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Question 1
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A 35-year-old woman is involved in a car accident. Her observations are taken one hour after arriving at the Emergency Department. Her pulse rate is 88 bpm, BP is 130/50 mmHg, respiratory rate 16 breaths/minute, and her urine output over the past hour has been 40 ml. She has some bruising evident on her arm and is slightly nervous. The patient weighs approximately 65 kg.
How would you classify her haemorrhage according to the ATLS haemorrhagic shock classification?Your Answer: Class I
Explanation:This patient’s physiological parameters are mostly within normal range, but there is an increased pulse pressure and slight anxiety, suggesting a class I haemorrhage. It is crucial to be able to identify the degree of blood loss based on vital signs and mental status changes. The Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) classification for haemorrhagic shock correlates the amount of blood loss with expected physiological responses in a healthy 70 kg individual. In a 70 kg male patient, the total circulating blood volume is approximately five litres, which accounts for about 7% of their total body weight.
The ATLS haemorrhagic shock classification is as follows:
CLASS I:
– Blood loss: Up to 750 mL
– Blood loss (% blood volume): Up to 15%
– Pulse rate: Less than 100 bpm
– Systolic BP: Normal
– Pulse pressure: Normal (or increased)
– Respiratory rate: 14-20 breaths per minute
– Urine output: Greater than 30 ml/hr
– CNS/mental status: Slightly anxiousCLASS II:
– Blood loss: 750-1500 mL
– Blood loss (% blood volume): 15-30%
– Pulse rate: 100-120 bpm
– Systolic BP: Normal
– Pulse pressure: Decreased
– Respiratory rate: 20-30 breaths per minute
– Urine output: 20-30 ml/hr
– CNS/mental status: Mildly anxiousCLASS III:
– Blood loss: 1500-2000 mL
– Blood loss (% blood volume): 30-40%
– Pulse rate: 120-140 bpm
– Systolic BP: Decreased
– Pulse pressure: Decreased
– Respiratory rate: 30-40 breaths per minute
– Urine output: 5-15 ml/hr
– CNS/mental status: Anxious, confusedCLASS IV:
– Blood loss: More than 2000 mL
– Blood loss (% blood volume): More than 40%
– Pulse rate: Greater than 140 bpm
– Systolic BP: Decreased
– Pulse pressure: Decreased
– Respiratory rate: More than 40 breaths per minute
– Urine output: Negligible
– CNS/mental status: Confused, lethargic -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 2
Correct
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In the aftermath of a suspected CBRN (chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear) incident, where sarin gas is believed to be the responsible agent, healthcare workers are faced with a significant number of casualties. What is the primary focus for healthcare workers when responding to the scene of a CBRN event?
Your Answer: The wearing of adequate personal protective equipment
Explanation:Healthcare workers responding to contaminated casualties must prioritize their own safety by wearing appropriate personal protective equipment. This is crucial because secondary contamination can occur. Additionally, if working in contaminated areas, healthcare workers should maximize ventilation and use breathing equipment. Ensuring the safety of healthcare workers is essential as they cannot effectively help the casualties without it.
The first step in managing contaminated casualties is early skin decontamination. It is important to move the casualties to a safe area and remove all contaminated clothing to minimize further exposure. The skin should then be thoroughly rinsed with water to physically remove the nerve agent. After rinsing, it should be washed with an alkaline solution of soap and water or a 0.5% hypochlorite solution to chemically neutralize the nerve agent. To prevent ongoing absorption through the eyes, contact lenses should be removed and the eyes irrigated.
Resuscitation should be initiated using an ABCDE approach, and casualties should be supported and transferred to the hospital as quickly as possible. Ventilation may be necessary in some cases. Nerve agent antidote autoinjectors can be utilized, and the use of these should be guided by local policy for prehospital personnel.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Major Incident Management & PHEM
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Question 3
Incorrect
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You are part of the team managing a pediatric trauma patient in the resuscitation room. You are assisting the attending physician who is performing rapid sequence induction. The attending physician asks you to apply cricoid pressure. What is the recommended amount of pressure that should be applied to the cricoid?
Your Answer: 5-10 Newtons
Correct Answer: 30-40 Newtons
Explanation:To prevent the aspiration of gastric contents, it is recommended to apply a force of 30-40 Newtons to the cricoid cartilage during cricoid pressure.
Further Reading:
Rapid sequence induction (RSI) is a method used to place an endotracheal tube (ETT) in the trachea while minimizing the risk of aspiration. It involves inducing loss of consciousness while applying cricoid pressure, followed by intubation without face mask ventilation. The steps of RSI can be remembered using the 7 P’s: preparation, pre-oxygenation, pre-treatment, paralysis and induction, protection and positioning, placement with proof, and post-intubation management.
Preparation involves preparing the patient, equipment, team, and anticipating any difficulties that may arise during the procedure. Pre-oxygenation is important to ensure the patient has an adequate oxygen reserve and prolongs the time before desaturation. This is typically done by breathing 100% oxygen for 3 minutes. Pre-treatment involves administering drugs to counter expected side effects of the procedure and anesthesia agents used.
Paralysis and induction involve administering a rapid-acting induction agent followed by a neuromuscular blocking agent. Commonly used induction agents include propofol, ketamine, thiopentone, and etomidate. The neuromuscular blocking agents can be depolarizing (such as suxamethonium) or non-depolarizing (such as rocuronium). Depolarizing agents bind to acetylcholine receptors and generate an action potential, while non-depolarizing agents act as competitive antagonists.
Protection and positioning involve applying cricoid pressure to prevent regurgitation of gastric contents and positioning the patient’s neck appropriately. Tube placement is confirmed by visualizing the tube passing between the vocal cords, auscultation of the chest and stomach, end-tidal CO2 measurement, and visualizing misting of the tube. Post-intubation management includes standard care such as monitoring ECG, SpO2, NIBP, capnography, and maintaining sedation and neuromuscular blockade.
Overall, RSI is a technique used to quickly and safely secure the airway in patients who may be at risk of aspiration. It involves a series of steps to ensure proper preparation, oxygenation, drug administration, and tube placement. Monitoring and post-intubation care are also important aspects of RSI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Anaesthetics
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Question 4
Correct
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You assess a patient who came in with chest discomfort and difficulty breathing. They have been diagnosed with a spontaneous pneumothorax and their initial attempt at pleural aspiration was unsuccessful. The pneumothorax is still significant in size, and the patient continues to experience breathlessness. You get ready to insert a Seldinger chest drain into the 'safe triangle'.
What is the lower boundary of the 'safe triangle'?Your Answer: 5th intercostal space
Explanation:The British Thoracic Society (BTS) advises that chest drains should be inserted within the safe triangle to minimize the risk of harm to underlying structures and prevent damage to muscle and breast tissue, which can result in unsightly scarring. The safe triangle is defined by the base of the axilla, the lateral border of the latissimus dorsi, the lateral border of the pectoralis major, and the 5th intercostal space.
There are several potential complications associated with the insertion of small-bore chest drains. These include puncture of the intercostal artery, accidental perforation of organs due to over-introduction of the dilator into the chest cavity, hospital-acquired pleural infection caused by a non-aseptic technique, inadequate stay suture that may lead to the chest tube falling out, and tube blockage, which may occur more frequently compared to larger bore Argyle drains.
For more information on this topic, please refer to the British Thoracic Society pleural disease guidelines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 5
Correct
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You are called to a VF cardiac arrest in the resus area of your Pediatric Emergency Department.
Epinephrine should be administered at which of the following points during a pediatric VF arrest?Your Answer: After the 3rd shock once chest compressions have been resumed
Explanation:Adrenaline is recommended to be administered after the third shock in a shockable cardiac arrest (Vf/pVT) once chest compressions have been resumed. The recommended dose is 1 mg, which can be administered as either 10 mL of a 1:10,000 solution or 1 mL of a 1:1000 solution.
Subsequently, adrenaline should be given every 3-5 minutes, alternating with chest compressions. It is important to administer adrenaline without interrupting chest compressions to ensure continuous circulation and maximize the chances of successful resuscitation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 6
Correct
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You are currently evaluating a patient who has presented with fatigue and decreased urine output. Upon reviewing his blood results, you discover that he is experiencing acute renal failure. Your plan is to refer him to the medical on-call team for admission. However, during the discussion of his test results, he becomes agitated and expresses a desire to leave the hospital against medical advice, as he feels neglected. It is important to note that he has the capacity to make decisions for himself. How should you effectively handle this situation?
Your Answer: Try and explain the reasons why he should stay and what his further management plan would be
Explanation:In this scenario, it is crucial to evaluate whether the patient possesses the ability to make decisions regarding his medical care. The question indicates that he has the capacity to do so, making him competent in making these decisions. Therefore, it would be prudent to inform him about the potential management options if he chooses to stay, as well as the potential consequences if he decides to self-discharge. Since he is competent and capable of weighing the risks, the next step would be to have him sign a self-discharge form.
It is important to note that taking his bloods without his consent could be considered battery, and the patient would have every right to file a serious complaint against you. Additionally, arranging an ultrasound scan may not provide any further valuable information at this moment.
Asking a nurse to keep an eye on the patient may not be practical, as the nurse could be extremely busy, and finding your consultant quickly may not be feasible. Furthermore, telling the patient that he must stay would not allow him the opportunity to make an informed decision on his own. It is important to emphasize that in this case, the patient is deemed to have the capacity to make decisions, and therefore, the medical team cannot act in his best interests without his consent.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Safeguarding & Psychosocial Emergencies
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Question 7
Correct
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You are managing a 68-year-old male patient who has been intubated due to the development of acute severe respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). While adjusting the ventilator settings, your consultant emphasizes the significance of employing lung protective ventilation to prevent ventilator-induced lung injury (VILI). What is a crucial element of lung protective ventilation?
Your Answer: Use low tidal volumes
Explanation:Lung protective ventilation involves several important elements, with low tidal volumes being a crucial component. Specifically, using tidal volumes of 5-8 ml/kg is recommended to minimize the risk of lung injury. Additionally, it is important to maintain inspiratory pressures, also known as plateau pressure, below 30 cm of water to further protect the lungs. Lastly, permissible hypercapnia, or allowing for higher levels of carbon dioxide in the blood, is another key aspect of lung protective ventilation.
Further Reading:
ARDS is a severe form of lung injury that occurs in patients with a predisposing risk factor. It is characterized by the onset of respiratory symptoms within 7 days of a known clinical insult, bilateral opacities on chest X-ray, and respiratory failure that cannot be fully explained by cardiac failure or fluid overload. Hypoxemia is also present, as indicated by a specific threshold of the PaO2/FiO2 ratio measured with a minimum requirement of positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) ≥5 cm H2O. The severity of ARDS is classified based on the PaO2/FiO2 ratio, with mild, moderate, and severe categories.
Lung protective ventilation is a set of measures aimed at reducing lung damage that may occur as a result of mechanical ventilation. Mechanical ventilation can cause lung damage through various mechanisms, including high air pressure exerted on lung tissues (barotrauma), over distending the lung (volutrauma), repeated opening and closing of lung units (atelectrauma), and the release of inflammatory mediators that can induce lung injury (biotrauma). These mechanisms collectively contribute to ventilator-induced lung injury (VILI).
The key components of lung protective ventilation include using low tidal volumes (5-8 ml/kg), maintaining inspiratory pressures (plateau pressure) below 30 cm of water, and allowing for permissible hypercapnia. However, there are some contraindications to lung protective ventilation, such as an unacceptable level of hypercapnia, acidosis, and hypoxemia. These factors need to be carefully considered when implementing lung protective ventilation strategies in patients with ARDS.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 8
Incorrect
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You evaluate a 65-year-old woman with a diagnosis of breast cancer. She presents with right arm swelling, redness, and pain. You order an ultrasound scan of her arm, which reveals a significant proximal deep vein thrombosis (DVT). She has no prior history of venous thromboembolism and has no significant medical history.
What is the MOST suitable anticoagulant option for this patient?Your Answer: Low-molecular-weight heparin
Correct Answer: Direct oral anticoagulant
Explanation:Patients with active cancer and a confirmed deep-vein thrombosis (DVT) should be considered for treatment with a direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC) such as apixaban. If a DOAC is not suitable for the patient, alternative options should be offered. One option is the use of low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH) alone. Another option is the combination of LMWH and a vitamin K antagonist (VKA) like warfarin, which should be given for at least 5 days or until the international normalized ratio (INR) reaches at least 2.0 on 2 consecutive readings. After achieving the desired INR, the patient can continue with a VKA alone. It is important to note that anticoagulation treatment should be offered for a period of 3-6 months. to the NICE guidance on the diagnosis and management of venous thromboembolism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Vascular
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Question 9
Correct
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A young colleague has encountered a 28-year-old mountaineer who has developed frostbite to the toes of the left foot after being stranded on a snowy peak for several hours. Your colleague wants to start Rewarming the affected area by immersing it in water and seeks your guidance. What temperature should the water be maintained at for the Rewarming process?
Your Answer: 40-42ºC
Explanation:To treat frostbite, it is important to quickly warm the affected area by immersing it in water that is consistently kept at a temperature of 40-42ºC. The Rewarming process should be continued until the affected area feels flexible and shows signs of redness, which typically takes around 15 to 30 minutes. It is recommended to provide strong pain relief medication during this process, as reperfusion can be extremely painful.
Further Reading:
Hypothermia is defined as a core temperature below 35ºC and can be graded as mild, moderate, severe, or profound based on the core temperature. When the core temperature drops, the basal metabolic rate decreases and cell signaling between neurons decreases, leading to reduced tissue perfusion. This can result in depressed myocardial contractility, vasoconstriction, ventilation-perfusion mismatch, and increased blood viscosity. Symptoms of hypothermia progress as the core temperature drops, starting with compensatory increases in heart rate and shivering, and eventually leading to bradyarrhythmias, prolonged PR, QRS, and QT intervals, and cardiac arrest.
In the management of hypothermic cardiac arrest, ALS should be initiated with some modifications. The pulse check during CPR should be prolonged to 1 minute due to difficulty in obtaining a pulse. Rewarming the patient is important, and mechanical ventilation may be necessary due to stiffness of the chest wall. Drug metabolism is slowed in hypothermic patients, so dosing of drugs should be adjusted or withheld. Electrolyte disturbances are common in hypothermic patients and should be corrected.
Frostbite refers to a freezing injury to human tissue and occurs when tissue temperature drops below 0ºC. It can be classified as superficial or deep, with superficial frostbite affecting the skin and subcutaneous tissues, and deep frostbite affecting bones, joints, and tendons. Frostbite can be classified from 1st to 4th degree based on the severity of the injury. Risk factors for frostbite include environmental factors such as cold weather exposure and medical factors such as peripheral vascular disease and diabetes.
Signs and symptoms of frostbite include skin changes, cold sensation or firmness to the affected area, stinging, burning, or numbness, clumsiness of the affected extremity, and excessive sweating, hyperemia, and tissue gangrene. Frostbite is diagnosed clinically and imaging may be used in some cases to assess perfusion or visualize occluded vessels. Management involves moving the patient to a warm environment, removing wet clothing, and rapidly rewarming the affected tissue. Analgesia should be given as reperfusion is painful, and blisters should be de-roofed and aloe vera applied. Compartment syndrome is a risk and should be monitored for. Severe cases may require surgical debridement of amputation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Environmental Emergencies
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Question 10
Correct
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You are called to assess a patient who has been brought in by the Police. They had a heated argument with their partner at home, and when the police arrived, they were witnessed consuming a large quantity of tablets (later identified as paracetamol) as the police forced entry to the property. They express a desire to return home and display indifference towards their own well-being. Additionally, they disclose that they have recently received a cancer diagnosis. Despite multiple discussions, they are refusing to undergo any blood tests or receive treatment for their overdose.
What would be the most appropriate course of action to take next?Your Answer: Discuss with the patient further, establish whether he has capacity to make the decision to decline treatment. You may be in a position to treat him against his wishes if he lacks capacity.
Explanation:These situations are uncommon, but it is crucial to have a plan in place for dealing with them when they arise. This emphasizes the importance of having strong history taking skills and the ability to problem-solve.
Based on the information available, it appears that the patient may have ingested a significant amount of paracetamol, putting them at risk of toxic effects. It would be helpful to have a calm conversation with the patient to understand their perspective, as they may have a fear of needles and may not want any blood tests done.
If there are any family members or a next of kin present, it might be worth giving them some time with the patient to see if they can persuade them to change their mind. If none of these approaches are successful, it is necessary to assess the patient’s mental capacity to make the decision to decline treatment. It is important to remember that capacity can vary depending on the situation and decision at hand.
If it is determined that the patient lacks the capacity to make the decision to decline treatment, there may be a possibility of providing care against their expressed wishes. In such cases, it is advisable to involve the mental health team to formally assess for evidence of mental illness. This assessment may strengthen the case for the patient to be sectioned, which would allow certain actions to be taken against their wishes, including treating them for the effects of their mental illness, which in this case includes addressing the overdose.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Safeguarding & Psychosocial Emergencies
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