00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - A 67-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with abrupt onset left-sided foot...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with abrupt onset left-sided foot and leg weakness and sensory loss. According to his wife, he stumbled and fell while they were out for dinner. Imaging results indicate an infarct in the anterior cerebral artery (ACA).

      Which lobes of the brain are expected to be impacted the most?

      Your Answer: Temporal and occipital lobes

      Correct Answer: Frontal and parietal lobes

      Explanation:

      The anterior cerebral artery is responsible for supplying blood to a portion of the frontal and parietal lobes. While this type of stroke is uncommon and may be challenging to diagnose through clinical means, imaging techniques can reveal affected vessels or brain regions. Damage to the frontal and parietal lobes can result in significant mood, personality, and movement disorders.

      It’s important to note that the occipital lobe and cerebellum receive their blood supply from the posterior cerebral artery and cerebellar arteries (which originate from the basilar and vertebral arteries), respectively. Therefore, they would not be impacted by an ACA stroke. Similarly, the middle cerebral artery is responsible for supplying blood to the temporal lobe, so damage to the ACA would not affect this area.

      The Circle of Willis is an anastomosis formed by the internal carotid arteries and vertebral arteries on the bottom surface of the brain. It is divided into two halves and is made up of various arteries, including the anterior communicating artery, anterior cerebral artery, internal carotid artery, posterior communicating artery, and posterior cerebral arteries. The circle and its branches supply blood to important areas of the brain, such as the corpus striatum, internal capsule, diencephalon, and midbrain.

      The vertebral arteries enter the cranial cavity through the foramen magnum and lie in the subarachnoid space. They then ascend on the anterior surface of the medulla oblongata and unite to form the basilar artery at the base of the pons. The basilar artery has several branches, including the anterior inferior cerebellar artery, labyrinthine artery, pontine arteries, superior cerebellar artery, and posterior cerebral artery.

      The internal carotid arteries also have several branches, such as the posterior communicating artery, anterior cerebral artery, middle cerebral artery, and anterior choroid artery. These arteries supply blood to different parts of the brain, including the frontal, temporal, and parietal lobes. Overall, the Circle of Willis and its branches play a crucial role in providing oxygen and nutrients to the brain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      15.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 75-year-old man presents to the emergency department with acute chest pain that...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man presents to the emergency department with acute chest pain that is radiating to his left shoulder. He has a medical history of a previous transient ischaemic attack three years ago and is currently taking aspirin 75mg OD.

      Upon initial assessment, an ECG reveals ST-segment elevation in V1-V3. The patient undergoes percutaneous coronary intervention with a drug-eluting stent and is stable post-procedure. His treatment plan includes ramipril, ticagrelor, simvastatin, and atenolol.

      What is the mechanism of action of the newly prescribed antiplatelet medication?

      Your Answer: Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor inhibition

      Correct Answer: Inhibit the binding of ADP to platelets

      Explanation:

      Ticagrelor and clopidogrel have a similar mechanism of action in inhibiting ADP binding to platelet receptors, which prevents platelet aggregation. In patients with STEMI who undergo percutaneous coronary intervention with a drug-eluting stent, dual antiplatelet therapy, beta-blockers, ACE inhibitors, and anti-hyperlipidemic drugs are commonly used for secondary management.

      Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa complex is a fibrinogen receptor found on platelets that, when activated, leads to platelet aggregation. Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitors, such as abciximab, bind to this receptor and prevent ligands like fibrinogen from accessing their binding site. Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa antagonists, like eptifibatide, compete with ligands for the receptor’s binding site, blocking the formation of thrombi.

      Dipyridamole inhibits platelet cAMP-phosphodiesterase, leading to increased intra-platelet cAMP and decreased arachidonic acid release, resulting in reduced thromboxane A2 formation. It also inhibits adenosine reuptake by vascular endothelial cells and erythrocytes, leading to increased adenosine concentration, activation of adenyl cyclase, and increased cAMP production.

      ADP receptor inhibitors, such as clopidogrel, prasugrel, ticagrelor, and ticlopidine, work by inhibiting the P2Y12 receptor, which leads to sustained platelet aggregation and stabilization of the platelet plaque. Clinical trials have shown that prasugrel and ticagrelor are more effective than clopidogrel in reducing short- and long-term ischemic events in high-risk patients with acute coronary syndrome or undergoing percutaneous coronary intervention. However, ticagrelor may cause dyspnea due to impaired clearance of adenosine, and there are drug interactions and contraindications to consider for each medication. NICE guidelines recommend dual antiplatelet treatment with aspirin and ticagrelor for 12 months as a secondary prevention strategy for ACS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      38.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 65-year-old man is admitted after experiencing an acute coronary syndrome. He is...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man is admitted after experiencing an acute coronary syndrome. He is prescribed aspirin, clopidogrel, nitrates, and morphine. Due to his high 6-month risk score, percutaneous coronary intervention is planned and he is given intravenous tirofiban. What is the mechanism of action of this medication?

      Your Answer: Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor antagonist

      Explanation:

      Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa Receptor Antagonists

      Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor antagonists are a class of drugs that inhibit the function of the glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor, which is found on the surface of platelets. These drugs are used to prevent blood clots from forming in patients with acute coronary syndrome, unstable angina, or during percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI).

      Examples of glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor antagonists include abciximab, eptifibatide, and tirofiban. These drugs work by blocking the binding of fibrinogen to the glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor, which prevents platelet aggregation and the formation of blood clots.

      Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor antagonists are typically administered intravenously and are used in combination with other antiplatelet agents, such as aspirin and clopidogrel. While these drugs are effective at preventing blood clots, they can also increase the risk of bleeding. Therefore, careful monitoring of patients is necessary to ensure that the benefits of these drugs outweigh the risks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 32-year-old woman has been diagnosed with hyperparathyroidism and is scheduled for resection...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman has been diagnosed with hyperparathyroidism and is scheduled for resection of a right inferior parathyroid adenoma. What embryological structure does this adenoma originate from?

      Your Answer: First pharyngeal pouch

      Correct Answer: Third pharyngeal pouch

      Explanation:

      The third pharyngeal pouch gives rise to the inferior parathyroid, while the fourth pharyngeal pouch is responsible for the development of the superior parathyroid.

      Anatomy and Development of the Parathyroid Glands

      The parathyroid glands are four small glands located posterior to the thyroid gland within the pretracheal fascia. They develop from the third and fourth pharyngeal pouches, with those derived from the fourth pouch located more superiorly and associated with the thyroid gland, while those from the third pouch lie more inferiorly and may become associated with the thymus.

      The blood supply to the parathyroid glands is derived from the inferior and superior thyroid arteries, with a rich anastomosis between the two vessels. Venous drainage is into the thyroid veins. The parathyroid glands are surrounded by various structures, with the common carotid laterally, the recurrent laryngeal nerve and trachea medially, and the thyroid anteriorly. Understanding the anatomy and development of the parathyroid glands is important for their proper identification and preservation during surgical procedures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 39-year-old male arrives at the emergency department complaining of palpitations and is...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old male arrives at the emergency department complaining of palpitations and is diagnosed with monomorphic ventricular tachycardia. What electrolyte is responsible for maintaining the resting potential of ventricular myocytes?

      Your Answer: Calcium

      Correct Answer: Potassium

      Explanation:

      The resting potential of cardiac myocytes is maintained by potassium, while depolarization is initiated by a sudden influx of sodium ions and repolarization is caused by the outflow of potassium. The extended duration of a cardiac action potential, in contrast to skeletal muscle, is due to a gradual influx of calcium.

      Understanding the Cardiac Action Potential and Conduction Velocity

      The cardiac action potential is a series of electrical events that occur in the heart during each heartbeat. It is responsible for the contraction of the heart muscle and the pumping of blood throughout the body. The action potential is divided into five phases, each with a specific mechanism. The first phase is rapid depolarization, which is caused by the influx of sodium ions. The second phase is early repolarization, which is caused by the efflux of potassium ions. The third phase is the plateau phase, which is caused by the slow influx of calcium ions. The fourth phase is final repolarization, which is caused by the efflux of potassium ions. The final phase is the restoration of ionic concentrations, which is achieved by the Na+/K+ ATPase pump.

      Conduction velocity is the speed at which the electrical signal travels through the heart. The speed varies depending on the location of the signal. Atrial conduction spreads along ordinary atrial myocardial fibers at a speed of 1 m/sec. AV node conduction is much slower, at 0.05 m/sec. Ventricular conduction is the fastest in the heart, achieved by the large diameter of the Purkinje fibers, which can achieve velocities of 2-4 m/sec. This allows for a rapid and coordinated contraction of the ventricles, which is essential for the proper functioning of the heart. Understanding the cardiac action potential and conduction velocity is crucial for diagnosing and treating heart conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      4.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 79-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with severe, crushing chest pain....

    Correct

    • A 79-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with severe, crushing chest pain. His ECG reveals ST-segment elevation in leads V1-4. What electrical state of the heart is likely to be impacted based on his ECG findings?

      Your Answer: The period when the entire ventricle is depolarised

      Explanation:

      The ST segment on an ECG represents the time when the ventricles are fully depolarized, occurring between the QRS complex and the T wave. The P wave represents atrial depolarization, while the PR interval represents the time between atrial and ventricular depolarization. The QRS complex represents ventricular depolarization, and the T wave represents repolarization. Overall, the ECG reflects the various electrical states of the heart.

      Understanding the Normal ECG

      The electrocardiogram (ECG) is a diagnostic tool used to assess the electrical activity of the heart. The normal ECG consists of several waves and intervals that represent different phases of the cardiac cycle. The P wave represents atrial depolarization, while the QRS complex represents ventricular depolarization. The ST segment represents the plateau phase of the ventricular action potential, and the T wave represents ventricular repolarization. The Q-T interval represents the time for both ventricular depolarization and repolarization to occur.

      The P-R interval represents the time between the onset of atrial depolarization and the onset of ventricular depolarization. The duration of the QRS complex is normally 0.06 to 0.1 seconds, while the duration of the P wave is 0.08 to 0.1 seconds. The Q-T interval ranges from 0.2 to 0.4 seconds depending upon heart rate. At high heart rates, the Q-T interval is expressed as a ‘corrected Q-T (QTc)’ by taking the Q-T interval and dividing it by the square root of the R-R interval.

      Understanding the normal ECG is important for healthcare professionals to accurately interpret ECG results and diagnose cardiac conditions. By analyzing the different waves and intervals, healthcare professionals can identify abnormalities in the electrical activity of the heart and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      59.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 28-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of chest pain. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of chest pain. The ECG strip shows an irregularly irregular tachycardia that is not in sinus rhythm.

      Where is the site of this pathology?

      Your Answer: Absent electrical activity in the bundle of His

      Correct Answer: Discordance of electrical activity from the myocytes surrounding the pulmonary veins

      Explanation:

      Atrial fibrillation occurs when irregular electrical activity from the myocytes surrounding the pulmonary veins overwhelms the regular impulses from the sinus node. This leads to discordance of electrical activity in the atria, causing the irregularly irregular tachycardia characteristic of AF. It is important to note that AF is not caused by an absence of electrical activity in the atria or bundle of His.

      Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a heart condition that requires prompt management. The management of AF depends on the patient’s haemodynamic stability and the duration of the AF. For haemodynamically unstable patients, electrical cardioversion is recommended. For haemodynamically stable patients, rate control is the first-line treatment strategy, except in certain cases. Medications such as beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers, and digoxin are commonly used to control the heart rate. Rhythm control is another treatment option that involves the use of medications such as beta-blockers, dronedarone, and amiodarone. Catheter ablation is recommended for patients who have not responded to or wish to avoid antiarrhythmic medication. The procedure involves the use of radiofrequency or cryotherapy to ablate the faulty electrical pathways that cause AF. Anticoagulation is necessary before and during the procedure to reduce the risk of stroke. The success rate of catheter ablation varies, with around 50% of patients experiencing an early recurrence of AF within three months. However, after three years, around 55% of patients who have undergone a single procedure remain in sinus rhythm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      33.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which one of the following structures lies deepest in the popliteal fossa? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following structures lies deepest in the popliteal fossa?

      Your Answer: Popliteal artery

      Explanation:

      Starting from the surface and moving towards the depths, the common peroneal nerve emerges from the popliteal fossa adjacent to the inner edge of the biceps tendon. Subsequently, the tibial nerve runs alongside the popliteal vessels, first posteriorly and then medially. The popliteal vein is situated above the popliteal artery, which is the most internal structure in the fossa.

      Anatomy of the Popliteal Fossa

      The popliteal fossa is a diamond-shaped space located at the back of the knee joint. It is bound by various muscles and ligaments, including the biceps femoris, semimembranosus, semitendinosus, and gastrocnemius. The floor of the popliteal fossa is formed by the popliteal surface of the femur, posterior ligament of the knee joint, and popliteus muscle, while the roof is made up of superficial and deep fascia.

      The popliteal fossa contains several important structures, including the popliteal artery and vein, small saphenous vein, common peroneal nerve, tibial nerve, posterior cutaneous nerve of the thigh, genicular branch of the obturator nerve, and lymph nodes. These structures are crucial for the proper functioning of the lower leg and foot.

      Understanding the anatomy of the popliteal fossa is important for healthcare professionals, as it can help in the diagnosis and treatment of various conditions affecting the knee joint and surrounding structures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      2.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 32-year-old man is shot in the postero-inferior aspect of his thigh. What...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man is shot in the postero-inferior aspect of his thigh. What structure is located at the most lateral aspect of the popliteal fossa?

      Your Answer: Tibial nerve

      Correct Answer: Common peroneal nerve

      Explanation:

      The structures found in the popliteal fossa, listed from medial to lateral, include the popliteal artery, popliteal vein, tibial nerve, and common peroneal nerve. The sural nerve, which is a branch of the tibial nerve, typically originates at the lower part of the popliteal fossa, but its location may vary.

      Anatomy of the Popliteal Fossa

      The popliteal fossa is a diamond-shaped space located at the back of the knee joint. It is bound by various muscles and ligaments, including the biceps femoris, semimembranosus, semitendinosus, and gastrocnemius. The floor of the popliteal fossa is formed by the popliteal surface of the femur, posterior ligament of the knee joint, and popliteus muscle, while the roof is made up of superficial and deep fascia.

      The popliteal fossa contains several important structures, including the popliteal artery and vein, small saphenous vein, common peroneal nerve, tibial nerve, posterior cutaneous nerve of the thigh, genicular branch of the obturator nerve, and lymph nodes. These structures are crucial for the proper functioning of the lower leg and foot.

      Understanding the anatomy of the popliteal fossa is important for healthcare professionals, as it can help in the diagnosis and treatment of various conditions affecting the knee joint and surrounding structures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      4.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 45-year-old woman presents to the cardiology clinic complaining of palpitations and shortness...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman presents to the cardiology clinic complaining of palpitations and shortness of breath for the past 6 weeks. She has a medical history of rheumatic fever and eczema.

      During the physical examination, the patient exhibits a malar flush and a loud S1 with an opening snap is heard upon auscultation. Her heart rhythm is irregularly irregular. A chest x-ray is ordered and reveals a double heart border.

      What other symptom is this patient likely to encounter?

      Your Answer: Arm and facial swelling

      Correct Answer: Difficulty swallowing

      Explanation:

      The statement about left atrial enlargement compressing the esophagus in mitral stenosis is correct. This can lead to difficulty swallowing. The patient’s medical history of rheumatic fever, along with clinical signs such as malar flush, a loud S1 with opening snap, and an irregularly irregular heart rhythm (likely atrial fibrillation), suggest a diagnosis of mitral stenosis. This condition obstructs the outflow of blood from the left atrium into the left ventricle, causing the left atrium to enlarge and compress surrounding structures. Left atrial enlargement can also increase the risk of developing arrhythmias like atrial fibrillation.

      The statements about arm and facial swelling, constipation, and neck pain are incorrect. Arm and facial swelling occur due to compression of the superior vena cava, which is not caused by left atrial enlargement. Constipation is not a symptom of mitral stenosis, but patients may experience abdominal discomfort due to right-sided heart failure. Neck pain is not associated with mitral stenosis, but neck vein distention may be observed.

      Understanding Mitral Stenosis

      Mitral stenosis is a condition where the mitral valve, which controls blood flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle, becomes obstructed. This leads to an increase in pressure within the left atrium, pulmonary vasculature, and right side of the heart. The most common cause of mitral stenosis is rheumatic fever, but it can also be caused by other rare conditions such as mucopolysaccharidoses, carcinoid, and endocardial fibroelastosis.

      Symptoms of mitral stenosis include dyspnea, hemoptysis, a mid-late diastolic murmur, a loud S1, and a low volume pulse. Severe cases may also present with an increased length of murmur and a closer opening snap to S2. Chest x-rays may show left atrial enlargement, while echocardiography can confirm a cross-sectional area of less than 1 sq cm for a tight mitral stenosis.

      Management of mitral stenosis depends on the severity of the condition. Asymptomatic patients are monitored with regular echocardiograms, while symptomatic patients may undergo percutaneous mitral balloon valvotomy or mitral valve surgery. Patients with associated atrial fibrillation require anticoagulation, with warfarin currently recommended for moderate/severe cases. However, there is an emerging consensus that direct-acting anticoagulants may be suitable for mild cases with atrial fibrillation.

      Overall, understanding mitral stenosis is important for proper diagnosis and management of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      26.8
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiovascular System (3/10) 30%
Passmed