patients are advised to limit their intake of phenylalanine and tyrosine and take high doses of vitamin C. Conversely, a deficiency of vitamin C can cause scurvy, which is characterized by symptoms such as prolonged wound healing and bleeding gums.

      Alkaptonuria, also known as ochronosis, is a rare genetic disorder that affects the metabolism of phenylalanine and tyrosine. It is caused by a deficiency of the enzyme homogentisic dioxygenase (HGD), which leads to the accumulation of toxic homogentisic acid in the body. While the kidneys are able to filter out the acid, it eventually builds up in cartilage and other tissues, resulting in various symptoms. These may include pigmented sclera, black urine upon exposure to air, back pain due to intervertebral disc calcification, and the formation of renal stones.

      Despite its potential complications, alkaptonuria is generally considered a benign and often asymptomatic condition. However, treatment is still necessary to manage its effects. This may involve high-dose vitamin C supplementation and dietary restrictions on phenylalanine and tyrosine intake. By following these measures, individuals with alkaptonuria can help prevent the accumulation of homogentisic acid and reduce the risk of associated symptoms.

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  • Question 41 - A 70-year-old woman is admitted to the cardiology ward with a 4-day history...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old woman is admitted to the cardiology ward with a 4-day history of increasing shortness of breath and difficulty sleeping due to breathlessness when lying flat. Her medical history includes ischaemic heart disease and chronic heart failure. She was recently started on a new medication by her GP.

      Upon examination, diffuse crackles are heard loudest at the bases. Her JVP is elevated, and there is pitting oedema to the knees bilaterally.

      Brain natriuretic peptide 5500 pg/mL (< 300)

      Which medication is most likely to have caused this presentation?

      Your Answer: Verapamil

      Explanation:

      Calcium channel blockers are a class of drugs commonly used to treat cardiovascular disease. These drugs target voltage-gated calcium channels found in myocardial cells, cells of the conduction system, and vascular smooth muscle. The different types of calcium channel blockers have varying effects on these areas, making it important to differentiate their uses and actions.

      Verapamil is used to treat angina, hypertension, and arrhythmias. It is highly negatively inotropic and should not be given with beta-blockers as it may cause heart block. Side effects include heart failure, constipation, hypotension, bradycardia, and flushing.

      Diltiazem is used to treat angina and hypertension. It is less negatively inotropic than verapamil, but caution should still be exercised when patients have heart failure or are taking beta-blockers. Side effects include hypotension, bradycardia, heart failure, and ankle swelling.

      Nifedipine, amlodipine, and felodipine are dihydropyridines used to treat hypertension, angina, and Raynaud’s. They affect peripheral vascular smooth muscle more than the myocardium, which means they do not worsen heart failure but may cause ankle swelling. Shorter acting dihydropyridines like nifedipine may cause peripheral vasodilation, resulting in reflex tachycardia. Side effects include flushing, headache, and ankle swelling.

      According to current NICE guidelines, the management of hypertension involves a flow chart that takes into account various factors such as age, ethnicity, and comorbidities. Calcium channel blockers may be used as part of the treatment plan depending on the individual patient’s needs.

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  • Question 42 - Which of the following relates to a test's ability to produce similar results...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following relates to a test's ability to produce similar results following repeated measurements?

      Your Answer: Accuracy

      Correct Answer: Precision

      Explanation:

      Precision refers to the consistency of a test in producing the same results when repeated multiple times. It is an important aspect of test reliability and can impact the accuracy of the results. In order to assess precision, multiple tests are performed on the same sample and the results are compared. A test with high precision will produce similar results each time it is performed, while a test with low precision will produce inconsistent results. It is important to consider precision when interpreting test results and making clinical decisions.

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  • Question 43 - During an infant physical examination, a pediatrician observes cleft palate, low-set ears, and...

    Correct

    • During an infant physical examination, a pediatrician observes cleft palate, low-set ears, and a holo-systolic murmur along the left lower sternal border. Blood tests reveal hypocalcemia, and a chest x-ray shows an absent thymic shadow and a 'boot-shaped' heart. Additional investigations confirm the presence of a ventricular septal defect, right ventricular hypertrophy, and an overriding aorta.

      What is the most probable congenital heart disease in this infant?

      Your Answer: Tetralogy of Fallot

      Explanation:

      DiGeorge syndrome, also known as 22q11.2 deletion syndrome, is a primary immunodeficiency disorder that is strongly linked to cardiac abnormalities such as truncus arteriosus and tetralogy of Fallot. A useful mnemonic for remembering some of the key features of this condition is ‘CATCH 22’, which stands for cardiac abnormalities, abnormal facies, thymic aplasia, cleft palate, hypocalcaemia/hypoparathyroidism, and the fact that it is caused by a deletion on chromosome 22.

      DiGeorge syndrome, also known as velocardiofacial syndrome and 22q11.2 deletion syndrome, is a primary immunodeficiency disorder that results from a microdeletion of a section of chromosome 22. This autosomal dominant condition is characterized by T-cell deficiency and dysfunction, which puts individuals at risk of viral and fungal infections. Other features of DiGeorge syndrome include hypoplasia of the parathyroid gland, which can lead to hypocalcaemic tetany, and thymic hypoplasia.

      The presentation of DiGeorge syndrome can vary, but it can be remembered using the mnemonic CATCH22. This stands for cardiac abnormalities, abnormal facies, thymic aplasia, cleft palate, hypocalcaemia/hypoparathyroidism, and the fact that it is caused by a deletion on chromosome 22. Overall, DiGeorge syndrome is a complex disorder that affects multiple systems in the body and requires careful management and monitoring.

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  • Question 44 - A 54-year-old woman arrived at the emergency department with a sudden chest pain...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old woman arrived at the emergency department with a sudden chest pain that started an hour ago. She experienced sweating, nausea, and vomiting. An electrocardiogram showed a non-ST segment elevation myocardial infarction in the anterior leads, and a blood test revealed elevated levels of troponin. The woman was admitted to the coronary care unit for treatment. After a few days, the interventional cardiologist discussed with the woman the possibility of inserting a stent to prevent future myocardial infarctions. A new type of drug-eluting stent was recently tested in a small group of patients at a hospital. The researchers discovered that the new stent was not more effective than the currently available stents in reducing future myocardial infarctions. What type of error or bias is more likely in this trial?

      Your Answer: Type II error

      Explanation:

      1: A study is considered to be statistically significant when the probability of obtaining the observed results by chance is very low. This means that the observed results are likely to be due to the intervention or treatment being studied.

      2: A p-value is a measure of the probability that any observed difference is due to chance. A lower p-value indicates a lower probability of chance and a higher likelihood that the observed difference is due to the intervention or treatment being studied.

      3: Lead-time bias occurs when a disease is detected earlier, leading to an apparent increase in survival time. This is not a true increase in survival time, but rather a result of earlier detection.

      4: Type II errors occur when a study’s sample size is too small to detect a difference. To prevent type II errors, a larger sample size should be recruited.

      5: Confounding bias occurs when a variable interacts with both the outcome and predictor variables. If not controlled for, the effect of the predictor variable cannot be accurately determined.

      Significance tests are used to determine the likelihood of a null hypothesis being true. The null hypothesis states that two treatments are equally effective, while the alternative hypothesis suggests that there is a difference between the two treatments. The p value is the probability of obtaining a result by chance that is at least as extreme as the observed result, assuming the null hypothesis is true. Two types of errors can occur during significance testing: type I, where the null hypothesis is rejected when it is true, and type II, where the null hypothesis is accepted when it is false. The power of a study is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false, and it can be increased by increasing the sample size.

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  • Question 45 - Which of the following is most likely to affect the external validity of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is most likely to affect the external validity of a study?

      Your Answer: Instrument obtrusiveness

      Correct Answer: Reactive effects of the research setting

      Explanation:

      Validity refers to how accurately something measures what it claims to measure. There are two main types of validity: internal and external. Internal validity refers to the confidence we have in the cause and effect relationship in a study. This means we are confident that the independent variable caused the observed change in the dependent variable, rather than other factors. There are several threats to internal validity, such as poor control of extraneous variables and loss of participants over time. External validity refers to the degree to which the conclusions of a study can be applied to other people, places, and times. Threats to external validity include the representativeness of the sample and the artificiality of the research setting. There are also other types of validity, such as face validity and content validity, which refer to the general impression and full content of a test, respectively. Criterion validity compares tests, while construct validity measures the extent to which a test measures the construct it aims to.

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  • Question 46 - A 58-year-old man presents to the emergency department with worsening shortness of breath,...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old man presents to the emergency department with worsening shortness of breath, fatigue, chest pain, and leg swelling over the past 3 months. He has a history of sleep apnoea and pulmonary embolism. His partner reports that he has a 20-pack-year smoking history and regularly uses cocaine. The medical team conducted several tests, including an echocardiogram, CT chest, pulmonary function testing, and right cardiac catheterization, which confirmed a diagnosis of primary pulmonary hypertension.

      Which of the following drug management options is most appropriate for this patient?

      Your Answer: Metaraminol

      Correct Answer: Prostacyclin

      Explanation:

      The patient in the vignette has a history of pulmonary hypertension, which involves the narrowing of blood vessels in the lungs. This makes it difficult for the heart to pump blood through the lungs. Vasoactive agents like prostacyclin (PGI-2) are the first-line treatment to promote vasodilation. Iloprost, a synthetic prostacyclin, is commonly used for this purpose. Adrenaline, ergometrine, and metaraminol are not appropriate for managing pulmonary hypertension as they are vasoconstrictors. Nebulised salbutamol is used for bronchoconstricting conditions and is not appropriate for pulmonary hypertension.

      Arachidonic Acid Metabolism: The Role of Leukotrienes and Endoperoxides

      Arachidonic acid is a fatty acid that plays a crucial role in the body’s inflammatory response. The metabolism of arachidonic acid involves the production of various compounds, including leukotrienes and endoperoxides. Leukotrienes are produced by leukocytes and can cause constriction of the lungs. LTB4 is produced before leukocytes arrive, while the rest of the leukotrienes (A, C, D, and E) cause lung constriction.

      Endoperoxides, on the other hand, are produced by the cyclooxygenase enzyme and can lead to the formation of thromboxane and prostacyclin. Thromboxane is associated with platelet aggregation and vasoconstriction, which can lead to thrombosis. Prostacyclin, on the other hand, has the opposite effect and can cause vasodilation and inhibit platelet aggregation.

      Understanding the metabolism of arachidonic acid and the role of these compounds can help in the development of treatments for inflammatory conditions and cardiovascular diseases.

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  • Question 47 - An 80-year-old man visits his GP with a persistent ulcer on his buccal...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man visits his GP with a persistent ulcer on his buccal mucosal. He is urgently referred for evaluation of potential oral cancer. During his visit to the oral surgery clinic, he is questioned about various risk factors, such as smoking, illicit drug use, and exposure to specific viruses. Which virus is a risk factor for the development of this condition?

      Your Answer: Human T-lymphotropic virus 1

      Correct Answer: Human papillomavirus 16

      Explanation:

      Understanding Oncoviruses and Their Associated Cancers

      Oncoviruses are viruses that have the potential to cause cancer. These viruses can be detected through blood tests and prevented through vaccination. There are several types of oncoviruses, each associated with a specific type of cancer.

      The Epstein-Barr virus, for example, is linked to Burkitt’s lymphoma, Hodgkin’s lymphoma, post-transplant lymphoma, and nasopharyngeal carcinoma. Human papillomavirus 16/18 is associated with cervical cancer, anal cancer, penile cancer, vulval cancer, and oropharyngeal cancer. Human herpes virus 8 is linked to Kaposi’s sarcoma, while hepatitis B and C viruses are associated with hepatocellular carcinoma. Finally, human T-lymphotropic virus 1 is linked to tropical spastic paraparesis and adult T cell leukemia.

      It is important to understand the link between oncoviruses and cancer so that appropriate measures can be taken to prevent and treat these diseases. Vaccination against certain oncoviruses, such as HPV, can significantly reduce the risk of developing associated cancers. Regular screening and early detection can also improve outcomes for those who do develop cancer as a result of an oncovirus.

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  • Question 48 - A new medication for treating high blood pressure is currently in phase III...

    Correct

    • A new medication for treating high blood pressure is currently in phase III of development. The study has established a margin, represented by -delta to +delta, for the mean reduction in blood pressure. If the confidence interval of the difference between the new medication and the current standard treatment, ramipril, falls within this margin, the trial will be considered successful. What type of study design is this?

      Your Answer: Equivalence trial

      Explanation:

      When a new drug is introduced, there are various study design options available. One of these options is a placebo-controlled trial, which can provide strong evidence but may be considered unethical if established treatments are available. Additionally, it does not offer a comparison with standard treatments. Therefore, if a drug is to be compared to an existing treatment, a statistician must determine whether the trial is intended to show superiority, equivalence, or non-inferiority.

      Superiority trials may seem like the natural aim of a trial, but they require a large sample size to demonstrate a significant benefit over an existing treatment. On the other hand, equivalence trials define an equivalence margin (-delta to +delta) on a specified outcome. If the confidence interval of the difference between the two drugs falls within the equivalence margin, the drugs may be assumed to have a similar effect. Non-inferiority trials are similar to equivalence trials, but only the lower confidence interval needs to fall within the equivalence margin (i.e. -delta). These trials require smaller sample sizes. Once a drug has been shown to be non-inferior, large studies may be conducted to demonstrate superiority.

      It is important to note that drug companies may not necessarily aim to show superiority over an existing product. If they can demonstrate that their product is equivalent or even non-inferior, they may compete on price or convenience.

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  • Question 49 - A 65-year-old man with leukaemia is admitted to the respiratory ward with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with leukaemia is admitted to the respiratory ward with a 4 week history of fever, pleuritic chest pain, and a non-productive cough. A chest X-ray shows nodules and non-specific infiltrates throughout the lungs, findings which are confirmed through a high-resolution CT scan. The physicians suspect invasive pulmonary aspergillosis and commence the patient on amphotericin infusions.

      What is a frequently observed potential side effect of this medication?

      Your Answer: Encephalitis

      Correct Answer: Nephrotoxicity

      Explanation:

      Antifungal agents are drugs used to treat fungal infections. There are several types of antifungal agents, each with a unique mechanism of action and potential adverse effects. Azoles work by inhibiting 14α-demethylase, an enzyme that produces ergosterol, a component of fungal cell membranes. However, they can also inhibit the P450 system in the liver, leading to potential liver toxicity. Amphotericin B binds with ergosterol to form a transmembrane channel that causes leakage of monovalent ions, but it can also cause nephrotoxicity and flu-like symptoms. Terbinafine inhibits squalene epoxidase, while griseofulvin interacts with microtubules to disrupt mitotic spindle. However, griseofulvin can induce the P450 system and is teratogenic. Flucytosine is converted by cytosine deaminase to 5-fluorouracil, which inhibits thymidylate synthase and disrupts fungal protein synthesis, but it can cause vomiting. Caspofungin inhibits the synthesis of beta-glucan, a major fungal cell wall component, and can cause flushing. Nystatin binds with ergosterol to form a transmembrane channel that causes leakage of monovalent ions, but it is very toxic and can only be used topically, such as for oral thrush.

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  • Question 50 - Which of the following cancers is not linked to human papillomavirus? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following cancers is not linked to human papillomavirus?

      Your Answer: Vulval cancer

      Correct Answer: Tracheal cancer

      Explanation:

      HPV is linked to the following conditions:
      1. The most common type of cervical cancer (HPV 16/18)
      2. Anal cancer
      3. (missing information)

      Understanding Oncoviruses and Their Associated Cancers

      Oncoviruses are viruses that have the potential to cause cancer. These viruses can be detected through blood tests and prevented through vaccination. There are several types of oncoviruses, each associated with a specific type of cancer.

      The Epstein-Barr virus, for example, is linked to Burkitt’s lymphoma, Hodgkin’s lymphoma, post-transplant lymphoma, and nasopharyngeal carcinoma. Human papillomavirus 16/18 is associated with cervical cancer, anal cancer, penile cancer, vulval cancer, and oropharyngeal cancer. Human herpes virus 8 is linked to Kaposi’s sarcoma, while hepatitis B and C viruses are associated with hepatocellular carcinoma. Finally, human T-lymphotropic virus 1 is linked to tropical spastic paraparesis and adult T cell leukemia.

      It is important to understand the link between oncoviruses and cancer so that appropriate measures can be taken to prevent and treat these diseases. Vaccination against certain oncoviruses, such as HPV, can significantly reduce the risk of developing associated cancers. Regular screening and early detection can also improve outcomes for those who do develop cancer as a result of an oncovirus.

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  • Question 51 - A 62-year-old man with known heart failure is visiting his doctor for a...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old man with known heart failure is visiting his doctor for a review of his medications. The physician believes that his current treatment is inadequate in controlling his symptoms. As a result, she plans to introduce an inotropic medication, which enhances the strength of cardiac muscle contractions. What is an example of an inotrope?

      Your Answer: Flecainide

      Correct Answer: Digoxin

      Explanation:

      Digoxin is a type of positive inotrope, while Diltiazem and Verapamil are classified as negative inotropes due to their function as calcium-channel blockers.

      Inotropes are drugs that primarily increase cardiac output and are different from vasoconstrictor drugs that are used for peripheral vasodilation. Catecholamine type agents are commonly used in inotropes and work by increasing cAMP levels through adenylate cyclase stimulation. This leads to intracellular calcium ion mobilisation and an increase in the force of contraction. Adrenaline works as a beta adrenergic receptor agonist at lower doses and an alpha receptor agonist at higher doses. Dopamine causes dopamine receptor-mediated renal and mesenteric vascular dilatation and beta 1 receptor agonism at higher doses, resulting in increased cardiac output. Dobutamine is a predominantly beta 1 receptor agonist with weak beta 2 and alpha receptor agonist properties. Noradrenaline is a catecholamine type agent and predominantly acts as an alpha receptor agonist and serves as a peripheral vasoconstrictor. Milrinone is a phosphodiesterase inhibitor that acts specifically on the cardiac phosphodiesterase and increases cardiac output.

      The cardiovascular receptor action of inotropes varies depending on the drug. Adrenaline and noradrenaline act on alpha and beta receptors, with adrenaline acting as a beta adrenergic receptor agonist at lower doses and an alpha receptor agonist at higher doses. Dobutamine acts predominantly on beta 1 receptors with weak beta 2 and alpha receptor agonist properties. Dopamine acts on dopamine receptors, causing renal and spleen vasodilation and beta 1 receptor agonism at higher doses. The minor receptor effects are shown in brackets. The effects of receptor binding include vasoconstriction for alpha-1 and alpha-2 receptors, increased cardiac contractility and heart rate for beta-1 receptors, and vasodilation for beta-2 receptors. D-1 receptors cause renal and spleen vasodilation, while D-2 receptors inhibit the release of noradrenaline. Overall, inotropes are a class of drugs that increase cardiac output through various receptor actions.

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  • Question 52 - A study examines whether a new medication for elderly patients with heart failure...

    Incorrect

    • A study examines whether a new medication for elderly patients with heart failure can reduce hospitalizations. How should statistical significance be determined when analyzing the data?

      Your Answer: p-value < power

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Significance tests are used to determine the likelihood of a null hypothesis being true. The null hypothesis states that two treatments are equally effective, while the alternative hypothesis suggests that there is a difference between the two treatments. The p value is the probability of obtaining a result by chance that is at least as extreme as the observed result, assuming the null hypothesis is true. Two types of errors can occur during significance testing: type I, where the null hypothesis is rejected when it is true, and type II, where the null hypothesis is accepted when it is false. The power of a study is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false, and it can be increased by increasing the sample size.

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  • Question 53 - In the year 2019, the Elderlyville town had a total of 5000 residents...

    Incorrect

    • In the year 2019, the Elderlyville town had a total of 5000 residents over the age of 65. Of these, 100 passed away within the first month of moving to the town. Another 50 passed away within the first year of living in the town. A total of 20 residents passed away due to accidents or injuries. Another 200 passed away due to natural causes.

      What was the mortality rate for residents over the age of 65 in Elderlyville town in 2019?

      Your Answer: 75 per 1000 births

      Correct Answer: 50 per 1000 births

      Explanation:

      Perinatal Death Rates: Understanding the Different Metrics

      Perinatal death rates are a crucial indicator of the quality of healthcare services provided to pregnant women and newborns. The perinatal mortality rate is calculated by adding the number of stillbirths and early neonatal deaths (within 7 days) per 1,000 births after 24 weeks gestation. In the UK, this rate is around 6 per 1,000 births. However, it is important to note that this usually equates to around 4 per 1,000 stillbirths and 2 per 1,000 early neonatal deaths.

      There are other metrics used to measure perinatal death rates, such as the maternal mortality rate, stillbirth rate, and neonatal death rate. The maternal mortality rate is calculated by dividing the number of deaths in pregnancy, labour, and 6 weeks afterwards by the total number of maternities and multiplying by 1000. The stillbirth rate is calculated by dividing the number of babies born dead after 24 weeks by the total number of births (live + stillborn) and multiplying by 1000. Finally, the neonatal death rate is calculated by dividing the number of babies dying between 0-28 days by the total number of live births and multiplying by 1000.

      Understanding these different metrics is important for healthcare providers and policymakers to identify areas for improvement in perinatal care and reduce the number of preventable deaths.

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  • Question 54 - A 33-year-old is visiting the tuberculosis clinic for a medication check-up. He is...

    Correct

    • A 33-year-old is visiting the tuberculosis clinic for a medication check-up. He is currently undergoing treatment for active tuberculosis and is following directly observed therapy, which he is adhering to.

      During the appointment, the patient reports experiencing a recent onset of painful and burning sensations in his hands and feet. Upon examination, the patient's radiological results show improvement, and he has gained weight. However, he has a sensory deficit that follows a glove and stocking distribution.

      Which medication is most likely causing this patient's adverse reaction?

      Your Answer: Isoniazid

      Explanation:

      Isoniazid is the correct option as it can lead to peripheral neuropathy, which is evident in this patient’s distal ‘burning’ sensation and peripheral sensory deficit. Isoniazid is known to be a pyridoxine (vitamin B6) antagonist, which is why pyridoxine is co-prescribed to prevent this adverse effect.

      While Ethambutol can potentially cause peripheral neuropathy, it is much rarer and is more likely to cause optic neuropathy with associated visual disturbances, making it a less likely/incorrect option.

      Pyrazinamide is not known to cause peripheral neuropathy, making it an incorrect option. Its main documented adverse effects are diarrhoea, vomiting, hyperuricemia, and gout.

      Pyridoxine is co-prescribed with isoniazid to prevent peripheral neuropathy, making it an incorrect option.

      Tuberculosis is a bacterial infection that can be treated with a combination of drugs. Each drug has a specific mechanism of action and can also cause side-effects. Rifampicin works by inhibiting bacterial DNA dependent RNA polymerase, which prevents the transcription of DNA into mRNA. However, it is a potent liver enzyme inducer and can cause hepatitis, orange secretions, and flu-like symptoms.

      Isoniazid, on the other hand, inhibits mycolic acid synthesis. It can cause peripheral neuropathy, which can be prevented with pyridoxine (Vitamin B6). It can also cause hepatitis and agranulocytosis, but it is a liver enzyme inhibitor.

      Pyrazinamide is converted by pyrazinamidase into pyrazinoic acid, which inhibits fatty acid synthase (FAS) I. However, it can cause hyperuricaemia, leading to gout, as well as arthralgia and myalgia. It can also cause hepatitis.

      Finally, Ethambutol inhibits the enzyme arabinosyl transferase, which polymerizes arabinose into arabinan. However, it can cause optic neuritis, so it is important to check visual acuity before and during treatment. The dose also needs adjusting in patients with renal impairment.

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  • Question 55 - A 16-year-old girl has been brought to the emergency department by her guardians...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old girl has been brought to the emergency department by her guardians after confessing to taking three boxes of ibuprofen an hour ago.

      What is the appropriate course of action for her treatment?

      Your Answer: Activated charcoal and N-acetylcysteine

      Explanation:

      If a paracetamol overdose occurs, activated charcoal should be administered within 1 hour for it to be effective. However, if the time has passed, N-acetylcysteine would be the preferred treatment. It is important to note that activated charcoal should not be used as the sole treatment as it does not address the paracetamol that has already been absorbed.

      Paracetamol overdose management guidelines were reviewed by the Commission on Human Medicines in 2012. The new guidelines removed the ‘high-risk’ treatment line on the nomogram, meaning that all patients are treated the same regardless of risk factors for hepatotoxicity. However, the National Poisons Information Service/TOXBASE should be consulted for situations outside of the normal parameters. Activated charcoal may be given to patients who present within 1 hour to reduce drug absorption. Acetylcysteine should be given if the plasma paracetamol concentration is on or above a single treatment line, there is a staggered overdose, or patients present 8-24 hours after ingestion of an acute overdose of more than 150 mg/kg of paracetamol. Acetylcysteine should also be continued if the paracetamol concentration or ALT remains elevated while seeking specialist advice. The infusion time for acetylcysteine has been increased to 1 hour to reduce adverse effects. Anaphylactoid reactions to IV acetylcysteine are generally treated by stopping the infusion and restarting at a slower rate. The King’s College Hospital criteria for liver transplantation in paracetamol liver failure include arterial pH < 7.3, prothrombin time > 100 seconds, creatinine > 300 µmol/l, and grade III or IV encephalopathy.

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  • Question 56 - A consultant is speaking with the parents of a young adult who has...

    Correct

    • A consultant is speaking with the parents of a young adult who has recently been diagnosed with Huntington's disease. He informs them that not all individuals who inherit the gene mutation for Huntington's disease will develop the condition.

      What is the consultant explaining to the parents?

      Your Answer: Incomplete penetrance

      Explanation:

      Penetrance refers to the percentage of individuals in a population who carry a disease-causing allele and exhibit the related disease phenotype. Incomplete penetrance occurs when not all individuals who carry the disease-causing allele express the disease phenotype. Huntington’s disease is an example of a condition with incomplete penetrance. Epigenetic regulation, expressivity, and mosaicism are not related to penetrance.

      Understanding Penetrance and Expressivity in Genetic Disorders

      Penetrance and expressivity are two important concepts in genetics that help explain why individuals with the same gene mutation may exhibit different degrees of observable characteristics. Penetrance refers to the proportion of individuals in a population who carry a disease-causing allele and express the related disease phenotype. In contrast, expressivity describes the extent to which a genotype shows its phenotypic expression in an individual.

      There are several factors that can influence penetrance and expressivity, including modifier genes, environmental factors, and allelic variation. For example, some genetic disorders, such as retinoblastoma and Huntington’s disease, exhibit incomplete penetrance, meaning that not all individuals with the disease-causing allele will develop the condition. On the other hand, achondroplasia shows complete penetrance, meaning that all individuals with the disease-causing allele will develop the condition.

      Expressivity, on the other hand, describes the severity of the phenotype. Some genetic disorders, such as neurofibromatosis, exhibit a high level of expressivity, meaning that the phenotype is more severe in affected individuals. Understanding penetrance and expressivity is important in genetic counseling and can help predict the likelihood and severity of a genetic disorder in individuals and their families.

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  • Question 57 - A new screening test for breast cancer is in development. The following table...

    Correct

    • A new screening test for breast cancer is in development. The following table shows the results of a recent trial.

      Breast cancer present Breast cancer absent
      Test positive 120 30
      Test negative 10 840

      What is the negative predictive value of the screening test to 1 decimal place?

      Your Answer: 96.0%

      Explanation:

      The negative predictive value refers to the probability that the patient does not possess the condition in case the diagnostic test yields a negative result.

      Precision refers to the consistency of a test in producing the same results when repeated multiple times. It is an important aspect of test reliability and can impact the accuracy of the results. In order to assess precision, multiple tests are performed on the same sample and the results are compared. A test with high precision will produce similar results each time it is performed, while a test with low precision will produce inconsistent results. It is important to consider precision when interpreting test results and making clinical decisions.

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  • Question 58 - A 26-year-old man arrives at the emergency department stating that his severe depression...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old man arrives at the emergency department stating that his severe depression has worsened due to a recent breakup. He admits to taking multiple packs of paracetamol in the past 24 hours but denies taking any other medications. As per national guidelines, you initiate the appropriate therapy to prevent liver damage.

      What is the mechanism behind this treatment?

      Your Answer: Activate CYP450 to hasten paracetamol metabolism

      Correct Answer: Replenish glutathione stores within the liver

      Explanation:

      Paracetamol overdose occurs when the body’s glutathione stores are depleted, leading to an increase in the production of N-acetyl-p-benzoquinone imine (NAPQI), a highly toxic molecule. In therapeutic doses, the liver produces small amounts of NAPQI, which is quickly metabolized into safer compounds by reacting with glutathione. However, in cases of overdose, the liver’s supply of glutathione is exhausted, resulting in the accumulation of NAPQI and subsequent liver damage. To counteract this, N-acetyl cysteine (NAC) is used as a precursor to glutathione, which helps convert NAPQI into less toxic metabolites. Chelation medications like penicillamine can remove heavy metals from the blood, but there are no drugs that can speed up the excretion of paracetamol. Methionine, an amino acid important in angiogenesis, is not relevant to the management of paracetamol overdose. While many drugs activate CYP450, NAC is not one of them, and upregulating this pathway could actually worsen the outcomes of an overdose since it produces the toxic NAPQI by-product.

      Paracetamol Overdose and Metabolic Pathways

      Paracetamol overdose can lead to saturation of the liver’s conjugation system, which normally conjugates paracetamol with glucuronic acid/sulphate. This saturation results in the oxidation of paracetamol by P450 mixed function oxidases, producing a toxic metabolite known as N-acetyl-B-benzoquinone imine. Glutathione usually acts as a defence mechanism by conjugating with the toxin, forming the non-toxic mercapturic acid. However, if glutathione stores run out, the toxin forms covalent bonds with cell proteins, denaturing them and leading to cell death. This process occurs not only in hepatocytes but also in the renal tubules.

      To manage paracetamol overdose, N-acetyl cysteine is used as it is a precursor of glutathione and can increase hepatic glutathione production. It is important to note that there is a lower threshold for treating patients who take P450 inducing medications, such as phenytoin or rifampicin, due to the increased risk of paracetamol overdose. Proper management of paracetamol overdose is crucial to prevent liver and renal damage, and N-acetyl cysteine plays a vital role in this process.

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  • Question 59 - You have been asked to prepare a presentation for the geriatric journal club...

    Incorrect

    • You have been asked to prepare a presentation for the geriatric journal club on a novel drug in the treatment of osteoporosis.

      You find a relevant recent systematic review and meta-analysis which combines data from multiple randomized controlled trials investigating the effectiveness of the novel drug on bone mineral density in elderly patients with osteoporosis.

      A figure in the meta-analysis shows each study as a dot on a plot where the x-axis represents the effect size for each study and the y-axis is the standard error of the effect size for each study.

      What is the name of the figure?

      Your Answer: Box plot

      Correct Answer: Funnel plot

      Explanation:

      A forest plot is a graphical representation of the results of multiple studies on a particular topic. It displays the effect size and confidence intervals for each study, with a diamond at the bottom indicating the average effect size. On the other hand, a Kaplan-Meier curve is a visual representation of a survival function, showing the probability of an event occurring at a given time. The y-axis typically represents the probability of survival, while the x-axis represents time.

      Understanding Funnel Plots in Meta-Analyses

      Funnel plots are graphical representations used to identify publication bias in meta-analyses. These plots typically display treatment effects on the horizontal axis and study size on the vertical axis. The shape of the funnel plot can provide insight into the presence of publication bias. A symmetrical, inverted funnel shape suggests that publication bias is unlikely. On the other hand, an asymmetrical funnel shape indicates a relationship between treatment effect and study size, which may be due to publication bias or systematic differences between smaller and larger studies (known as small study effects).

      In summary, funnel plots are a useful tool for identifying potential publication bias in meta-analyses. By examining the shape of the plot, researchers can gain insight into the relationship between treatment effect and study size, and determine whether further investigation is necessary to ensure the validity of their findings.

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  • Question 60 - A nursing student is drawing blood from a patient in their 60s who...

    Incorrect

    • A nursing student is drawing blood from a patient in their 60s who has a confirmed case of hepatitis C. While wearing gloves, the student accidentally pricks their finger with the needle. The injury site is bleeding when the glove is removed and the nursing student follows the hospital's protocol for needle-stick injuries.

      What is the likelihood of the nursing student testing positive for hepatitis C after the incident?

      Your Answer: 98%

      Correct Answer: 2%

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis C is a virus that is expected to become a significant public health issue in the UK in the coming years, with around 200,000 people believed to be chronically infected. Those at risk include intravenous drug users and individuals who received a blood transfusion before 1991, such as haemophiliacs. The virus is an RNA flavivirus with an incubation period of 6-9 weeks. Transmission can occur through needle stick injuries, vertical transmission from mother to child, and sexual intercourse, although the risk is relatively low. There is currently no vaccine for hepatitis C.

      After exposure to the virus, only around 30% of patients will develop symptoms such as a transient rise in serum aminotransferases, jaundice, fatigue, and arthralgia. HCV RNA is the preferred diagnostic test for acute infection, although patients who spontaneously clear the virus will continue to have anti-HCV antibodies. Chronic hepatitis C is defined as the persistence of HCV RNA in the blood for 6 months and can lead to complications such as rheumatological problems, cirrhosis, hepatocellular cancer, and cryoglobulinaemia.

      The management of chronic hepatitis C depends on the viral genotype and aims to achieve sustained virological response (SVR), defined as undetectable serum HCV RNA six months after the end of therapy. Interferon-based treatments are no longer recommended, and a combination of protease inhibitors with or without ribavirin is currently used. However, these treatments can have side effects such as haemolytic anaemia, cough, flu-like symptoms, depression, fatigue, leukopenia, and thrombocytopenia. Women should not become pregnant within 6 months of stopping ribavirin as it is teratogenic.

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  • Question 61 - A 40-year-old primigravida presents at the clinic with an elevated risk of Down's...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old primigravida presents at the clinic with an elevated risk of Down's syndrome according to the triple screen blood test. After further testing, amniocentesis confirms a prenatal diagnosis of Down's syndrome.

      What genetic abnormalities are frequently associated with this condition?

      Your Answer: Nondisjunction

      Explanation:

      The most frequent cause of Down’s syndrome is nondisjunction, which occurs when chromosomes do not separate during cell division. This results in three copies of chromosome 21 in individuals with Down’s syndrome. Meiotic disjunction can lead to the transmission of this abnormality in gametes, resulting in trisomy 21.

      Another possible cause of Down’s syndrome is mosaicism, which involves the presence of multiple cell populations within the body. If mutations occur during the early stages of mitosis, the error can be passed down to subsequent generations with varying genotypes.

      Down’s Syndrome: Epidemiology and Genetics

      Down’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that is caused by the presence of an extra copy of chromosome 21. The risk of having a child with Down’s syndrome increases with maternal age, with a 1 in 1,500 chance at age 20 and a 1 in 50 or greater chance at age 45. This can be remembered by dividing the denominator by 3 for every extra 5 years of age starting at 1/1,000 at age 30.

      There are three main types of Down’s syndrome: nondisjunction, Robertsonian translocation, and mosaicism. Nondisjunction accounts for 94% of cases and occurs when the chromosomes fail to separate properly during cell division. Robertsonian translocation, which usually involves chromosome 14, accounts for 5% of cases and occurs when a piece of chromosome 21 attaches to another chromosome. Mosaicism, which accounts for 1% of cases, occurs when there are two genetically different populations of cells in the body.

      The risk of recurrence for Down’s syndrome varies depending on the type of genetic abnormality. If the trisomy 21 is a result of nondisjunction, the chance of having another child with Down’s syndrome is approximately 1 in 100 if the mother is less than 35 years old. If the trisomy 21 is a result of Robertsonian translocation, the risk is much higher, with a 10-15% chance if the mother is a carrier and a 2.5% chance if the father is a carrier.

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  • Question 62 - A 46-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of nosebleeds and bruising that started...

    Correct

    • A 46-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of nosebleeds and bruising that started yesterday. He denies any recent injuries. The patient has a medical history of Crohn's disease and had a recent flare-up that required treatment. The doctor suspects that the patient may have a deficiency in vitamin K, which clotting factor is most likely to be affected?

      Your Answer: Factor VII

      Explanation:

      In cases of malabsorption, such as Crohn’s disease, a deficiency in fat soluble vitamins (A,D,E and K) may occur. This can lead to symptoms such as easy bruising and epistaxis. Among the vitamin K dependent factors (II, VII, IX and X), factor VII is the first to decrease in the event of a deficiency. With a half-life of only 6 hours, a deficiency in factor VII can occur quickly and is likely responsible for the patient’s symptoms.

      Understanding Vitamin K

      Vitamin K is a type of fat-soluble vitamin that plays a crucial role in the carboxylation of clotting factors such as II, VII, IX, and X. This vitamin acts as a cofactor in the process, which is essential for blood clotting. In clinical settings, vitamin K is used to reverse the effects of warfarinisation, a process that inhibits blood clotting. However, it may take up to four hours for the INR to change after administering vitamin K.

      Vitamin K deficiency can occur in conditions that affect fat absorption since it is a fat-soluble vitamin. Additionally, prolonged use of broad-spectrum antibiotics can eliminate gut flora, leading to a deficiency in vitamin K. It is essential to maintain adequate levels of vitamin K to ensure proper blood clotting and prevent bleeding disorders.

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  • Question 63 - A 42-year-old man with a known history of poorly-controlled HIV presented to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man with a known history of poorly-controlled HIV presented to the emergency department with confusion and persistent headache. His partner brought him in and reported one episode of non-bloody, non-bilious vomiting. On examination, he had nuchal rigidity and a positive Kernig's sign. His vital signs were notable for a blood pressure of 130/103 mmHg, pulse of 100 beats per minute, and temperature of 39ºC. Cerebrospinal fluid India ink staining revealed encapsulated, spherical cells that grew colonies on Sabouraud agar. What is the most likely causative organism?

      Your Answer: Neisseria meningitidis

      Correct Answer: Cryptococcus meningitidis

      Explanation:

      Sabouraud agar is a culture medium that is specifically used for the cultivation of fungi.

      Based on the patient’s medical history of poorly-controlled HIV and the presence of fever, headache, and nuchal rigidity, it is highly likely that the patient is suffering from cryptococcus meningitis. This is further supported by the appearance of encapsulated, spherical cells on India ink staining and the growth of colonies on Sabouraud agar. The causative agent responsible for this condition is Cryptococcus meningitidis, which is a type of fungi.

      It is important to note that Neisseria meningitidis can also cause meningitis and present with similar symptoms of nuchal rigidity and positive Kernig’s sign. However, this is a Gram-negative bacterium that is unlikely to grow on Sabouraud agar. Instead, it can be cultured on Thayer-Martin agar.

      Mycoplasma pneumoniae is another possible cause of infection, but it typically presents with respiratory symptoms of atypical pneumonia, such as a dry cough, and has a milder course of illness. Additionally, it is unlikely to involve the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) and would grow on Eaton agar rather than Sabouraud agar.

      Mycobacterium tuberculosis is a Gram-positive bacillus that is known to cause meningitis. However, it will not grow on Sabouraud agar and requires Lowenstein-Jensen agar for cultivation.

      Culture Requirements for Common Organisms

      Different microorganisms require specific culture conditions to grow and thrive. The table above lists some of the culture requirements for the more common organisms. For instance, Neisseria gonorrhoeae requires Thayer-Martin agar, which is a variant of chocolate agar, and the addition of Vancomycin, Polymyxin, and Nystatin to inhibit Gram-positive, Gram-negative, and fungal growth, respectively. Haemophilus influenzae, on the other hand, grows on chocolate agar with factors V (NAD+) and X (hematin).

      To remember the culture requirements for some of these organisms, some mnemonics can be used. For example, Nice Homes have chocolate can help recall that Neisseria and Haemophilus grow on chocolate agar. If I Tell-U the Corny joke Right, you’ll Laugh can be used to remember that Corynebacterium diphtheriae grows on tellurite agar or Loeffler’s media. Lactating pink monkeys can help recall that lactose fermenting bacteria, such as Escherichia coli, grow on MacConkey agar resulting in pink colonies. Finally, BORDETella pertussis can be used to remember that Bordetella pertussis grows on Bordet-Gengou (potato) agar.

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  • Question 64 - Which primary category of receptors does dobutamine attach to? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which primary category of receptors does dobutamine attach to?

      Your Answer: α-1

      Correct Answer: ß-1

      Explanation:

      Dobutamine is a drug that mimics the effects of the sympathetic nervous system and activates both alpha and beta receptors. However, it has a greater affinity for beta1 receptors found in the heart.

      Inotropes are drugs that primarily increase cardiac output and are different from vasoconstrictor drugs that are used for peripheral vasodilation. Catecholamine type agents are commonly used in inotropes and work by increasing cAMP levels through adenylate cyclase stimulation. This leads to intracellular calcium ion mobilisation and an increase in the force of contraction. Adrenaline works as a beta adrenergic receptor agonist at lower doses and an alpha receptor agonist at higher doses. Dopamine causes dopamine receptor-mediated renal and mesenteric vascular dilatation and beta 1 receptor agonism at higher doses, resulting in increased cardiac output. Dobutamine is a predominantly beta 1 receptor agonist with weak beta 2 and alpha receptor agonist properties. Noradrenaline is a catecholamine type agent and predominantly acts as an alpha receptor agonist and serves as a peripheral vasoconstrictor. Milrinone is a phosphodiesterase inhibitor that acts specifically on the cardiac phosphodiesterase and increases cardiac output.

      The cardiovascular receptor action of inotropes varies depending on the drug. Adrenaline and noradrenaline act on alpha and beta receptors, with adrenaline acting as a beta adrenergic receptor agonist at lower doses and an alpha receptor agonist at higher doses. Dobutamine acts predominantly on beta 1 receptors with weak beta 2 and alpha receptor agonist properties. Dopamine acts on dopamine receptors, causing renal and spleen vasodilation and beta 1 receptor agonism at higher doses. The minor receptor effects are shown in brackets. The effects of receptor binding include vasoconstriction for alpha-1 and alpha-2 receptors, increased cardiac contractility and heart rate for beta-1 receptors, and vasodilation for beta-2 receptors. D-1 receptors cause renal and spleen vasodilation, while D-2 receptors inhibit the release of noradrenaline. Overall, inotropes are a class of drugs that increase cardiac output through various receptor actions.

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  • Question 65 - A study can only make confident claims about cause and effect if it...

    Incorrect

    • A study can only make confident claims about cause and effect if it has what?

      Your Answer: Good external validity

      Correct Answer: Good internal validity

      Explanation:

      Claims about cause and effect require good internal validity.

      Validity refers to how accurately something measures what it claims to measure. There are two main types of validity: internal and external. Internal validity refers to the confidence we have in the cause and effect relationship in a study. This means we are confident that the independent variable caused the observed change in the dependent variable, rather than other factors. There are several threats to internal validity, such as poor control of extraneous variables and loss of participants over time. External validity refers to the degree to which the conclusions of a study can be applied to other people, places, and times. Threats to external validity include the representativeness of the sample and the artificiality of the research setting. There are also other types of validity, such as face validity and content validity, which refer to the general impression and full content of a test, respectively. Criterion validity compares tests, while construct validity measures the extent to which a test measures the construct it aims to.

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  • Question 66 - A 42-year-old male visits the clinic with complaints of fatigue, dark urine, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old male visits the clinic with complaints of fatigue, dark urine, and pale stools after returning from a trip to Turkey. During the examination, the patient is found to be jaundiced. What is the expected incubation period of the virus that could be causing these symptoms?

      Your Answer: 2-4 months

      Correct Answer: 2-4 weeks

      Explanation:

      The typical incubation period for hepatitis A is between 2 and 4 weeks. Symptoms may include fatigue, fever, nausea, loss of appetite, jaundice, dark urine, diarrhea, and abdominal discomfort. A period of 4-6 weeks would be longer than expected, while 3-5 days would be shorter. A period of 2-4 months is more commonly associated with chronic hepatitis.

      Understanding Hepatitis A: Symptoms, Transmission, and Prevention

      Hepatitis A is a viral infection that affects the liver. It is usually a mild illness that resolves on its own, with serious complications being rare. The virus is transmitted through the faecal-oral route, often in institutions. The incubation period is typically 2-4 weeks, and symptoms include a flu-like prodrome, abdominal pain (usually in the right upper quadrant), tender hepatomegaly, jaundice, and deranged liver function tests.

      While complications are rare, there is no increased risk of hepatocellular cancer. An effective vaccine is available, and it is recommended for people travelling to or residing in areas of high or intermediate prevalence, those with chronic liver disease, patients with haemophilia, men who have sex with men, injecting drug users, and individuals at occupational risk (such as laboratory workers, staff of large residential institutions, sewage workers, and people who work with primates).

      It is important to note that the vaccine requires a booster dose 6-12 months after the initial dose. By understanding the symptoms, transmission, and prevention of hepatitis A, individuals can take steps to protect themselves and others from this viral infection.

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  • Question 67 - A 35-year-old farmer is brought to the emergency department by his wife after...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old farmer is brought to the emergency department by his wife after she found him unresponsive in the fields. He had gone out in the morning to spray the fields with pesticides. Upon arrival, his temperature is 36 ºC, blood pressure is 120/60 mmHg, pulse is 53 bpm, and respirations are 45/min. Diffuse wheezes are heard upon chest auscultation. The patient has pinpoint pupils and is salivating excessively.

      What is the most likely underlying pathophysiology of this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Inhibition of muscarinic receptors

      Correct Answer: Inhibition of acetylcholinesterase

      Explanation:

      Organophosphate poisoning is caused by the inhibition of acetylcholinesterase, resulting in an increase in nicotinic and muscarinic cholinergic neurotransmission. Symptoms such as bradycardia, tachypnea, miosis, and excessive salivation are indicative of this type of poisoning. Farmers who use pesticides are at a higher risk of organophosphate poisoning.

      In contrast, inhibition of adrenergic receptors, such as with α-blockers or β-blockers, would result in decreased sympathetic activity, but without the presence of salivation or diffuse wheezes. Conversely, inhibition of muscarinic receptors, as with atropine, would present with dryness of mouth and eyes, mydriasis, and high body temperature. Stimulation of adrenergic receptors, such as with dobutamine, would result in elevated sympathetic activity, typically with tachycardia rather than bradycardia.

      Understanding Organophosphate Insecticide Poisoning

      Organophosphate insecticide poisoning is a condition that occurs when an individual is exposed to insecticides containing organophosphates. This type of poisoning inhibits acetylcholinesterase, leading to an increase in nicotinic and muscarinic cholinergic neurotransmission. In warfare, sarin gas is a highly toxic synthetic organophosphorus compound that has similar effects.

      The symptoms of organophosphate poisoning can be predicted by the accumulation of acetylcholine, which can be remembered using the mnemonic SLUD. These symptoms include salivation, lacrimation, urination, defecation/diarrhea, cardiovascular issues such as hypotension and bradycardia, small pupils, and muscle fasciculation.

      The management of organophosphate poisoning involves the use of atropine to counteract the effects of acetylcholine accumulation. The role of pralidoxime in treating this condition is still unclear, as meta-analyses to date have failed to show any clear benefit.

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  • Question 68 - A patient with a long-standing diagnosis of hypothyroidism attends the clinic. You are...

    Incorrect

    • A patient with a long-standing diagnosis of hypothyroidism attends the clinic. You are going to start her on medication in order to help with her symptoms.

      Which of the following is correct regarding the mechanism of action of the first-line drug you will start?

      Your Answer: Unbound in the plasma, targets cell surface receptors

      Correct Answer: Binds plasma proteins, targets nuclear receptors

      Explanation:

      Levothyroxine exerts its effects by binding to nuclear receptors.

      Levothyroxine, which is the oral form of thyroxine or T4 hormone, is commonly used to treat hypothyroidism. The dosage of this medication can be adjusted based on regular checks of thyroid function every three to six months. Thyroxine is a hormone that is lipophilic, meaning it can bind to plasma proteins like albumin and thyroid-binding globulin to travel in the bloodstream. Additionally, its lipophilic properties allow it to cross the phospholipid membranes of cells and nuclei, where it can bind to nuclear receptors and alter gene expression.

      Cyclophilin-1 is an example of a cytoplasmic receptor that is targeted by ciclosporin. In contrast, thyroid hormone receptors are located within the nucleus.

      Lipophobic or hydrophilic drugs bind to cell surface receptors to initiate a signaling cascade. However, thyroid hormones are lipophilic and can cross the phospholipid membranes to reach the nucleus.

      Because of their lipophilic nature, thyroid hormones require carrier proteins to travel in the bloodstream. Only the unbound, free form of the hormone is active.

      Pharmacodynamics refers to the effects of drugs on the body, as opposed to pharmacokinetics which is concerned with how the body processes drugs. Drugs typically interact with a target, which can be a protein located either inside or outside of cells. There are four main types of cellular targets: ion channels, G-protein coupled receptors, tyrosine kinase receptors, and nuclear receptors. The type of target determines the mechanism of action of the drug. For example, drugs that work on ion channels cause the channel to open or close, while drugs that activate tyrosine kinase receptors lead to cell growth and differentiation.

      It is also important to consider whether a drug has a positive or negative impact on the receptor. Agonists activate the receptor, while antagonists block the receptor preventing activation. Antagonists can be competitive or non-competitive, depending on whether they bind at the same site as the agonist or at a different site. The binding affinity of a drug refers to how readily it binds to a specific receptor, while efficacy measures how well an agonist produces a response once it has bound to the receptor. Potency is related to the concentration at which a drug is effective, while the therapeutic index is the ratio of the dose of a drug resulting in an undesired effect compared to that at which it produces the desired effect.

      The relationship between the dose of a drug and the response it produces is rarely linear. Many drugs saturate the available receptors, meaning that further increased doses will not cause any more response. Some drugs do not have a significant impact below a certain dose and are considered sub-therapeutic. Dose-response graphs can be used to illustrate the relationship between dose and response, allowing for easy comparison of different drugs. However, it is important to remember that dose-response varies between individuals.

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  • Question 69 - A 56-year-old patient has presented with symptoms of polydipsia, polyuria, and fatigue. His...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old patient has presented with symptoms of polydipsia, polyuria, and fatigue. His doctor ordered a fasting glucose test, which revealed an abnormal result consistent with a diagnosis of type II diabetes mellitus. The patient has a history of hypertension and is a chronic alcoholic.

      The doctor advises the patient to make lifestyle modifications and prescribes a 3-month course of metformin. However, the doctor warns the patient that there is an increased risk of complications when alcohol interacts with metformin. What specific complication is the doctor referring to?

      Your Answer: Lactic acidosis

      Explanation:

      Metformin can rarely cause lactic acidosis, which is a significant side-effect. The risk of lactic acidosis is further increased when alcohol is consumed with metformin.

      When alcohol is taken with drugs such as metronidazole, disulfiram-like reactions may occur. These reactions are characterized by symptoms such as flushing, nausea, vomiting, and sweating after alcohol consumption.

      Alcohol has a mild sedative effect, and when combined with sedative drugs like central nervous system depressants or sedating antihistamines, it can cause severe drowsiness.

      Metformin is a medication commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus, as well as polycystic ovarian syndrome and non-alcoholic fatty liver disease. Unlike other medications, such as sulphonylureas, metformin does not cause hypoglycaemia or weight gain, making it a first-line treatment option, especially for overweight patients. Its mechanism of action involves activating the AMP-activated protein kinase, increasing insulin sensitivity, decreasing hepatic gluconeogenesis, and potentially reducing gastrointestinal absorption of carbohydrates. However, metformin can cause gastrointestinal upsets, reduced vitamin B12 absorption, and in rare cases, lactic acidosis, particularly in patients with severe liver disease or renal failure. It is contraindicated in patients with chronic kidney disease, recent myocardial infarction, sepsis, acute kidney injury, severe dehydration, and those undergoing iodine-containing x-ray contrast media procedures. When starting metformin, it should be titrated up slowly to reduce the incidence of gastrointestinal side-effects, and modified-release metformin can be considered for patients who experience unacceptable side-effects.

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  • Question 70 - A 60-year-old patient with a severe headache, nausea and vomiting presents to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old patient with a severe headache, nausea and vomiting presents to the emergency department. Upon examination, neck stiffness and a positive Kernig's sign are noted. A lumbar puncture is performed and the CSF is found to be purulent. Urgent treatment with ceftriaxone is initiated. What is the antibiotic class to which ceftriaxone belongs?

      Your Answer: Aminoglycosides

      Correct Answer: Beta-lactams

      Explanation:

      Beta-lactams are a class of antibiotics that include cephalosporins, penicillins, and carbapenems. Ceftriaxone, which is a cephalosporin, is a highly effective antibiotic that is typically used to treat serious infections such as meningitis, as seen in this case.

      Understanding Cephalosporins and their Mechanism of Resistance

      Cephalosporins are a type of antibiotic that belongs to the β-lactam family. They are known for their bactericidal properties and are less susceptible to penicillinases than penicillins. These antibiotics work by disrupting the synthesis of bacterial cell walls, specifically by inhibiting peptidoglycan cross-linking.

      One of the mechanisms of resistance to cephalosporins is changes to penicillin-binding-proteins (PBPs). PBPs are types of transpeptidases that are produced by bacteria to cross-link peptidoglycan chains and form rigid cell walls. When these proteins are altered, they become less susceptible to the effects of cephalosporins, making the antibiotic less effective in treating bacterial infections. Understanding the mechanism of resistance to cephalosporins is crucial in developing new antibiotics and improving treatment options for bacterial infections.

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  • Question 71 - A 78-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with eczema and diarrhoea. His...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with eczema and diarrhoea. His daughter, who accompanies him, reports that he has been experiencing memory loss. Upon conducting blood tests, it is revealed that he is suffering from niacin deficiency. Upon further examination, it is discovered that he has a carcinoid tumour in his appendix. How has this tumour led to his deficiency?

      Your Answer: Increased excretion of niacin

      Correct Answer: Increased metabolism of tryptophan causing decreased biosynthesis of niacin

      Explanation:

      The metabolism of tryptophan is increased in carcinoid syndrome, leading to a deficiency of niacin. However, the presence of a tumour in the appendix is unlikely to affect the absorption of niacin. Niacin is produced in the liver from tryptophan, and a decrease in tryptophan availability would result in a reduction of niacin biosynthesis. There is no indication of excessive niacin metabolism or excretion.

      The Importance of Vitamin B3 (Niacin) in the Body

      Vitamin B3, also known as niacin, is a type of water-soluble vitamin that belongs to the B complex group. It is a crucial nutrient that serves as a precursor to NAD+ and NADP+, which are essential for various metabolic processes in the body. Niacin is synthesized in the body from tryptophan, an amino acid found in protein-rich foods. However, certain conditions such as Hartnup’s disease and carcinoid syndrome can reduce the absorption of tryptophan or increase its metabolism to serotonin, leading to niacin deficiency.

      Niacin deficiency can result in a condition called pellagra, which is characterized by a triad of symptoms: dermatitis, diarrhea, and dementia. Pellagra is a serious condition that can lead to severe health complications if left untreated. Therefore, it is important to ensure that you are getting enough niacin in your diet or through supplements to maintain optimal health and prevent the risk of niacin deficiency.

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  • Question 72 - An Afro-Caribbean woman in her 40s visits her doctor with complaints of exhaustion,...

    Incorrect

    • An Afro-Caribbean woman in her 40s visits her doctor with complaints of exhaustion, bone ache, and hair loss. The doctor conducts some blood tests and discovers that the patient is suffering from hypocalcaemia. To treat the condition, the doctor prescribes vitamin D supplements. After a few weeks, the patient reports feeling much better, and her calcium levels have returned to normal.

      What is the primary process responsible for the increase in the patient's serum calcium levels?

      Your Answer: Increased calcium sequestration into bone

      Correct Answer: An increase in calcium absorption from the gut

      Explanation:

      The primary way in which vitamin D increases serum calcium levels is by enhancing its absorption through the small intestine. This is achieved through the promotion of transcellular calcium absorption via the apical calcium receptor and TRPV6, as well as the intracellular movement of calcium using calbindin and the basolateral transfer of calcium out of cells via PMCA1b. While vitamin D also promotes calcium reabsorption in the kidneys and bone demineralisation, these mechanisms are not as significant as its effect on gut absorption. Vitamin D deficiency can lead to hypocalcaemia initially, but may eventually result in normal serum calcium levels or even hypercalcaemia due to secondary hyperparathyroidism. Patients of Afro-Caribbean and South Asian descent are at a higher risk of vitamin D deficiency, and clinicians should therefore consider this possibility more readily in these populations.

      Understanding Vitamin D

      Vitamin D is a type of vitamin that is soluble in fat and is essential for the metabolism of calcium and phosphate in the body. It is converted into calcifediol in the liver and then into calcitriol, which is the active form of vitamin D, in the kidneys. Vitamin D can be obtained from two sources: vitamin D2, which is found in plants, and vitamin D3, which is present in dairy products and can also be synthesized by the skin when exposed to sunlight.

      The primary function of vitamin D is to increase the levels of calcium and phosphate in the blood. It achieves this by increasing the absorption of calcium in the gut and the reabsorption of calcium in the kidneys. Vitamin D also stimulates osteoclastic activity, which is essential for bone growth and remodeling. Additionally, it increases the reabsorption of phosphate in the kidneys.

      A deficiency in vitamin D can lead to two conditions: rickets in children and osteomalacia in adults. Rickets is characterized by soft and weak bones, while osteomalacia is a condition where the bones become weak and brittle. Therefore, it is crucial to ensure that the body receives an adequate amount of vitamin D to maintain healthy bones and overall health.

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  • Question 73 - A 2-year-old toddler presents to the emergency department with a low-grade fever and...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-year-old toddler presents to the emergency department with a low-grade fever and difficulty breathing. The mother reports that the toddler has had some nasal discharge for the past two days and started coughing a few hours ago. The toddler has no significant medical history, being born full term at 39 weeks via normal vaginal delivery. The toddler is developmentally normal and received all vaccinations according to the immunisation schedule. During examination, the toddler appears lethargic and has a barking cough. Auscultation reveals an inspiratory stridor bilaterally, with no crepitations or wheezes heard. Air entry is equal bilaterally. The toddler's temperature is 38.3ºC, oxygen saturation is 93% based on pulse oximetry, blood pressure is 98/55 mmHg (normal range: SBP 72-140 mmHg; DBP 37-56 mmHg), and the heart rate is 120 beats per minute (normal range: 100-190 beats per minute).

      What is the most likely association with this toddler's condition?

      Your Answer: Sail sign

      Correct Answer: Steeple sign

      Explanation:

      The infant is displaying symptoms of croup, including a barking cough and inspiratory stridor, which is typical for their age. While chest radiographs are not typically used to diagnose croup, if a neck radiograph is taken, the steeple sign may be present, indicating subglottic narrowing due to inflammation of the larynx and trachea.

      The thumb sign, which is indicative of an oedematous epiglottis, is not present in this case, and the infant does not display symptoms of epiglottitis, such as drooling or dysphagia. Additionally, the infant is not in the typical age range for epiglottitis.

      The sail sign, which suggests left lower lobe collapse, is not present as the infant has equal bilateral air entry. The coffee bean sign, which is suggestive of sigmoid volvulus, is also not relevant as it typically presents with abdominal pain and distension, rather than respiratory symptoms, and is uncommon in children.

      Croup is a respiratory infection that affects young children, typically those between 6 months and 3 years old. It is most common in the autumn and is caused by parainfluenza viruses. The main symptom is stridor, which is caused by swelling and secretions in the larynx. Other symptoms include a barking cough, fever, and cold-like symptoms. The severity of croup can be graded based on the child’s symptoms, with mild cases having occasional coughing and no audible stridor at rest, and severe cases having frequent coughing, prominent stridor, and significant distress or lethargy. Children with moderate or severe croup should be admitted to the hospital, especially if they are under 6 months old or have other airway abnormalities. Diagnosis is usually made based on clinical symptoms, but a chest x-ray can show subglottic narrowing. Treatment typically involves a single dose of oral dexamethasone or prednisolone, and emergency treatment may include high-flow oxygen or nebulized adrenaline.

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  • Question 74 - A 29-year-old female comes to her doctor with symptoms of urinary frequency, urgency,...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old female comes to her doctor with symptoms of urinary frequency, urgency, and dysuria. She reports her urine as having a musky and cloudy appearance. She is currently 8 weeks pregnant and has no other health concerns. Upon testing her urine with a dipstick, high levels of leukocytes and nitrites are detected.

      What treatment should be avoided in this patient?

      Your Answer: Trimethoprim

      Explanation:

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.

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  • Question 75 - You are giving a lecture to a group of high school students on...

    Correct

    • You are giving a lecture to a group of high school students on the pathophysiology of pemphigus vulgaris.

      Halfway through your talk, you briefly mention the importance of cadherins, transmembrane proteins that are crucial for cell-cell adhesion, and explain that they rely on certain ions to function properly.

      What specific ions are you referring to?

      Your Answer: Calcium ions

      Explanation:

      Cadherins require calcium ions for their proper functioning.

      Understanding Cadherins: Proteins that Play a Vital Role in Cell Adhesion

      Cadherins are a type of transmembrane proteins that are crucial for cell adhesion. They are also known as ‘calcium-dependent adhesion’ proteins. These proteins are responsible for maintaining the integrity of tissues and organs by binding cells together. Cadherins are found in various tissues and organs, including epithelial tissues and neurons.

      One of the most well-known cadherins is E-cadherin, which is found in epithelial tissues. Dysfunction of E-cadherin is often associated with tumour metastasis. Another type of cadherin is N-cadherin, which is found in neurons. It plays a crucial role in the development and maintenance of the nervous system. Desmoglein is another type of cadherin that is found in desmosomes, which are structures that hold cells together in tissues such as the skin. Pemphigus vulgaris is a disease that is caused by the formation of antibodies against desmoglein 3.

      In summary, cadherins are essential proteins that play a vital role in cell adhesion. They are found in various tissues and organs and are responsible for maintaining the integrity of tissues and organs by binding cells together. Dysfunction of cadherins can lead to various diseases, including cancer and autoimmune disorders.

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  • Question 76 - A 16-year-old girl presents for a routine dental check-up. She has a history...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl presents for a routine dental check-up. She has a history of selective eating and avoids fruits and vegetables. Her diet mainly consists of bread, pasta, and chips. She reports feeling fatigued and has noticed that her gums bleed easily when brushing her teeth. On examination, the dentist observes oral mucosal petechiae and several loose teeth.

      Which vitamin deficiency is commonly associated with this clinical presentation?

      Your Answer: B1

      Correct Answer: C

      Explanation:

      The role of vitamin C as a cofactor for enzymes in collagen synthesis means that a diet lacking in fruits and vegetables, which are primary sources of this vitamin, can result in multiple vitamin deficiencies. Vitamin C deficiency can lead to symptoms related to faulty collagen, such as easy bleeding and loose teeth with swollen gums, which are evident in this patient. While vitamin A is also important for various bodily functions, including visual pigments and epithelial differentiation, the patient’s symptoms do not suggest a deficiency in this vitamin. On the other hand, vitamin B1 or thiamine is crucial for the breakdown of sugar and amino acids, and its deficiency can affect highly aerobic tissues like the heart and brain, often seen in chronic alcohol users. This patient’s symptoms do not match the classical presentation of Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome associated with vitamin B1 deficiency.

      Vitamin C: A Water Soluble Vitamin with Essential Functions

      Vitamin C, also known as ascorbic acid, is a water soluble vitamin that plays a crucial role in various bodily functions. One of its primary functions is acting as an antioxidant, which helps protect cells from damage caused by free radicals. Additionally, vitamin C is essential for collagen synthesis, as it acts as a cofactor for enzymes required for the hydroxylation of proline and lysine in the synthesis of collagen. This vitamin also facilitates iron absorption and serves as a cofactor for norepinephrine synthesis.

      However, a deficiency in vitamin C, also known as scurvy, can lead to defective collagen synthesis, resulting in capillary fragility and poor wound healing. Some of the features of vitamin C deficiency include gingivitis, loose teeth, poor wound healing, bleeding from gums, haematuria, epistaxis, and general malaise. Therefore, it is important to ensure adequate intake of vitamin C through a balanced diet or supplements to maintain optimal health.

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  • Question 77 - A 70-year-old man with advanced metastatic prostate cancer is being visited at home...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man with advanced metastatic prostate cancer is being visited at home by his GP due to his weakened state and cachexia. He is now bedridden and has ceased eating solid foods. The GP informs him that his body is breaking down protein at a faster rate than it can synthesize due to the increased metabolic demands of his tumors and reduced food intake.

      Which molecule plays a crucial role in the biological process described above?

      Your Answer: Cyclic GMP (cGMP)

      Correct Answer: Ubiquitin

      Explanation:

      Functions of Cell Organelles

      The functions of major cell organelles can be summarized in a table. The rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) is responsible for the translation and folding of new proteins, as well as the manufacture of lysosomal enzymes. It is also the site of N-linked glycosylation. Cells such as pancreatic cells, goblet cells, and plasma cells have extensive RER. On the other hand, the smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) is involved in steroid and lipid synthesis. Cells of the adrenal cortex, hepatocytes, and reproductive organs have extensive SER.

      The Golgi apparatus modifies, sorts, and packages molecules that are destined for cell secretion. The addition of mannose-6-phosphate to proteins designates transport to lysosome. The mitochondrion is responsible for aerobic respiration and contains mitochondrial genome as circular DNA. The nucleus is involved in DNA maintenance, RNA transcription, and RNA splicing, which removes the non-coding sequences of genes (introns) from pre-mRNA and joins the protein-coding sequences (exons).

      The lysosome is responsible for the breakdown of large molecules such as proteins and polysaccharides. The nucleolus produces ribosomes, while the ribosome translates RNA into proteins. The peroxisome is involved in the catabolism of very long chain fatty acids and amino acids, resulting in the formation of hydrogen peroxide. Lastly, the proteasome, along with the lysosome pathway, is involved in the degradation of protein molecules that have been tagged with ubiquitin.

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  • Question 78 - You have been requested to assess the hands of a 65-year-old woman. Upon...

    Incorrect

    • You have been requested to assess the hands of a 65-year-old woman. Upon examination, you observe a swan neck deformity and ulnar deviation of the fingers with a 'z' deformity of her thumb, indicating the presence of rheumatoid arthritis. What type of hypersensitivity reaction does this condition exemplify?

      Your Answer: Type 4

      Correct Answer: Type 3

      Explanation:

      The Gell and Coombs classification of hypersensitivity reactions categorizes reactions into four types. Rheumatoid arthritis is an instance of a type 3 hypersensitivity reaction, which is mediated by immune complexes.

      Allergic rhinitis, on the other hand, is an example of a type 1 (immediate) reaction that is IgE mediated. It is a hypersensitivity to a previously harmless substance.

      Type 2 reactions are mediated by IgG and IgM, which bind to a cell, causing its death. Goodpasture syndrome is an example of a type 2 hypersensitivity reaction.

      Type 4 (delayed) reactions are mediated by T lymphocytes and cause contact dermatitis.

      Classification of Hypersensitivity Reactions

      Hypersensitivity reactions are classified into four types according to the Gell and Coombs classification. Type I, also known as anaphylactic hypersensitivity, occurs when an antigen reacts with IgE bound to mast cells. This type of reaction is commonly seen in atopic conditions such as asthma, eczema, and hay fever. Type II hypersensitivity occurs when cell-bound IgG or IgM binds to an antigen on the cell surface, leading to autoimmune conditions such as autoimmune hemolytic anemia, ITP, and Goodpasture’s syndrome. Type III hypersensitivity occurs when free antigen and antibody (IgG, IgA) combine to form immune complexes, leading to conditions such as serum sickness, systemic lupus erythematosus, and post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis. Type IV hypersensitivity is T-cell mediated and includes conditions such as tuberculosis, graft versus host disease, and allergic contact dermatitis.

      In recent times, a fifth category has been added to the classification of hypersensitivity reactions. Type V hypersensitivity occurs when antibodies recognize and bind to cell surface receptors, either stimulating them or blocking ligand binding. This type of reaction is seen in conditions such as Graves’ disease and myasthenia gravis. Understanding the classification of hypersensitivity reactions is important in the diagnosis and management of these conditions.

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  • Question 79 - An Emergency Department receives a 75-year-old male patient with an intracranial haemorrhage. The...

    Incorrect

    • An Emergency Department receives a 75-year-old male patient with an intracranial haemorrhage. The patient has been undergoing heparin therapy for a deep vein thrombosis. What medication is used as a heparin antagonist to treat major bleeds associated with heparin therapy?

      Your Answer: Apixaban

      Correct Answer: Protamine

      Explanation:

      Protamine sulphate can reverse an overdose of heparin.

      Heparin is a type of anticoagulant medication that comes in two main forms: unfractionated heparin and low molecular weight heparin (LMWH). Both types work by activating antithrombin III, but unfractionated heparin forms a complex that inhibits thrombin, factors Xa, IXa, XIa, and XIIa, while LMWH only increases the action of antithrombin III on factor Xa. Adverse effects of heparins include bleeding, thrombocytopenia, osteoporosis, and hyperkalemia. LMWH has a lower risk of causing heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) and osteoporosis compared to unfractionated heparin. HIT is an immune-mediated condition where antibodies form against complexes of platelet factor 4 (PF4) and heparin, leading to platelet activation and a prothrombotic state. Treatment for HIT includes direct thrombin inhibitors or danaparoid. Heparin overdose can be partially reversed by protamine sulfate.

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  • Question 80 - At a rheumatology appointment, a 47-year-old woman with uncontrolled rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed...

    Incorrect

    • At a rheumatology appointment, a 47-year-old woman with uncontrolled rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed anakinra, an IL-1 receptor antagonist. What type of cell produces IL-1?

      Your Answer: Eosinophils

      Correct Answer: Macrophages

      Explanation:

      Macrophages are the primary source of IL-1, an acute inflammatory cytokine. This cytokine is mainly produced by innate immune cells, with macrophages being responsible for its production. While other innate immune cells such as basophils, neutrophils, and eosinophils also produce proinflammatory cytokines, they do so in lower quantities than macrophages. T cells, on the other hand, do not produce IL-1.

      Overview of Cytokines and Their Functions

      Cytokines are signaling molecules that play a crucial role in the immune system. Interleukins are a type of cytokine that are produced by various immune cells and have specific functions. IL-1, produced by macrophages, induces acute inflammation and fever. IL-2, produced by Th1 cells, stimulates the growth and differentiation of T cell responses. IL-3, produced by activated T helper cells, stimulates the differentiation and proliferation of myeloid progenitor cells. IL-4, produced by Th2 cells, stimulates the proliferation and differentiation of B cells. IL-5, also produced by Th2 cells, stimulates the production of eosinophils. IL-6, produced by macrophages and Th2 cells, stimulates the differentiation of B cells and induces fever. IL-8, produced by macrophages, promotes neutrophil chemotaxis. IL-10, produced by Th2 cells, inhibits Th1 cytokine production and is known as an anti-inflammatory cytokine. IL-12, produced by dendritic cells, macrophages, and B cells, activates NK cells and stimulates the differentiation of naive T cells into Th1 cells.

      In addition to interleukins, there are other cytokines with specific functions. Tumor necrosis factor-alpha, produced by macrophages, induces fever and promotes neutrophil chemotaxis. Interferon-gamma, produced by Th1 cells, activates macrophages. Understanding the functions of cytokines is important in developing treatments for various immune-related diseases.

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  • Question 81 - A 28-year-old man from India comes to the clinic with a cough that...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man from India comes to the clinic with a cough that has lasted for 12 weeks, accompanied by low-grade fever, night sweats, and blood-streaked sputum. Upon examination, a chest X-ray reveals multiple nodules of tuberculosis seeds scattered throughout the lung parenchyma. The diagnosis is miliary tuberculosis (TB), which is a widespread infection. What is the mechanism by which miliary TB spreads throughout the lung parenchyma?

      Your Answer: Through the pulmonary arterial system

      Correct Answer: Through the pulmonary venous system

      Explanation:

      Miliary TB is caused by the dissemination of the bacteria through the pulmonary venous system. While it is possible for the bacteria to spread through the arterial system, this would result in more severe symptoms and signs of sepsis. Platelets are not involved in the spread of TB, and the initial infection enters through the respiratory system but does not spread through the airways. The current theory is that the bacteria enter the pulmonary venous system through damaged alveolar squamous epithelium and use macrophages to access the lymphatic system, rather than natural killer cells.

      Types of Tuberculosis

      Tuberculosis (TB) is a disease caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis that primarily affects the lungs. There are two types of TB: primary and secondary. Primary TB occurs when a non-immune host is exposed to the bacteria and develops a small lung lesion called a Ghon focus. This focus is made up of macrophages containing tubercles and is accompanied by hilar lymph nodes, forming a Ghon complex. In immunocompetent individuals, the lesion usually heals through fibrosis. However, those who are immunocompromised may develop disseminated disease, also known as miliary tuberculosis.

      Secondary TB, also called post-primary TB, occurs when the initial infection becomes reactivated in an immunocompromised host. Reactivation typically occurs in the apex of the lungs and can spread locally or to other parts of the body. Factors that can cause immunocompromised include immunosuppressive drugs, HIV, and malnutrition. While the lungs are still the most common site for secondary TB, it can also affect other areas such as the central nervous system, vertebral bodies, cervical lymph nodes, renal system, and gastrointestinal tract. Tuberculous meningitis is the most serious complication of extra-pulmonary TB. Understanding the differences between primary and secondary TB is crucial in diagnosing and treating the disease.

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  • Question 82 - A 6-year-old boy is presented to the doctor with recurrent episodes of allergic...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old boy is presented to the doctor with recurrent episodes of allergic rhinitis and eczema. What cytokine is responsible for atopy and triggers class switching of immunoglobulins to IgE, among other things?

      Your Answer: IL-5

      Correct Answer: IL-4

      Explanation:

      Interleukin-4 plays a crucial role in the development of allergic inflammation by facilitating the following processes: switching to IgE isotype, differentiation of T helper type 2 lymphocytes, expression of vascular cell adhesion molecule-1 (VCAM-1), promotion of eosinophil transmigration across endothelium, and stimulation of mucous secretion.

      Immunoglobulins, also known as antibodies, are proteins produced by the immune system to help fight off infections and diseases. There are five types of immunoglobulins found in the body, each with their own unique characteristics.

      IgG is the most abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and plays a crucial role in enhancing phagocytosis of bacteria and viruses. It also fixes complement and can be passed to the fetal circulation.

      IgA is the most commonly produced immunoglobulin in the body and is found in the secretions of digestive, respiratory, and urogenital tracts and systems. It provides localized protection on mucous membranes and is transported across the interior of the cell via transcytosis.

      IgM is the first immunoglobulin to be secreted in response to an infection and fixes complement, but does not pass to the fetal circulation. It is also responsible for producing anti-A, B blood antibodies.

      IgD’s role in the immune system is largely unknown, but it is involved in the activation of B cells.

      IgE is the least abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and is responsible for mediating type 1 hypersensitivity reactions. It provides immunity to parasites such as helminths and binds to Fc receptors found on the surface of mast cells and basophils.

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  • Question 83 - A 28-year-old man visits a doctor after noticing the recent appearance of some...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man visits a doctor after noticing the recent appearance of some skin lesions on his shin. He works in social healthcare and has no significant medical history except for an appendectomy seven years ago. He denies smoking, using illicit drugs, and drinks alcohol occasionally. He had a couple of needle-stick injuries while caring for known HIV-positive individuals but never received any HIV prophylaxis or underwent testing for HIV. Upon agreeing to an HIV test, he was found to be HIV-positive. What is the most strongly associated condition with being HIV-positive?

      Your Answer: Angiosarcoma

      Correct Answer: Kaposi sarcoma

      Explanation:

      The patient has a skin lesion associated with HIV, most likely Kaposi sarcoma caused by HHV8. Other vascular neoplasms include angiosarcoma, pyogenic granuloma, glomus tumor, and strawberry hemangioma.

      Kaposi’s sarcoma is a type of cancer that is caused by the human herpes virus 8 (HHV-8). It is characterized by the appearance of purple papules or plaques on the skin or mucosa, such as in the gastrointestinal and respiratory tract. These skin lesions may eventually ulcerate, while respiratory involvement can lead to massive haemoptysis and pleural effusion. Treatment options for Kaposi’s sarcoma include radiotherapy and resection. It is commonly seen in patients with HIV.

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  • Question 84 - A 32-year-old woman is referred for amniocentesis after her 12-week ultrasound scan revealed...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman is referred for amniocentesis after her 12-week ultrasound scan revealed increased fetal nuchal translucency. Her combined test results indicate a diagnosis of Down's syndrome. She expresses her desire to terminate the pregnancy but is worried about the possibility of the condition being genetic and recurring in future pregnancies.

      What is the probable cytogenetic basis for this disorder?

      Your Answer: Maternal non-disjunction

      Explanation:

      Down’s syndrome is primarily caused by non-disjunction during maternal meiosis, which accounts for the majority of cases. Paternal errors contribute to only a small fraction of cases of Down’s syndrome. In rare cases, Robertsonian translocation can also be attributed to paternal DNA.

      Down’s Syndrome: Epidemiology and Genetics

      Down’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that is caused by the presence of an extra copy of chromosome 21. The risk of having a child with Down’s syndrome increases with maternal age, with a 1 in 1,500 chance at age 20 and a 1 in 50 or greater chance at age 45. This can be remembered by dividing the denominator by 3 for every extra 5 years of age starting at 1/1,000 at age 30.

      There are three main types of Down’s syndrome: nondisjunction, Robertsonian translocation, and mosaicism. Nondisjunction accounts for 94% of cases and occurs when the chromosomes fail to separate properly during cell division. Robertsonian translocation, which usually involves chromosome 14, accounts for 5% of cases and occurs when a piece of chromosome 21 attaches to another chromosome. Mosaicism, which accounts for 1% of cases, occurs when there are two genetically different populations of cells in the body.

      The risk of recurrence for Down’s syndrome varies depending on the type of genetic abnormality. If the trisomy 21 is a result of nondisjunction, the chance of having another child with Down’s syndrome is approximately 1 in 100 if the mother is less than 35 years old. If the trisomy 21 is a result of Robertsonian translocation, the risk is much higher, with a 10-15% chance if the mother is a carrier and a 2.5% chance if the father is a carrier.

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  • Question 85 - Which one of the following statements is true regarding interferon? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following statements is true regarding interferon?

      Your Answer: Interferon-alpha and interferon-beta bind to the same type of receptor

      Explanation:

      Understanding Interferons

      Interferons are a type of cytokine that the body produces in response to viral infections and neoplasia. They are categorized based on the type of receptor they bind to and their cellular origin. IFN-alpha and IFN-beta bind to type 1 receptors, while IFN-gamma binds only to type 2 receptors.

      IFN-alpha is produced by leucocytes and has antiviral properties. It is commonly used to treat hepatitis B and C, Kaposi’s sarcoma, metastatic renal cell cancer, and hairy cell leukemia. However, it can cause flu-like symptoms and depression as side effects.

      IFN-beta is produced by fibroblasts and also has antiviral properties. It is particularly useful in reducing the frequency of exacerbations in patients with relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis.

      IFN-gamma is mainly produced by natural killer cells and T helper cells. It has weaker antiviral properties but plays a significant role in immunomodulation, particularly in macrophage activation. It may be beneficial in treating chronic granulomatous disease and osteopetrosis.

      Understanding the different types of interferons and their functions can help in the development of targeted treatments for various diseases.

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  • Question 86 - A 29-year-old man comes to the doctor complaining of a fever that has...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old man comes to the doctor complaining of a fever that has been gradually increasing over the past three days. He has also experienced multiple episodes of diarrhea. He recently returned from a one-month trip to rural villages in India, where he frequently played with stray dogs and helped with farming activities. During his trip, he spent a few days hiking in the forest and swimming in a lake. He mainly drank water from wells. His vital signs are as follows: blood pressure 102/80 mmHg, pulse 50 beats per minute, and temperature 39.6ºC. Blood cultures reveal Salmonella typhi, and he was treated with ciprofloxacin. From which activity could he have contracted the organism?

      Your Answer: Drinking water from wells

      Explanation:

      Typhoid is most commonly transmitted through contaminated food and water, as it is spread via the faecal-oral route. In rural villages where sanitation may be lacking, drinking water from wells can be a major source of transmission.

      Burkholderia pseudomallei is typically associated with soil exposure, which is more commonly found in farming environments than Salmonella typhi.

      Rabies, a virus transmitted through the saliva of infected animals, is a risk for those who come into contact with stray dogs.

      Depending on the species of mosquito, bites can transmit diseases such as malaria or dengue fever, which are both viral haemorrhagic fevers.

      Enteric fever, also known as typhoid or paratyphoid, is caused by Salmonella typhi and Salmonella paratyphi respectively. These bacteria are not normally found in the gut and are transmitted through contaminated food and water or the faecal-oral route. The symptoms of enteric fever include headache, fever, and joint pain, as well as abdominal pain and distension. Constipation is more common in typhoid than diarrhoea, and rose spots may appear on the trunk in 40% of patients with paratyphoid. Possible complications of enteric fever include osteomyelitis, gastrointestinal bleeding or perforation, meningitis, cholecystitis, and chronic carriage. Chronic carriage is more likely in adult females and occurs in 1% of cases.

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  • Question 87 - A new diagnostic test for disease Y is being investigated. Data is gathered...

    Incorrect

    • A new diagnostic test for disease Y is being investigated. Data is gathered from 200 patients aged 50 and above, with 100 of them having the disease and 100 not having the disease. Among the 100 patients with the disease, only 30 have a positive test result. Out of the 100 patients without the disease, 80 have a negative test result.

      What is the sensitivity of this new test?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 66%

      Explanation:

      Precision refers to the consistency of a test in producing the same results when repeated multiple times. It is an important aspect of test reliability and can impact the accuracy of the results. In order to assess precision, multiple tests are performed on the same sample and the results are compared. A test with high precision will produce similar results each time it is performed, while a test with low precision will produce inconsistent results. It is important to consider precision when interpreting test results and making clinical decisions.

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  • Question 88 - A study is conducted to compare two chemotherapy treatments for patients with pancreatic...

    Incorrect

    • A study is conducted to compare two chemotherapy treatments for patients with pancreatic cancer. The study aims to determine the survival time as the endpoint. Which statistical measure is most suitable for comparing survival time?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hazard ratio

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hazard Ratio

      The hazard ratio (HR) is a statistical measure used to determine the likelihood of an event occurring over time. It is similar to the relative risk, but it takes into account the fact that the risk of an event may change over time. The HR is commonly used in survival analysis, where researchers are interested in understanding how long it takes for an event to occur, such as death or disease progression.

      Unlike the relative risk, which assumes a constant risk over time, the hazard ratio takes into account the changing risk of an event occurring. For example, the risk of death may be higher in the first year after a cancer diagnosis, but then decrease over time as the patient receives treatment. The HR allows researchers to compare the risk of an event occurring between two groups, such as a treatment group and a control group, while accounting for the changing risk over time.

      Overall, the hazard ratio is a useful tool for understanding the likelihood of an event occurring over time, particularly in survival analysis. By taking into account the changing risk of an event, researchers can make more accurate comparisons between groups and draw more meaningful conclusions from their data.

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  • Question 89 - An 80-year-old man arrived at the emergency department with symptoms of fever, sore...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man arrived at the emergency department with symptoms of fever, sore throat, non-productive cough, and myalgia that have been present for a day. He mentioned that some of his colleagues at work have also been experiencing similar symptoms. The patient has a medical history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and no available immunisation records.

      During the physical examination, there were no crepitations detected on auscultation, and his pharynx did not appear to be inflamed. His temperature was recorded at 37.8ºC, and the rest of his vital signs were normal.

      The nasopharyngeal swab test confirmed the presence of influenzae A, and no other organisms were detected. The patient was immediately prescribed an antiviral.

      What is the mechanism of action of the antiviral medication given to the patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibition of neuraminidase

      Explanation:

      The preferred treatment for influenzae A is oseltamivir, which works by inhibiting neuraminidase. It is unlikely that the patient was given isoniazid, which is used to treat tuberculosis. Clarithromycin, an antibiotic that inhibits protein translation, is typically used for atypical pneumonia, but since the patient did not present with dyspnea and no bacteria were detected on the nasopharyngeal swab, it is not indicated. Acyclovir, an antiviral that inhibits viral DNA polymerase, is used for herpes infections and is not indicated for influenzae A. Beta-lactams, a class of antibiotics that prevent cell wall synthesis, are not indicated in this patient as no bacteria were detected on the nasopharyngeal swab.

      Antiviral agents are drugs used to treat viral infections. They work by targeting specific mechanisms of the virus, such as inhibiting viral DNA polymerase or neuraminidase. Some common antiviral agents include acyclovir, ganciclovir, ribavirin, amantadine, oseltamivir, foscarnet, interferon-α, and cidofovir. Each drug has its own mechanism of action and indications for use, but they all aim to reduce the severity and duration of viral infections.

      In addition to these antiviral agents, there are also specific drugs used to treat HIV, a retrovirus. Nucleoside analogue reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTI), protease inhibitors (PI), and non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTI) are all used to target different aspects of the HIV life cycle. NRTIs work by inhibiting the reverse transcriptase enzyme, which is needed for the virus to replicate. PIs inhibit a protease enzyme that is necessary for the virus to mature and become infectious. NNRTIs bind to and inhibit the reverse transcriptase enzyme, preventing the virus from replicating. These drugs are often used in combination to achieve the best possible outcomes for HIV patients.

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  • Question 90 - A 28-year-old has recently been diagnosed with a sarcoma. Due to their young...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old has recently been diagnosed with a sarcoma. Due to their young age, further genetic investigations were ordered which showed a p53 mutation. Their family history was assessed and they have been diagnosed with Li-Fraumeni syndrome.

      What other condition is this person most susceptible to developing?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Leukaemia

      Explanation:

      Li-Fraumeni syndrome, which is caused by a mutation in the p53 gene, is a rare autosomal dominant disorder that increases the risk of early-onset breast cancer, sarcoma, and leukaemia. While basal cell carcinomas are not linked to p53 mutations and are instead associated with UV exposure, bladder cancer is more strongly associated with smoking than with p53 mutations. Additionally, while the risk of lymphoma increases with age, individuals with a p53 mutation are more likely to develop leukaemia.

      Understanding p53 and its Role in Cancer

      p53 is a gene that helps suppress tumours and is located on chromosome 17p. It is frequently mutated in breast, colon, and lung cancer. The gene is believed to be essential in regulating the cell cycle, preventing cells from entering the S phase until DNA has been checked and repaired. Additionally, p53 may play a crucial role in apoptosis, the process of programmed cell death.

      Li-Fraumeni syndrome is a rare genetic disorder that is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern. It is characterised by the early onset of various cancers, including sarcoma, breast cancer, and leukaemia. The condition is caused by mutations in the p53 gene, which can lead to a loss of its tumour-suppressing function. Understanding the role of p53 in cancer can help researchers develop new treatments and therapies for those affected by the disease.

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  • Question 91 - A 36-year-old man has contracted an RNA flavivirus due to his intravenous drug...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old man has contracted an RNA flavivirus due to his intravenous drug use. He has been given a medication 'X' that is a guanine purine nucleoside analogue. This medication obstructs an enzyme in the de novo purine synthesis pathway, which impedes the capping of viral mRNA and its production.

      What is the probable identity of drug 'X'?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ribavarin

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is Ribavirin, which is an antiviral drug that acts as a guanosine analogue. It inhibits the de-novo purine synthesis pathway by blocking inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase (IMP), leading to reduced viral replication and preventing the capping of viral mRNA. Ribavirin is commonly used to treat hepatitis C and respiratory syncytial virus (RSV).

      Nevirapine is an incorrect answer as it is a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NNRTI) used to treat HIV, and it does not affect the de-novo purine synthesis pathway.

      Oseltamivir is also an incorrect answer as it is not a guanosine analogue. It is a neuraminidase inhibitor used to treat influenzae A and B.

      Remdesivir is another incorrect answer as it is an adenosine analogue that inhibits viral-RNA-dependent-RNA polymerase, leading to reduced viral RNA production. It was recently approved for use in treating specific cases of COVID-19.

      Antiviral agents are drugs used to treat viral infections. They work by targeting specific mechanisms of the virus, such as inhibiting viral DNA polymerase or neuraminidase. Some common antiviral agents include acyclovir, ganciclovir, ribavirin, amantadine, oseltamivir, foscarnet, interferon-α, and cidofovir. Each drug has its own mechanism of action and indications for use, but they all aim to reduce the severity and duration of viral infections.

      In addition to these antiviral agents, there are also specific drugs used to treat HIV, a retrovirus. Nucleoside analogue reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTI), protease inhibitors (PI), and non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTI) are all used to target different aspects of the HIV life cycle. NRTIs work by inhibiting the reverse transcriptase enzyme, which is needed for the virus to replicate. PIs inhibit a protease enzyme that is necessary for the virus to mature and become infectious. NNRTIs bind to and inhibit the reverse transcriptase enzyme, preventing the virus from replicating. These drugs are often used in combination to achieve the best possible outcomes for HIV patients.

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  • Question 92 - A 45-year-old patient is hospitalized for suspected typhoid fever and started on an...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old patient is hospitalized for suspected typhoid fever and started on an antibiotic. After a week, she experiences extreme fatigue and blood tests show anaemia, neutropenia, and thrombocytopenia. Which antibiotic is the most probable cause of these symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chloramphenicol

      Explanation:

      Aplastic anaemia is a severe side effect of chloramphenicol, which is often used to treat typhoid fever. Ciprofloxacin can increase the risk of tendon rupture and lower the seizure threshold. Clindamycin is known to cause C. difficile diarrhoea, while doxycycline can lead to discolouration of teeth and photosensitivity.

      Antibiotics that inhibit protein synthesis work by targeting specific components of the bacterial ribosome, which is responsible for translating genetic information into proteins. Aminoglycosides bind to the 30S subunit of the ribosome, causing errors in the reading of mRNA. Tetracyclines also bind to the 30S subunit, but block the binding of aminoacyl-tRNA. Chloramphenicol and clindamycin both bind to the 50S subunit, inhibiting different steps in the process of protein synthesis. Macrolides also bind to the 50S subunit, but specifically inhibit the movement of tRNA from the acceptor site to the peptidyl site.

      While these antibiotics can be effective in treating bacterial infections, they can also have adverse effects. Aminoglycosides are known to cause nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity, while tetracyclines can cause discolouration of teeth and photosensitivity. Chloramphenicol is associated with a rare but serious side effect called aplastic anaemia, and clindamycin is a common cause of C. difficile diarrhoea. Macrolides can cause nausea, especially erythromycin, and can also inhibit the activity of certain liver enzymes (P450) and prolong the QT interval. Despite these potential side effects, these antibiotics are still commonly used in clinical practice, particularly in patients who are allergic to penicillin.

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  • Question 93 - A juvenile with cystic fibrosis also experiences malabsorption. What are some potential conditions...

    Incorrect

    • A juvenile with cystic fibrosis also experiences malabsorption. What are some potential conditions and outcomes for this individual?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vitamin A deficiency and night blindness

      Explanation:

      Patients with cystic fibrosis experience a decrease in lipase secretion due to impaired pancreatic exocrine function, leading to inadequate absorption of fat-soluble vitamins such as A, D, E, and K. One of the symptoms of vitamin A deficiency is night blindness. However, this scenario would not cause vitamin B12 deficiency or excess vitamin A. Vitamin D deficiency can result in osteomalacia, while vitamin K deficiency can lead to coagulopathy.

      Vitamin A, also known as retinol, is a type of fat soluble vitamin that plays several important roles in the body. One of its key functions is being converted into retinal, which is a crucial visual pigment. Additionally, vitamin A is essential for proper epithelial cell differentiation and acts as an antioxidant to protect cells from damage.

      When the body lacks sufficient vitamin A, it can lead to a condition known as night blindness. This is because retinal is necessary for the eyes to adjust to low light conditions, and a deficiency can impair this process. Therefore, it is important to ensure adequate intake of vitamin A through a balanced diet or supplements to maintain optimal health.

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  • Question 94 - A 35-year-old man presents with a 3-day history of fever, headache, nausea, vomiting,...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents with a 3-day history of fever, headache, nausea, vomiting, and muscle tenderness in the calves. He recently returned from a trip to Southeast Asia where he participated in water sports and outdoor activities. On examination, he has a high fever of 39.5 °C and bilateral conjunctival suffusion, but no rash on the body. Blood and CSF culture reveal corkscrew shaped cells. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Leptospirosis

      Explanation:

      Leptospirosis is a bacterial infection that is primarily spread through contact with the urine of infected animals, particularly rodents and cattle. People can contract the disease by coming into contact with fresh water sources like rivers or lakes, making those who participate in water sports, have occupational exposure, or live in flood-prone areas at higher risk. Common symptoms of leptospirosis include conjunctival suffusion and muscle aches. The bacteria responsible for the infection, Leptospira, is helical or corkscrew-shaped and can be isolated from blood or CSF culture during the early stages of the disease.

      When diagnosing febrile travelers who have recently returned from endemic countries, it is important to consider a range of infections, including dengue, malaria, viral hepatitis, and typhoid fever. While these diseases share many symptoms, conjunctival suffusion is a telltale sign of leptospirosis. Additionally, those who participate in water sports activities are at a higher risk of exposure to infected animal urine. The presence of corkscrew-shaped cells in blood and CSF cultures further confirms the diagnosis of leptospirosis.

      Leptospirosis: A Tropical Disease with Early and Late Phases

      Leptospirosis is a disease caused by the bacterium Leptospira interrogans, which is commonly spread through contact with infected rat urine. While it is often associated with certain occupations such as sewage workers, farmers, and vets, it is more prevalent in tropical regions and should be considered in returning travelers. The disease has two phases: an early phase characterized by flu-like symptoms and fever, and a later immune phase that can lead to more severe symptoms such as acute kidney injury, hepatitis, and aseptic meningitis. Diagnosis can be made through serology, PCR, or culture, but treatment typically involves high-dose benzylpenicillin or doxycycline.

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  • Question 95 - A 28-year-old woman visits the sexual health clinic with complaints of altered vaginal...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman visits the sexual health clinic with complaints of altered vaginal discharge and a burning sensation while urinating. She is worried about contracting sexually transmitted infections due to a recent sexual encounter.

      During the examination, a high vaginal swab is taken, and stippled vaginal epithelial cells are observed under the microscope. Additionally, the whiff test yields a positive result.

      Which organism is the probable culprit behind her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gardnerella vaginalis

      Explanation:

      Bacterial vaginosis is caused by an overgrowth of Gardnerella vaginalis, which leads to a decrease in aerobic lactobacilli and an increase in vaginal pH. Although not a sexually transmitted infection, BV is commonly found in sexually active women. Clue cells, or stippled vaginal epithelial cells, are a characteristic finding in BV, and a positive whiff test (fishy odor after the addition of potassium hydroxide) is also indicative of the condition. Yeast infections are caused by Candida, while Chlamydia trachomatis causes chlamydia, and lactobacilli are naturally occurring in the vagina.

      Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is a condition where there is an overgrowth of anaerobic organisms, particularly Gardnerella vaginalis, in the vagina. This leads to a decrease in the amount of lactobacilli, which produce lactic acid, resulting in an increase in vaginal pH. BV is not a sexually transmitted infection, but it is commonly seen in sexually active women. Symptoms include a fishy-smelling vaginal discharge, although some women may not experience any symptoms at all. Diagnosis is made using Amsel’s criteria, which includes the presence of thin, white discharge, clue cells on microscopy, a vaginal pH greater than 4.5, and a positive whiff test. Treatment involves oral metronidazole for 5-7 days, with a cure rate of 70-80%. However, relapse rates are high, with over 50% of women experiencing a recurrence within 3 months. Topical metronidazole or clindamycin may be used as alternatives.

      Bacterial vaginosis during pregnancy can increase the risk of preterm labor, low birth weight, chorioamnionitis, and late miscarriage. It was previously recommended to avoid oral metronidazole in the first trimester and use topical clindamycin instead. However, recent guidelines suggest that oral metronidazole can be used throughout pregnancy. The British National Formulary (BNF) still advises against using high-dose metronidazole regimes. Clue cells, which are vaginal epithelial cells covered with bacteria, can be seen on microscopy in women with BV.

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  • Question 96 - A 24-year-old woman has recently come back from a camping trip in a...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old woman has recently come back from a camping trip in a US national park where she reports seeing numerous rabbits and raccoons, and even a rat. Upon returning, she visits her GP with complaints of painful lumps in her armpits. She also mentions feeling very unwell, having a headache, and experiencing a high temperature at home, which the GP measures at 39ºC. During questioning, she reveals getting several itchy bites while camping and experiencing muscle cramps and weakness, but no noticeable rash. What is the most probable causative agent?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Yersinia pestis

      Explanation:

      The patient has returned from her trip and is showing signs of bubonic plague, which is caused by Yersinia pestis. The history reveals that she encountered rodents and experienced itchy bites, which could potentially be flea bites, the vector for Yersinia pestis. The presence of painful lumps in the axillae, high temperature, weakness, and muscle cramps are typical symptoms of bubonic plague.

      Cat scratch disease is caused by Bartonella henselae and is transmitted by cats. It causes swelling of the lymph nodes associated with cat scratches, not insect bites.

      Malaria, caused by Plasmodium falciparum, is characterized by high fever and weakness, but the patient did not travel to a malaria-endemic area.

      Elephantiasis, caused by Wuchereria bancrofti, is a parasitic roundworm transmitted by mosquitoes. It can present with general symptoms like fever, headache, and myalgia, and eventually lead to lymphatic dysfunction, but the patient did not travel to an at-risk area.

      Understanding Bubonic Plague

      Bubonic plague is the most common type of plague that affects humans. It is transmitted by fleas that carry the bacteria from rodents to humans through their bites. The disease can also spread from one infected person to another through aerosolized particles if it develops into pneumonic plague in the lungs. Bubonic plague is still present in many countries, and Yersinia pestis is the bacteria responsible for causing the disease.

      Symptoms of bubonic plague usually appear 3-7 days after exposure and include flu-like symptoms such as high fever, headache, and weakness. The lymph nodes in the affected area become inflamed, tense, and painful.

      Fortunately, treatment with antibiotics such as streptomycin can significantly reduce mortality rates from 60% to 15%.

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  • Question 97 - Look at the following DNA sequence and identify the mutation that has occurred:

    DNA...

    Incorrect

    • Look at the following DNA sequence and identify the mutation that has occurred:

      DNA sequence Amino Acid Sequence
      Original AAA GCC AAA lys, ala, lys
      Mutation AAA ACC ATT lys, thr, lys,

      Has the mutation occurred due to a genetic error?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Missense

      Explanation:

      Missense mutations are point mutations that result in a change in the amino acid sequence, potentially rendering the protein non-functional. Deletions involve the loss of at least one base, while insertions involve the addition of at least one base. Inversions reverse a section of the genetic code. Missense mutations occur when a single base is changed, resulting in the production of a different amino acid than in the original sequence. Nonsense mutations code for a stop codon, halting the production of amino acids beyond that point.

      Types of DNA Mutations

      There are different types of DNA mutations that can occur in an organism’s genetic material. One type is called a silent mutation, which does not change the amino acid sequence of a protein. This type of mutation often occurs in the third position of a codon, where the change in the DNA base does not affect the final amino acid produced.

      Another type of mutation is called a nonsense mutation, which results in the formation of a stop codon. This means that the protein being produced is truncated and may not function properly.

      A missense mutation is a point mutation that changes the amino acid sequence of a protein. This can have significant effects on the protein’s function, as the altered amino acid may not be able to perform its intended role.

      Finally, a frameshift mutation occurs when a number of nucleotides are inserted or deleted from the DNA sequence. This can cause a shift in the reading frame of the DNA, resulting in a completely different amino acid sequence downstream. These mutations can have serious consequences for the organism, as the resulting protein may be non-functional or even harmful.

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  • Question 98 - A 32-year-old woman is expecting and goes for her 20-week anomaly scan. At...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman is expecting and goes for her 20-week anomaly scan. At the appointment, she is given the news that she is having a baby boy. What is the chromosomal makeup of her son?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 22 pairs of autosomes and 1 pair of sex chromsomes (XY)

      Explanation:

      There are 23 pairs of autosomes and one pair of sex chromosomes, which are XX in females.

      Embryology is the study of the development of an organism from the moment of fertilization to birth. During the first week of embryonic development, the fertilized egg implants itself into the uterine wall. By the second week, the bilaminar disk is formed, consisting of two layers of cells. The primitive streak appears in the third week, marking the beginning of gastrulation and the formation of the notochord.

      As the embryo enters its fourth week, limb buds begin to form, and the neural tube closes. The heart also begins to beat during this time. By week 10, the genitals are differentiated, and the embryo exhibits intermittent breathing movements. These early events in embryonic development are crucial for the formation of the body’s major organs and structures. Understanding the timeline of these events can provide insight into the complex process of human development.

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  • Question 99 - As the FY1 on a busy surgical ward, you are preparing to discharge...

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    • As the FY1 on a busy surgical ward, you are preparing to discharge an 85-year-old male who underwent a total hip replacement following a neck of femur fracture. He hands you an envelope expressing his gratitude for your care. Upon opening it, you discover a cheque for £400 made out to you. What is your course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thank the patient but refuse the money

      Explanation:

      The issue of accepting gifts from patients can be challenging, but the GMC has provided clear guidance on this matter in their document on financial and commercial arrangements and conflicts of interest. According to their guidelines on gifts, bequests, and donations, healthcare professionals should not encourage patients to give them money or gifts that could benefit them directly or indirectly. However, they may accept unsolicited gifts from patients or their relatives as long as it does not affect the way they provide care or influence patients to offer gifts.

      In this scenario, accepting the gift may not affect the way you treat the patient, but it is still advisable to decline it. While this may disappoint the patient, it is the safest course of action to avoid any potential conflicts of interest.

      As a doctor, it is important to adhere to the guidelines set forth by the GMC. One such guideline states that doctors should not accept any gifts, inducements, or hospitality from patients, colleagues, or others that could potentially influence or be perceived to influence their treatment, prescription, referral, or commissioning of services for patients. It is crucial to maintain a professional and ethical relationship with patients, and accepting gifts can compromise this relationship. Therefore, doctors should always be mindful of the GMC’s guidance and avoid accepting any gifts that could potentially affect their judgment or decision-making.

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  • Question 100 - A 63-year-old patient is undergoing treatment for Wernicke's encephalopathy caused by long-term alcohol...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old patient is undergoing treatment for Wernicke's encephalopathy caused by long-term alcohol abuse. The patient is currently being administered thiamine (vitamin B1) supplementation.

      What is the metabolic function of thiamine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is important for sugar catabolism

      Explanation:

      Thiamine plays a crucial role in the breakdown of sugars and amino acids, making it essential for proper brain function. Chronic alcoholism can lead to a deficiency in thiamine, resulting in the development of Wernicke’s encephalopathy. While other vitamins such as folate, vitamin C, vitamin B12, and vitamin E have important functions in the body, they are not directly related to the development of Wernicke’s encephalopathy or thiamine deficiency.

      The Importance of Vitamin B1 (Thiamine) in the Body

      Vitamin B1, also known as thiamine, is a water-soluble vitamin that belongs to the B complex group. It plays a crucial role in the body as one of its phosphate derivatives, thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP), acts as a coenzyme in various enzymatic reactions. These reactions include the catabolism of sugars and amino acids, such as pyruvate dehydrogenase complex, alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase complex, and branched-chain amino acid dehydrogenase complex.

      Thiamine deficiency can lead to clinical consequences, particularly in highly aerobic tissues like the brain and heart. The brain can develop Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome, which presents symptoms such as nystagmus, ophthalmoplegia, and ataxia. Meanwhile, the heart can develop wet beriberi, which causes dilated cardiomyopathy. Other conditions associated with thiamine deficiency include dry beriberi, which leads to peripheral neuropathy, and Korsakoff’s syndrome, which causes amnesia and confabulation.

      The primary causes of thiamine deficiency are alcohol excess and malnutrition. Alcoholics are routinely recommended to take thiamine supplements to prevent deficiency. Overall, thiamine is an essential vitamin that plays a vital role in the body’s metabolic processes.

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