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  • Question 1 - A 24-year-old man is being evaluated at the respiratory clinic for possible bronchiectasis....

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old man is being evaluated at the respiratory clinic for possible bronchiectasis. He has a history of recurrent chest infections since childhood and has difficulty maintaining a healthy weight. Despite using inhalers, he has not experienced any significant improvement. Genetic testing has been ordered to investigate the possibility of cystic fibrosis.

      What is the typical role of the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator?

      Your Answer: Potassium channel

      Correct Answer: Chloride channel

      Explanation:

      The chloride channel, specifically a cyclic-AMP regulated chloride channel, is the correct answer. Cystic fibrosis can be caused by various mutations, but they all affect the same gene, the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator gene. This gene encodes a chloride channel that, when dysfunctional, results in increased viscosity of secretions and the development of cystic fibrosis.

      Understanding Cystic Fibrosis

      Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder that causes thickened secretions in the lungs and pancreas. It is an autosomal recessive condition that occurs due to a defect in the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator gene (CFTR), which regulates a chloride channel. In the UK, 80% of CF cases are caused by delta F508 on chromosome 7, and the carrier rate is approximately 1 in 25.

      CF patients are at risk of colonization by certain organisms, including Staphylococcus aureus, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Burkholderia cepacia (previously known as Pseudomonas cepacia), and Aspergillus. These organisms can cause infections and exacerbate symptoms in CF patients. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor and manage these infections to prevent further complications.

      Overall, understanding cystic fibrosis and its associated risks can help healthcare providers provide better care for patients with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 2 - A 27-year-old man is undergoing respiratory spirometry. He performs a maximal inhalation followed...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old man is undergoing respiratory spirometry. He performs a maximal inhalation followed by a maximal exhalation. Which of the following measurements will most accurately depict this process?

      Your Answer: Vital capacity

      Explanation:

      The maximum amount of air that can be breathed in and out within one minute is known as maximum voluntary ventilation.

      Understanding Lung Volumes in Respiratory Physiology

      In respiratory physiology, lung volumes can be measured to determine the amount of air that moves in and out of the lungs during breathing. The diagram above shows the different lung volumes that can be measured.

      Tidal volume (TV) refers to the amount of air that is inspired or expired with each breath at rest. In males, the TV is 500ml while in females, it is 350ml.

      Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) is the maximum volume of air that can be inspired at the end of a normal tidal inspiration. The inspiratory capacity is the sum of TV and IRV. On the other hand, expiratory reserve volume (ERV) is the maximum volume of air that can be expired at the end of a normal tidal expiration.

      Residual volume (RV) is the volume of air that remains in the lungs after maximal expiration. It increases with age and can be calculated by subtracting ERV from FRC. Speaking of FRC, it is the volume in the lungs at the end-expiratory position and is equal to the sum of ERV and RV.

      Vital capacity (VC) is the maximum volume of air that can be expired after a maximal inspiration. It decreases with age and can be calculated by adding inspiratory capacity and ERV. Lastly, total lung capacity (TLC) is the sum of vital capacity and residual volume.

      Physiological dead space (VD) is calculated by multiplying tidal volume by the difference between arterial carbon dioxide pressure (PaCO2) and end-tidal carbon dioxide pressure (PeCO2) and then dividing the result by PaCO2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 3 - A 70-year-old man visits his primary care physician with complaints of hearing difficulties....

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man visits his primary care physician with complaints of hearing difficulties. He states that he has been increasingly struggling to hear his wife's conversations for the past six months. He is concerned that this problem will worsen and eventually lead to complete hearing loss, making it difficult for him to communicate with his children over the phone. His wife is also distressed by the situation, as he frequently asks her to turn up the volume on the television. The man has no history of exposure to loud noises and has well-controlled hypertension. He is a retired police officer and currently resides with his wife. What is the primary pathology underlying this man's most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Degeneration of the cells at the cochlear base

      Explanation:

      The patient has a gradual-onset hearing loss, which is most likely due to presbycusis, an aging-related sensorineural hearing loss. This condition has multiple causes, including environmental factors like noise pollution and biological factors like genetics and oxidative stress. Damage to the organ of Corti stereocilia from exposure to sudden loud noises can also cause hearing loss, which is typically sudden and associated with a history of exposure to loud noises. Other conditions that can cause hearing loss include cholesteatoma, which is due to the accumulation of keratin debris in the middle ear, and otosclerosis, which is characterized by the overgrowth of bone in the middle ear.

      Anatomy of the Ear

      The ear is divided into three distinct regions: the external ear, middle ear, and internal ear. The external ear consists of the auricle and external auditory meatus, which are innervated by the greater auricular nerve and auriculotemporal branch of the trigeminal nerve. The middle ear is the space between the tympanic membrane and cochlea, and is connected to the nasopharynx by the eustachian tube. The tympanic membrane is composed of three layers and is approximately 1 cm in diameter. The middle ear is innervated by the glossopharyngeal nerve. The ossicles, consisting of the malleus, incus, and stapes, transmit sound vibrations from the tympanic membrane to the inner ear. The internal ear contains the cochlea, which houses the organ of corti, the sense organ of hearing. The vestibule accommodates the utricule and saccule, which contain endolymph and are surrounded by perilymph. The semicircular canals, which share a common opening into the vestibule, lie at various angles to the petrous temporal bone.

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      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 4 - A 26-year-old man has been experiencing a chronic cough and wheeze since starting...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old man has been experiencing a chronic cough and wheeze since starting a new job. He has noticed that his peak flow measurements are significantly reduced while at work but improve on the weekends. What substance is commonly linked to this type of asthma?

      Your Answer: Cadmium

      Correct Answer: Isocyanates

      Explanation:

      Occupational Asthma: Causes and Symptoms

      Occupational asthma is a type of asthma that is caused by exposure to certain chemicals in the workplace. Patients may experience worsening asthma symptoms while at work or notice an improvement in symptoms when away from work. The most common cause of occupational asthma is exposure to isocyanates, which are found in spray painting and foam moulding using adhesives. Other chemicals associated with occupational asthma include platinum salts, soldering flux resin, glutaraldehyde, flour, epoxy resins, and proteolytic enzymes.

      To diagnose occupational asthma, it is recommended to measure peak expiratory flow at work and away from work. If there is a significant difference in peak expiratory flow, referral to a respiratory specialist is necessary. Treatment may include avoiding exposure to the triggering chemicals and using medications to manage asthma symptoms. It is important for employers to provide a safe working environment and for employees to report any concerns about potential exposure to harmful chemicals.

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      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 5 - A 42-year-old male patient comes to the clinic complaining of shoulder weakness. During...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old male patient comes to the clinic complaining of shoulder weakness. During the examination, it is observed that he cannot initiate shoulder abduction. Which of the following nerves is most likely to be dysfunctional?

      Your Answer: Suprascapular nerve

      Explanation:

      The Suprascapular Nerve and its Function

      The suprascapular nerve is a nerve that originates from the upper trunk of the brachial plexus. It is located superior to the trunks of the brachial plexus and runs parallel to them. The nerve passes through the scapular notch, which is located deep to the trapezius muscle. Its main function is to innervate both the supraspinatus and infraspinatus muscles, which are responsible for initiating abduction of the shoulder.

      If the suprascapular nerve is damaged, patients may experience difficulty in initiating abduction of the shoulder. However, they may still be able to abduct the shoulder by leaning over the affected side, as the deltoid muscle can then continue to abduct the shoulder. Overall, the suprascapular nerve plays an important role in the movement and function of the shoulder joint.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 6 - A 56-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a persistent cough and...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a persistent cough and increased production of sputum over the past year. She also reports feeling fatigued and experiencing shortness of breath. The patient mentions having had four chest infections in the last 12 months, all of which were treated with antibiotics. She has no personal or family history of lung issues and has never smoked.

      The healthcare provider suspects that bronchiectasis may be the underlying cause of her symptoms and orders appropriate tests.

      Which test is most likely to provide a definitive diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary function test

      Correct Answer: High-resolution computerised tomography

      Explanation:

      Bronchiectasis can be diagnosed through various methods, including chest radiography, histopathology, and pulmonary function tests.

      Chest radiography can reveal thickened bronchial walls, cystic lesions with fluid levels, collapsed areas with crowded pulmonary vasculature, and scarring, which are characteristic features of bronchiectasis.

      Histopathology, which is a more invasive investigation often done through autopsy or surgery, can show irreversible dilation of bronchial airways and bronchial wall thickening.

      However, high-resolution computerised tomography is a more favorable imaging technique as it is less invasive than histopathology.

      Pulmonary function tests are commonly used to diagnose bronchiectasis, but they should be used in conjunction with other investigations as they are not sensitive or specific enough to provide sufficient diagnostic evidence on their own. An obstructive pattern is the most common pattern encountered, but a restrictive pattern is also possible.

      Understanding the Causes of Bronchiectasis

      Bronchiectasis is a condition characterized by the permanent dilation of the airways due to chronic inflammation or infection. There are various factors that can lead to this condition, including post-infective causes such as tuberculosis, measles, pertussis, and pneumonia. Cystic fibrosis, bronchial obstruction caused by lung cancer or foreign bodies, and immune deficiencies like selective IgA and hypogammaglobulinaemia can also contribute to bronchiectasis. Additionally, allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA), ciliary dyskinetic syndromes like Kartagener’s syndrome and Young’s syndrome, and yellow nail syndrome are other potential causes. Understanding the underlying causes of bronchiectasis is crucial in developing effective treatment plans for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 7 - A 59-year-old man comes to you with a dry cough that has been...

    Correct

    • A 59-year-old man comes to you with a dry cough that has been going on for three months and recent episodes of haemoptysis. He stopped smoking five years ago and has had two bouts of pneumonia in his left lower lobe in the last year. On examination, he is apyrexial and there are no notable findings.

      What would be your first step in investigating this patient?

      Your Answer: Chest x ray

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Bronchial Carcinoma

      The patient’s medical history indicates the possibility of bronchial carcinoma. The most appropriate initial investigation to confirm this diagnosis is a chest x-ray. Other tests such as blood cultures may not be useful for an apyrexial patient. However, additional investigations may be considered after the chest x-ray. It is important to prioritize the chest x-ray as the first line investigation to detect any abnormalities in the lungs. Proper diagnosis is crucial for timely treatment and management of bronchial carcinoma.

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      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 8 - A 49-year-old man comes to the clinic with recent onset of asthma and...

    Correct

    • A 49-year-old man comes to the clinic with recent onset of asthma and frequent nosebleeds. Laboratory results reveal elevated eosinophil counts and a positive pANCA test.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (EGPA)

      Explanation:

      The presence of adult-onset asthma, eosinophilia, and a positive pANCA test strongly suggests a diagnosis of eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (EGPA) in this patient.

      Although GPA can cause epistaxis, the absence of other characteristic symptoms such as saddle-shaped nose deformity, haemoptysis, renal failure, and positive cANCA make EGPA a more likely diagnosis.

      Polyarteritis Nodosa, Temporal Arteritis, and Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis have distinct clinical presentations that do not match the symptoms exhibited by this patient.

      Eosinophilic Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis (Churg-Strauss Syndrome)

      Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (EGPA), previously known as Churg-Strauss syndrome, is a type of small-medium vessel vasculitis that is associated with ANCA. It is characterized by asthma, blood eosinophilia (more than 10%), paranasal sinusitis, mononeuritis multiplex, and pANCA positivity in 60% of cases.

      Compared to granulomatosis with polyangiitis, EGPA is more likely to have blood eosinophilia and asthma as prominent features. Additionally, leukotriene receptor antagonists may trigger the onset of the disease.

      Overall, EGPA is a rare but serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment to prevent complications.

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      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 9 - A 63-year-old man arrives at the ER with a recent onset of left-sided...

    Correct

    • A 63-year-old man arrives at the ER with a recent onset of left-sided facial paralysis. He reports experiencing a painful rash around his ear on the affected side for the past five days. Your suspicion is Ramsay Hunt syndrome. What virus is responsible for this condition?

      Your Answer: Varicella zoster virus

      Explanation:

      The geniculate ganglion of the facial nerve (CN VII) reactivates the varicella-zoster virus, causing Ramsay Hunt syndrome.

      Infectious mononucleosis (glandular fever) is primarily linked to the Epstein-Barr virus.

      Viral warts are commonly caused by human papillomavirus (HPV), with certain types being associated with gynaecological malignancy. Vaccines are now available to protect against the carcinogenic strains of HPV.

      Oral or genital herpes infections are caused by the herpes simplex virus.

      Understanding Ramsay Hunt Syndrome

      Ramsay Hunt syndrome, also known as herpes zoster oticus, is a condition that occurs when the varicella zoster virus reactivates in the geniculate ganglion of the seventh cranial nerve. The first symptom of this syndrome is often auricular pain, followed by facial nerve palsy and a vesicular rash around the ear. Other symptoms may include vertigo and tinnitus.

      To manage Ramsay Hunt syndrome, doctors typically prescribe oral acyclovir and corticosteroids. These medications can help reduce the severity of symptoms and prevent complications.

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      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 10 - A 35-year-old man arrives at the emergency department following an assault with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man arrives at the emergency department following an assault with a baseball bat. He has significant swelling around his eye, which has caused him to lose vision in that eye. A CT scan reveals a fracture in the floor of the orbit. This type of fracture creates an unusual connection between the orbit and which of the following facial regions?

      Your Answer: Sphenoid sinus

      Correct Answer: Maxillary sinus

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is the maxillary sinus, which is the largest of the paranasal air sinuses found in the maxillary bone below the orbit. Fractures of the orbit’s floor can lead to herniation of the orbital contents into the maxillary sinus. The ethmoidal air cells are smaller air cells in the ethmoid bone, separated from the orbit by a thin plate of bone called the lamina papyracea. Fractures of the medial wall of the orbit can lead to communication between the ethmoidal air cells and the orbit. The frontal sinuses are located in the frontal bones above the orbits and fractures of the roof of the orbit can lead to communication between the frontal sinus and orbit. The sphenoid sinuses are found in the sphenoid bone and are located in the posterior portion of the roof of the nasal cavity. The nasal cavity is located more medial and inferior than the orbits and is not adjacent to the orbit.

      Paranasal Air Sinuses and Carotid Sinus

      The paranasal air sinuses are air-filled spaces found in the bones of the skull. They are named after the bone in which they are located and all communicate with the nasal cavity. The four paired paranasal air sinuses are the frontal sinuses, maxillary sinuses, ethmoid air cells, and sphenoid sinuses. The frontal sinuses are located above each eye on the forehead, while the maxillary sinuses are the largest and found in the maxillary bone below the orbit. The ethmoidal air cells are a collection of smaller air cells located lateral to the anterior superior nasal cavity, while the sphenoid sinuses are found in the posterior portion of the roof of the nasal cavity.

      On the other hand, the carotid sinus is not a paranasal air sinus. It is a dilatation of the internal carotid artery, located just beyond the bifurcation of the common carotid artery. It contains baroreceptors that enable it to detect changes in arterial pressure.

      Overall, understanding the location and function of these sinuses and the carotid sinus is important in various medical procedures and conditions.

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      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 11 - A 54-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of difficulty breathing. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of difficulty breathing. The results of his pulmonary function tests are as follows:

      Reference Range
      FVC (% predicted) 102 80-120
      FEV1 (% predicted) 62 80-120
      FEV1/FVC (%) 60.1 >70
      TCLO (% predicted) 140 60-120

      What is the probable reason for his symptoms?

      Your Answer: COPD exacerbation

      Correct Answer: Asthma exacerbation

      Explanation:

      The raised transfer factor suggests that the patient is experiencing an exacerbation of asthma. This condition can cause obstructive patterns on pulmonary function tests, leading to reduced FEV1 and FEV1/FVC, as well as hypoxia and wheezing. However, other conditions such as COPD exacerbation, idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis, and pulmonary embolism would result in a low transfer factor, and are therefore unlikely explanations for the patient’s symptoms.

      Understanding Transfer Factor in Lung Function Testing

      The transfer factor is a measure of how quickly a gas diffuses from the alveoli into the bloodstream. This is typically tested using carbon monoxide, and the results can be given as either the total gas transfer (TLCO) or the transfer coefficient corrected for lung volume (KCO). A raised TLCO may be caused by conditions such as asthma, pulmonary haemorrhage, left-to-right cardiac shunts, polycythaemia, hyperkinetic states, male gender, or exercise. On the other hand, a lower TLCO may be indicative of pulmonary fibrosis, pneumonia, pulmonary emboli, pulmonary oedema, emphysema, anaemia, or low cardiac output.

      KCO tends to increase with age, and certain conditions may cause an increased KCO with a normal or reduced TLCO. These conditions include pneumonectomy/lobectomy, scoliosis/kyphosis, neuromuscular weakness, and ankylosis of costovertebral joints (such as in ankylosing spondylitis). Understanding transfer factor is important in lung function testing, as it can provide valuable information about a patient’s respiratory health and help guide treatment decisions.

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      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 12 - A 78-year-old man comes to your clinic with a complaint of hoarseness in...

    Correct

    • A 78-year-old man comes to your clinic with a complaint of hoarseness in his voice for the past 2 months. He is unsure if he had a viral infection prior to this and has attempted using over-the-counter remedies with no improvement. How would you approach managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Red flag referral to ENT

      Explanation:

      An urgent referral to an ENT specialist is necessary when a person over the age of 45 experiences persistent hoarseness without any apparent cause. In this case, the patient has been suffering from a hoarse voice for 8 weeks, which warrants an urgent referral. A routine referral would not be sufficient as it may not be quick enough to address the issue. Although it could be a viral or bacterial infection, the duration of the hoarseness suggests that there may be an underlying serious condition. Merely informing the patient that their voice may not return is not helpful and may overlook the possibility of a more severe problem.

      Hoarseness can be caused by various factors such as overusing the voice, smoking, viral infections, hypothyroidism, gastro-oesophageal reflux, laryngeal cancer, and lung cancer. It is important to investigate the underlying cause of hoarseness, and a chest x-ray may be necessary to rule out any apical lung lesions.

      If laryngeal cancer is suspected, it is recommended to refer the patient to an ENT specialist through a suspected cancer pathway. This referral should be considered for individuals who are 45 years old and above and have persistent unexplained hoarseness or an unexplained lump in the neck. Early detection and treatment of laryngeal cancer can significantly improve the patient’s prognosis.

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      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 13 - A patient in their 60s presents to surgical outpatients with diffuse abdominal pain....

    Correct

    • A patient in their 60s presents to surgical outpatients with diffuse abdominal pain. As a second-line imaging investigation, a CT scan is requested. The radiologist looks through the images to write the report. Which of the following would they expect to find at the level of the transpyloric plane (L1)?

      Your Answer: Hila of the kidneys

      Explanation:

      The hila of the kidneys are at the level of the transpyloric plane, with the left kidney slightly higher than the right. The adrenal glands sit just above the kidneys at the level of T12. The neck of the pancreas, not the body, is at the level of the transpyloric plane. The coeliac trunk originates at the level of T12 and the inferior mesenteric artery originates at L3.

      The Transpyloric Plane and its Anatomical Landmarks

      The transpyloric plane is an imaginary horizontal line that passes through the body of the first lumbar vertebrae (L1) and the pylorus of the stomach. It is an important anatomical landmark used in clinical practice to locate various organs and structures in the abdomen.

      Some of the structures that lie on the transpyloric plane include the left and right kidney hilum (with the left one being at the same level as L1), the fundus of the gallbladder, the neck of the pancreas, the duodenojejunal flexure, the superior mesenteric artery, and the portal vein. The left and right colic flexure, the root of the transverse mesocolon, and the second part of the duodenum also lie on this plane.

      In addition, the upper part of the conus medullaris (the tapered end of the spinal cord) and the spleen are also located on the transpyloric plane. Knowing the location of these structures is important for various medical procedures, such as abdominal surgeries and diagnostic imaging.

      Overall, the transpyloric plane serves as a useful reference point for clinicians to locate important anatomical structures in the abdomen.

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      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 14 - An 80-year-old man is brought to the emergency department in respiratory arrest. According...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man is brought to the emergency department in respiratory arrest. According to his partner, he has a history of congestive heart failure and has recently been battling an infection. After being placed on mechanical ventilation, you observe that the patient has decreased lung compliance.

      What could be the cause of this observation?

      Your Answer: Emphysema

      Correct Answer: Pulmonary oedema

      Explanation:

      Reduced lung compliance is a common consequence of pulmonary edema, which occurs when fluid accumulates in the alveoli and exerts mechanical stress on the air-filled alveoli. This can happen in patients with acute decompensation of congestive cardiac failure, often triggered by an infection. On the other hand, emphysema can increase compliance due to long-term damage that reduces the elastic recoil of the lungs. Additionally, lung surfactant produced by type II pneumocytes can increase lung compliance. Finally, aging can also lead to increased compliance as the loss of lung connective tissue can reduce elastic recoil.

      Understanding Lung Compliance in Respiratory Physiology

      Lung compliance refers to the extent of change in lung volume in response to a change in airway pressure. An increase in lung compliance can be caused by factors such as aging and emphysema, which is characterized by the loss of alveolar walls and associated elastic tissue. On the other hand, a decrease in lung compliance can be attributed to conditions such as pulmonary edema, pulmonary fibrosis, pneumonectomy, and kyphosis. These conditions can affect the elasticity of the lungs and make it more difficult for them to expand and contract properly. Understanding lung compliance is important in respiratory physiology as it can help diagnose and manage various respiratory conditions. Proper management of lung compliance can improve lung function and overall respiratory health.

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      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 15 - A 3-year-old male toddler of Asian descent is referred to a paediatrician by...

    Correct

    • A 3-year-old male toddler of Asian descent is referred to a paediatrician by his GP due to recurrent respiratory infections and failure to thrive. The doctor orders a sweat test, which comes back positive. What are the potential complications associated with the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Steatorrhea

      Explanation:

      Cystic fibrosis can lead to steatorrhea, which is caused by the malabsorption of fat in the intestines. This is a common symptom of the disease and requires specialist management. While patients with CF may have a slightly increased risk of sensorineural hearing loss, this is mainly due to the side effects of certain drugs used to treat the disease. Melaena, which is the passage of dark faeces due to partially digested blood from the upper gastrointestinal system, is a rare symptom in patients with CF. There is no association between CF and intellectual disability. Although some studies suggest an increased incidence of pulmonary emboli in patients with CF, the associated risk is small and mainly due to the use of central venous catheters and liver dysfunction or vitamin K deficiency.

      Understanding Cystic Fibrosis: Symptoms and Other Features

      Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder that affects various organs in the body, particularly the lungs and digestive system. The symptoms of cystic fibrosis can vary from person to person, but some common presenting features include recurrent chest infections, malabsorption, and liver disease. In some cases, infants may experience meconium ileus or prolonged jaundice. It is important to note that while many patients are diagnosed during newborn screening or early childhood, some may not be diagnosed until adulthood.

      Aside from the presenting features, there are other symptoms and features associated with cystic fibrosis. These include short stature, diabetes mellitus, delayed puberty, rectal prolapse, nasal polyps, and infertility. It is important for individuals with cystic fibrosis to receive proper medical care and management to address these symptoms and improve their quality of life.

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  • Question 16 - A 65-year-old patient presents at the lung cancer clinic for their initial assessment....

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old patient presents at the lung cancer clinic for their initial assessment. Their general practitioner referred them due to a persistent cough lasting 5 months and a weight loss of one stone in a month. The patient has quit smoking recently but used to smoke 20-30 cigarettes daily for 30 years. No asbestos exposure is reported.

      A circular lesion was detected in the right upper lobe during a recent chest x-ray. A subsequent computed tomography (CT) scan indicated that this lung lesion is indicative of a primary lesion.

      What is the most probable sub-type of lung cancer in this case?

      Your Answer: Adenocarcinoma

      Explanation:

      Adenocarcinoma has become the most prevalent form of lung cancer, as per the given scenario. This type of cancer accounts for approximately one-third of all cases and can occur in both smokers and non-smokers. Therefore, the most probable answer to the question is adenocarcinoma. Mesothelioma, on the other hand, is a rare and incurable cancer that is almost exclusively linked to asbestos exposure and affects the pleura. It would not present as an upper lobe mass, but rather as a loss of lung volume or pleural opacity. Alveolar cell carcinoma, which is less common than adenocarcinoma, would likely cause significant sputum production.

      Lung cancer can be classified into two main types: small cell lung cancer (SCLC) and non-small cell lung cancer (NSCLC). SCLC is less common, accounting for only 15% of cases, but has a worse prognosis. NSCLC, on the other hand, is more prevalent and can be further broken down into different subtypes. Adenocarcinoma is now the most common type of lung cancer, likely due to the increased use of low-tar cigarettes. It is often seen in non-smokers and accounts for 62% of cases in ‘never’ smokers. Squamous cell carcinoma is another subtype, and cavitating lesions are more common in this type of lung cancer. Large cell carcinoma, alveolar cell carcinoma, bronchial adenoma, and carcinoid are other subtypes of NSCLC. Differentiating between these subtypes is crucial as different drugs are available to treat each subtype.

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      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 17 - A 20-year-old female presented to the hospital with a complaint of a sore...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old female presented to the hospital with a complaint of a sore throat. She reported having a high-grade fever and severe pain on the right side of her throat for the past four days. The patient also experienced difficulty in swallowing and had restricted mouth opening. Additionally, she complained of bilateral ear pain and headache. Despite receiving oral antibiotics, her symptoms had worsened.

      Upon examination, the patient had a fever of 38.5ºC and prominent cervical lymphadenopathy. Swelling of the right soft palate was observed, and the uvula was deviated to the left.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Epiglottitis

      Correct Answer: Peritonsillar abscess (quinsy)

      Explanation:

      Trismus, which is difficulty in opening the mouth, is a common symptom of peritonsillar abscess (also known as quinsy). It is important to note that quinsy is a complication of tonsillitis, not acute tonsillitis itself. Epiglottitis may present with muffled voice, drooling, and difficulty in breathing, while infectious mononucleosis is associated with other symptoms such as weight loss, fatigue, and enlarged lymph nodes and organs.

      Peritonsillar Abscess: Symptoms and Treatment

      A peritonsillar abscess, also known as quinsy, is a complication that can arise from bacterial tonsillitis. This condition is characterized by severe throat pain that is localized to one side, along with difficulty opening the mouth and reduced neck mobility. Additionally, the uvula may be deviated to the unaffected side. It is important to seek urgent medical attention from an ENT specialist if these symptoms are present.

      The treatment for a peritonsillar abscess typically involves needle aspiration or incision and drainage, along with intravenous antibiotics. In some cases, a tonsillectomy may be recommended to prevent recurrence of the abscess. It is important to follow the recommended treatment plan and attend all follow-up appointments to ensure proper healing and prevent complications.

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  • Question 18 - A 10-year-old girl has been diagnosed with asthma. Her father asks you about...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old girl has been diagnosed with asthma. Her father asks you about the cause of her symptoms. What is the best response?

      Inflammation of the lining of the bronchioles causes obstruction of the flow of air out from the lungs. This inflammation is reversible so symptoms of asthma may be intermittent. There may also be increased mucus production and bronchial muscle constriction.

      Your Answer: Reversible inflammation of the lining of the small airways causing them to become narrower

      Explanation:

      The bronchioles’ lining inflammation obstructs the outflow of air from the lungs, leading to asthma symptoms that may come and go. Additionally, there could be heightened mucus production and constriction of bronchial muscles.

      Asthma is a common respiratory disorder that affects both children and adults. It is characterized by chronic inflammation of the airways, resulting in reversible bronchospasm and airway obstruction. While asthma can develop at any age, it typically presents in childhood and may improve or resolve with age. However, it can also persist into adulthood and cause significant morbidity, with around 1,000 deaths per year in the UK.

      Several risk factors can increase the likelihood of developing asthma, including a personal or family history of atopy, antenatal factors such as maternal smoking or viral infections, low birth weight, not being breastfed, exposure to allergens and air pollution, and the hygiene hypothesis. Patients with asthma may also suffer from other atopic conditions such as eczema and hay fever, and some may be sensitive to aspirin. Occupational asthma is also a concern for those exposed to allergens in the workplace.

      Symptoms of asthma include coughing, dyspnea, wheezing, and chest tightness, with coughing often worse at night. Signs may include expiratory wheezing on auscultation and reduced peak expiratory flow rate. Diagnosis is typically made through spirometry, which measures the volume and speed of air during exhalation and inhalation.

      Management of asthma typically involves the use of inhalers to deliver drug therapy directly to the airways. Short-acting beta-agonists such as salbutamol are the first-line treatment for relieving symptoms, while inhaled corticosteroids like beclometasone dipropionate and fluticasone propionate are used for daily maintenance therapy. Long-acting beta-agonists like salmeterol and leukotriene receptor antagonists like montelukast may also be used in combination with other medications. Maintenance and reliever therapy (MART) is a newer approach that combines ICS and a fast-acting LABA in a single inhaler for both daily maintenance and symptom relief. Recent guidelines recommend offering a leukotriene receptor antagonist instead of a LABA for patients on SABA + ICS whose asthma is not well controlled, and considering MART for those with poorly controlled asthma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      67.6
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Cystic fibrosis is caused by a mutation in the CFTR gene. On which...

    Correct

    • Cystic fibrosis is caused by a mutation in the CFTR gene. On which chromosome is this gene located?

      Your Answer: Chromosome 7

      Explanation:

      Understanding Cystic Fibrosis

      Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder that causes thickened secretions in the lungs and pancreas. It is an autosomal recessive condition that occurs due to a defect in the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator gene (CFTR), which regulates a chloride channel. In the UK, 80% of CF cases are caused by delta F508 on chromosome 7, and the carrier rate is approximately 1 in 25.

      CF patients are at risk of colonization by certain organisms, including Staphylococcus aureus, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Burkholderia cepacia (previously known as Pseudomonas cepacia), and Aspergillus. These organisms can cause infections and exacerbate symptoms in CF patients. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor and manage these infections to prevent further complications.

      Overall, understanding cystic fibrosis and its associated risks can help healthcare providers provide better care for patients with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      5
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 6-year-old girl is playing with some small ball bearings. Regrettably, she inhales...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl is playing with some small ball bearings. Regrettably, she inhales one. In which of the following lung regions is the ball expected to settle?

      Your Answer: Right upper lobe

      Correct Answer: Right lower lobe

      Explanation:

      Due to the angle of the right main bronchus from the trachea, small objects are more likely to get stuck in the most dependent part of the right lung. This makes the right lung the preferred location for most objects to enter.

      Anatomy of the Lungs

      The lungs are a pair of organs located in the chest cavity that play a vital role in respiration. The right lung is composed of three lobes, while the left lung has two lobes. The apex of both lungs is approximately 4 cm superior to the sternocostal joint of the first rib. The base of the lungs is in contact with the diaphragm, while the costal surface corresponds to the cavity of the chest. The mediastinal surface contacts the mediastinal pleura and has the cardiac impression. The hilum is a triangular depression above and behind the concavity, where the structures that form the root of the lung enter and leave the viscus. The right main bronchus is shorter, wider, and more vertical than the left main bronchus. The inferior borders of both lungs are at the 6th rib in the mid clavicular line, 8th rib in the mid axillary line, and 10th rib posteriorly. The pleura runs two ribs lower than the corresponding lung level. The bronchopulmonary segments of the lungs are divided into ten segments, each with a specific function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      21.4
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 48-year-old male presents for a preoperative evaluation for an inguinal hernia repair....

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old male presents for a preoperative evaluation for an inguinal hernia repair. During the assessment, you observe a loculated left pleural effusion on his chest x-ray. Upon further inquiry, the patient discloses that he worked as a builder three decades ago. What is the probable reason for the effusion?

      Your Answer: Asbestosis

      Correct Answer: Mesothelioma

      Explanation:

      Due to his profession as a builder, this individual is at risk of being exposed to asbestos. Given the 30-year latent period and the presence of a complex effusion, it is highly probable that the underlying cause is mesothelioma.

      Understanding Mesothelioma

      Mesothelioma is a type of cancer that affects the mesothelial layer of the pleural cavity, which is commonly linked to asbestos exposure. Although it is rare, other mesothelial layers in the abdomen may also be affected. Symptoms of mesothelioma include dyspnoea, weight loss, chest wall pain, and clubbing. In some cases, patients may present with painless pleural effusion. It is important to note that only 20% of patients have pre-existing asbestosis, but 85-90% have a history of asbestos exposure, with a latent period of 30-40 years.

      Diagnosis of mesothelioma is typically made through a chest x-ray, which may show pleural effusion or pleural thickening. A pleural CT is then performed to confirm the diagnosis. If a pleural effusion is present, fluid is sent for MC&S, biochemistry, and cytology. However, cytology is only helpful in 20-30% of cases. Local anaesthetic thoracoscopy is increasingly used to investigate cytology negative exudative effusions as it has a high diagnostic yield of around 95%. If an area of pleural nodularity is seen on CT, an image-guided pleural biopsy may be used.

      Management of mesothelioma is mainly symptomatic, with industrial compensation available for those who have been exposed to asbestos. Chemotherapy and surgery may be options for those who are operable. Unfortunately, the prognosis for mesothelioma is poor, with a median survival of only 12 months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      23.6
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - An anxious father brings his 6-month-old to the out of hours GP. The...

    Incorrect

    • An anxious father brings his 6-month-old to the out of hours GP. The baby has been coughing persistently for the past 2 days and it seems to be getting worse. He also has a runny nose and an audible wheeze. The GP diagnoses bronchiolitis.

      What is the most probable causative organism in this case?

      Your Answer: influenzae

      Correct Answer: Respiratory syncytial virus

      Explanation:

      Understanding Bronchiolitis

      Bronchiolitis is a condition that is characterized by inflammation of the bronchioles. It is a serious lower respiratory tract infection that is most common in children under the age of one year. The pathogen responsible for 75-80% of cases is respiratory syncytial virus (RSV), while other causes include mycoplasma and adenoviruses. Bronchiolitis is more serious in children with bronchopulmonary dysplasia, congenital heart disease, or cystic fibrosis.

      The symptoms of bronchiolitis include coryzal symptoms, dry cough, increasing breathlessness, and wheezing. Fine inspiratory crackles may also be present. Children with bronchiolitis may experience feeding difficulties associated with increasing dyspnoea, which is often the reason for hospital admission.

      Immediate referral to hospital is recommended if the child has apnoea, looks seriously unwell to a healthcare professional, has severe respiratory distress, central cyanosis, or persistent oxygen saturation of less than 92% when breathing air. Clinicians should consider referring to hospital if the child has a respiratory rate of over 60 breaths/minute, difficulty with breastfeeding or inadequate oral fluid intake, or clinical dehydration.

      The investigation for bronchiolitis involves immunofluorescence of nasopharyngeal secretions, which may show RSV. Management of bronchiolitis is largely supportive, with humidified oxygen given via a head box if oxygen saturations are persistently < 92%. Nasogastric feeding may be needed if children cannot take enough fluid/feed by mouth, and suction is sometimes used for excessive upper airway secretions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      18.8
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 53-year-old man arrives at the Emergency Department with jaundice and a distended...

    Incorrect

    • A 53-year-old man arrives at the Emergency Department with jaundice and a distended abdomen. He has a history of alcoholism and has been hospitalized before for acute alcohol withdrawal. During the examination, you observe spider naevi on his upper chest wall and detect a shifting dullness on abdominal percussion, indicating ascites. Further imaging and investigation reveal portal vein hypertension and cirrhosis.

      Where does this vessel start?

      Your Answer: T10

      Correct Answer: L1

      Explanation:

      Portal hypertension is commonly caused by liver cirrhosis, often due to alcohol abuse. The causes of this condition can be categorized as pre-hepatic, hepatic, or post-hepatic, depending on the location of the underlying pathology. The primary factors contributing to portal hypertension are increased vascular resistance in the portal venous system and elevated blood flow in the portal veins. The portal vein originates at the transpyloric plane, which is situated at the level of the body of L1. Other significant structures found at this location include the neck of the pancreas, the spleen, the duodenojejunal flexure, and the superior mesenteric artery.

      The Transpyloric Plane and its Anatomical Landmarks

      The transpyloric plane is an imaginary horizontal line that passes through the body of the first lumbar vertebrae (L1) and the pylorus of the stomach. It is an important anatomical landmark used in clinical practice to locate various organs and structures in the abdomen.

      Some of the structures that lie on the transpyloric plane include the left and right kidney hilum (with the left one being at the same level as L1), the fundus of the gallbladder, the neck of the pancreas, the duodenojejunal flexure, the superior mesenteric artery, and the portal vein. The left and right colic flexure, the root of the transverse mesocolon, and the second part of the duodenum also lie on this plane.

      In addition, the upper part of the conus medullaris (the tapered end of the spinal cord) and the spleen are also located on the transpyloric plane. Knowing the location of these structures is important for various medical procedures, such as abdominal surgeries and diagnostic imaging.

      Overall, the transpyloric plane serves as a useful reference point for clinicians to locate important anatomical structures in the abdomen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      31.8
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 35-year-old female smoker presents with acute severe asthma.

    The patient's SaO2 levels...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old female smoker presents with acute severe asthma.

      The patient's SaO2 levels are at 91% even with 15 L of oxygen, and her pO2 is at 8.2 kPa (10.5-13). There is widespread expiratory wheezing throughout her chest.

      The medical team administers IV hydrocortisone, 100% oxygen, and 5 mg of nebulised salbutamol and 500 micrograms of nebulised ipratropium, but there is little response. Nebulisers are repeated 'back-to-back,' but the patient remains tachypnoeic with wheezing, although there is good air entry.

      What should be the next step in the patient's management?

      Your Answer: IV Potassium

      Correct Answer: IV Magnesium

      Explanation:

      Acute Treatment of Asthma

      When dealing with acute asthma, the initial approach should be SOS, which stands for Salbutamol, Oxygen, and Steroids (IV). It is also important to organize a CXR to rule out pneumothorax. If the patient is experiencing bronchoconstriction, further efforts to treat it should be considered. If the patient is tiring or has a silent chest, ITU review may be necessary. Magnesium is recommended at a dose of 2 g over 30 minutes to promote bronchodilation, as low magnesium levels in bronchial smooth muscle can favor bronchoconstriction. IV theophylline may also be considered, but magnesium is typically preferred. While IV antibiotics may be necessary, promoting bronchodilation should be the initial focus. IV potassium may also be required as beta agonists can push down potassium levels. Oral prednisolone can wait, as IV hydrocortisone is already part of the SOS approach. Non-invasive ventilation is not recommended for the acute management of asthma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      44.9
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 75-year-old man is having a left pneumonectomy for bronchial carcinoma. When the...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man is having a left pneumonectomy for bronchial carcinoma. When the surgeons reach the root of the lung, which structure will be the most anterior in the anatomical plane?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary artery

      Correct Answer: Phrenic nerve

      Explanation:

      The lung root contains two nerves, with the phrenic nerve positioned in the most anterior location and the vagus nerve situated in the most posterior location.

      Anatomy of the Lungs

      The lungs are a pair of organs located in the chest cavity that play a vital role in respiration. The right lung is composed of three lobes, while the left lung has two lobes. The apex of both lungs is approximately 4 cm superior to the sternocostal joint of the first rib. The base of the lungs is in contact with the diaphragm, while the costal surface corresponds to the cavity of the chest. The mediastinal surface contacts the mediastinal pleura and has the cardiac impression. The hilum is a triangular depression above and behind the concavity, where the structures that form the root of the lung enter and leave the viscus. The right main bronchus is shorter, wider, and more vertical than the left main bronchus. The inferior borders of both lungs are at the 6th rib in the mid clavicular line, 8th rib in the mid axillary line, and 10th rib posteriorly. The pleura runs two ribs lower than the corresponding lung level. The bronchopulmonary segments of the lungs are divided into ten segments, each with a specific function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      32.4
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 49-year-old patient presents to the rheumatology clinic with weight loss, fever, and...

    Correct

    • A 49-year-old patient presents to the rheumatology clinic with weight loss, fever, and night sweats. The individual is also experiencing shortness of breath. The following blood test results are obtained:

      - Hemoglobin (Hb): 140 g/l
      - Platelets: 192 * 109/l
      - White cell count (WCC): 5.3 * 109/l
      - Creatinine: 154 umol/l
      - Urea: 9 mmol/l
      - cANCA positive

      The white cell differential count is reported as normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Granulomatosis with polyangiitis

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis for this patient is granulomatosis with polyangiitis, as indicated by the presence of cANCA and the involvement of multiple organs including the lungs, skin, kidneys, and upper respiratory tract. This condition is known to cause inflammation in the glomeruli, leading to renal impairment. Churg-Strauss disease and Alport’s syndrome are unlikely due to normal eosinophil levels and cANCA positivity, respectively. Goodpasture’s syndrome is also unlikely as the patient does not present with haematuria or haemoptysis.

      Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis: An Autoimmune Condition

      Granulomatosis with polyangiitis, previously known as Wegener’s granulomatosis, is an autoimmune condition that affects the upper and lower respiratory tract as well as the kidneys. It is characterized by a necrotizing granulomatous vasculitis. The condition presents with various symptoms such as epistaxis, sinusitis, nasal crusting, dyspnoea, haemoptysis, and rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis. Other symptoms include a saddle-shape nose deformity, vasculitic rash, eye involvement, and cranial nerve lesions.

      To diagnose granulomatosis with polyangiitis, doctors perform various investigations such as cANCA and pANCA tests, chest x-rays, and renal biopsies. The cANCA test is positive in more than 90% of cases, while the pANCA test is positive in 25% of cases. Chest x-rays show a wide variety of presentations, including cavitating lesions. Renal biopsies reveal epithelial crescents in Bowman’s capsule.

      The management of granulomatosis with polyangiitis involves the use of steroids, cyclophosphamide, and plasma exchange. Cyclophosphamide has a 90% response rate. The median survival rate for patients with this condition is 8-9 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      37.7
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - What is the anatomical level of the transpyloric plane? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the anatomical level of the transpyloric plane?

      Your Answer: T12

      Correct Answer: L1

      Explanation:

      The Transpyloric Plane and its Anatomical Landmarks

      The transpyloric plane is an imaginary horizontal line that passes through the body of the first lumbar vertebrae (L1) and the pylorus of the stomach. It is an important anatomical landmark used in clinical practice to locate various organs and structures in the abdomen.

      Some of the structures that lie on the transpyloric plane include the left and right kidney hilum (with the left one being at the same level as L1), the fundus of the gallbladder, the neck of the pancreas, the duodenojejunal flexure, the superior mesenteric artery, and the portal vein. The left and right colic flexure, the root of the transverse mesocolon, and the second part of the duodenum also lie on this plane.

      In addition, the upper part of the conus medullaris (the tapered end of the spinal cord) and the spleen are also located on the transpyloric plane. Knowing the location of these structures is important for various medical procedures, such as abdominal surgeries and diagnostic imaging.

      Overall, the transpyloric plane serves as a useful reference point for clinicians to locate important anatomical structures in the abdomen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      2.9
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 25-year-old man is receiving an endotracheal intubation. At which vertebral level does...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man is receiving an endotracheal intubation. At which vertebral level does the trachea originate?

      Your Answer: C4

      Correct Answer: C6

      Explanation:

      The trachea starts at the sixth cervical vertebrae and ends at the fifth thoracic vertebrae (or sixth in individuals with a tall stature during deep inhalation).

      Anatomy of the Trachea

      The trachea, also known as the windpipe, is a tube-like structure that extends from the C6 vertebrae to the upper border of the T5 vertebrae where it bifurcates into the left and right bronchi. It is supplied by the inferior thyroid arteries and the thyroid venous plexus, and innervated by branches of the vagus, sympathetic, and recurrent nerves.

      In the neck, the trachea is anterior to the isthmus of the thyroid gland, inferior thyroid veins, and anastomosing branches between the anterior jugular veins. It is also surrounded by the sternothyroid, sternohyoid, and cervical fascia. Posteriorly, it is related to the esophagus, while laterally, it is in close proximity to the common carotid arteries, right and left lobes of the thyroid gland, inferior thyroid arteries, and recurrent laryngeal nerves.

      In the thorax, the trachea is anterior to the manubrium, the remains of the thymus, the aortic arch, left common carotid arteries, and the deep cardiac plexus. Laterally, it is related to the pleura and right vagus on the right side, and the left recurrent nerve, aortic arch, and left common carotid and subclavian arteries on the left side.

      Overall, understanding the anatomy of the trachea is important for various medical procedures and interventions, such as intubation and tracheostomy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      12.9
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 29-year-old male is injured by a gunshot to his right chest resulting...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old male is injured by a gunshot to his right chest resulting in a right haemothorax that requires a thoracotomy. During the procedure, the surgeons opt to use a vascular clamp to secure the hilum of the right lung. What structure will be positioned most anteriorly at this location?

      Your Answer: Phrenic nerve

      Explanation:

      At the base of the right lung, the phrenic nerve is located in the anterior position.

      Anatomy of the Lungs

      The lungs are a pair of organs located in the chest cavity that play a vital role in respiration. The right lung is composed of three lobes, while the left lung has two lobes. The apex of both lungs is approximately 4 cm superior to the sternocostal joint of the first rib. The base of the lungs is in contact with the diaphragm, while the costal surface corresponds to the cavity of the chest. The mediastinal surface contacts the mediastinal pleura and has the cardiac impression. The hilum is a triangular depression above and behind the concavity, where the structures that form the root of the lung enter and leave the viscus. The right main bronchus is shorter, wider, and more vertical than the left main bronchus. The inferior borders of both lungs are at the 6th rib in the mid clavicular line, 8th rib in the mid axillary line, and 10th rib posteriorly. The pleura runs two ribs lower than the corresponding lung level. The bronchopulmonary segments of the lungs are divided into ten segments, each with a specific function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      28
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - An 85-year-old woman visits her doctor with a complaint of worsening breathlessness in...

    Incorrect

    • An 85-year-old woman visits her doctor with a complaint of worsening breathlessness in the past 6 months. She has been smoking 10 cigarettes a day for the last 40 years. The doctor suspects that she may have chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. What is one of the mechanisms by which smoking damages the lungs and leads to emphysema?

      Your Answer: Basal cell metaplasia

      Correct Answer: Inactivation of alpha-1 antitrypsin

      Explanation:

      The function of alpha-1 antitrypsin is to inhibit elastase. However, smoke has a negative impact on this protein in the lungs, resulting in increased activity of elastases and the breakdown of elastic tissue, which leads to emphysema.

      Contrary to popular belief, smoke actually activates polymorphonuclear leucocytes, which contributes to the development of emphysema.

      Mucous gland hyperplasia, basal cell metaplasia, and basement membrane thickening are all examples of how smoke affects the lungs to cause chronic bronchitis, not emphysema.

      COPD, or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, can be caused by a variety of factors. The most common cause is smoking, which can lead to inflammation and damage in the lungs over time. Another potential cause is alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency, a genetic condition that can result in lung damage. Additionally, exposure to certain substances such as cadmium (used in smelting), coal, cotton, cement, and grain can also contribute to the development of COPD. It is important to identify and address these underlying causes in order to effectively manage and treat COPD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      27.6
      Seconds

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