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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old girl presents with a history of a persistent cough that has been present for the past four weeks. The cough occurs in quick bursts with a deep breath in followed by a series of forceful coughs. She occasionally vomits after coughing. Her mother reports that the cough is more severe at night.
During the examination, her chest sounds clear, but you observe two small subconjunctival hemorrhages and some tiny red spots on her face.
What is the MOST suitable test to perform in this case?Your Answer: Culture of nasopharyngeal swab
Correct Answer: Serology for anti-pertussis toxin IgG antibody levels
Explanation:This presentation strongly suggests a diagnosis of whooping cough, which is an infection of the upper respiratory tract caused by the bacteria Bordetella pertussis. The disease is highly contagious and is transmitted through respiratory droplets. The incubation period is typically 7-21 days, and it is estimated that about 90% of close household contacts will become infected.
The clinical course of whooping cough can be divided into two stages. The first stage, known as the catarrhal stage, is similar to a mild respiratory infection with symptoms such as low-grade fever and a runny nose. A cough may be present, but it is usually not as severe as in the second stage. This phase typically lasts about a week.
The second stage, called the paroxysmal stage, is characterized by the development of a distinctive cough. The coughing occurs in spasms, often preceded by an inspiratory whoop sound. These spasms are followed by a series of rapid, hacking coughs. Patients may also experience vomiting and develop subconjunctival hemorrhages and petechiae. Between spasms, patients generally feel well and there are usually no abnormal chest findings. This stage can last up to 3 months, with a gradual recovery over this period. The later stages of this phase are sometimes referred to as the convalescent stage.
Complications of whooping cough can include secondary pneumonia, rib fractures, pneumothorax, hernias, syncopal episodes, encephalopathy, and seizures.
Public Health England (PHE) has specific recommendations for testing for whooping cough based on the age of the patient, the time since onset of illness, and the severity of the presentation.
For infants under 12 months of age, hospitalized patients should be tested using PCR testing. Non-hospitalized patients within two weeks of onset should be investigated with culture of a nasopharyngeal swab or aspirate. Non-hospitalized patients presenting over two weeks after onset should be tested using serology for anti-pertussis toxin IgG antibody levels.
For children over 12 months of age and adults, patients within two weeks of onset should be tested using culture of a nasopharyngeal swab or aspirate. Patients aged 5 to 16 who have not received the vaccine within the last year and present over two weeks after onset should have oral fluid testing for anti-pertussis toxin IgG antibody levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 2
Correct
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A 45-year-old woman presents with increasing shortness of breath at rest and severe left shoulder pain. The pain travels down the inner side of her left arm and into her ring and little finger. She has a long history of smoking, having smoked 30 packs of cigarettes per year. During the examination, her voice sounds hoarse and there is muscle wasting in her left hand and forearm. Additionally, she has a left-sided ptosis and miosis.
What is the MOST suitable initial test to perform?Your Answer: Chest X-ray
Explanation:This individual, who has been smoking for a long time, is likely to have squamous cell carcinoma of the lung located at the right apex. This particular type of cancer is causing Pancoast’s syndrome. Pancoast’s syndrome typically presents with rib erosion, leading to severe shoulder pain, as well as Horner’s syndrome due to the infiltration of the lower part of the brachial plexus. Additionally, there may be hoarseness of the voice and a ‘bovine cough’ due to a concurrent recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy.
The classic description of Horner’s syndrome includes the following clinical features on the same side as the tumor: miosis (constricted pupil), ptosis (drooping eyelid), anhidrosis (lack of sweating), and enophthalmos (sunken appearance of the eye). A chest X-ray would be able to detect the presence of the apical tumor and confirm the diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man comes in with a fever, chills, headache, cough, and difficulty breathing. He also complains of a sore throat and occasional nosebleeds. He works at a nearby zoo in the bird exhibit. During the examination, a reddish macular rash is observed on his face, along with significant crackling sounds in both lower lobes of his lungs and an enlarged spleen.
What is the specific name of the rash on his face that is associated with this condition?Your Answer: Erythema marginatum
Correct Answer: Horder’s spots
Explanation:Psittacosis is a type of infection that can be transmitted from animals to humans, caused by a bacterium called Chlamydia psittaci. It is most commonly seen in people who own domestic birds, as well as those who work in pet shops or zoos. The typical symptoms of psittacosis include pneumonia that is acquired within the community, along with flu-like symptoms. Many patients also experience severe headaches and sensitivity to light. Enlargement of the spleen is a common finding in about two-thirds of individuals with this infection.
Infected individuals often develop a rash on their face, known as Horder’s spots, which appear as reddish macules. In some cases, erythema nodosum and erythema multiforme may also occur. The recommended treatment for psittacosis is a course of tetracycline or doxycycline for a period of 2-3 weeks.
On the other hand, rose spots are typically observed in cases of typhoid fever. These spots have a similar appearance to Horder’s spots but are usually found on the trunk rather than the face. Erythema marginatum is a pale red rash seen in rheumatic fever, while malar flush, also known as ‘mitral facies’, refers to the reddish discoloration of the cheeks commonly seen in individuals with mitral stenosis. Lastly, erythema chronicum migrans is the distinctive rash seen in Lyme disease, characterized by a circular rash with a central ‘bulls-eye’ appearance that spreads outward from the site of a tick bite.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 4
Correct
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A 25-year-old female patient arrives at the Emergency Department displaying clinical signs of a sexually transmitted infection.
Which of the following organisms is frequently transmitted through sexual contact?Your Answer: Human papillomavirus
Explanation:The human papillomavirus (HPV) is a viral infection that is primarily responsible for the development of genital warts. This virus is predominantly transmitted through sexual contact.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old patient arrives at the Emergency Department with a deep cut on their leg. They have a history of alcoholism and typically consumes 10-12 drinks daily. Despite previous attempts at sobriety, they have consistently relapsed within a few days. It is currently 11 am, and they have already consumed alcohol today.
What would be the most suitable course of action to pursue?Your Answer: Refer them to the Community Drug and Alcohol Team for inpatient detox
Correct Answer: Explore the reasons behind their previous relapses and the methods they have used to stop drinking in the past
Explanation:When addressing the management of long-term alcohol abuse and promoting self-care, it is important to start by exploring the reasons behind the patient’s previous relapses. This will help understand her beliefs and understanding of her condition and identify any simple, supportive measures that can aid in her efforts to stop drinking.
Referral to the Community Drug and Alcohol Team (CDAT) may be necessary at some point. Depending on the severity and duration of her alcohol abuse, she may be suitable for outpatient or community detox. However, if her drinking has been sustained and heavy for many years, she may require admission for additional support. It is important to note that there is often a long wait for available beds, so it would be more prudent to thoroughly explore her history before making this referral.
While arranging for her liver function to be tested could be part of the general work-up, it is unlikely to be necessary for a leg laceration. It is crucial to avoid suddenly abstaining or prescribing chlordiazepoxide, as these actions can be potentially dangerous. Abrupt detoxification may lead to delirium tremens, which can have catastrophic effects. Chlordiazepoxide may be used under the supervision of experienced professionals, but close monitoring and regular appointments with a GP or specialist are essential.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 6
Incorrect
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You are with a hiking group at an elevation of 3100 meters. One of your members, who is experiencing a headache, nausea, and fatigue, is diagnosed with acute mountain sickness (AMS). Which medication would be the most suitable for treating AMS?
Your Answer: Prochlorperazine
Correct Answer: Dexamethasone
Explanation:Dexamethasone is the preferred medication for treating Acute Mountain Sickness (AMS) and High Altitude Cerebral Edema (HACE). In cases of mild AMS, simply halting the ascent and giving the body time to acclimatize may be sufficient. However, if mild AMS persists or worsens, or if the patient experiences moderate to severe AMS, descending to a lower altitude is the most effective treatment, preferably with the addition of supplemental oxygen. Dexamethasone is the recommended medication for managing both AMS and HACE.
Further Reading:
High Altitude Illnesses
Altitude & Hypoxia:
– As altitude increases, atmospheric pressure decreases and inspired oxygen pressure falls.
– Hypoxia occurs at altitude due to decreased inspired oxygen.
– At 5500m, inspired oxygen is approximately half that at sea level, and at 8900m, it is less than a third.Acute Mountain Sickness (AMS):
– AMS is a clinical syndrome caused by hypoxia at altitude.
– Symptoms include headache, anorexia, sleep disturbance, nausea, dizziness, fatigue, malaise, and shortness of breath.
– Symptoms usually occur after 6-12 hours above 2500m.
– Risk factors for AMS include previous AMS, fast ascent, sleeping at altitude, and age <50 years old.
– The Lake Louise AMS score is used to assess the severity of AMS.
– Treatment involves stopping ascent, maintaining hydration, and using medication for symptom relief.
– Medications for moderate to severe symptoms include dexamethasone and acetazolamide.
– Gradual ascent, hydration, and avoiding alcohol can help prevent AMS.High Altitude Pulmonary Edema (HAPE):
– HAPE is a progression of AMS but can occur without AMS symptoms.
– It is the leading cause of death related to altitude illness.
– Risk factors for HAPE include rate of ascent, intensity of exercise, absolute altitude, and individual susceptibility.
– Symptoms include dyspnea, cough, chest tightness, poor exercise tolerance, cyanosis, low oxygen saturations, tachycardia, tachypnea, crepitations, and orthopnea.
– Management involves immediate descent, supplemental oxygen, keeping warm, and medication such as nifedipine.High Altitude Cerebral Edema (HACE):
– HACE is thought to result from vasogenic edema and increased vascular pressure.
– It occurs 2-4 days after ascent and is associated with moderate to severe AMS symptoms.
– Symptoms include headache, hallucinations, disorientation, confusion, ataxia, drowsiness, seizures, and manifestations of raised intracranial pressure.
– Immediate descent is crucial for management, and portable hyperbaric therapy may be used if descent is not possible.
– Medication for treatment includes dexamethasone and supplemental oxygen. Acetazolamide is typically used for prophylaxis. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Environmental Emergencies
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Question 7
Correct
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A 72 year old male patient presents to the emergency department complaining of worsening shortness of breath. You observe moderate mitral stenosis on the patient's most recent echocardiogram 10 months ago.
What is a typical finding in individuals with mitral stenosis?Your Answer: Loud 1st heart sound
Explanation:Mitral stenosis is a condition characterized by a narrowing of the mitral valve in the heart. One of the key features of this condition is a loud first heart sound, which is often described as having an opening snap. This sound is typically heard during mid-late diastole and is best heard during expiration. Other signs of mitral stenosis include a low volume pulse, a flushed appearance of the cheeks (known as malar flush), and the presence of atrial fibrillation. Additionally, patients with mitral stenosis may exhibit signs of pulmonary edema, such as crepitations (crackling sounds) in the lungs and the production of white or pink frothy sputum. It is important to note that a water hammer pulse is associated with a different condition called aortic regurgitation.
Further Reading:
Mitral Stenosis:
– Causes: Rheumatic fever, Mucopolysaccharidoses, Carcinoid, Endocardial fibroelastosis
– Features: Mid-late diastolic murmur, loud S1, opening snap, low volume pulse, malar flush, atrial fibrillation, signs of pulmonary edema, tapping apex beat
– Features of severe mitral stenosis: Length of murmur increases, opening snap becomes closer to S2
– Investigation findings: CXR may show left atrial enlargement, echocardiography may show reduced cross-sectional area of the mitral valveMitral Regurgitation:
– Causes: Mitral valve prolapse, Myxomatous degeneration, Ischemic heart disease, Rheumatic fever, Connective tissue disorders, Endocarditis, Dilated cardiomyopathy
– Features: pansystolic murmur radiating to left axilla, soft S1, S3, laterally displaced apex beat with heave
– Signs of acute MR: Decompensated congestive heart failure symptoms
– Signs of chronic MR: Leg edema, fatigue, arrhythmia (atrial fibrillation)
– Investigation findings: Doppler echocardiography to detect regurgitant flow and pulmonary hypertension, ECG may show signs of LA enlargement and LV hypertrophy, CXR may show LA and LV enlargement in chronic MR and pulmonary edema in acute MR. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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You review a patient on the clinical decision unit (CDU) with a known diagnosis of Alzheimer's disease (AD).
Which SINGLE statement regarding this condition is true?Your Answer: Personality changes usually occur before memory loss
Correct Answer: It is the third most common cause of dementia in the elderly
Explanation:Dementia with Lewy bodies (DLB), also known as Lewy body dementia (LBD), is a progressive neurodegenerative condition that is closely linked to Parkinson’s disease (PD). It is the third most common cause of dementia in older individuals, following Alzheimer’s disease and vascular dementia.
DLB is characterized by several clinical features, including the presence of Parkinsonism or co-existing PD, a gradual decline in cognitive function, fluctuations in cognition, alertness, and attention span, episodes of temporary loss of consciousness, recurrent falls, visual hallucinations, depression, and complex, systematized delusions. The level of cognitive impairment can vary from hour to hour and day to day.
Pathologically, DLB is marked by the formation of abnormal protein collections called Lewy bodies within the cytoplasm of neurons. These intracellular protein collections share similar structural characteristics with the classic Lewy bodies observed in Parkinson’s disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Elderly Care / Frailty
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Question 9
Correct
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A 60-year-old individual presents with an arthropathy affecting their right knee. A diagnosis of pseudogout is made based on the findings of a joint aspirate that has been sent for laboratory analysis.
What type of crystals are deposited in the joints in pseudogout?Your Answer: Calcium pyrophosphate crystals
Explanation:Gout and pseudogout are both characterized by the presence of crystal deposits in the joints that are affected. Gout occurs when urate crystals are deposited, while pseudogout occurs when calcium pyrophosphate crystals are deposited. Under a microscope, these crystals can be distinguished by their appearance. Urate crystals are needle-shaped and negatively birefringent, while calcium pyrophosphate crystals are brick-shaped and positively birefringent.
Gout can affect any joint in the body, but it most commonly manifests in the hallux metatarsophalangeal joint, which is the joint at the base of the big toe. This joint is affected in approximately 50% of gout cases. On the other hand, pseudogout primarily affects the larger joints, such as the knee.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
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Question 10
Correct
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A 40-year-old construction worker comes in with a few weeks of persistent lower back pain. Despite taking the maximum dose of ibuprofen, he is still experiencing discomfort and is seeking additional pain relief. What would be the most suitable next course of treatment? Choose only ONE option.
Your Answer: Add low-dose codeine phosphate
Explanation:The current guidelines from NICE provide recommendations for managing low back pain. It is suggested to consider using oral non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) such as ibuprofen, while taking into account the potential risks of gastrointestinal, liver, and cardio-renal toxicity, as well as the person’s individual risk factors and age. When prescribing oral NSAIDs, it is important to conduct appropriate clinical assessments, monitor risk factors regularly, and consider the use of gastroprotective treatment. It is advised to prescribe the lowest effective dose of oral NSAIDs for the shortest duration possible. In cases where NSAIDs are contraindicated, not tolerated, or ineffective, weak opioids (with or without paracetamol) may be considered for managing acute low back pain. However, NICE does not recommend the use of paracetamol alone, opioids for chronic low back pain, serotonin reuptake inhibitors, serotonin-noradrenaline reuptake inhibitors, tricyclic antidepressants for non-neuropathic pain, anticonvulsants, or benzodiazepines for muscle spasm associated with acute low back pain. For more information, you can refer to the NICE guidance on low back pain and sciatica in individuals over 16 years old, as well as the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary on low back pain without radiculopathy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
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