00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 0 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - What defence mechanism is commonly observed in individuals in the paranoid-schizoid position? ...

    Correct

    • What defence mechanism is commonly observed in individuals in the paranoid-schizoid position?

      Your Answer: Splitting

      Explanation:

      Melanie Klein, a prominent psychoanalyst, introduced two significant concepts in her work: the paranoid-schizoid position and the depressive position. The paranoid-schizoid position is a state of mind where the individual perceives the world as fragmented, dividing it into good and bad. This position is characterized by the defense mechanism of splitting, where the individual separates the good and bad aspects of themselves and others.

      On the other hand, the depressive position follows the paranoid-schizoid position and is characterized by the ability to accept ambivalence, where something can be both good and bad. This position represents a more integrated state of mind, where the individual can hold conflicting emotions and thoughts simultaneously. These concepts have been influential in psychoanalytic theory and have contributed to our understanding of the human psyche.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychotherapy
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - What level of kappa score indicates complete agreement between two observers? ...

    Correct

    • What level of kappa score indicates complete agreement between two observers?

      Your Answer: 1

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Kappa Statistic for Measuring Interobserver Variation

      The kappa statistic, also known as Cohen’s kappa coefficient, is a useful tool for quantifying the level of agreement between independent observers. This measure can be applied in any situation where multiple observers are evaluating the same thing, such as in medical diagnoses of research studies. The kappa coefficient ranges from 0 to 1, with 0 indicating complete disagreement and 1 indicating perfect agreement. By using the kappa statistic, researchers and practitioners can gain insight into the level of interobserver variation present in their data, which can help to improve the accuracy and reliability of their findings. Overall, the kappa statistic is a valuable tool for understanding and measuring interobserver variation in a variety of contexts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      2.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A study examines the likelihood of stroke in middle-aged patients prescribed antipsychotic medication....

    Correct

    • A study examines the likelihood of stroke in middle-aged patients prescribed antipsychotic medication. Group A receives standard treatment, and after 5 years, 20 out of 100 patients experience a stroke. Group B receives standard treatment plus a new drug intended to decrease the risk of stroke. After 5 years, 10 out of 60 patients have a stroke. What are the chances of having a stroke while taking the new drug compared to the chances of having a stroke in those receiving standard treatment?

      Your Answer: 0.8

      Explanation:

      If the odds ratio is less than 1, it means that the likelihood of experiencing a stroke is lower for individuals who are taking the new drug compared to those who are receiving the usual treatment.

      Measures of Effect in Clinical Studies

      When conducting clinical studies, we often want to know the effect of treatments of exposures on health outcomes. Measures of effect are used in randomized controlled trials (RCTs) and include the odds ratio (of), risk ratio (RR), risk difference (RD), and number needed to treat (NNT). Dichotomous (binary) outcome data are common in clinical trials, where the outcome for each participant is one of two possibilities, such as dead of alive, of clinical improvement of no improvement.

      To understand the difference between of and RR, it’s important to know the difference between risks and odds. Risk is a proportion that describes the probability of a health outcome occurring, while odds is a ratio that compares the probability of an event occurring to the probability of it not occurring. Absolute risk is the basic risk, while risk difference is the difference between the absolute risk of an event in the intervention group and the absolute risk in the control group. Relative risk is the ratio of risk in the intervention group to the risk in the control group.

      The number needed to treat (NNT) is the number of patients who need to be treated for one to benefit. Odds are calculated by dividing the number of times an event happens by the number of times it does not happen. The odds ratio is the odds of an outcome given a particular exposure versus the odds of an outcome in the absence of the exposure. It is commonly used in case-control studies and can also be used in cross-sectional and cohort study designs. An odds ratio of 1 indicates no difference in risk between the two groups, while an odds ratio >1 indicates an increased risk and an odds ratio <1 indicates a reduced risk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      475
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - In Korsakoff's syndrome, which area of the brain is primarily affected by pathology?...

    Correct

    • In Korsakoff's syndrome, which area of the brain is primarily affected by pathology?

      Your Answer: Mammillary bodies

      Explanation:

      Korsakoff’s Syndrome

      Korsakoff’s Syndrome, also known as amnesic syndrome, is a chronic condition that affects recent and anterograde memory in an alert and responsive patient. It is caused by prolonged thiamine (vitamin B1) deficiency and often follows Wernicke’s encephalopathy. The syndrome is characterized by a lack of insight, apathy, and confabulation. Thiamine is essential for glucose metabolism in the brain, and its deficiency leads to a toxic buildup of glucose, causing neuronal loss. The Mammillary bodies are the main areas affected in Korsakoff’s syndrome.

      While intelligence on the WAIS is preserved, episodic memory is severely affected in Korsakoff’s syndrome. Semantic memory is variably affected, but implicit aspects of memory, such as response to priming and procedural memory, are preserved. Immediate memory tested with the digit span is normal, but information can only be retained for a few minutes at most. Patients with Korsakoff’s syndrome often display apathy, lack of initiative, and profound lack of insight.

      Source: Kopelman M (2009) The Korsakoff Syndrome: Clinical Aspects, Psychology and Treatment. Alcohol and Alcoholism 44 (2): 148-154.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - What is the definition of a condition that involves a decline in memory...

    Correct

    • What is the definition of a condition that involves a decline in memory and at least one other cognitive domain, leading to interference with social and occupational function in an alert individual?

      Your Answer: Dementia

      Explanation:

      Dementia: An Overview

      Dementia is a syndrome that results in a decline in memory and at least one other cognitive domain, such as language, visuospatial of executive functioning. This decline is significant enough to interfere with social and occupational function in an alert person. The diagnosis of dementia is based on evidence of neurocognitive impairment, which is demonstrated by standardized neuropsychological of cognitive testing. Behavioural changes may also be present, and the symptoms result in significant impairment in personal, family, social, educational, occupational, of other important areas of functioning.

      Epidemiology

      The total population prevalence of dementia among over 65s is 7.1%, which equals 1.3% of the entire UK population. Alzheimer’s disease is the most common cause of dementia in the UK, followed by vascular and Lewy body dementia. These conditions may coexist. The proportions of dementia severity among people with late-onset dementia are as follows: 55.4% have mild dementia, 32.1% have moderate dementia, and 12.5% have severe dementia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
      76.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 62-year-old woman lost her husband due to a heart attack six months...

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old woman lost her husband due to a heart attack six months ago. Her son, who lives in another state and visits her every month, has noticed that her mother's memory has become worse over the last five months. She has forgotten to take her medication and has left the front door unlocked overnight, which worries him. She has been more emotional and does not seem excited about her upcoming birthday.
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Depressive pseudodementia

      Explanation:

      If a person is experiencing forgetfulness after the death of their spouse, it may indicate pre-existing dementia that was previously hidden by their spouse’s assistance with daily tasks. However, if negative thoughts and emotions are also present, it could suggest the possibility of depressive pseudodementia. It is unlikely that the person is experiencing a stress reaction of adjustment disorder at this point.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
      18.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A man in his 50s with breast cancer has developed moderate depression. He...

    Correct

    • A man in his 50s with breast cancer has developed moderate depression. He is on tamoxifen treatment. Which antidepressant should be avoided?

      Your Answer: Fluoxetine

      Explanation:

      The use of tamoxifen should not be combined with paroxetine and fluoxetine as it may decrease its effectiveness.

      Tamoxifen and Antidepressant Interactions

      Tamoxifen is a medication used to treat breast cancer by reducing relapse rates and increasing overall survival. It works by antagonizing estrogen in the breast, with its anti-estrogen affinity depending on its primary metabolite, endoxifen. However, tamoxifen is metabolized to endoxifen through the liver enzyme CYP2D6, and any drug that inhibits this enzyme can reduce the conversion of tamoxifen to endoxifen.

      Women taking tamoxifen for breast cancer treatment of prevention may also take antidepressants for psychiatric disorders of hot flushes. Some antidepressants have been found to inhibit the metabolism of tamoxifen to its more active metabolites by the CYP2D6 enzyme, thereby decreasing its anticancer effect. Strong CYP2D6 inhibitors include paroxetine, fluoxetine, bupropion, and duloxetine, while moderate inhibitors include sertraline, escitalopram, and doxepin, and venlafaxine is a weak inhibitor.

      Therefore, it is important for healthcare providers to consider potential drug interactions when prescribing antidepressants to women taking tamoxifen for breast cancer treatment of prevention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      7.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of the following scenarios could be considered as a valid defence of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following scenarios could be considered as a valid defence of insane automatism?

      Your Answer: Concussion

      Correct Answer: Somnambulism

      Explanation:

      The origin of insane automatism is internal to the body, while in the case of sane automatism, it is caused by external factors.

      Criminal Responsibility and Age Limits

      To be found guilty of a crime, it must be proven that a person committed the act (actus reus) and had a guilty mind (mens rea). In England and Wales, children under the age of 10 cannot be held criminally responsible for their actions and cannot be arrested or charged with a crime. Instead, they may face other punishments such as a Local Child Curfew of a Child Safety Order. Children between the ages of 10 and 17 can be arrested and taken to court, but are treated differently from adults and may be dealt with by youth courts, given different sentences, and sent to special secure centers for young people. Young people aged 18 are treated as adults by the law.

      Not Guilty by Reason of Insanity and Other Defenses

      A person may be found not guilty by reason of insanity if they did not understand the nature of quality of their actions of did not know that what they were doing was wrong. Automatism is a defense used when the act is believed to have occurred unconsciously, either from an external cause (sane automatism) of an internal cause (insane automatism). Diminished responsibility is a defense used only in the defense of murder and allows for a reduction of the normal life sentence to manslaughter.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Forensic Psychiatry
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - What is the recommended course of action for treating mania in a 15...

    Correct

    • What is the recommended course of action for treating mania in a 15 year old female?

      Your Answer: Aripiprazole

      Explanation:

      Bipolar Disorder: Diagnosis and Management

      Bipolar disorder is a lifelong condition characterized by episodes of mania or hypomania and episodes of depressed mood. The peak age of onset is 15-19 years, and the lifetime prevalence of bipolar I disorders is estimated to be around 2.1%. The diagnosis of bipolar disorder is based on the presence of manic or hypomanic episodes, which are characterized by elevated of expansive mood, rapid speech, and increased activity of energy. Psychotic symptoms, such as delusions and hallucinations, may also be present.

      Bipolar depression differs from unipolar depression in several ways, including more rapid onset, more frequent episodes, and shorter duration. Rapid cycling is a qualifier that can be applied to bipolar I of bipolar II disorder and is defined as the presence of at least four mood episodes in the previous 12 months that meet the criteria for a manic, hypomanic, of major depressive episode.

      The management of bipolar disorder involves acute and long-term interventions. Acute management of mania or hypomania may involve stopping antidepressants and offering antipsychotics of mood stabilizers. Long-term management may involve psychological interventions and pharmacological treatments such as lithium, valproate, of olanzapine.

      It is important to note that valproate should not be offered to women of girls of childbearing potential for long-term bipolar disorder unless other options are ineffective of not tolerated and a pregnancy prevention program is in place. Aripiprazole is recommended as an option for treating moderate to severe manic episodes in adolescents with bipolar I disorder.

      Overall, the diagnosis and management of bipolar disorder require a comprehensive approach that takes into account the individual’s symptoms, history, and preferences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      82.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the options below is not a valid means of supporting a...

    Correct

    • Which of the options below is not a valid means of supporting a diagnosis of obsessive compulsive personality disorder?

      Your Answer: Views self as inferior to others

      Explanation:

      It is important to note that while individuals with obsessive personality disorder may experience feelings of inferiority, this is not a defining characteristic of the disorder. In contrast, a diagnosis of avoidant personality disorder may be more appropriate for individuals who consistently view themselves as inferior to others.

      Personality Disorder (Obsessive Compulsive)

      Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder is characterized by a preoccupation with orderliness, perfectionism, and control, which can hinder flexibility and efficiency. This pattern typically emerges in early adulthood and can be present in various contexts. The estimated prevalence ranges from 2.1% to 7.9%, with males being diagnosed twice as often as females.

      The DSM-5 diagnosis requires the presence of four of more of the following criteria: preoccupation with details, rules, lists, order, organization, of agenda to the point that the key part of the activity is lost; perfectionism that hampers completing tasks; extreme dedication to work and efficiency to the elimination of spare time activities; meticulous, scrupulous, and rigid about etiquettes of morality, ethics, of values; inability to dispose of worn-out of insignificant things even when they have no sentimental meaning; unwillingness to delegate tasks of work with others except if they surrender to exactly their way of doing things; miserly spending style towards self and others; and rigidity and stubbornness.

      The ICD-11 abolished all categories of personality disorder except for a general description of personality disorder, which can be further specified as “mild,” “moderate,” of “severe.” The anankastic trait domain is characterized by a narrow focus on one’s rigid standard of perfection and of right and wrong, and on controlling one’s own and others’ behavior and controlling situations to ensure conformity to these standards. Common manifestations of anankastic include perfectionism and emotional and behavioral constraint.

      Differential diagnosis includes OCD, hoarding disorder, narcissistic personality disorder, antisocial personality disorder, and schizoid personality disorder. OCD is distinguished by the presence of true obsessions and compulsions, while hoarding disorder should be considered when hoarding is extreme. Narcissistic personality disorder individuals are more likely to believe that they have achieved perfection, while those with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder are usually self-critical. Antisocial personality disorder individuals lack generosity but will indulge themselves, while those with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder adopt a miserly spending style toward both self and others. Schizoid personality disorder is characterized by a fundamental lack of capacity for intimacy, while in obsessive-compulsive personality disorder, this stems from discomfort with emotions and excessive devotion to work.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      9.4
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - What is the accurate statement about the cognitive decline linked with Huntington's disease?...

    Correct

    • What is the accurate statement about the cognitive decline linked with Huntington's disease?

      Your Answer: Cognitive impairment is usually a feature of Huntington's

      Explanation:

      Huntington’s disease is categorized as a type of dementia that affects the subcortical region of the brain. Cognitive decline is a prominent feature of the disease and typically manifests early on. However, the use of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors has not been shown to improve cognitive function in individuals with Huntington’s disease. A study published in Neurology in 2008 investigated the effects of donepezil on both motor and cognitive function in individuals with Huntington’s disease. The results showed no significant improvement in either area.

      Psychiatric and Behavioural Symptoms of Huntington’s Disease

      Huntington’s disease is a condition that affects individuals with a triad of symptoms, including motor, cognitive, and psychiatric symptoms. While the symptoms typically begin in the third and fourth decades of life, individuals with a high number of CAG repeats may experience symptoms before the age of 20, known as juvenile Huntington’s disease.

      The psychiatric symptoms of Huntington’s disease can include depression, apathy, dementia, psychosis, anxiety, mania, sexual dysfunction, and even suicide. These symptoms can significantly impact an individual’s quality of life and require appropriate treatment. Advances in psychiatric treatment have been made to address these symptoms and improve the overall well-being of individuals with Huntington’s disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
      16.9
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - What is a known factor that can cause a cleft lip when used...

    Correct

    • What is a known factor that can cause a cleft lip when used during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Diazepam

      Explanation:

      By week 12 of embryonic development, the lip and palate region is usually completely developed. Cleft lip and palate are primarily caused by the use of anticonvulsants, benzodiazepines, and steroids as medications.

      Teratogens and Their Associated Defects

      Valproic acid is a teratogen that has been linked to various birth defects, including neural tube defects, hypospadias, cleft lip/palate, cardiovascular abnormalities, developmental delay, endocrinological disorders, limb defects, and autism (Alsdorf, 2005). Lithium has been associated with cardiac anomalies, specifically Ebstein’s anomaly. Alcohol consumption during pregnancy can lead to cleft lip/palate and fetal alcohol syndrome. Phenytoin has been linked to fingernail hypoplasia, craniofacial defects, limb defects, cerebrovascular defects, and mental retardation. Similarly, carbamazepine has been associated with fingernail hypoplasia and craniofacial defects. Diazepam has been linked to craniofacial defects, specifically cleft lip/palate (Palmieri, 2008). The evidence for steroids causing craniofacial defects is not convincing, according to the British National Formulary (BNF). Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) have been associated with congenital heart defects and persistent pulmonary hypertension (BNF). It is important for pregnant women to avoid exposure to these teratogens to reduce the risk of birth defects in their babies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      5.7
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - The most frequent type of sexual offence in England and Wales is what?...

    Incorrect

    • The most frequent type of sexual offence in England and Wales is what?

      Your Answer: Rape

      Correct Answer: Sexual assault

      Explanation:

      Sexual Offending in England and Wales: Key Findings

      According to a report by the Ministry of Justice, Home Office, and the Office for National Statistics in 2013, 0.5% of females reported being victims of the most serious sexual offences, such as rape of sexual assault by penetration, in the previous year. Young males between the ages of 20 and 39 were found to be the most common offenders, accounting for 47% of cases. The majority of victims (56%) reported that the offender was their partner.

      In 2011/12, the police recorded 53,665 sexual offences, which made up approximately 1% of all recorded crimes. Sexual assault was the most commonly reported offence, accounting for 41% of cases, followed by rape at 30%. Other offences included exposure, voyeurism, and sexual activity with minors. In contrast, less than 0.1% of males (around 12,000) reported being victims of the same types of offences in the previous year.

      The report also found that around 90% of victims of the most serious sexual offences knew the perpetrator, compared to less than half for other sexual offences. These findings provide insight into the prevalence and characteristics of sexual offending in England and Wales.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Forensic Psychiatry
      75.2
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A manic adolescent who has already had 3 manic episodes in the past...

    Correct

    • A manic adolescent who has already had 3 manic episodes in the past 10 months is admitted to hospital for treatment. He is currently taking both lithium and valproate at maximum dose. Which of the following would be appropriate as an augmentation agent?

      Your Answer: Quetiapine

      Explanation:

      If a patient is experiencing mania, it is important to avoid administering antidepressants such as dosulepin, moclobemide, and tranylcypromine as they may exacerbate the condition. Instead, the Maudsley recommends the use of quetiapine and other appropriate medications.

      Bipolar Disorder: Diagnosis and Management

      Bipolar disorder is a lifelong condition characterized by episodes of mania or hypomania and episodes of depressed mood. The peak age of onset is 15-19 years, and the lifetime prevalence of bipolar I disorders is estimated to be around 2.1%. The diagnosis of bipolar disorder is based on the presence of manic or hypomanic episodes, which are characterized by elevated of expansive mood, rapid speech, and increased activity of energy. Psychotic symptoms, such as delusions and hallucinations, may also be present.

      Bipolar depression differs from unipolar depression in several ways, including more rapid onset, more frequent episodes, and shorter duration. Rapid cycling is a qualifier that can be applied to bipolar I of bipolar II disorder and is defined as the presence of at least four mood episodes in the previous 12 months that meet the criteria for a manic, hypomanic, of major depressive episode.

      The management of bipolar disorder involves acute and long-term interventions. Acute management of mania or hypomania may involve stopping antidepressants and offering antipsychotics of mood stabilizers. Long-term management may involve psychological interventions and pharmacological treatments such as lithium, valproate, of olanzapine.

      It is important to note that valproate should not be offered to women of girls of childbearing potential for long-term bipolar disorder unless other options are ineffective of not tolerated and a pregnancy prevention program is in place. Aripiprazole is recommended as an option for treating moderate to severe manic episodes in adolescents with bipolar I disorder.

      Overall, the diagnosis and management of bipolar disorder require a comprehensive approach that takes into account the individual’s symptoms, history, and preferences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      91.8
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - What is the recommended augmentation therapy for psychotic depression when using tricyclic antidepressants?...

    Correct

    • What is the recommended augmentation therapy for psychotic depression when using tricyclic antidepressants?

      Your Answer: Olanzapine

      Explanation:

      The recommended options for augmentation are olanzapine and quetiapine.

      Psychotic Depression

      Psychotic depression is a type of depression that is characterized by the presence of delusions and/of hallucinations in addition to depressive symptoms. This condition is often accompanied by severe anhedonia, loss of interest, and psychomotor retardation. People with psychotic depression are tormented by hallucinations and delusions with typical themes of worthlessness, guilt, disease, of impending disaster. This condition affects approximately 14.7-18.5% of depressed patients and is estimated to affect around 0.4% of community adult samples, with a higher prevalence in the elderly community at around 1.4-3.0%. People with psychotic depression are at a higher risk of attempting and completing suicide than those with non-psychotic depression.

      Diagnosis

      Psychotic depression is currently classified as a subtype of depression in both the ICD-11 and the DSM-5. The main difference between the two is that in the ICD-11, the depressive episode must be moderate of severe to qualify for a diagnosis of depressive episode with psychotic symptoms, whereas in the DSM-5, the diagnosis can be applied to any severity of depressive illness.

      Treatment

      The recommended treatment for psychotic depression is tricyclics as first-line treatment, with antipsychotic augmentation. Second-line treatment includes SSRI/SNRI. Augmentation of antidepressant with olanzapine or quetiapine is recommended. The optimum dose and duration of antipsychotic augmentation are unknown. If one treatment is to be stopped during the maintenance phase, then this should be the antipsychotic. ECT should be considered where a rapid response is required of where other treatments have failed. According to NICE (ng222), combination treatment with antidepressant medication and antipsychotic medication (such as olanzapine or quetiapine) should be considered for people with depression with psychotic symptoms. If a person with depression with psychotic symptoms does not wish to take antipsychotic medication in addition to an antidepressant, then treat with an antidepressant alone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      22.3
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which study design is considered to generate the most robust and reliable evidence?...

    Correct

    • Which study design is considered to generate the most robust and reliable evidence?

      Your Answer: Cohort study

      Explanation:

      Levels and Grades of Evidence in Evidence-Based Medicine

      To evaluate the quality of evidence on a subject of question, levels of grades are used. The traditional hierarchy approach places systematic reviews of randomized control trials at the top and case-series/report at the bottom. However, this approach is overly simplistic as certain research questions cannot be answered using RCTs. To address this, the Oxford Centre for Evidence-Based Medicine introduced their 2011 Levels of Evidence system, which separates the type of study questions and gives a hierarchy for each.

      The grading approach to be aware of is the GRADE system, which classifies the quality of evidence as high, moderate, low, of very low. The process begins by formulating a study question and identifying specific outcomes. Outcomes are then graded as critical of important. The evidence is then gathered and criteria are used to grade the evidence, with the type of evidence being a significant factor. Evidence can be promoted of downgraded based on certain criteria, such as limitations to study quality, inconsistency, uncertainty about directness, imprecise of sparse data, and reporting bias. The GRADE system allows for the promotion of observational studies to high-quality evidence under the right circumstances.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - What is the accurate formula for determining the likelihood ratio of a negative...

    Correct

    • What is the accurate formula for determining the likelihood ratio of a negative test result?

      Your Answer: (1 - sensitivity) / specificity

      Explanation:

      Clinical tests are used to determine the presence of absence of a disease of condition. To interpret test results, it is important to have a working knowledge of statistics used to describe them. Two by two tables are commonly used to calculate test statistics such as sensitivity and specificity. Sensitivity refers to the proportion of people with a condition that the test correctly identifies, while specificity refers to the proportion of people without a condition that the test correctly identifies. Accuracy tells us how closely a test measures to its true value, while predictive values help us understand the likelihood of having a disease based on a positive of negative test result. Likelihood ratios combine sensitivity and specificity into a single figure that can refine our estimation of the probability of a disease being present. Pre and post-test odds and probabilities can also be calculated to better understand the likelihood of having a disease before and after a test is carried out. Fagan’s nomogram is a useful tool for calculating post-test probabilities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      9.3
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - What is a true statement about Beck's Depression Inventory? ...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement about Beck's Depression Inventory?

      Your Answer: Is used to assess the severity of depression

      Explanation:

      The Beck Depression Inventory consists of 21 questions, with a maximum score of 63. Each question is scored on a scale of 0 to 3, and the assessment is used to determine the severity of depression. It is a self-rated questionnaire.

      In psychiatry, various questionnaires and interviews are used to assess different conditions and areas. It is important for candidates to know whether certain assessment tools are self-rated of require clinical assistance. The table provided by the college lists some of the commonly used assessment tools and indicates whether they are self-rated of clinician-rated. For example, the HAMD and MADRS are clinician-rated scales used to assess the severity of depression, while the GDS is a self-rated scale used to screen for depression in the elderly. The YMRS is a clinician-rated scale used to assess the severity of mania in patients with bipolar disorder, while the Y-BOCS is used to measure both the severity of OCD and the response to treatment. The GAF provides a single measure of global functioning, while the CGI requires the clinician to rate the severity of the patient’s illness at the time of assessment. The CAMDEX is a tool developed to assist in the early diagnosis and measurement of dementia in the elderly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      16.1
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which of the following is not a recommended treatment for restless leg syndrome?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is not a recommended treatment for restless leg syndrome?

      Your Answer: SSRIs

      Explanation:

      Restless Leg Syndrome, also known as Wittmaack-Ekbom syndrome, is a condition that causes an irresistible urge to move in order to alleviate uncomfortable sensations, primarily in the legs but sometimes in other areas of the body. The symptoms are exacerbated by rest and tend to worsen at night. Treatment options for this condition include dopamine agonists, opioids, benzodiazepines, and anticonvulsants. Sibler (2004) has developed an algorithm for managing Restless Leg Syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      4.6
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - What is the primary treatment option for catatonia? ...

    Correct

    • What is the primary treatment option for catatonia?

      Your Answer: Lorazepam

      Explanation:

      When treating catatonia, the preferred initial treatment is benzodiazepines such as lorazepam. If this approach is unsuccessful, electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) should be considered.

      Catatonia Treatment

      Catatonia can lead to complications such as dehydration, deep vein thrombosis, pulmonary embolism, and pneumonia. Therefore, prompt treatment is essential. The first-line treatment is benzodiazepines, particularly lorazepam. If this is ineffective, electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) may be considered. The use of antipsychotics is controversial and should be avoided during the acute phase of catatonia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      2.9
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 45-year-old man had a single episode of mania that was managed with...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man had a single episode of mania that was managed with medication during a two-week stay in a psychiatric facility. He is currently adhering to his medication regimen without any negative side effects and has gained full awareness of his condition. He is curious about when he will be able to resume driving.

      Your Answer: After a period of three months of remaining stable and well

      Explanation:

      Individuals with psychiatric illness may inquire about the criteria for being able to continue driving. Following an acute episode of uncomplicated mania of psychosis, a period of three months of stability is necessary before resuming driving.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      56.8
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - One of the following treatments would not be recommended for a young girl...

    Correct

    • One of the following treatments would not be recommended for a young girl with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder who also has liver disease.

      Your Answer: Pemoline

      Explanation:

      Pemoline, which is utilized to treat ADHD as a CNS stimulant, has been linked to severe liver failure that can be fatal.

      ADHD (Diagnosis and Management in Children)

      ADHD is a behavioural syndrome characterised by symptoms of inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsivity. The DSM-5 and ICD-11 provide diagnostic criteria for the condition, with both recognising three subtypes: predominantly inattentive, predominantly hyperactive-impulsive, and combined.

      Treatment for children under 5 involves offering an ADHD-focused group parent-training programme as a first-line option. Medication should only be considered after obtaining advice from a specialist ADHD service. For children and young people aged 5-18, advice and support should be given, along with an ADHD-focused group parent-training programme. Medication should only be offered if ADHD symptoms persist after environmental modifications have been implemented and reviewed. Cognitive behavioural therapy may also be considered for those who have benefited from medication but still experience significant impairment.

      NICE advises against elimination diets, dietary fatty acid supplementation, and the use of the ‘few foods diet’. Methylphenidate of lisdexamfetamine is the first-line medication option, with dexamphetamine considered for those who respond to lisdexamfetamine but cannot tolerate the longer effect profile. Atomoxetine of guanfacine may be offered for those who cannot tolerate methylphenidate of lisdexamfetamine. Clonidine and atypical antipsychotics should only be used with advice from a tertiary ADHD service.

      Drug holidays may be considered for children and young people who have not met the expected height for their age due to medication. However, NICE advises that withdrawal from treatment is associated with a risk of symptom exacerbation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
      8.9
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 35-year-old woman is being treated in the trauma unit after a head...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman is being treated in the trauma unit after a head injury resulting from a car accident which occurred two weeks ago when she was driving under the influence of drugs and after not sleeping for 48 hours.
      She needed drug detoxification and neurosurgical input to remove a subdural haematoma. She had anterograde amnesia for 5 days. She has suffered a head injury previously whilst playing soccer.
      You see her to aid the trauma team with management of the drug dependence but they ask you to comment on her prognosis with regard to the head injury.
      Which of the following is not a negative prognostic factor in the patient's history?

      Your Answer: Young age

      Explanation:

      A negative prognosis in head injury can be indicated by various factors, including advanced age, history of prior head injury, post traumatic amnesia lasting longer than seven days, dependence on alcohol, severity of the head injury requiring neurosurgical intervention, and presence of the APOE4 gene.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      17.9
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - What are some factors that increase the risk of developing schizophrenia? ...

    Correct

    • What are some factors that increase the risk of developing schizophrenia?

      Your Answer: Being a migrant

      Explanation:

      The AESOP study provides the latest evidence that being a migrant significantly increases the likelihood of developing schizophrenia, as it is a well-established risk factor.

      Schizophrenia: Understanding the Risk Factors

      Social class is a significant risk factor for schizophrenia, with people of lower socioeconomic status being more likely to develop the condition. Two hypotheses attempt to explain this relationship, one suggesting that environmental exposures common in lower social class conditions are responsible, while the other suggests that people with schizophrenia tend to drift towards the lower class due to their inability to compete for good jobs.

      While early studies suggested that schizophrenia was more common in black populations than in white, the current consensus is that there are no differences in rates of schizophrenia by race. However, there is evidence that rates are higher in migrant populations and ethnic minorities.

      Gender and age do not appear to be consistent risk factors for schizophrenia, with conflicting evidence on whether males of females are more likely to develop the condition. Marital status may also play a role, with females with schizophrenia being more likely to marry than males.

      Family history is a strong risk factor for schizophrenia, with the risk increasing significantly for close relatives of people with the condition. Season of birth and urban versus rural place of birth have also been shown to impact the risk of developing schizophrenia.

      Obstetric complications, particularly prenatal nutritional deprivation, brain injury, and influenza, have been identified as significant risk factors for schizophrenia. Understanding these risk factors can help identify individuals who may be at higher risk for developing the condition and inform preventative measures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      16.7
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - What is a true statement about homicide? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about homicide?

      Your Answer: People with a mental illness are more likely to commit an act of violence than be a victim of it

      Correct Answer: An estimated 5% of homicides are committed by people with schizophrenia

      Explanation:

      When substance misuse is considered, the majority of harmful actions towards others are not attributed primarily to mental illness. Additionally, individuals with mental illness of intellectual disability are at a higher risk of being subjected to violence rather than being the ones who commit violent acts.

      Homicide is classified into three categories in England and Wales: murder, manslaughter, and infanticide. Murder requires intent to kill of cause grievous bodily harm, while manslaughter can be voluntary of involuntary. Mental disorder is significantly associated with homicide, particularly in people diagnosed with schizophrenia and personality disorder. Homicide rates by people with a mental disorder are based on calculations of those with disposals such as ‘diminished responsibility’ and ‘not guilty by reason of insanity’. The age-standardised rate for homicide in people with schizophrenia is estimated to be around 0.1 / 100,000, which translates to about 20-30 mental disorder homicides each year in England and Wales. However, a significant proportion of these cases tend to have a secondary diagnosis of alcohol / drug dependence. Individuals with schizophrenia commit 5-6% of homicides in England.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Forensic Psychiatry
      7
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - What is the recommended safe amount of alcohol to consume during pregnancy, as...

    Correct

    • What is the recommended safe amount of alcohol to consume during pregnancy, as stated by the UK Department of Health?

      Your Answer: No amount of alcohol is considered safe at any point in pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Pregnancy and Alcohol

      The advice on safe drinking levels during pregnancy varies, but the most recent recommendation is to abstain from alcohol completely. According to NICE, pregnant women of those planning a pregnancy should avoid alcohol altogether to minimize risks to the fetus. This aligns with the UK Chief Medical Officers’ Alcohol Guidelines Review from 2016. It is recommended to follow this guideline to ensure the safety of the developing baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      4.6
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 16 year old girl comes to the clinic with her parents. They...

    Incorrect

    • A 16 year old girl comes to the clinic with her parents. They report a history of strange behaviors and social isolation for the past 18 months. During your examination, you observe hallucinations and delusions. She has a positive family history of schizophrenia. She was previously treated with olanzapine for 6 months, but it did not show any significant improvement. Currently, she is taking risperidone 5 mg twice daily for the past 10 weeks, but there is no noticeable improvement. What would be the appropriate course of action in this case?

      Your Answer: Increase risperidone to 6 mg twice daily

      Correct Answer: Offer clozapine

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidance, clozapine should be offered to children and young people with schizophrenia if their illness has not responded adequately to at least two different antipsychotic drugs, each used for 6-8 weeks. The BNF (Children) recommends that risperidone can be used for children aged 12-17 years under expert supervision, with a starting dose of 2mg daily for day 1, followed by 4 mg daily for day 2, and a usual dose of 4-6 mg daily. Doses above 10 mg daily should only be used if the benefit is considered to outweigh the risk, and the maximum daily dose is 16mg. Slower titration may be appropriate for some patients.

      Schizophrenia in children and young people is treated similarly to adults, according to the NICE Guidelines. The Maudsley Guidelines suggest avoiding first generation antipsychotics and using olanzapine, aripiprazole, and risperidone, which have been proven effective in randomized controlled trials. In cases where treatment resistance is present, clozapine should be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
      112.6
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - What is the intervention (buprenorphine) relative risk reduction for non-prescription opioid use at...

    Incorrect

    • What is the intervention (buprenorphine) relative risk reduction for non-prescription opioid use at six months in the group of patients with opioid dependence who received the treatment compared to those who did not receive it?

      Your Answer: 3

      Correct Answer: 0.45

      Explanation:

      Relative risk reduction (RRR) is calculated as the percentage decrease in the occurrence of events in the experimental group (EER) compared to the control group (CER). It can be expressed as:

      RRR = 1 – (EER / CER)

      For example, if the EER is 18 and the CER is 33, then the RRR can be calculated as:

      RRR = 1 – (18 / 33) = 0.45 of 45%

      Alternatively, the RRR can be calculated as the difference between the CER and EER divided by the CER:

      RRR = (CER – EER) / CER

      Using the same example, the RRR can be calculated as:

      RRR = (33 – 18) / 33 = 0.45 of 45%

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      269.3
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Which statement accurately describes depression in older adults? ...

    Correct

    • Which statement accurately describes depression in older adults?

      Your Answer: SSRIs increase risk of falls

      Explanation:

      Antidepressants in the Elderly: Maudsley Guidelines 14th Edition Summary

      Antidepressants have a similar response rate in the elderly as in younger adults, but factors such as physical illness, anxiety, and reduced executive functioning can affect prognosis. SSRIs and TCAs are equally effective, but TCAs have higher withdrawal rates in the elderly. NICE recommends starting with an SSRI, then trying another SSRI of a newer generation antidepressant if there is no response. If this fails, an antidepressant from a different class can be considered, but caution is needed with TCAs and MAOIs due to adverse effects and drug interactions. There is no ideal antidepressant for elderly patients, and choice should be based on individual cases. SSRIs are generally better tolerated than TCAs, but increase the risk of gastrointestinal bleeds, hyponatremia, and falls. Agomelatine is effective and well-tolerated in older patients, but requires frequent liver function tests. Fish oils are probably not effective, and highly anticholinergic medicines increase the risk of dementia. Elderly patients may take longer to respond to antidepressants, and it is recommended that they continue taking them for at least 2 years following remission.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
      11.6
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Which item is excluded from the scope of the Misuse of Drugs Act...

    Correct

    • Which item is excluded from the scope of the Misuse of Drugs Act 1971?

      Your Answer: Amyl nitrite

      Explanation:

      Poppers, also known as liquid gold, amyl of butyl nitrite, are not considered illegal to purchase of possess under the MDA. They are commonly sold in sex shops, joke shops, and other retail locations frequented by young people, such as pubs, clubs, tobacconists, music stores, and clothing shops. While the legality of poppers has not been fully tested in court, the Medicines Control Agency has classified them as a medicine and therefore subject to the Medicines Act 1968. This means that only licensed outlets, such as chemists, are permitted to sell the drug. Additionally, poppers are not regulated under the Psychoactive Substances Act 2016.

      Drug Misuse (Law and Scheduling)

      The Misuse of Drugs Act (1971) regulates the possession and supply of drugs, classifying them into three categories: A, B, and C. The maximum penalty for possession varies depending on the class of drug, with Class A drugs carrying a maximum sentence of 7 years.

      The Misuse of Drugs Regulations 2001 further categorizes controlled drugs into five schedules. Schedule 1 drugs are considered to have no therapeutic value and cannot be lawfully possessed of prescribed, while Schedule 2 drugs are available for medical use but require a controlled drug prescription. Schedule 3, 4, and 5 drugs have varying levels of restrictions and requirements.

      It is important to note that a single drug can have multiple scheduling statuses, depending on factors such as strength and route of administration. For example, morphine and codeine can be either Schedule 2 of Schedule 5.

      Overall, the Misuse of Drugs Act and Regulations aim to regulate and control the use of drugs in the UK, with the goal of reducing drug misuse and related harm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      4
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - A 61 year old male recently started on a new treatment has suddenly...

    Correct

    • A 61 year old male recently started on a new treatment has suddenly started texting his wife rude text messages and binge eating. Which of the following treatment would you suspect he has been started on?:

      Your Answer: Ropinirole

      Explanation:

      Dopamine Agonists

      Dopamine receptor agonists are medications that directly affect dopamine receptors and are commonly used to treat Parkinson’s disease. Examples of these drugs include apomorphine and ropinirole. However, these medications are known to have psychiatric side effects, particularly impulse control disorders such as pathological gambling, binge eating, and hypersexuality. This information is according to the British National Formulary (BNF) from March 2012.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
      4
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - You record the age of all of your students in your class. You...

    Correct

    • You record the age of all of your students in your class. You notice that your data set is skewed. What method would you use to describe the typical age of your students?

      Your Answer: Median

      Explanation:

      When dealing with a data set that is quantitative and measured on a ratio scale, the mean is typically the preferred measure of central tendency. However, if the data is skewed, the median may be a better choice as it is less affected by the skewness of the data.

      Measures of Central Tendency

      Measures of central tendency are used in descriptive statistics to summarize the middle of typical value of a data set. There are three common measures of central tendency: the mean, median, and mode.

      The median is the middle value in a data set that has been arranged in numerical order. It is not affected by outliers and is used for ordinal data. The mode is the most frequent value in a data set and is used for categorical data. The mean is calculated by adding all the values in a data set and dividing by the number of values. It is sensitive to outliers and is used for interval and ratio data.

      The appropriate measure of central tendency depends on the measurement scale of the data. For nominal and categorical data, the mode is used. For ordinal data, the median of mode is used. For interval data with a normal distribution, the mean is preferable, but the median of mode can also be used. For interval data with skewed distribution, the median is used. For ratio data, the mean is preferable, but the median of mode can also be used for skewed data.

      In addition to measures of central tendency, the range is also used to describe the spread of a data set. It is calculated by subtracting the smallest value from the largest value.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      3.8
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - What is the meaning of a 95% confidence interval? ...

    Correct

    • What is the meaning of a 95% confidence interval?

      Your Answer: If the study was repeated then the mean value would be within this interval 95% of the time

      Explanation:

      Measures of dispersion are used to indicate the variation of spread of a data set, often in conjunction with a measure of central tendency such as the mean of median. The range, which is the difference between the largest and smallest value, is the simplest measure of dispersion. The interquartile range, which is the difference between the 3rd and 1st quartiles, is another useful measure. Quartiles divide a data set into quarters, and the interquartile range can provide additional information about the spread of the data. However, to get a more representative idea of spread, measures such as the variance and standard deviation are needed. The variance gives an indication of how much the items in the data set vary from the mean, while the standard deviation reflects the distribution of individual scores around their mean. The standard deviation is expressed in the same units as the data set and can be used to indicate how confident we are that data points lie within a particular range. The standard error of the mean is an inferential statistic used to estimate the population mean and is a measure of the spread expected for the mean of the observations. Confidence intervals are often presented alongside sample results such as the mean value, indicating a range that is likely to contain the true value.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - A client with a past of inadequately managed bipolar affective disorder has exhibited...

    Incorrect

    • A client with a past of inadequately managed bipolar affective disorder has exhibited four occurrences of mood swings within a year. What is the duration of stability required before they can resume driving?

      Your Answer: 3 months

      Correct Answer: 6 months

      Explanation:

      Individuals who have experienced four of more mood swings within a 12 month period must demonstrate a period of stability lasting at least 6 months before resuming driving. For those who have experienced hypomania of mania, a period of stability lasting 3 months is required before returning to driving, which is extended to 6 months if there have been repeated mood changes over a 12 month period. Similarly, individuals with psychosis must also demonstrate a period of stability lasting 3 months before resuming driving. However, HGV drivers who have experienced mania/hypomania of psychosis must demonstrate a longer period of stability lasting 3 years (36 months) before returning to driving.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Organisation And Delivery Of Psychiatric Services
      72.4
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - Which group is identified by the Royal College of Psychiatrists as having a...

    Correct

    • Which group is identified by the Royal College of Psychiatrists as having a high likelihood of engaging in self-harm?

      Your Answer: Asylum seekers

      Explanation:

      Prisoners, asylum seekers, armed forces veterans, suicide bereaved individuals, certain cultural minority groups, and individuals from sexual minorities are more likely to engage in self-harm.

      Self-Harm and its Management

      Self-harm refers to intentional acts of self-poisoning of self-injury. It is prevalent among younger people, with an estimated 10% of girls and 3% of boys aged 15-16 years having self-harmed in the previous year. Risk factors for non-fatal repetition of self-harm include previous self-harm, personality disorder, hopelessness, history of psychiatric treatment, schizophrenia, alcohol abuse/dependence, and drug abuse/dependence. Suicide following an act of self-harm is more likely in those with previous episodes of self-harm, suicidal intent, poor physical health, and male gender.

      Risk assessment tools are not recommended for predicting future suicide of repetition of self-harm. The recommended interventions for self-harm include 4-10 sessions of CBT specifically structured for people who self-harm and considering DBT for adolescents with significant emotional dysregulation. Drug treatment as a specific intervention to reduce self-harm should not be offered.

      In the management of ingestion, activated charcoal can help if used early, while emetics and cathartics should not be used. Gastric lavage should generally not be used unless recommended by TOXBASE. Paracetamol is involved in 30-40% of acute presentations with poisoning. Intravenous acetylcysteine is the treatment of choice, and pseudo-allergic reactions are relatively common. Naloxone is used as an antidote for opioid overdose, while flumazenil can help reduce the need for admission to intensive care in benzodiazepine overdose.

      For superficial uncomplicated skin lacerations of 5 cm of less in length, tissue adhesive of skin closure strips could be used as a first-line treatment option. All children who self-harm should be admitted for an overnight stay at a pediatric ward.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      3.5
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - A 42-year-old woman presents to your clinic with complaints of increasing forgetfulness over...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman presents to your clinic with complaints of increasing forgetfulness over the past year. She has trouble recalling the names of close family members and has gotten lost in familiar places. Her husband reports that she has left the stove on multiple times and has difficulty managing household tasks. She has no significant medical history and is not taking any prescribed medications. Her mother had similar symptoms in her 50s. What is the most probable genetic association?

      Your Answer: Mutation in presenilin 1

      Explanation:

      The individual in the image is displaying symptoms consistent with early onset Alzheimer’s disease, which can affect individuals in their 40s. This form of the disease is often inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern, and mutations in the presenilin 1 and 2 genes have been linked to its development.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
      26.4
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - What falls under the category of class C according to the Misuse of...

    Correct

    • What falls under the category of class C according to the Misuse of Drugs Act?

      Your Answer: Benzodiazepines

      Explanation:

      Drug Misuse (Law and Scheduling)

      The Misuse of Drugs Act (1971) regulates the possession and supply of drugs, classifying them into three categories: A, B, and C. The maximum penalty for possession varies depending on the class of drug, with Class A drugs carrying a maximum sentence of 7 years.

      The Misuse of Drugs Regulations 2001 further categorizes controlled drugs into five schedules. Schedule 1 drugs are considered to have no therapeutic value and cannot be lawfully possessed of prescribed, while Schedule 2 drugs are available for medical use but require a controlled drug prescription. Schedule 3, 4, and 5 drugs have varying levels of restrictions and requirements.

      It is important to note that a single drug can have multiple scheduling statuses, depending on factors such as strength and route of administration. For example, morphine and codeine can be either Schedule 2 of Schedule 5.

      Overall, the Misuse of Drugs Act and Regulations aim to regulate and control the use of drugs in the UK, with the goal of reducing drug misuse and related harm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - What is the estimated percentage of female inmates in England and Wales who...

    Correct

    • What is the estimated percentage of female inmates in England and Wales who are believed to have borderline personality disorder?

      Your Answer: 20%

      Explanation:

      Prisoner Mental Health: Epidemiological Data from the UK

      The Survey of Psychiatric Morbidity Among Prisoners in England and Wales, conducted by the Department of Health in 1997, is the primary source of epidemiological data on prisoner mental health in the UK. Despite the lack of updates, this survey remains a valuable resource for understanding the mental health needs of prisoners.

      Although the prison population represents only 0.1% of the total UK population, prisoners are extensive consumers of mental health services. In 1997, the UK prison population consisted of 46,872 male sentenced prisoners (76%), 12,302 male remand prisoners, and 2,770 female prisoners (<5%). The 1997 study involved interviews with over 3000 prisoners. The key findings of the 1997 study revealed high rates of personality disorders among prisoners, with 78% of male remand, 64% of male sentenced, and 50% of female prisoners having any personality disorder. Antisocial personality disorder had the highest prevalence, followed by paranoid personality disorder. Borderline personality disorder was more common in females than paranoid personality disorder. The study also found high rates of functional psychosis, with prevalence rates of 7% for male sentenced, 10% for male remand, and 14% for females. Rates of suicidal ideation and attempts were higher in remand compared to sentenced prisoners, with women reporting higher rates of suicidal ideation and attempts than males. Overall, the 1997 survey highlights the significant mental health needs of prisoners in the UK and underscores the importance of providing adequate mental health services to this population.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Forensic Psychiatry
      3.6
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - For what is Carl Jung most well-known? ...

    Correct

    • For what is Carl Jung most well-known?

      Your Answer: Differentiating between the personal and collective unconscious

      Explanation:

      Neo-Freudians were therapists who developed their own theories while still retaining core Freudian components. Some important neo-Freudians include Alfred Adler, Carl Jung, Erik Erickson, Harry Stack Sullivan, Wilfred Bion, John Bowlby, Anna Freud, Otto Kernberg, Margaret Mahler, and Donald Winnicott. Each of these individuals contributed unique ideas to the field of psychology. For example, Carl Jung introduced the concept of the persona and differentiated between the personal and collective unconscious, while Erik Erickson is known for his stages of psychosocial development. Margaret Mahler developed theories on child development, including the three main phases of autistic, symbiotic, and separation-individuation. Donald Winnicott introduced the concept of the transitional object and the good enough mother. Overall, neo-Freudians expanded upon Freud’s ideas and helped to shape modern psychotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychotherapy
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - Which country's data is excluded from the World Mental Health Survey Initiative? ...

    Correct

    • Which country's data is excluded from the World Mental Health Survey Initiative?

      Your Answer: England

      Explanation:

      World Mental Health Survey Initiative: Variations in Prevalence of Mental Disorders Across Countries

      The World Mental Health Survey Initiative aims to gather accurate cross-national information on the prevalence and correlates of mental, substance, and behavioural disorders. The initiative includes nationally of regionally representative surveys in 28 countries, with a total sample size of over 154,000. All interviews are conducted face-to-face by trained lay interviewers using the WMH-CIDI, a fully structured diagnostic interview.

      As of 2009, data from 17 countries and 70,000 respondents have been returned. The main findings show that the US has the highest prevalence of any disorder, with anxiety disorder being the most common condition, followed by mood disorder. However, there is significant variation in prevalence between countries. These findings highlight the importance of understanding the cultural and societal factors that contribute to the prevalence of mental disorders in different regions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      2.9
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - What item is considered high risk according to the MARSIPAN group? ...

    Incorrect

    • What item is considered high risk according to the MARSIPAN group?

      Your Answer: BMI < 14

      Correct Answer: QTc > 450 ms

      Explanation:

      Anorexia is a serious mental health condition that can have severe physical complications. These complications can affect various systems in the body, including the cardiac, skeletal, hematologic, reproductive, metabolic, gastrointestinal, CNS, and dermatological systems. Some of the recognized physical complications of anorexia nervosa include bradycardia, hypotension, osteoporosis, anemia, amenorrhea, hypothyroidism, delayed gastric emptying, cerebral atrophy, and lanugo.

      The Royal College of Psychiatrists has issued advice on managing sick patients with anorexia nervosa, recommending hospital admission for those with high-risk items. These items include a BMI of less than 13, a pulse rate of less than 40 bpm, a SUSS test score of less than 2, a sodium level of less than 130 mmol/L, a potassium level of less than 3 mmol/L, a serum glucose level of less than 3 mmol/L, and a QTc interval of more than 450 ms. The SUSS test involves assessing the patient’s ability to sit up and squat without using their hands. A rating of 0 indicates complete inability to rise, while a rating of 3 indicates the ability to rise without difficulty. Proper management and treatment of anorexia nervosa are crucial to prevent of manage these physical complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - What is the most well-supported option for augmentation in cases of schizophrenia that...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most well-supported option for augmentation in cases of schizophrenia that are resistant to clozapine?

      Your Answer: Olanzapine

      Correct Answer: Lamotrigine

      Explanation:

      Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      13.4
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - What is a true statement about Charles Bonnet syndrome? ...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement about Charles Bonnet syndrome?

      Your Answer: Insight is typically preserved

      Explanation:

      Preservation of insight and absence of delusional beliefs are common in CBS, with the focus of initial treatment being on supporting the visual system through addressing underlying conditions like cataracts of improving lighting. Behavioral interventions, such as reducing isolation and stress management, can also be beneficial, along with reassurance. While psychoactive drugs have shown some success in individual cases, they are generally not effective. It is important to conduct field testing if ocular examination is normal, as CBS can result from any damage to the visual pathway, including cerebral infarcts.

      Charles Bonnet Syndrome: A Condition of Complex Visual Hallucinations

      Charles Bonnet Syndrome (CBS) is a condition characterized by persistent of recurrent complex visual hallucinations that occur in clear consciousness. This condition is observed in individuals who have suffered damage to the visual pathway, which can be caused by damage to any part of the pathway from the eye to the cortex. The hallucinations are thought to result from a release phenomenon secondary to the deafferentation of the cerebral cortex. CBS is equally distributed between sexes and does not show any familial predisposition. The most common ophthalmological conditions associated with this syndrome are age-related macular degeneration, followed by glaucoma and cataract.

      Risk factors for CBS include advanced age, peripheral visual impairment, social isolation, sensory deprivation, and early cognitive impairment. Well-formed complex visual hallucinations are thought to occur in 10-30 percent of individuals with severe visual impairment. Only around a third of individuals find the hallucinations themselves an unpleasant or disturbing experience. The most effective treatment is reversal of the visual impairment. Antipsychotic drugs are commonly prescribed but are largely ineffective. CBS is a long-lasting condition, with 88% of individuals experiencing it for two years of more, and only 25% resolving at nine years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
      4.7
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - What proportion of individuals who have been stalked experience symptoms that meet the...

    Incorrect

    • What proportion of individuals who have been stalked experience symptoms that meet the criteria for PTSD?

      Your Answer: 15%

      Correct Answer: 30%

      Explanation:

      Approximately one-third of individuals who are victims of stalking exhibit symptoms that meet the diagnostic criteria for posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD), while an additional 20% display symptoms associated with PTSD but do not meet the full diagnostic criteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Forensic Psychiatry
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - What is the approximate occurrence rate of conduct disorder among male children aged...

    Correct

    • What is the approximate occurrence rate of conduct disorder among male children aged 5 to 10 years in England?

      Your Answer: 7%

      Explanation:

      Disruptive Behaviour of Dissocial Disorders

      Conduct disorders are the most common reason for referral of young children to mental health services. These disorders are characterized by a repetitive and persistent pattern of antisocial, aggressive, of defiant conduct that goes beyond ordinary childish mischief of adolescent rebelliousness. Oppositional defiant disorder (ODD) shares some negative attributes but in a more limited fashion.

      ICD-11 terms the disorder as ‘Conduct-dissocial disorder’, while DSM-5 recognizes three separate conditions related to emotional/behavioral problems seen in younger people: conduct disorder, oppositional defiant disorder, and intermittent explosive disorder. Conduct disorder is about poorly controlled behavior, intermittent explosive disorder is about poorly controlled emotions, and ODD is in between. Conduct disorders are further divided into childhood onset (before 10 years) and adolescent onset (10 years of older).

      The behavior pattern of conduct disorders must be persistent and recurrent, including multiple incidents of aggression towards people of animals, destruction of property, deceitfulness of theft, and serious violations of rules. The pattern of behavior must result in significant impairment in personal, family, social, educational, occupational, of other important areas of functioning.

      Oppositional defiant disorder represents a less severe form of conduct disorder, where there is an absence of more severe dissocial of aggressive acts. The behavior pattern of ODD includes persistent difficulty getting along with others, provocative, spiteful, of vindictive behavior, and extreme irritability of anger.

      The prevalence of conduct disorders increases throughout childhood and is more common in boys than girls. The most frequent comorbid problem seen with conduct disorder is hyperactivity. The conversion rate from childhood conduct disorder to adult antisocial personality disorder varies from 40 to 70% depending on the study.

      NICE recommends group parent-based training programs of parent and child training programs for children with complex needs for ages 3-11, child-focused programs for ages 9-14, and multimodal interventions with a family focus for ages 11-17. Medication is not recommended in routine practice, but risperidone can be used where other approaches fail and they are seriously aggressive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
      20.3
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - NICE recommends which treatment as the initial approach for opioid detoxification? ...

    Correct

    • NICE recommends which treatment as the initial approach for opioid detoxification?

      Your Answer: Buprenorphine

      Explanation:

      The recommended initial treatment for opioid detoxification is methadone of buprenorphine.

      Opioid Maintenance Therapy and Detoxification

      Withdrawal symptoms can occur after as little as 5 days of regular opioid use. Short-acting opioids like heroin have acute withdrawal symptoms that peak in 32-72 hours and last for 3-5 days. Longer-acting opioids like methadone have acute symptoms that peak at day 4-6 and last for 10 days. Buprenorphine withdrawal lasts up to 10 days and includes symptoms like myalgia, anxiety, and increased drug craving.

      Opioids affect the brain through opioid receptors, with the µ receptor being the main target for opioids. Dopaminergic cells in the ventral tegmental area produce dopamine, which is released into the nucleus accumbens upon stimulation of µ receptors, producing euphoria and reward. With repeat opioid exposure, µ receptors become less responsive, causing dysphoria and drug craving.

      Methadone and buprenorphine are maintenance-oriented treatments for opioid dependence. Methadone is a full agonist targeting µ receptors, while buprenorphine is a partial agonist targeting µ receptors and a partial k agonist of functional antagonist. Naloxone and naltrexone are antagonists targeting all opioid receptors.

      Methadone is preferred over buprenorphine for detoxification, and ultra-rapid detoxification should not be offered. Lofexidine may be considered for mild of uncertain dependence. Clonidine and dihydrocodeine should not be used routinely in opioid detoxification. The duration of detoxification should be up to 4 weeks in an inpatient setting and up to 12 weeks in a community setting.

      Pregnant women dependent on opioids should use opioid maintenance treatment rather than attempt detoxification. Methadone is preferred over buprenorphine, and transfer to buprenorphine during pregnancy is not advised. Detoxification should only be considered if appropriate for the women’s wishes, circumstances, and ability to cope. Methadone or buprenorphine treatment is not a contraindication to breastfeeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      7
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - What is a true statement regarding acetylcysteine? ...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement regarding acetylcysteine?

      Your Answer: It is normally administered for 21 hours

      Explanation:

      When administering N-acetylcysteine intravenously for acetaminophen poisoning, adverse reactions such as urticaria, pruritus, facial flushing, wheezing, dyspnoea, and hypotension may occur. These reactions are known as anaphylactoid and are believed to involve non-IgE-mediated histamine release of direct complement activation. Prior exposure to N-acetylcysteine is not required for these reactions to occur, and continued of future treatment is not contraindicated. Patients should be closely monitored for signs of an anaphylactoid reaction, especially those with a history of atopy and asthma who may be at increased risk. If anaphylactoid reactions occur, treatment should be suspended and appropriate management initiated. Treatment may then be restarted at a lower rate. In rare cases, these reactions can be fatal.

      Self-Harm and its Management

      Self-harm refers to intentional acts of self-poisoning of self-injury. It is prevalent among younger people, with an estimated 10% of girls and 3% of boys aged 15-16 years having self-harmed in the previous year. Risk factors for non-fatal repetition of self-harm include previous self-harm, personality disorder, hopelessness, history of psychiatric treatment, schizophrenia, alcohol abuse/dependence, and drug abuse/dependence. Suicide following an act of self-harm is more likely in those with previous episodes of self-harm, suicidal intent, poor physical health, and male gender.

      Risk assessment tools are not recommended for predicting future suicide of repetition of self-harm. The recommended interventions for self-harm include 4-10 sessions of CBT specifically structured for people who self-harm and considering DBT for adolescents with significant emotional dysregulation. Drug treatment as a specific intervention to reduce self-harm should not be offered.

      In the management of ingestion, activated charcoal can help if used early, while emetics and cathartics should not be used. Gastric lavage should generally not be used unless recommended by TOXBASE. Paracetamol is involved in 30-40% of acute presentations with poisoning. Intravenous acetylcysteine is the treatment of choice, and pseudo-allergic reactions are relatively common. Naloxone is used as an antidote for opioid overdose, while flumazenil can help reduce the need for admission to intensive care in benzodiazepine overdose.

      For superficial uncomplicated skin lacerations of 5 cm of less in length, tissue adhesive of skin closure strips could be used as a first-line treatment option. All children who self-harm should be admitted for an overnight stay at a pediatric ward.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      5.7
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - What is the approximate ratio of male to female suicides in the UK?...

    Correct

    • What is the approximate ratio of male to female suicides in the UK?

      Your Answer: 3:01

      Explanation:

      A consistent finding is that the male to female ratio is 3:1.

      2021 National Confidential Inquiry into Suicide and Safety in Mental Health (NCISH) report reveals key findings on suicide rates in the UK from 2008-2018. The rates have remained stable over the years, with a slight increase following the 2008 recession and another rise since 2015/2016. Approximately 27% of all general population suicides were patients who had contact with mental health services within 12 months of suicide. The most common methods of suicide were hanging/strangulation (52%) and self-poisoning (22%), mainly through prescription opioids. In-patient suicides have continued to decrease, with most of them occurring on the ward itself from low lying ligature points. The first three months after discharge remain a high-risk period, with 13% of all patient suicides occurring within this time frame. Nearly half (48%) of patient suicides were from patients who lived alone. In England, suicide rates are higher in males (17.2 per 100,000) than females (5.4 per 100,000), with the highest age-specific suicide rate for males in the 45-49 years age group (27.1 deaths per 100,000 males) and for females in the same age group (9.2 deaths per 100,000). Hanging remains the most common method of suicide in the UK, accounting for 59.4% of all suicides among males and 45.0% of all suicides among females.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - A study of 30 patients with hypertension compares the effectiveness of a new...

    Correct

    • A study of 30 patients with hypertension compares the effectiveness of a new blood pressure medication with standard treatment. 80% of the new treatment group achieved target blood pressure levels at 6 weeks, compared with only 40% of the standard treatment group. What is the number needed to treat for the new treatment?

      Your Answer: 3

      Explanation:

      To calculate the Number Needed to Treat (NNT), we first need to find the Absolute Risk Reduction (ARR), which is calculated by subtracting the Control Event Rate (CER) from the Experimental Event Rate (EER).

      Given that CER is 0.4 and EER is 0.8, we can calculate ARR as follows:

      ARR = CER – EER
      = 0.4 – 0.8
      = -0.4

      Since the ARR is negative, this means that the treatment actually increases the risk of the event occurring. Therefore, we cannot calculate the NNT in this case.

      Measures of Effect in Clinical Studies

      When conducting clinical studies, we often want to know the effect of treatments of exposures on health outcomes. Measures of effect are used in randomized controlled trials (RCTs) and include the odds ratio (of), risk ratio (RR), risk difference (RD), and number needed to treat (NNT). Dichotomous (binary) outcome data are common in clinical trials, where the outcome for each participant is one of two possibilities, such as dead of alive, of clinical improvement of no improvement.

      To understand the difference between of and RR, it’s important to know the difference between risks and odds. Risk is a proportion that describes the probability of a health outcome occurring, while odds is a ratio that compares the probability of an event occurring to the probability of it not occurring. Absolute risk is the basic risk, while risk difference is the difference between the absolute risk of an event in the intervention group and the absolute risk in the control group. Relative risk is the ratio of risk in the intervention group to the risk in the control group.

      The number needed to treat (NNT) is the number of patients who need to be treated for one to benefit. Odds are calculated by dividing the number of times an event happens by the number of times it does not happen. The odds ratio is the odds of an outcome given a particular exposure versus the odds of an outcome in the absence of the exposure. It is commonly used in case-control studies and can also be used in cross-sectional and cohort study designs. An odds ratio of 1 indicates no difference in risk between the two groups, while an odds ratio >1 indicates an increased risk and an odds ratio <1 indicates a reduced risk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      82.9
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - What evidence suggests that interpersonal therapy has a distinct purpose of function? ...

    Correct

    • What evidence suggests that interpersonal therapy has a distinct purpose of function?

      Your Answer: Evidence of a significant role transition

      Explanation:

      Interpersonal Therapy: A Structured Approach to Addressing Social Functioning Problems

      Interpersonal therapy (IPT) is a structured form of psychotherapy that is often used to treat depression. It is based on the belief that social functioning problems have a significant impact on psychological problems. IPT is a time-limited therapy that typically runs for 10-16 one hour sessions. The therapy is organized into three phases, with the first phase involving data collection and formulation. The remaining sessions explore the formulation in more detail.

      IPT focuses on four areas of social functioning problems: grief, role transitions, interpersonal deficits, and interpersonal disputes. The therapy aims to intervene at the level of social functioning, rather than focusing on personality. The therapy has been found to be effective in treating depression, particularly in patients with severe depression. However, it may be less effective in treating people with depression and comorbid personality disorders.

      The evidence base for IPT is most developed for eating disorders, and the intervention is recommended in NICE guidelines for eating disorders. Overall, IPT is a structured approach to addressing social functioning problems that can be effective in treating depression and other psychological problems.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychotherapy
      14.5
      Seconds
  • Question 51 - Please provide an example of a question that is not included in the...

    Correct

    • Please provide an example of a question that is not included in the SCOFF questionnaire.

      Your Answer: Do you regularly feel that you are overweight?

      Explanation:

      The SCOFF Questionnaire for Screening Eating Disorders

      The SCOFF questionnaire is a tool used to screen for eating disorders. It consists of five questions that aim to identify symptoms of anorexia nervosa or bulimia. The questions include whether the individual makes themselves sick because they feel uncomfortably full, worries about losing control over how much they eat, has recently lost more than one stone in a three-month period, believes themselves to be fat when others say they are too thin, and whether food dominates their life.

      A score of two or more positive responses indicates a likely case of anorexia nervosa or bulimia. The questionnaire has a sensitivity of 84.6% and specificity of 98.6% when two or more questions are answered positively. This means that if a patient responds positively to two of more questions, there is a high likelihood that they have an eating disorder. The negative predictive value of the questionnaire is 99.3%, which means that if a patient responds negatively to the questions, there is a high probability that they do not have an eating disorder.

      Overall, the SCOFF questionnaire is a useful tool for healthcare professionals to quickly screen for eating disorders and identify individuals who may require further assessment and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      22.5
      Seconds
  • Question 52 - What publication was commissioned following Graham Young's conditional discharge from Broadmoor Hospital and...

    Correct

    • What publication was commissioned following Graham Young's conditional discharge from Broadmoor Hospital and subsequent murder of two colleagues?

      Your Answer: Butler Committee Report

      Explanation:

      The Butler Committee report was initiated after Graham Young murdered two colleagues following his release from Broadmoor Hospital. It suggested that each health authority should have a regional secure unit. Similarly, the Glancy Report recommended the development of secure hospital units for patients who could not be managed on open wards. The Reed Report recommended that mentally ill offenders should receive care and treatment from health and social services instead of custodial care. The Fallon Inquiry report highlighted serious deficiencies in the Personality Disorder Unit at Ashworth Special Hospital, leading to the Tilt Report, which reviewed security at three English High Security Hospitals (Broadmoor, Ashworth, and Rampton).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Forensic Psychiatry
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 53 - You are consulted by a fellow primary care provider who is evaluating a...

    Correct

    • You are consulted by a fellow primary care provider who is evaluating a young woman that you previously assessed in clinic six weeks ago for moderate panic disorder. At that time, you initiated treatment with sertraline 50 mg once daily, which has since been increased to 200 mg. However, she reports that she is still experiencing symptoms.
      What would be the best course of action in this situation?

      Your Answer: Encourage ongoing treatment with sertraline at 200 mg for a further 6 weeks

      Explanation:

      All antidepressants have a delayed therapeutic effect and patients may initially experience an increase in panic symptoms. NICE advises a 12-week treatment period before considering additional medication.

      Understanding Panic Disorder: Key Facts, Diagnosis, and Treatment Recommendations

      Panic disorder is a mental health condition characterized by recurrent unexpected panic attacks, which are sudden surges of intense fear of discomfort that reach a peak within minutes. Females are more commonly affected than males, and the disorder typically onsets during the early 20s. Panic attacks are followed by persistent concern of worry about their recurrence of negative significance, of behaviors intended to avoid their recurrence. The symptoms result in significant impairment in personal, family, social, educational, occupational, of other important areas of functioning.

      To diagnose panic disorder, the individual must experience recurrent panic attacks that are not restricted to particular stimuli of situations and are unexpected. The panic attacks are followed by persistent concern of worry about their recurrence of negative significance, of behaviors intended to avoid their recurrence. The symptoms are not a manifestation of another medical condition of substance use, and they result in significant impairment in functioning.

      Panic disorder is differentiated from normal fear reactions by the frequent recurrence of panic attacks, persistent worry of concern about the panic attacks of their meaning, and associated significant impairment in functioning. Treatment recommendations vary based on the severity of the disorder, with mild to moderate cases recommended for individual self-help and moderate to severe cases recommended for cognitive-behavioral therapy of antidepressant medication. The classes of antidepressants that have an evidence base for effectiveness are SSRIs, SNRIs, and TCAs. Benzodiazepines are not recommended for the treatment of panic disorder due to their association with a less favorable long-term outcome. Sedating antihistamines of antipsychotics should also not be prescribed for the treatment of panic disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      62.3
      Seconds
  • Question 54 - A 50 year old lady with breast cancer taking Tamoxifen visits her GP...

    Correct

    • A 50 year old lady with breast cancer taking Tamoxifen visits her GP complaining of depression. The GP decides to prescribe an antidepressant. What medication should the GP steer clear of due to its interaction with Tamoxifen?

      Your Answer: Fluoxetine

      Explanation:

      Tamoxifen and Antidepressant Interactions

      Tamoxifen is a medication used to treat breast cancer by reducing relapse rates and increasing overall survival. It works by antagonizing estrogen in the breast, with its anti-estrogen affinity depending on its primary metabolite, endoxifen. However, tamoxifen is metabolized to endoxifen through the liver enzyme CYP2D6, and any drug that inhibits this enzyme can reduce the conversion of tamoxifen to endoxifen.

      Women taking tamoxifen for breast cancer treatment of prevention may also take antidepressants for psychiatric disorders of hot flushes. Some antidepressants have been found to inhibit the metabolism of tamoxifen to its more active metabolites by the CYP2D6 enzyme, thereby decreasing its anticancer effect. Strong CYP2D6 inhibitors include paroxetine, fluoxetine, bupropion, and duloxetine, while moderate inhibitors include sertraline, escitalopram, and doxepin, and venlafaxine is a weak inhibitor.

      Therefore, it is important for healthcare providers to consider potential drug interactions when prescribing antidepressants to women taking tamoxifen for breast cancer treatment of prevention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      15.8
      Seconds
  • Question 55 - A woman is referred by her GP due to her persistent belief that...

    Correct

    • A woman is referred by her GP due to her persistent belief that she has stomach cancer. She remains convinced of this despite multiple normal investigations and reassurance from medical specialists. What is the most probable diagnosis for her condition?

      Your Answer: Hypochondriasis

      Explanation:

      There is often confusion between hypochondriasis and bodily distress disorder. Hypochondriasis involves a fixation on having a particular illness, while bodily distress disorder is characterized by a preoccupation with symptoms rather than a specific diagnosis.

      Somatoform and dissociative disorders are two groups of psychiatric disorders that are characterized by physical symptoms and disruptions in the normal integration of identity, sensations, perceptions, affects, thoughts, memories, control over bodily movements, of behavior. Somatoform disorders are characterized by physical symptoms that are presumed to have a psychiatric origin, while dissociative disorders are characterized by the loss of integration between memories, identity, immediate sensations, and control of bodily movements. The ICD-11 lists two main types of somatoform disorders: bodily distress disorder and body integrity dysphoria. Dissociative disorders include dissociative neurological symptom disorder, dissociative amnesia, trance disorder, possession trance disorder, dissociative identity disorder, partial dissociative identity disorder, depersonalization-derealization disorder, and other specified dissociative disorders. The symptoms of these disorders result in significant impairment in personal, family, social, educational, occupational, of other important areas of functioning. Diagnosis of these disorders involves a thorough evaluation of the individual’s symptoms and medical history, as well as ruling out other possible causes of the symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 56 - Which statement about Rett syndrome is accurate? ...

    Correct

    • Which statement about Rett syndrome is accurate?

      Your Answer: It almost exclusively occurs in females

      Explanation:

      Females make up the vast majority of Rett syndrome cases.

      Rett Syndrome: A Rare Neurodevelopmental Disorder

      Rett syndrome is a neurodevelopmental disorder that is rare, affecting approximately 1 in 10,000 female births. Although it mostly affects females, there have been cases of males with the disorder. While the exact cause of the disorder is not known, it is believed to have a genetic basis, with mutations in the MECP2 gene (Xq28) being associated with the disorder. Monozygotic twins have been found to have complete concordance in cases of Rett syndrome.

      The disorder has a unique presentation, with affected children experiencing a normal period of development until 6-18 months. After this period, they begin to develop problems with language, losing previously acquired speech. Purposeful hand movements are replaced with stereotypic movements, such as hand wringing, and ataxia and psychomotor retardation may occur. Other stereotypical movements, such as finger licking of biting and tapping of slapping, may also be seen. Head circumference is normal at birth, but growth begins to decelerate between 6-12 months, resulting in microcephaly. All language skills are lost, both receptive and expressive, and social skills plateau at developmental levels between 6-12 months.

      Seizures are associated with Rett syndrome in 75% of those affected, and almost all affected children have abnormal EEG findings. Breathing problems, such as hyperventilation, apnea, and breath holding, are also seen. Children with Rett syndrome may live for well over a decade after the onset of the disorder, but after 10 years, many patients are wheelchair-bound with virtually no language ability. Additional features of the disorder include seizures, breath holding and hyperventilation, sleep difficulties, and issues with locomotion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 57 - A 67-year-old man experiences difficulty with recalling recent events and struggles to identify...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man experiences difficulty with recalling recent events and struggles to identify familiar objects. He is diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease and a CT scan is ordered. What is the most probable result of the scan?

      Your Answer: Decreased cerebellar volume

      Correct Answer: Decreased hippocampal volume

      Explanation:

      Individuals diagnosed with Alzheimer’s dementia exhibit reduced volumes of the hippocampus and entorhinal cortex, which are crucial for memory consolidation and recall. Additionally, they may display widespread cerebral atrophy and enlarged ventricles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
      26.6
      Seconds
  • Question 58 - What is the most common condition that is often associated with dyslexia? ...

    Correct

    • What is the most common condition that is often associated with dyslexia?

      Your Answer: ADHD

      Explanation:

      Dyslexia is a specific learning disorder that affects a person’s ability to read and process information. It is not caused by intellectual disabilities, visual of auditory impairments, of inadequate education. Dyslexia can affect both reading and writing skills, as well as the processing of information that is seen of heard. It is a lifelong condition that occurs across the range of intellectual abilities, with boys being diagnosed more often than girls. The prevalence of dyslexia is around 5-10% among school-aged children. Signs of dyslexia include poor spelling, difficulty with written information, confusion with letter order, and poor handwriting. Dyslexia is often associated with other disorders such as ADHD, conduct disorder, and oppositional defiant disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Learning Disability
      169.9
      Seconds
  • Question 59 - Which of the following can be used to represent the overall number of...

    Correct

    • Which of the following can be used to represent the overall number of individuals affected by a disease during a specific period?

      Your Answer: Period prevalence

      Explanation:

      Measures of Disease Frequency: Incidence and Prevalence

      Incidence and prevalence are two important measures of disease frequency. Incidence measures the speed at which new cases of a disease are emerging, while prevalence measures the burden of disease within a population. Cumulative incidence and incidence rate are two types of incidence measures, while point prevalence and period prevalence are two types of prevalence measures.

      Cumulative incidence is the average risk of getting a disease over a certain period of time, while incidence rate is a measure of the speed at which new cases are emerging. Prevalence is a proportion and is a measure of the burden of disease within a population. Point prevalence measures the number of cases in a defined population at a specific point in time, while period prevalence measures the number of identified cases during a specified period of time.

      It is important to note that prevalence is equal to incidence multiplied by the duration of the condition. In chronic diseases, the prevalence is much greater than the incidence. The incidence rate is stated in units of person-time, while cumulative incidence is always a proportion. When describing cumulative incidence, it is necessary to give the follow-up period over which the risk is estimated. In acute diseases, the prevalence and incidence may be similar, while for conditions such as the common cold, the incidence may be greater than the prevalence.

      Incidence is a useful measure to study disease etiology and risk factors, while prevalence is useful for health resource planning. Understanding these measures of disease frequency is important for public health professionals and researchers in order to effectively monitor and address the burden of disease within populations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      30.2
      Seconds
  • Question 60 - Which category does convenience sampling fall under? ...

    Correct

    • Which category does convenience sampling fall under?

      Your Answer: Non-probabilistic sampling

      Explanation:

      Sampling Methods in Statistics

      When collecting data from a population, it is often impractical and unnecessary to gather information from every single member. Instead, taking a sample is preferred. However, it is crucial that the sample accurately represents the population from which it is drawn. There are two main types of sampling methods: probability (random) sampling and non-probability (non-random) sampling.

      Non-probability sampling methods, also known as judgement samples, are based on human choice rather than random selection. These samples are convenient and cheaper than probability sampling methods. Examples of non-probability sampling methods include voluntary sampling, convenience sampling, snowball sampling, and quota sampling.

      Probability sampling methods give a more representative sample of the population than non-probability sampling. In each probability sampling technique, each population element has a known (non-zero) chance of being selected for the sample. Examples of probability sampling methods include simple random sampling, systematic sampling, cluster sampling, stratified sampling, and multistage sampling.

      Simple random sampling is a sample in which every member of the population has an equal chance of being chosen. Systematic sampling involves selecting every kth member of the population. Cluster sampling involves dividing a population into separate groups (called clusters) and selecting a random sample of clusters. Stratified sampling involves dividing a population into groups (strata) and taking a random sample from each strata. Multistage sampling is a more complex method that involves several stages and combines two of more sampling methods.

      Overall, probability sampling methods give a more representative sample of the population, but non-probability sampling methods are often more convenient and cheaper. It is important to choose the appropriate sampling method based on the research question and available resources.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 61 - What is the most frequently observed defence mechanism in individuals with borderline personality...

    Correct

    • What is the most frequently observed defence mechanism in individuals with borderline personality disorder?

      Your Answer: Projection

      Explanation:

      Defense Mechanisms in Specific Conditions

      Certain psychiatric conditions are characterized by specific defense mechanisms. These mechanisms are used by individuals to protect themselves from anxiety and other negative emotions. The following conditions and the associated defenses tend to come up on membership exams.

      Phobias are characterized by intense and irrational fears of specific objects of situations. The defense mechanisms commonly used in phobias are repression and displacement. Repression involves pushing the anxiety-provoking thoughts of memories out of conscious awareness. Displacement involves redirecting the anxiety onto a less threatening object of situation.

      Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is characterized by intrusive and repetitive thoughts (obsessions) and/of repetitive behaviors (compulsions). The defense mechanisms commonly used in OCD are isolation, undoing, and reaction formation. Isolation involves separating the anxiety-provoking thought from the associated emotion. Undoing involves performing a ritual of action to undo the anxiety-provoking thought. Reaction formation involves expressing the opposite emotion of the anxiety-provoking thought.

      Borderline personality disorder (BPD) is characterized by unstable moods, relationships, and self-image. The defense mechanisms commonly used in BPD are projection and splitting. Projection involves attributing one’s own unacceptable thoughts of feelings onto another person. Splitting involves seeing people of situations as either all good of all bad.

      Narcissistic personality disorder (NPD) is characterized by a grandiose sense of self-importance, a need for admiration, and a lack of empathy. The defense mechanisms commonly used in NPD are projection and splitting, similar to BPD.

      Agoraphobia is characterized by a fear of being in situations where escape may be difficult of embarrassing. The defense mechanism commonly used in agoraphobia is displacement, which involves redirecting the anxiety onto a less threatening object of situation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychotherapy
      16.8
      Seconds
  • Question 62 - What is the most frequently observed condition in PANDAS? ...

    Correct

    • What is the most frequently observed condition in PANDAS?

      Your Answer: OCD

      Explanation:

      PANDAS: A Disorder Linked to Streptococcal Infections

      PANDAS, of Pediatric Autoimmune Neuropsychiatric Disorders Associated with Streptococcal Infections, is a condition that affects children who develop sudden onset of obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) and/of tic disorders like Tourette’s Syndrome after contracting strep infections such as Strep throat of Scarlet Fever. The National Institute of Mental Health (NIMH) has identified five criteria for diagnosing PANDAS, including the presence of OCD and/of tic disorder, pediatric onset of symptoms, episodic course of symptom severity, association with group A Beta-hemolytic streptococcal infection, and association with neurological abnormalities. The anti streptococcal DNAse B (Anti DNAse-B) titre is commonly used to determine if there is immunologic evidence of a previous strep infection. PANDAS is linked to basal ganglia dysfunction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
      3.2
      Seconds
  • Question 63 - What is the most frequently diagnosed condition in cases of arson? ...

    Correct

    • What is the most frequently diagnosed condition in cases of arson?

      Your Answer: Alcohol use disorder

      Explanation:

      The diagnosis of alcohol use disorder encompasses both alcohol misuse and dependence, and is a wide-ranging classification.

      Arson and Mental Health: Prevalence and Characteristics

      The National Epidemiologic Survey on Alcohol and Related Conditions (NESARC) conducted a study to determine the extent of intentional firesetting in the general adult population. This study is the first of its kind worldwide. The results of the study revealed that alcohol use disorder was the most common diagnosis among fire setters. Additionally, the study found that there were high rates of antisocial personality disorder among fire setters.

      The findings of the NESARC study shed light on the prevalence and characteristics of arson as a mental disorder. The study highlights the need for further research and understanding of the relationship between mental health and firesetting behavior. By gaining a better understanding of the underlying causes of arson, mental health professionals can develop more effective prevention and treatment strategies for individuals who struggle with this disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Forensic Psychiatry
      2.8
      Seconds
  • Question 64 - A middle-aged man with a hemiparesis starts to tear up at the slightest...

    Correct

    • A middle-aged man with a hemiparesis starts to tear up at the slightest provocation, even though he insists that he is not feeling down. What is your suspicion?

      Your Answer: Pathological crying

      Explanation:

      Pathological Crying

      Pathological crying, also known as pseudobulbar affect, is a condition characterized by sudden outbursts of crying of laughing in response to minor stimuli without any changes in mood. This condition can occur in response to nonspecific and inconsequential stimuli, and lacks a clear association with the prevailing mood state. Pathological crying can result from various neurological conditions, including strokes and multiple sclerosis.

      When it comes to treating pathological crying post-stroke, citalopram is often the recommended treatment due to its efficacy in open label studies. The Maudsley Guidelines suggest that TCAs of SSRIs may be effective for MS, while valproic acid and the combination of dextromethorphan and low dose quinidine have also shown efficacy.

      Understanding the neuroanatomy of pathological laughing and crying is important for diagnosing and treating this condition. Further research is needed to better understand the underlying mechanisms and develop more effective treatments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 65 - A 65-year-old patient has long standing hyperprolactinaemia but does not experience symptoms. They...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old patient has long standing hyperprolactinaemia but does not experience symptoms. They are keen to continue on the prescribed antipsychotic which has proved very effective. Which of the following risks must you make them aware of?

      Your Answer: Breast cancer

      Explanation:

      This risk is purely hypothetical and can affect individuals of any gender.

      Management of Hyperprolactinaemia

      Hyperprolactinaemia is often associated with the use of antipsychotics and occasionally antidepressants. Dopamine inhibits prolactin, and dopamine antagonists increase prolactin levels. Almost all antipsychotics cause changes in prolactin, but some do not increase levels beyond the normal range. The degree of prolactin elevation is dose-related. Hyperprolactinaemia is often asymptomatic but can cause galactorrhoea, menstrual difficulties, gynaecomastia, hypogonadism, sexual dysfunction, and an increased risk of osteoporosis and breast cancer in psychiatric patients.

      Patients should have their prolactin measured before antipsychotic therapy and then monitored for symptoms at three months. Annual testing is recommended for asymptomatic patients. Antipsychotics that increase prolactin should be avoided in patients under 25, patients with osteoporosis, patients with a history of hormone-dependent cancer, and young women. Samples should be taken at least one hour after eating of waking, and care must be taken to avoid stress during the procedure.

      Treatment options include referral for tests to rule out prolactinoma if prolactin is very high, making a joint decision with the patient about continuing if prolactin is raised but not symptomatic, switching to an alternative antipsychotic less prone to hyperprolactinaemia if prolactin is raised and the patient is symptomatic, adding aripiprazole 5mg, of adding a dopamine agonist such as amantadine of bromocriptine. Mirtazapine is recommended for symptomatic hyperprolactinaemia associated with antidepressants as it does not raise prolactin levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 66 - What is the rate of spontaneous abortion among pregnancies that have been confirmed?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the rate of spontaneous abortion among pregnancies that have been confirmed?

      Your Answer: 20-30%

      Correct Answer: 10-20%

      Explanation:

      Paroxetine Use During Pregnancy: Is it Safe?

      Prescribing medication during pregnancy and breastfeeding is challenging due to the potential risks to the fetus of baby. No psychotropic medication has a UK marketing authorization specifically for pregnant of breastfeeding women. Women are encouraged to breastfeed unless they are taking carbamazepine, clozapine, of lithium. The risk of spontaneous major malformation is 2-3%, with drugs accounting for approximately 5% of all abnormalities. Valproate and carbamazepine are associated with an increased risk of neural tube defects, and lithium is associated with cardiac malformations. Benzodiazepines are associated with oral clefts and floppy baby syndrome. Antidepressants have been linked to preterm delivery and congenital malformation, but most findings have been inconsistent. TCAs have been used widely without apparent detriment to the fetus, but their use in the third trimester is known to produce neonatal withdrawal effects. Sertraline appears to result in the least placental exposure among SSRIs. MAOIs should be avoided in pregnancy due to a suspected increased risk of congenital malformations and hypertensive crisis. If a pregnant woman is stable on an antipsychotic and likely to relapse without medication, she should continue the antipsychotic. Depot antipsychotics should not be offered to pregnant of breastfeeding women unless they have a history of non-adherence with oral medication. The Maudsley Guidelines suggest specific drugs for use during pregnancy and breastfeeding. NICE CG192 recommends high-intensity psychological interventions for moderate to severe depression and anxiety disorders. Antipsychotics are recommended for pregnant women with mania of psychosis who are not taking psychotropic medication. Promethazine is recommended for insomnia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      4.1
      Seconds
  • Question 67 - NICE recommends a specific treatment as the initial option for addressing antisocial personality...

    Correct

    • NICE recommends a specific treatment as the initial option for addressing antisocial personality disorder (ASPD).

      Your Answer: Pharmacological interventions are not recommended by NICE for ASPD

      Explanation:

      The routine use of pharmacological treatments for antisocial personality disorder of related behaviors such as aggression, anger, and impulsivity is not recommended.

      Personality Disorder (Antisocial / Dissocial)

      Antisocial personality disorder is characterized by impulsive, irresponsible, and often criminal behavior. The criteria for this disorder differ somewhat between the ICD-11 and DSM-5. The ICD-11 abolished all categories of personality disorder except for a general description of personality disorder. This diagnosis can be further specified as “mild,” “moderate,” of “severe.” Patient behavior can be described using one of more of five personality trait domains; negative affectivity, dissociality, anankastic, detachment, and disinhibition. Clinicians may also specify a borderline pattern qualifier.

      The core feature of dissociality is a disregard for the rights and feelings of others, encompassing both self-centeredness and lack of empathy. Common manifestations of Dissociality include self-centeredness and lack of empathy. The DSM-5 defines antisocial personality disorder as a pervasive pattern of disregard for and violation of the rights of others, occurring since age 15, as indicated by three (of more) of the following: failure to conform to social norms with respect to lawful behaviors, deceitfulness, impulsivity of failure to plan ahead, irritability and aggressiveness, reckless disregard for safety of self of others, consistent irresponsibility, and lack of remorse.

      Prevalence estimates are between 1%-6% in men and between 0.2-0.8% in women. Antisocial behaviors typically have their onset before age 8 years. Nearly 80% of people with ASPD developed their first symptom by age 11 years. Boys develop symptoms earlier than girls, who may not develop symptoms until puberty. An estimated 25% of girls and 40% of boys with Conduct Disorder will later meet criteria for ASPD.

      The 2009 NICE Guidelines essentially make two recommendations on treatment: consider offering group-based cognitive and behavioral interventions and pharmacological interventions should not be routinely used for the treatment of antisocial personality disorder of associated behaviors of aggression, anger, and impulsivity. A Cochrane review found that there is not enough good quality evidence to recommend of reject any psychological treatment for people with a diagnosis of AsPD.

      The term psychopathy has varied meanings. Some use the term synonymously with APD and consider it to represent the severe end of the spectrum of APD. Others maintain a clear distinction between psychopathy and APD. Psychopathy has been said to be a richer (broader) concept than APD. The DSM-5 view of APD is largely based on behavioral difficulties whereas the concept of psychopathy considers behavior in addition to personality-based (interpersonal of affective) symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Forensic Psychiatry
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 68 - For which illicit substance can the use of Phenylephrine result in false positive...

    Correct

    • For which illicit substance can the use of Phenylephrine result in false positive test results?

      Your Answer: Amphetamines

      Explanation:

      Drug Testing

      There are two main approaches to testing for illicit substances: immunoassays and lab testing. Immunoassays are a cheap and quick screening method, but not very specific. Lab testing is more accurate but time-consuming and expensive. Drug testing can be done through urine, saliva, blood, hair, and sweat, although hair and sweat are rarely used in mental health settings.

      False positives can occur when testing for illicit substances, so it’s important to check that patients are not taking other medications that could produce a false positive result. For example, common medications that can lead to false positive results include dimethylamylamine, ofloxacin, bupropion, phenothiazines, trazodone, and methylphenidate for amphetamines/methamphetamines; sertraline and efavirenz for benzodiazepines and cannabis; topical anesthetics for cocaine; codeine, dihydrocodeine, and methadone for opioids; lamotrigine, tramadol, and venlafaxine for PCP; and amitriptyline, bupropion, buspirone, chlorpromazine, fluoxetine, sertraline, and verapamil for LSD.

      In summary, drug testing is an important tool in mental health settings, but it’s crucial to consider potential false positives and medication interactions when interpreting results.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      26.2
      Seconds
  • Question 69 - Which factor is not included in the HCR-20 assessment tool? ...

    Correct

    • Which factor is not included in the HCR-20 assessment tool?

      Your Answer: Learning disability

      Explanation:

      The HCR-20 is a comprehensive tool used to assess the risk of violence in adults. It takes into account various factors from the past, present, and future to provide a holistic view of the individual’s risk. The tool consists of 20 items, which are divided into three domains: historical, clinical, and risk management.

      The historical domain includes factors such as previous violence, young age at first violent incident, relationship instability, employment problems, substance use problems, major mental illness, psychopathy, early maladjustment, personality disorder, and prior supervision failure. These factors are important to consider as they provide insight into the individual’s past behavior and potential risk for future violence.

      The clinical domain includes factors such as lack of insight, negative attitudes, active symptoms of major mental illness, impulsivity, and unresponsiveness to treatment. These factors are important to consider as they provide insight into the individual’s current mental state and potential risk for future violence.

      The risk management domain includes factors such as plans lack feasibility, exposure to destabilizers, lack of personal support, noncompliance with remediation attempts, and stress. These factors are important to consider as they provide insight into the individual’s ability to manage their risk and potential for future violence.

      Overall, the HCR-20 is a valuable tool for assessing the risk of violence in adults. It provides a comprehensive view of the individual’s risk and can be used to inform treatment and risk management strategies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Forensic Psychiatry
      8.2
      Seconds
  • Question 70 - What does the term external validity in a study refer to? ...

    Correct

    • What does the term external validity in a study refer to?

      Your Answer: The degree to which the conclusions in a study would hold for other persons in other places and at other times

      Explanation:

      Validity in statistics refers to how accurately something measures what it claims to measure. There are two main types of validity: internal and external. Internal validity refers to the confidence we have in the cause and effect relationship in a study, while external validity refers to the degree to which the conclusions of a study can be applied to other people, places, and times. There are various threats to both internal and external validity, such as sampling, measurement instrument obtrusiveness, and reactive effects of setting. Additionally, there are several subtypes of validity, including face validity, content validity, criterion validity, and construct validity. Each subtype has its own specific focus and methods for testing validity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      4.6
      Seconds
  • Question 71 - What is a true statement about fitness to plead? ...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement about fitness to plead?

      Your Answer: If a person is found unfit to plead, there is usually a trial of the facts.

      Explanation:

      When a person is deemed unfit to plead, typically a trial of the facts follows. Unfitness to plead is determined at the time of trial, rather than at the time of the offense, and can be caused by physical illness.

      Fitness to Plead: Criteria and Process

      Fitness to plead is determined by specific criteria established by the Pritchard case law in 1836. The criteria include the ability to instruct solicitor and counsel, understand the charges, decide whether to plead guilty of not, follow court proceedings, challenge a juror, and give evidence in one’s defense. Schizophrenia and other enduring mental illnesses are the most common conditions associated with unfitness to plead, particularly when positive psychotic symptomatology is present. Intellectual impairment is not a significant factor in most cases. If the issue is raised by the defense, it must be established on a balance of probability, while if raised by the prosecution of judge, it must be proved beyond reasonable doubt. Amnesia does not render someone unfit to plead. The decision on fitness to plead is made by a judge, not a jury. If someone is found unfit to plead, they are subject to the Criminal Procedures Act 1991, which involves a trial of facts, complete acquittal if the facts are not found, and flexible disposal by the judge if the facts are found, except for murder, which requires mandatory committal to hospital.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Forensic Psychiatry
      4
      Seconds
  • Question 72 - Which of the following does not indicate a possible diagnosis of post traumatic...

    Correct

    • Which of the following does not indicate a possible diagnosis of post traumatic stress disorder?

      Your Answer: Hypersomnia

      Explanation:

      Individuals with PTSD often struggle with sleep disturbances, while atypical depression is characterized by hypersomnia of excessive sleeping.

      Stress disorders, such as Post Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD), are emotional reactions to traumatic events. The diagnosis of PTSD requires exposure to an extremely threatening of horrific event, followed by the development of a characteristic syndrome lasting for at least several weeks, consisting of re-experiencing the traumatic event, deliberate avoidance of reminders likely to produce re-experiencing, and persistent perceptions of heightened current threat. Additional clinical features may include general dysphoria, dissociative symptoms, somatic complaints, suicidal ideation and behaviour, social withdrawal, excessive alcohol of drug use, anxiety symptoms, and obsessions of compulsions. The emotional experience of individuals with PTSD commonly includes anger, shame, sadness, humiliation, of guilt. The onset of PTSD symptoms can occur at any time during the lifespan following exposure to a traumatic event, and the symptoms and course of PTSD can vary significantly over time and individuals. Key differentials include acute stress reaction, adjustment disorder, and complex PTSD. Management of PTSD includes trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR), and supported trauma-focused computerized CBT interventions. Drug treatments, including benzodiazepines, are not recommended for the prevention of treatment of PTSD in adults, but venlafaxine of a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) may be considered for adults with a diagnosis of PTSD if the person has a preference for drug treatment. Antipsychotics such as risperidone may be considered in addition if disabling symptoms and behaviors are present and have not responded to other treatments. Psychological debriefing is not recommended for the prevention of treatment of PTSD. For children and young people, individual trauma-focused CBT interventions of EMDR may be considered, but drug treatments are not recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 73 - Which of the following do you think is the most likely reason for...

    Correct

    • Which of the following do you think is the most likely reason for the council's concern about a man who has made multiple claims about his neighbors harassing him and has been relocated twice before for similar reasons?

      Your Answer: Paranoid personality disorder

      Explanation:

      Individuals with borderline personality disorder may have conflicts with their neighbors, but it is unlikely that they would need to relocate multiple times as a result. On the other hand, those with paranoid personality disorder frequently engage in disputes with their neighbors.

      Paranoid Personality Disorder is a type of personality disorder where individuals have a deep-seated distrust and suspicion of others, often interpreting their actions as malevolent. This disorder is characterized by a pattern of negative interpretations of others’ words, actions, and intentions, leading to a reluctance to confide in others and holding grudges for long periods of time. The DSM-5 criteria for this disorder include at least four of the following symptoms: unfounded suspicions of exploitation, harm, of deception by others, preoccupation with doubts about the loyalty of trustworthiness of friends of associates, reluctance to confide in others due to fear of malicious use of information, reading negative meanings into benign remarks of events, persistent grudges, perceiving attacks on one’s character of reputation that are not apparent to others and reacting angrily of counterattacking, and recurrent suspicions of infidelity in a partner without justification. The ICD-11 does not have a specific category for paranoid personality disorder but covers many of its features under the negative affectivity qualifier under the element of mistrustfulness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      13.8
      Seconds
  • Question 74 - What statement accurately describes the World Mental Health Survey Initiative? ...

    Correct

    • What statement accurately describes the World Mental Health Survey Initiative?

      Your Answer: It includes information on severity

      Explanation:

      It is important to note that England is not involved in the WMH Survey Initiative, which may limit the generalizability of the study’s findings to our own communities.

      World Mental Health Survey Initiative: Variations in Prevalence of Mental Disorders Across Countries

      The World Mental Health Survey Initiative aims to gather accurate cross-national information on the prevalence and correlates of mental, substance, and behavioural disorders. The initiative includes nationally of regionally representative surveys in 28 countries, with a total sample size of over 154,000. All interviews are conducted face-to-face by trained lay interviewers using the WMH-CIDI, a fully structured diagnostic interview.

      As of 2009, data from 17 countries and 70,000 respondents have been returned. The main findings show that the US has the highest prevalence of any disorder, with anxiety disorder being the most common condition, followed by mood disorder. However, there is significant variation in prevalence between countries. These findings highlight the importance of understanding the cultural and societal factors that contribute to the prevalence of mental disorders in different regions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 75 - What is the most probable biomarker to be increased in an individual diagnosed...

    Correct

    • What is the most probable biomarker to be increased in an individual diagnosed with anorexia nervosa?

      Your Answer: Creatinine kinase

      Explanation:

      In individuals with anorexia, the majority of their blood test results are typically below normal levels, with the exception of growth hormone, cholesterol, and cortisol.

      Eating Disorders: Lab Findings and Medical Complications

      Eating disorders can lead to a range of medical complications, including renal failure, peripheral edema, sinus bradycardia, QT-prolongation, pericardial effusion, and slowed GI motility. Other complications include constipation, cathartic colon, esophageal esophagitis, hair loss, and dental erosion. Blood abnormalities are also common in patients with eating disorders, including hyponatremia, hypokalemia, hypophosphatemia, and hypoglycemia. Additionally, patients may experience leucopenia, anemia, low albumin, elevated liver enzymes, and vitamin deficiencies. These complications can cause significant morbidity and mortality in patients with eating disorders. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor patients for these complications and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 76 - What is the most probable diagnosis for a mother who experiences feelings of...

    Correct

    • What is the most probable diagnosis for a mother who experiences feelings of sadness and tearfulness two days after giving birth to her second child, despite having no prior history of mental health issues?

      Your Answer: Baby blues

      Explanation:

      Psychiatric Issues in the Postpartum Period

      The period following childbirth, known as the postpartum period, can be a time of significant psychiatric challenges for women. Many women experience a temporary mood disturbance called baby blues, which is characterized by emotional instability, sadness, and tearfulness. This condition typically resolves within two weeks.

      However, a minority of women (10-15%) experience postpartum depression, which is similar to major depression in its clinical presentation. In contrast, a very small number of women (1-2 per 1000) experience postpartum psychosis, also known as puerperal psychosis. This is a severe form of psychosis that occurs in the weeks following childbirth.

      Research suggests that there may be a link between puerperal psychosis and mood disorders, as approximately 50% of women who develop the condition have a family history of mood disorder. Puerperal psychosis typically begins within the first two weeks following delivery. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these potential psychiatric issues and to provide appropriate support and treatment to women during the postpartum period.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 77 - What is another name for a DaTscan? ...

    Correct

    • What is another name for a DaTscan?

      Your Answer: FP-CIT SPECT

      Explanation:

      The purpose of a DaTscan is to aid in the identification of dementia with Lewy bodies in individuals who are suspected to have it.

      Dementia is a condition that can be diagnosed and supported with the use of neuroimaging techniques. In Alzheimer’s disease, MRI and CT scans are used to assess volume changes in specific areas of the brain, such as the mesial temporal lobe and temporoparietal cortex. SPECT and PET scans can also show functional changes, such as hypoperfusion and glucose hypometabolism. Vascular dementia can be detected with CT and MRI scans that show atrophy, infarcts, and white matter lesions, while SPECT scans reveal a patchy multifocal pattern of hypoperfusion. Lewy body dementia tends to show nonspecific and subtle changes on structural imaging, but SPECT and PET scans can reveal posterior deficits and reduced D2 receptor density. Frontotemporal dementia is characterized by frontal lobe atrophy, which can be seen on CT and MRI scans, while SPECT scans show anterior perfusion deficits. NICE recommends the use of MRI for early diagnosis and detection of subcortical vascular changes, SPECT for differentiating between Alzheimer’s disease, vascular dementia, and frontotemporal dementia, and DaTscan for establishing a diagnosis of dementia with Lewy bodies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 78 - A 29-year-old woman, who was prescribed venlafaxine for depression, reports that she has...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old woman, who was prescribed venlafaxine for depression, reports that she has stopped having periods and has started lactating. A pregnancy test has ruled out pregnancy. The patient is distressed by these symptoms. As investigations are being conducted, which alternative antidepressant would you recommend switching her to?

      Your Answer: Mirtazapine

      Explanation:

      The women’s symptoms are indicative of hyperprolactinemia, which is likely caused by venlafaxine. To avoid exacerbating this condition, mirtazapine is the recommended treatment option as it is thought to have no impact on prolactin levels.

      Management of Hyperprolactinaemia

      Hyperprolactinaemia is often associated with the use of antipsychotics and occasionally antidepressants. Dopamine inhibits prolactin, and dopamine antagonists increase prolactin levels. Almost all antipsychotics cause changes in prolactin, but some do not increase levels beyond the normal range. The degree of prolactin elevation is dose-related. Hyperprolactinaemia is often asymptomatic but can cause galactorrhoea, menstrual difficulties, gynaecomastia, hypogonadism, sexual dysfunction, and an increased risk of osteoporosis and breast cancer in psychiatric patients.

      Patients should have their prolactin measured before antipsychotic therapy and then monitored for symptoms at three months. Annual testing is recommended for asymptomatic patients. Antipsychotics that increase prolactin should be avoided in patients under 25, patients with osteoporosis, patients with a history of hormone-dependent cancer, and young women. Samples should be taken at least one hour after eating of waking, and care must be taken to avoid stress during the procedure.

      Treatment options include referral for tests to rule out prolactinoma if prolactin is very high, making a joint decision with the patient about continuing if prolactin is raised but not symptomatic, switching to an alternative antipsychotic less prone to hyperprolactinaemia if prolactin is raised and the patient is symptomatic, adding aripiprazole 5mg, of adding a dopamine agonist such as amantadine of bromocriptine. Mirtazapine is recommended for symptomatic hyperprolactinaemia associated with antidepressants as it does not raise prolactin levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      12.6
      Seconds
  • Question 79 - Which of the following options would NOT be appropriate for rapid tranquilisation? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following options would NOT be appropriate for rapid tranquilisation?

      Your Answer: IM olanzapine 20 mg

      Explanation:

      Violence and aggression can be managed through rapid tranquillisation, although the evidence base for this approach is not strong. Different guidelines provide varying recommendations for rapid tranquillisation, including NICE, Maudsley Guidelines, and the British Association for Psychopharmacology (BAP). NICE recommends using IM lorazepam of IM haloperidol + IM promethazine for rapid tranquillisation in adults, taking into account factors such as previous response and patient preference. BAP provides a range of options for oral, inhaled, IM, and IV medications, including inhaled loxapine, buccal midazolam, and oral antipsychotics. Maudsley Guidelines suggest using oral lorazepam, oral promethazine, of buccal midazolam if prescribed a regular antipsychotic, of oral olanzapine, oral risperidone, of oral haloperidol if not already taking an antipsychotic. IM options include lorazepam, promethazine, olanzapine, aripiprazole, and haloperidol, although drugs should not be mixed in the same syringe. Haloperidol should ideally be used with promethazine to reduce the risk of dystonia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Forensic Psychiatry
      225.3
      Seconds
  • Question 80 - What is the most frequent genetic factor that leads to learning disabilities? ...

    Correct

    • What is the most frequent genetic factor that leads to learning disabilities?

      Your Answer: Fragile X syndrome

      Explanation:

      Aetiology of Intellectual Disability

      Intellectual disability (ID), previously known as learning disability, affects between 1% and 3% of the global population. The severity of ID varies, with mild cases being the most common, affecting around 85% of those with the condition. Moderate, severe, and profound cases affect 10%, 4%, and 2% of the population, respectively. The cause of ID can be attributed to environmental and/of genetic factors, although up to 60% of cases have no identifiable cause. Genetic factors are responsible for 25-50% of cases, with the likelihood increasing with the severity of the condition. Down Syndrome is the most common genetic cause of ID, while Fragile X syndrome is the most common X-linked cause and the second most common genetic cause of learning difficulty. Foetal alcohol syndrome is the most common acquired form of ID.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Learning Disability
      3.6
      Seconds
  • Question 81 - What is a true statement about exhibitionism? ...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement about exhibitionism?

      Your Answer: Exhibitionism is highly unusual in females

      Explanation:

      According to DSM-5, it is rare for females to exhibit exhibitionistic disorder. While there have been suggestions that childhood sexual and emotional abuse, as well as hypersexuality, may increase the risk of developing exhibitionism, the causal relationship and specificity to this disorder are uncertain.

      Paraphilias are intense and persistent sexual interests other than sexual interest in genital stimulation of preparatory fondling with phenotypically normal, physically mature, consenting human partners. They are divided into those relating to erotic activity and those relating to erotic target. In order to become a disorder, paraphilias must be associated with distress of impairment to the individual of with harm to others. The DSM-5 lists 8 recognised paraphilic disorder but acknowledges that there are many more. Treatment modalities for the paraphilias have limited scientific evidence to support their use. Psychological therapy (especially CBT) is often used (with extremely variable results). Pharmacological options include SSRI, Naltrexone, Antipsychotics, GnRH agonists, and Anti-androgens and progestational drugs (e.g. cyproterone acetate).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Forensic Psychiatry
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 82 - What hierarchical language does NLM utilize to enhance search strategies and index articles?...

    Incorrect

    • What hierarchical language does NLM utilize to enhance search strategies and index articles?

      Your Answer: NLM subheadings

      Correct Answer: MeSH

      Explanation:

      NLM’s hierarchical vocabulary, known as MeSH (Medical Subject Heading), is utilized for the purpose of indexing articles in PubMed.

      Evidence-based medicine involves four basic steps: developing a focused clinical question, searching for the best evidence, critically appraising the evidence, and applying the evidence and evaluating the outcome. When developing a question, it is important to understand the difference between background and foreground questions. Background questions are general questions about conditions, illnesses, syndromes, and pathophysiology, while foreground questions are more often about issues of care. The PICO system is often used to define the components of a foreground question: patient group of interest, intervention of interest, comparison, and primary outcome.

      When searching for evidence, it is important to have a basic understanding of the types of evidence and sources of information. Scientific literature is divided into two basic categories: primary (empirical research) and secondary (interpretation and analysis of primary sources). Unfiltered sources are large databases of articles that have not been pre-screened for quality, while filtered resources summarize and appraise evidence from several studies.

      There are several databases and search engines that can be used to search for evidence, including Medline and PubMed, Embase, the Cochrane Library, PsycINFO, CINAHL, and OpenGrey. Boolean logic can be used to combine search terms in PubMed, and phrase searching and truncation can also be used. Medical Subject Headings (MeSH) are used by indexers to describe articles for MEDLINE records, and the MeSH Database is like a thesaurus that enables exploration of this vocabulary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      2.3
      Seconds
  • Question 83 - What is a true statement about antisocial personality disorder? ...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement about antisocial personality disorder?

      Your Answer: Antisocial behaviours seen in conduct disorder are typically present before the age of 8

      Explanation:

      Personality Disorder (Antisocial / Dissocial)

      Antisocial personality disorder is characterized by impulsive, irresponsible, and often criminal behavior. The criteria for this disorder differ somewhat between the ICD-11 and DSM-5. The ICD-11 abolished all categories of personality disorder except for a general description of personality disorder. This diagnosis can be further specified as “mild,” “moderate,” of “severe.” Patient behavior can be described using one of more of five personality trait domains; negative affectivity, dissociality, anankastic, detachment, and disinhibition. Clinicians may also specify a borderline pattern qualifier.

      The core feature of dissociality is a disregard for the rights and feelings of others, encompassing both self-centeredness and lack of empathy. Common manifestations of Dissociality include self-centeredness and lack of empathy. The DSM-5 defines antisocial personality disorder as a pervasive pattern of disregard for and violation of the rights of others, occurring since age 15, as indicated by three (of more) of the following: failure to conform to social norms with respect to lawful behaviors, deceitfulness, impulsivity of failure to plan ahead, irritability and aggressiveness, reckless disregard for safety of self of others, consistent irresponsibility, and lack of remorse.

      Prevalence estimates are between 1%-6% in men and between 0.2-0.8% in women. Antisocial behaviors typically have their onset before age 8 years. Nearly 80% of people with ASPD developed their first symptom by age 11 years. Boys develop symptoms earlier than girls, who may not develop symptoms until puberty. An estimated 25% of girls and 40% of boys with Conduct Disorder will later meet criteria for ASPD.

      The 2009 NICE Guidelines essentially make two recommendations on treatment: consider offering group-based cognitive and behavioral interventions and pharmacological interventions should not be routinely used for the treatment of antisocial personality disorder of associated behaviors of aggression, anger, and impulsivity. A Cochrane review found that there is not enough good quality evidence to recommend of reject any psychological treatment for people with a diagnosis of AsPD.

      The term psychopathy has varied meanings. Some use the term synonymously with APD and consider it to represent the severe end of the spectrum of APD. Others maintain a clear distinction between psychopathy and APD. Psychopathy has been said to be a richer (broader) concept than APD. The DSM-5 view of APD is largely based on behavioral difficulties whereas the concept of psychopathy considers behavior in addition to personality-based (interpersonal of affective) symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Forensic Psychiatry
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 84 - Which illegal drug is commonly referred to as pot? ...

    Correct

    • Which illegal drug is commonly referred to as pot?

      Your Answer: Cannabis

      Explanation:

      Cannabis, also known as marijuana, grass, pot, weed, tea, of Mary Jane, is a plant that contains over 60 unique cannabinoids. The primary psychoactive component of cannabis is delta-9-tetrahydrocannabinol (Delta 9-THC), which is rapidly converted into 11-hydroxy-delta 9-THC, the active metabolite in the central nervous system. Specific cannabinoid receptors, including CB1 and CB2 receptors, have been identified in the body. CB1 receptors are found mainly at nerve terminals, where they inhibit transmitter release, while CB2 receptors occur mainly on immune cells and modulate cytokine release. The cannabinoid receptor is found in highest concentrations in the basal ganglia, hippocampus, and cerebellum, with lower concentrations in the cerebral cortex. Cannabis use has been associated with the amotivational syndrome, characterized by apathy, anergy, weight gain, and a lack of persistence in tasks requiring prolonged attention of tenacity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      2
      Seconds
  • Question 85 - Which of the following would be the most appropriate first-line treatment for a...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following would be the most appropriate first-line treatment for a 12 year old boy with mild depression that has failed to respond to group based CBT despite 3 months of therapy?

      Your Answer: Intensive psychological therapy + fluoxetine

      Correct Answer: Individual CBT

      Explanation:

      Depression in Young People: NICE Guidelines

      The NICE Guidelines for depression in young people are limited to those between the ages of 5-18. For mild depression without significant comorbid problems of active suicidal ideas of plans, watchful waiting is recommended, along with digital CBT, group CBT, group IPT, of group non-directive supportive therapy. For moderate to severe depression, family-based IPT, family therapy, psychodynamic psychotherapy, individual CBT, and fluoxetine may be used for 5-11 year olds, while individual CBT and fluoxetine may be used for 12-18 year olds. Antidepressant medication should not be used for initial treatment of mild depression, and should only be used in combination with concurrent psychological therapy for moderate to severe depression. Fluoxetine is the only antidepressant for which clinical trial evidence shows that the benefits outweigh the risks, and should be used as the first-line treatment. Paroxetine, venlafaxine, tricyclic antidepressants, and St John’s wort should not be used for the treatment of depression in children and young people. Second generation antipsychotics may be used for depression with psychotic symptoms, and ECT should only be considered for those with very severe depression and life-threatening symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 86 - How does the suicide rate in patients with epilepsy compare to the general...

    Incorrect

    • How does the suicide rate in patients with epilepsy compare to the general population?

      Your Answer: 4 times lower

      Correct Answer: 3 times higher

      Explanation:

      Suicide Risk in Epilepsy

      Several studies have shown that individuals with epilepsy have an increased risk of suicide. A large study published in the Lancet in 2007 found that individuals with epilepsy were three times more likely to commit suicide compared to those without epilepsy. This risk remained high even after excluding those with a history of psychiatric disease and adjusting for socioeconomic factors.

      The highest risk of suicide was found in individuals with epilepsy and comorbid psychiatric disease, with a risk of 13.7 times higher than controls. The risk of suicide was also highest during the first six months after diagnosis, especially in those with a history of comorbid psychiatric disease.

      These findings highlight the importance of addressing mental health concerns in individuals with epilepsy, particularly during the early stages of diagnosis. Healthcare providers should be aware of the increased risk of suicide in this population and provide appropriate support and resources to prevent suicide.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      8.2
      Seconds
  • Question 87 - What model of family therapy utilizes reflecting teams and interventive questioning? ...

    Correct

    • What model of family therapy utilizes reflecting teams and interventive questioning?

      Your Answer: Systemic

      Explanation:

      Family Therapy Models

      Family therapy emerged in the 1950s, shifting the focus from individual problems to the context of the environment. There are five main models of family therapy: structural, strategic, systemic, transgenerational, and solution-focused.

      Structural therapy, developed by Salvador Minuchin, assumes that the family’s structure is wrong and aims to establish clear boundaries and no coalitions. Dysfunctional families are marked by impaired boundaries, inappropriate alignments, and power imbalances.

      Strategic therapy, associated with Jay Haley and Cloe Madanes, claims that difficulties in families arise due to distorted hierarchies. Dysfunctional families communicate in problematic repetitive patterns that kept them dysfunctional. Key terms include task setting and goal setting.

      Systemic therapy, associated with Mara Selvini-Palazzoli, sees the family as a self-regulating system that controls itself according to rules formed over time. The focus is on exploring differences between family members’ behaviors, emotional responses, and beliefs at different points in time. Key terms include hypothesizing, neutrality, positive connotation, paradox and counterparadox, circular and interventive questioning, and the use of reflecting teams.

      Transgenerational family therapy aims to understand how families, across generations, develop patterns of behaving and responding to stress in ways that prevent health development and lead to problems. Seven interlocking concepts make up the theory.

      Solution-focused therapy emphasizes solutions over problems and collaborates with the family through in-depth questioning to focus on the solutions already being used by the clients. The therapist is non-interventionist, and the focus is on the present and the future. Blame, shame, and conflict are seen as issues that impede people from realizing these solutions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychotherapy
      4.2
      Seconds
  • Question 88 - What is the first line treatment recommended by NICE for school age children...

    Correct

    • What is the first line treatment recommended by NICE for school age children and young people with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder with moderate impairment?

      Your Answer: Parental training programmes

      Explanation:

      ADHD (Diagnosis and Management in Children)

      ADHD is a behavioural syndrome characterised by symptoms of inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsivity. The DSM-5 and ICD-11 provide diagnostic criteria for the condition, with both recognising three subtypes: predominantly inattentive, predominantly hyperactive-impulsive, and combined.

      Treatment for children under 5 involves offering an ADHD-focused group parent-training programme as a first-line option. Medication should only be considered after obtaining advice from a specialist ADHD service. For children and young people aged 5-18, advice and support should be given, along with an ADHD-focused group parent-training programme. Medication should only be offered if ADHD symptoms persist after environmental modifications have been implemented and reviewed. Cognitive behavioural therapy may also be considered for those who have benefited from medication but still experience significant impairment.

      NICE advises against elimination diets, dietary fatty acid supplementation, and the use of the ‘few foods diet’. Methylphenidate of lisdexamfetamine is the first-line medication option, with dexamphetamine considered for those who respond to lisdexamfetamine but cannot tolerate the longer effect profile. Atomoxetine of guanfacine may be offered for those who cannot tolerate methylphenidate of lisdexamfetamine. Clonidine and atypical antipsychotics should only be used with advice from a tertiary ADHD service.

      Drug holidays may be considered for children and young people who have not met the expected height for their age due to medication. However, NICE advises that withdrawal from treatment is associated with a risk of symptom exacerbation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
      10.9
      Seconds
  • Question 89 - Which statement accurately describes the epidemiology of violence among individuals with a mental...

    Correct

    • Which statement accurately describes the epidemiology of violence among individuals with a mental illness?

      Your Answer: People with mental disorders are more likely to be violent than community controls

      Explanation:

      The Relationship Between Mental Disorder and Violence: Epidemiological Findings

      Epidemiological studies have revealed that individuals with mental disorders are more likely to exhibit violent behavior compared to those without mental disorders. However, substance misuse is a significant contributing factor to violence in both groups. Other factors such as gender, age, past history of violence, and socio-economic status have a more significant impact on the risk of violence than the presence of a mental disorder. Comorbid personality disorders also increase the risk of violence independently. The increased risk of violence is partly due to active psychotic symptoms, and threat/control override symptoms such as persecutory delusions, delusions of control, and passivity phenomena are particularly important. It is essential to note that the vast majority of individuals with mental disorders are not violent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Forensic Psychiatry
      26.5
      Seconds
  • Question 90 - Salvador Minuchin is associated with which model of family therapy? ...

    Correct

    • Salvador Minuchin is associated with which model of family therapy?

      Your Answer: Structural

      Explanation:

      Family Therapy Models

      Family therapy emerged in the 1950s, shifting the focus from individual problems to the context of the environment. There are five main models of family therapy: structural, strategic, systemic, transgenerational, and solution-focused.

      Structural therapy, developed by Salvador Minuchin, assumes that the family’s structure is wrong and aims to establish clear boundaries and no coalitions. Dysfunctional families are marked by impaired boundaries, inappropriate alignments, and power imbalances.

      Strategic therapy, associated with Jay Haley and Cloe Madanes, claims that difficulties in families arise due to distorted hierarchies. Dysfunctional families communicate in problematic repetitive patterns that kept them dysfunctional. Key terms include task setting and goal setting.

      Systemic therapy, associated with Mara Selvini-Palazzoli, sees the family as a self-regulating system that controls itself according to rules formed over time. The focus is on exploring differences between family members’ behaviors, emotional responses, and beliefs at different points in time. Key terms include hypothesizing, neutrality, positive connotation, paradox and counterparadox, circular and interventive questioning, and the use of reflecting teams.

      Transgenerational family therapy aims to understand how families, across generations, develop patterns of behaving and responding to stress in ways that prevent health development and lead to problems. Seven interlocking concepts make up the theory.

      Solution-focused therapy emphasizes solutions over problems and collaborates with the family through in-depth questioning to focus on the solutions already being used by the clients. The therapist is non-interventionist, and the focus is on the present and the future. Blame, shame, and conflict are seen as issues that impede people from realizing these solutions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychotherapy
      2.6
      Seconds
  • Question 91 - What is the safest option to use during pregnancy? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the safest option to use during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Lithium

      Correct Answer: Amitriptyline

      Explanation:

      Paroxetine Use During Pregnancy: Is it Safe?

      Prescribing medication during pregnancy and breastfeeding is challenging due to the potential risks to the fetus of baby. No psychotropic medication has a UK marketing authorization specifically for pregnant of breastfeeding women. Women are encouraged to breastfeed unless they are taking carbamazepine, clozapine, of lithium. The risk of spontaneous major malformation is 2-3%, with drugs accounting for approximately 5% of all abnormalities. Valproate and carbamazepine are associated with an increased risk of neural tube defects, and lithium is associated with cardiac malformations. Benzodiazepines are associated with oral clefts and floppy baby syndrome. Antidepressants have been linked to preterm delivery and congenital malformation, but most findings have been inconsistent. TCAs have been used widely without apparent detriment to the fetus, but their use in the third trimester is known to produce neonatal withdrawal effects. Sertraline appears to result in the least placental exposure among SSRIs. MAOIs should be avoided in pregnancy due to a suspected increased risk of congenital malformations and hypertensive crisis. If a pregnant woman is stable on an antipsychotic and likely to relapse without medication, she should continue the antipsychotic. Depot antipsychotics should not be offered to pregnant of breastfeeding women unless they have a history of non-adherence with oral medication. The Maudsley Guidelines suggest specific drugs for use during pregnancy and breastfeeding. NICE CG192 recommends high-intensity psychological interventions for moderate to severe depression and anxiety disorders. Antipsychotics are recommended for pregnant women with mania of psychosis who are not taking psychotropic medication. Promethazine is recommended for insomnia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      116.1
      Seconds
  • Question 92 - What is a true statement about standardised mortality ratios? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about standardised mortality ratios?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Direct standardisation requires that we know the age-specific rates of mortality in all the populations under study

      Explanation:

      Calculation of Standardised Mortality Ratio (SMR)

      To calculate the SMR, age and sex-specific death rates in the standard population are obtained. An estimate for the number of people in each category for both the standard and study populations is needed. The number of expected deaths in each age-sex group of the study population is calculated by multiplying the age-sex-specific rates in the standard population by the number of people in each category of the study population. The sum of all age- and sex-specific expected deaths gives the expected number of deaths for the whole study population. The observed number of deaths is then divided by the expected number of deaths to obtain the SMR.

      The SMR can be standardised using the direct of indirect method. The direct method is used when the age-sex-specific rates for the study population and the age-sex-structure of the standard population are known. The indirect method is used when the age-specific rates for the study population are unknown of not available. This method uses the observed number of deaths in the study population and compares it to the number of deaths that would be expected if the age distribution was the same as that of the standard population.

      The SMR can be interpreted as follows: an SMR less than 1.0 indicates fewer than expected deaths in the study population, an SMR of 1.0 indicates the number of observed deaths equals the number of expected deaths in the study population, and an SMR greater than 1.0 indicates more than expected deaths in the study population (excess deaths). It is sometimes expressed after multiplying by 100.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 93 - Which of the following is not a recognised method for testing illicit substances?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not a recognised method for testing illicit substances?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nasal mucus

      Explanation:

      Testing for drugs cannot be done through nasal mucus.

      Drug Testing

      There are two main approaches to testing for illicit substances: immunoassays and lab testing. Immunoassays are a cheap and quick screening method, but not very specific. Lab testing is more accurate but time-consuming and expensive. Drug testing can be done through urine, saliva, blood, hair, and sweat, although hair and sweat are rarely used in mental health settings.

      False positives can occur when testing for illicit substances, so it’s important to check that patients are not taking other medications that could produce a false positive result. For example, common medications that can lead to false positive results include dimethylamylamine, ofloxacin, bupropion, phenothiazines, trazodone, and methylphenidate for amphetamines/methamphetamines; sertraline and efavirenz for benzodiazepines and cannabis; topical anesthetics for cocaine; codeine, dihydrocodeine, and methadone for opioids; lamotrigine, tramadol, and venlafaxine for PCP; and amitriptyline, bupropion, buspirone, chlorpromazine, fluoxetine, sertraline, and verapamil for LSD.

      In summary, drug testing is an important tool in mental health settings, but it’s crucial to consider potential false positives and medication interactions when interpreting results.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 94 - A 7-year-old girl has been referred to your clinic due to concerns expressed...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old girl has been referred to your clinic due to concerns expressed by her parents and teachers that she has difficulty paying attention, is impulsive, and cannot sit still for more than a few minutes. She also has a diagnosis of Tourette's syndrome with both motor and vocal tics. The parents are worried that her tics may worsen with treatment for her hyperactivity.
      What would be your preferred treatment option?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atomoxetine

      Explanation:

      Atomoxetine is a suitable treatment option for individuals with Tourette’s and hyperkinetic disorder (ADHD) as it does not exacerbate tics, which is a common concern with other medications that affect the dopaminergic system. This is because atomoxetine is a highly selective noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (NARI).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 95 - What is the best course of action regarding medication for a woman with...

    Incorrect

    • What is the best course of action regarding medication for a woman with bipolar disorder who is 6 weeks pregnant and wishes to continue the pregnancy while being stable on valproate for several years?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stop the valproate and offer an antipsychotic for prophylaxis

      Explanation:

      Valproate is a potent teratogen and should ideally be discontinued during pregnancy. However, the decision to stop must be carefully weighed against the risk of relapse, which is high in some cases. If the history suggests mild to moderate illness, continuing valproate may not be supported. In such cases, NICE Guidelines recommend stopping valproate and starting an antipsychotic as prophylaxis. Pregnancy is a high-risk period for bipolar relapse, so stopping valproate without replacing it with an antipsychotic would be unwise. A shared decision-making approach should be used to determine the best course of action. (Macfarlane, 2018)

      Bipolar Disorder in Women of Childbearing Potential

      Prophylaxis is recommended for women with bipolar disorder, as postpartum relapse rates are high. Women without prophylactic pharmacotherapy during pregnancy have a postpartum relapse rate of 66%, compared to 23% for women with prophylaxis. Antipsychotics are recommended for pregnant women with bipolar disorder, according to NICE Guidelines (CG192) and the Maudsley. Women taking valproate, lithium, carbamazepine, of lamotrigine should discontinue treatment and start an antipsychotic, especially if taking valproate. If a woman with bipolar disorder is taking lithium and becomes pregnant, she should gradually stop lithium over a 4 week period and start an antipsychotic. If this is not possible, lithium levels must be taken regularly, and the dose adjusted accordingly. For acute mania, an antipsychotic should be considered. For mild depressive symptoms, self-help approaches, brief psychological interventions, and antidepressant medication can be considered. For moderate to severe depressive symptoms, psychological treatment (CBT) for moderate depression and combined medication and structured psychological interventions for severe depression should be considered.

      Reference: Wesseloo, R., Kamperman, A. M., Munk-Olsen, T., Pop, V. J., Kushner, S. A., & Bergink, V. (2016). Risk of postpartum relapse in bipolar disorder and postpartum psychosis: a systematic review and meta-analysis. The American Journal of Psychiatry, 173(2), 117-127.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 96 - What substance hinders the transformation of aldehyde into acetic acid? ...

    Incorrect

    • What substance hinders the transformation of aldehyde into acetic acid?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Disulfiram

      Explanation:

      Anticonvulsants are not recommended for relapse prevention in alcohol dependence. While some studies have shown potential benefits for certain anticonvulsants, such as carbamazepine and valproate, the evidence is not strong enough to support their routine use. Additionally, these drugs can have significant side effects, including liver toxicity and blood disorders, and require careful monitoring. Therefore, they are not recommended by NICE for this indication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 97 - What is a true statement about eating disorders? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about eating disorders?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: When treating anorexia nervosa, helping people to reach a healthy body weight of BMI for their age is a key goal

      Explanation:

      A key objective in the treatment of anorexia nervosa is to assist individuals in achieving a healthy body weight of BMI appropriate for their age. It is not recommended to rely solely on screening tools like SCOFF to diagnose eating disorders. While eating disorders can occur at any age, it is important to note that the risk is greatest for adolescents between the ages of 13 and 17, particularly young men and women. It is not advisable to use a single metric such as BMI of duration of illness to determine whether treatment for an eating disorder is necessary.

      Eating Disorders: NICE Guidelines

      Anorexia:
      For adults with anorexia nervosa, consider individual eating-disorder-focused cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT-ED), Maudsley Anorexia Nervosa Treatment for Adults (MANTRA), of specialist supportive clinical management (SSCM). If these are not acceptable, contraindicated, of ineffective, consider eating-disorder-focused focal psychodynamic therapy (FPT). For children and young people, consider anorexia-nervosa-focused family therapy (FT-AN) of individual CBT-ED. Do not offer medication as the sole treatment.

      Bulimia:
      For adults, the first step is an evidence-based self-help programme. If this is not effective, consider individual CBT-ED. For children and young people, offer bulimia-nervosa-focused family therapy (FT-BN) of individual CBT-ED. Do not offer medication as the sole treatment.

      Binge Eating Disorder:
      The first step is a guided self-help programme. If this is not effective, offer group of individual CBT-ED. For children and young people, offer the same treatments recommended for adults. Do not offer medication as the sole treatment.

      Advice for those with eating disorders:
      Encourage people with an eating disorder who are vomiting to avoid brushing teeth immediately after vomiting, rinse with non-acid mouthwash, and avoid highly acidic foods and drinks. Advise against misusing laxatives of diuretics and excessive exercise.

      Additional points:
      Do not offer physical therapy as part of treatment. Consider bone mineral density scans after 1 year of underweight in children and young people, of 2 years in adults. Do not routinely offer oral of transdermal oestrogen therapy to treat low bone mineral density in children of young people with anorexia nervosa. Consider transdermal 17-β-estradiol of bisphosphonates for women with anorexia nervosa.

      Note: These guidelines are taken from NICE guidelines 2017.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 98 - What are some recognized risk factors for suicide among incarcerated individuals? ...

    Incorrect

    • What are some recognized risk factors for suicide among incarcerated individuals?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Remand prisoners

      Explanation:

      Prisoners who are male, recently admitted to prison within the past week, on remand, charged with a violent of sexual offense, and with a previous history of mental illness are recognized as established risk factors for suicide in prisons.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Forensic Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 99 - What is a biological characteristic of depression? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a biological characteristic of depression?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reduced appetite

      Explanation:

      Depression (Biological Symptoms)

      Depression can be classified into biological (physical) of psychological symptoms. The terms used to describe biological symptoms include somatic, vital, melancholic, and endogenomorphic. These terms are used interchangeably in exams, so it is important to be familiar with them.

      Biological symptoms of depression include decreased appetite, weight loss, lack of emotional reactivity, anhedonia, early morning waking, depression worse in the mornings, psychomotor changes (retardation and agitation), fatigue, reduced libido, constipation, and insomnia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 100 - Which of the following is the correct description of construct validity? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the correct description of construct validity?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A test has good construct validity if it has a high correlation with another test that measures the same construct

      Explanation:

      Validity in statistics refers to how accurately something measures what it claims to measure. There are two main types of validity: internal and external. Internal validity refers to the confidence we have in the cause and effect relationship in a study, while external validity refers to the degree to which the conclusions of a study can be applied to other people, places, and times. There are various threats to both internal and external validity, such as sampling, measurement instrument obtrusiveness, and reactive effects of setting. Additionally, there are several subtypes of validity, including face validity, content validity, criterion validity, and construct validity. Each subtype has its own specific focus and methods for testing validity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 101 - A study comparing the benefit of two surgical procedures for patients over 65...

    Incorrect

    • A study comparing the benefit of two surgical procedures for patients over 65 concludes that the two procedures are equally effective. A researcher is then asked to conduct a cost analysis of the two procedures, considering only the financial expenses.

      What is the best way to describe this approach?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cost-minimisation analysis

      Explanation:

      Methods of Economic Evaluation

      There are four main methods of economic evaluation: cost-effectiveness analysis (CEA), cost-benefit analysis (CBA), cost-utility analysis (CUA), and cost-minimisation analysis (CMA). While all four methods capture costs, they differ in how they assess health effects.

      Cost-effectiveness analysis (CEA) compares interventions by relating costs to a single clinical measure of effectiveness, such as symptom reduction of improvement in activities of daily living. The cost-effectiveness ratio is calculated as total cost divided by units of effectiveness. CEA is typically used when CBA cannot be performed due to the inability to monetise benefits.

      Cost-benefit analysis (CBA) measures all costs and benefits of an intervention in monetary terms to establish which alternative has the greatest net benefit. CBA requires that all consequences of an intervention, such as life-years saved, treatment side-effects, symptom relief, disability, pain, and discomfort, are allocated a monetary value. CBA is rarely used in mental health service evaluation due to the difficulty in converting benefits from mental health programmes into monetary values.

      Cost-utility analysis (CUA) is a special form of CEA in which health benefits/outcomes are measured in broader, more generic ways, enabling comparisons between treatments for different diseases and conditions. Multidimensional health outcomes are measured by a single preference- of utility-based index such as the Quality-Adjusted-Life-Years (QALY). QALYs are a composite measure of gains in life expectancy and health-related quality of life. CUA allows for comparisons across treatments for different conditions.

      Cost-minimisation analysis (CMA) is an economic evaluation in which the consequences of competing interventions are the same, and only inputs, i.e. costs, are taken into consideration. The aim is to decide the least costly way of achieving the same outcome.

      Costs in Economic Evaluation Studies

      There are three main types of costs in economic evaluation studies: direct, indirect, and intangible. Direct costs are associated directly with the healthcare intervention, such as staff time, medical supplies, cost of travel for the patient, childcare costs for the patient, and costs falling on other social sectors such as domestic help from social services. Indirect costs are incurred by the reduced productivity of the patient, such as time off work, reduced work productivity, and time spent caring for the patient by relatives. Intangible costs are difficult to measure, such as pain of suffering on the part of the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 102 - Which condition is primarily associated with cortical dementia rather than subcortical dementia? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which condition is primarily associated with cortical dementia rather than subcortical dementia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pick's disease

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Cortical and Subcortical Dementia: A Contested Area

      Attempts have been made to differentiate between cortical and subcortical dementia based on clinical presentation, but this remains a contested area. Some argue that the distinction is not possible. Cortical dementia is characterized by impaired memory, visuospatial ability, executive function, and language. Examples of cortical dementias include Alzheimer’s disease, Pick’s disease, and Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease. On the other hand, subcortical dementia is characterized by general slowing of mental processes, personality changes, mood disorders, and abnormal movements. Examples of subcortical dementias include Binswanger’s disease, dementia associated with Huntington’s disease, AIDS, Parkinson’s disease, Wilson’s disease, and progressive supranuclear palsy. Despite ongoing debate, questions on this topic may appear in exams.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 103 - You have been asked to assess a 60-year-old female at the cardiac unit...

    Incorrect

    • You have been asked to assess a 60-year-old female at the cardiac unit of the local general hospital. She suffered a myocardial (MI) infarction three weeks ago and has been recovering well physically.
      The medical team are concerned that she is experiencing frequent crying spells. You observe evidence of low mood, anhedonia and sleep disturbance.
      The woman feels hopeless about the future and has fleeting thoughts of suicide. She has a history of depression which responded well to antidepressant treatment.
      Which antidepressant would you recommend based on its demonstrated safety post-myocardial infarction?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sertraline

      Explanation:

      According to a study published in JAMA, sertraline is a safe and effective treatment for depression in patients who have recently experienced a myocardial infarction (MI) of unstable angina. The study found that sertraline not only has antidepressant effects but also inhibits platelet aggregation. This suggests that sertraline may have additional benefits for patients with cardiovascular disease. For more information, refer to Glassman et al.’s study in JAMA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 104 - What is the purpose of using the DAI and MARS scales for assessment?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the purpose of using the DAI and MARS scales for assessment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Compliance with medication

      Explanation:

      Non-Compliance

      Studies have shown that adherence rates in patients with psychosis who are treated with antipsychotics can range from 25% to 75%. Shockingly, approximately 90% of those who are non-compliant admit to doing so intentionally (Maudsley 12th edition). After being discharged from the hospital, the expected non-compliance rate in individuals with schizophrenia is as follows (Maudsley 12th Edition): 25% at ten days, 50% at one year, and 75% at two years. The Drug Attitude Inventory (DAI) is a useful tool for assessing a patient’s attitude towards medication and predicting compliance. Other scales that can be used include the Rating of Medication Influences Scale (ROMI), the Beliefs about Medication Questionnaire, and the Medication Adherence Rating Scale (MARS).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 105 - What is the name of the self-reported screening tool for personality disorders that...

    Incorrect

    • What is the name of the self-reported screening tool for personality disorders that consists of 100 true and false questions and is developed based on DSM-IV criteria?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: PDQ-R

      Explanation:

      There are several screening tools available for personality disorder, including SAPAS, FFMRF, IPDE, PDQ-R, IPDS, and IIP-PD. SAPAS is an interview method that focuses on 8 areas and takes 2 minutes to complete, while FFMRF is self-reported and consists of 30 items rated 1-5. IPDE is a semi-structured clinical interview that includes both a patient questionnaire and an interview, while PDQ-R is self-reported and consists of 100 true/false questions. IPDS is an interview method that consists of 11 criteria and takes less than 5 minutes, while IIP-PD is self-reported and contains 127 items rated 0-4. A score of 3 of more on SAPAS warrants further assessment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Forensic Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 106 - With which of the following is Jakob Moreno primarily associated? ...

    Incorrect

    • With which of the following is Jakob Moreno primarily associated?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Psychodrama

      Explanation:

      Group Psychotherapy: Yalom’s Therapeutic Principles

      Group psychotherapy involves a trained therapist and a group of individuals. Yalom, a prominent figure in group therapy, outlined the therapeutic principles of group psychotherapy. These principles include universality, altruism, instillation of hope, imparting information, corrective recapitulation of the primary family experience, development of socializing techniques, imitative behavior, cohesiveness, existential factors, catharsis, interpersonal learning, and self-understanding. Psychodrama, a specific form of group therapy, involves examining relationships and problems through drama.

      Bion and Basic Assumption Groups

      Bion, a psychoanalyst interested in group dynamics, believed that groups had a collective unconscious that operated similarly to an individual’s. He distinguished between two types of groups: working groups and basic assumption groups. Basic assumption groups act out primitive fantasies and prevent things from getting done. Bion described different types of basic assumption groups, including dependency, fight-flight, and pairing. Dependency involves the group turning to a leader to protect them from anxiety. Fight-flight involves the group acting as if there is an enemy who must be attacked of avoided. Pairing involves the group acting as if the answer lies in the pairing of two members.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychotherapy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 107 - What is the term used to describe the point at which a researcher...

    Incorrect

    • What is the term used to describe the point at which a researcher chooses to reject a null hypothesis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alpha level

      Explanation:

      If the p-value is lower than the predetermined alpha level of 0.05, the outcome is considered significant.

      Understanding Hypothesis Testing in Statistics

      In statistics, it is not feasible to investigate hypotheses on entire populations. Therefore, researchers take samples and use them to make estimates about the population they are drawn from. However, this leads to uncertainty as there is no guarantee that the sample taken will be truly representative of the population, resulting in potential errors. Statistical hypothesis testing is the process used to determine if claims from samples to populations can be made and with what certainty.

      The null hypothesis (Ho) is the claim that there is no real difference between two groups, while the alternative hypothesis (H1 of Ha) suggests that any difference is due to some non-random chance. The alternative hypothesis can be one-tailed of two-tailed, depending on whether it seeks to establish a difference of a change in one direction.

      Two types of errors may occur when testing the null hypothesis: Type I and Type II errors. Type I error occurs when the null hypothesis is rejected when it is true, while Type II error occurs when the null hypothesis is accepted when it is false. The power of a study is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false, and it can be increased by increasing the sample size.

      P-values provide information on statistical significance and help researchers decide if study results have occurred due to chance. The p-value is the probability of obtaining a result that is as large of larger when in reality there is no difference between two groups. The cutoff for the p-value is called the significance level (alpha level), typically set at 0.05. If the p-value is less than the cutoff, the null hypothesis is rejected, and if it is greater or equal to the cut off, the null hypothesis is not rejected. However, the p-value does not indicate clinical significance, which may be too small to be meaningful.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 108 - If a child with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder develops tics due to taking...

    Incorrect

    • If a child with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder develops tics due to taking methylphenidate, what would be the appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atomoxetine

      Explanation:

      ADHD (Diagnosis and Management in Children)

      ADHD is a behavioural syndrome characterised by symptoms of inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsivity. The DSM-5 and ICD-11 provide diagnostic criteria for the condition, with both recognising three subtypes: predominantly inattentive, predominantly hyperactive-impulsive, and combined.

      Treatment for children under 5 involves offering an ADHD-focused group parent-training programme as a first-line option. Medication should only be considered after obtaining advice from a specialist ADHD service. For children and young people aged 5-18, advice and support should be given, along with an ADHD-focused group parent-training programme. Medication should only be offered if ADHD symptoms persist after environmental modifications have been implemented and reviewed. Cognitive behavioural therapy may also be considered for those who have benefited from medication but still experience significant impairment.

      NICE advises against elimination diets, dietary fatty acid supplementation, and the use of the ‘few foods diet’. Methylphenidate of lisdexamfetamine is the first-line medication option, with dexamphetamine considered for those who respond to lisdexamfetamine but cannot tolerate the longer effect profile. Atomoxetine of guanfacine may be offered for those who cannot tolerate methylphenidate of lisdexamfetamine. Clonidine and atypical antipsychotics should only be used with advice from a tertiary ADHD service.

      Drug holidays may be considered for children and young people who have not met the expected height for their age due to medication. However, NICE advises that withdrawal from treatment is associated with a risk of symptom exacerbation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 109 - A stable postpartum patient, with a history of depression, has just given birth....

    Incorrect

    • A stable postpartum patient, with a history of depression, has just given birth. She asks for your advice about breastfeeding. She has been stable on her current antidepressant medication for several years, although had multiple episodes of depression in the past.
      Which of the following prescribed medications would lead you to advise against breastfeeding?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clozapine

      Explanation:

      In the scenario described, the patient has treatment-resistant schizophrenia and is currently stable. Therefore, it may not be necessary to change their antipsychotic medication, as the benefits of continuing their current medication may outweigh the potential risks to the baby if they choose to breastfeed. However, it is important to consider the specific medication being taken and consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best course of action.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 110 - What is the purpose of using the Kolmogorov-Smirnov and Jarque-Bera tests? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the purpose of using the Kolmogorov-Smirnov and Jarque-Bera tests?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Normality

      Explanation:

      Normality Testing in Statistics

      In statistics, parametric tests are based on the assumption that the data set follows a normal distribution. On the other hand, non-parametric tests do not require this assumption but are less powerful. To check if a distribution is normally distributed, there are several tests available, including the Kolmogorov-Smirnov (Goodness-of-Fit) Test, Jarque-Bera test, Wilk-Shapiro test, P-plot, and Q-plot. However, it is important to note that if a data set is not normally distributed, it may be possible to transform it to make it follow a normal distribution, such as by taking the logarithm of the values.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 111 - Which of the following is not considered a crucial factor according to Wilson...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not considered a crucial factor according to Wilson and Junger when implementing a screening program?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The condition should be potentially curable

      Explanation:

      Wilson and Junger Criteria for Screening

      1. The condition should be an important public health problem.
      2. There should be an acceptable treatment for patients with recognised disease.
      3. Facilities for diagnosis and treatment should be available.
      4. There should be a recognised latent of early symptomatic stage.
      5. The natural history of the condition, including its development from latent to declared disease should be adequately understood.
      6. There should be a suitable test of examination.
      7. The test of examination should be acceptable to the population.
      8. There should be agreed policy on whom to treat.
      9. The cost of case-finding (including diagnosis and subsequent treatment of patients) should be economically balanced in relation to the possible expenditure as a whole.
      10. Case-finding should be a continuous process and not a ‘once and for all’ project.

      The Wilson and Junger criteria provide a framework for evaluating the suitability of a screening program for a particular condition. The criteria emphasize the importance of the condition as a public health problem, the availability of effective treatment, and the feasibility of diagnosis and treatment. Additionally, the criteria highlight the importance of understanding the natural history of the condition and the need for a suitable test of examination that is acceptable to the population. The criteria also stress the importance of having agreed policies on whom to treat and ensuring that the cost of case-finding is economically balanced. Finally, the criteria emphasize that case-finding should be a continuous process rather than a one-time project. By considering these criteria, public health officials can determine whether a screening program is appropriate for a particular condition and ensure that resources are used effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 112 - A middle-aged man with a 12 month history of progressive memory decline is...

    Incorrect

    • A middle-aged man with a 12 month history of progressive memory decline is brought to the clinic by his wife. She reports marked variability in his presentation with episodic confusion where he will drift off and become vacant. She also reports that he has appeared to respond to unseen stimuli. On examination you note rigidity in his upper limbs. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lewy Body dementia

      Explanation:

      The presence of Lewy Body dementia could account for the observed symptoms of the patient, including the cognitive decline, visual hallucinations, and Parkinson’s-like motor symptoms.

      Dementia: Types and Clinical Characteristics

      Dementia is a progressive impairment of cognitive functions occurring in clear consciousness. There are over 100 different causes of dementia, and a detailed knowledge is required for the more common types. The following are some of the subtypes of dementia, along with their early features, neuropathology, and proportion:

      – Alzheimer’s disease: Impaired memory, apathy, and depression; gradual onset; cortical amyloid plaques and neurofibrillary tangles; 50-75% proportion.
      – Vascular dementia: Similar to AD, but memory less affected, and mood fluctuations more prominent; physical frailty; stepwise onset; cerebrovascular disease; single infarcts in critical regions, of more diffuse multi-infarct disease; 20-30% proportion.
      – Frontotemporal dementia: Personality changes, mood changes, disinhibition, language difficulties; no single pathology – damage limited to frontal and temporal lobes; 5-10% proportion.
      – Dementia with Lewy Bodies: Marked fluctuation in cognitive ability, visual hallucinations, Parkinsonism (tremor and rigidity); cortical Lewy bodies (alpha-synuclein); <5% proportion. Other types of dementia include Pick’s disease, Huntington’s disease, pseudodementia, and progressive supranuclear palsy. Each subtype has its own unique clinical characteristics and neuropathology. It is important to accurately diagnose the type of dementia in order to provide appropriate treatment and care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 113 - The population of middle-aged individuals (aged 40-59 years) in correctional facilities in the...

    Incorrect

    • The population of middle-aged individuals (aged 40-59 years) in correctional facilities in the United Kingdom is on the rise. This group has unique healthcare requirements. What is the incidence of depression among this demographic?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 30%

      Explanation:

      Elderly prisoners have a higher rate of depression, estimated at around 30%, compared to younger adult prisoners and community studies of the elderly in the UK. The risk of depression is even higher in prisoners with a history of psychiatric illness and those who report poor physical health. For more information, see the study by Fazel et al. (2001) titled Hidden psychiatric morbidity in elderly prisoners in the British Journal of Psychiatry.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 114 - A woman who has had bipolar affective disorder for the past 3 years...

    Incorrect

    • A woman who has had bipolar affective disorder for the past 3 years presents with an episode of mania. She is admitted to hospital to the ward on which you are the resident doctor. She has been taking aripiprazole 20 mg for the past three years and has been compliant. What would be your recommendation in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increase the dose of aripiprazole

      Explanation:

      Before implementing any management plan, it is crucial to verify adherence and confirm that the dosage is suitable. In cases of mania, the maximum dosage of aripiprazole can be raised to 30mg per day.

      Bipolar Disorder: Diagnosis and Management

      Bipolar disorder is a lifelong condition characterized by episodes of mania or hypomania and episodes of depressed mood. The peak age of onset is 15-19 years, and the lifetime prevalence of bipolar I disorders is estimated to be around 2.1%. The diagnosis of bipolar disorder is based on the presence of manic or hypomanic episodes, which are characterized by elevated of expansive mood, rapid speech, and increased activity of energy. Psychotic symptoms, such as delusions and hallucinations, may also be present.

      Bipolar depression differs from unipolar depression in several ways, including more rapid onset, more frequent episodes, and shorter duration. Rapid cycling is a qualifier that can be applied to bipolar I of bipolar II disorder and is defined as the presence of at least four mood episodes in the previous 12 months that meet the criteria for a manic, hypomanic, of major depressive episode.

      The management of bipolar disorder involves acute and long-term interventions. Acute management of mania or hypomania may involve stopping antidepressants and offering antipsychotics of mood stabilizers. Long-term management may involve psychological interventions and pharmacological treatments such as lithium, valproate, of olanzapine.

      It is important to note that valproate should not be offered to women of girls of childbearing potential for long-term bipolar disorder unless other options are ineffective of not tolerated and a pregnancy prevention program is in place. Aripiprazole is recommended as an option for treating moderate to severe manic episodes in adolescents with bipolar I disorder.

      Overall, the diagnosis and management of bipolar disorder require a comprehensive approach that takes into account the individual’s symptoms, history, and preferences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 115 - A 56-year-old female is currently receiving care in a nursing home due to...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old female is currently receiving care in a nursing home due to a diagnosis of Wernicke's encephalopathy. She has a lengthy history of alcohol addiction.
      What vitamin deficiency is the cause of Wernicke's encephalopathy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thiamine

      Explanation:

      Wernicke’s encephalopathy is linked to bleeding in the Mammillary bodies of the brain and is commonly seen in individuals with insufficient thiamine levels. The condition is characterized by a combination of symptoms including changes in mental state, unsteady walking, and difficulty moving the eyes. It is especially prevalent in individuals who abuse alcohol over extended periods as they rely heavily on alcohol for their energy needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 116 - A teacher makes regular visits to a student. During these visits she reinforces...

    Incorrect

    • A teacher makes regular visits to a student. During these visits she reinforces adaptive behaviours with praise and tries to improve the student's self-esteem. Which type of therapy is being provided?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Supportive psychotherapy

      Explanation:

      Supportive Psychotherapy: An Overview

      Supportive psychotherapy is a widely used approach in psychiatry, often reserved for clients who are not suitable for other forms of therapy. It aims to provide emotional support and encouragement to help people cope with overwhelming stress and restore them to their previous level of functioning. This therapy is not based on any specific psychological theory and is eclectic in approach.

      Supportive psychotherapy is generally used with two different patient groups: those who were otherwise functioning well but have become symptomatic due to stress, and those who are not suitable for other forms of therapy. The goal of therapy is to help the patient get on with their life as best as possible, without disrupting reasonable defenses of generating conflicts.

      The therapist avoids confrontation and transference issues are rarely analyzed. However, the therapeutic aims of long-term supportive psychotherapy include establishing a therapeutic alliance, holding and containing, promoting awareness of transference issues, promoting stability, facilitating the maturation of defenses, and promoting better adaptation to reality.

      Supportive psychotherapy has been dismissed as ‘hand holding,’ but it should not be underestimated. It is suitable for most patients and is often the only therapy that can help when others have failed. Much of the work doctors do in outpatient clinics could be classified as supportive psychotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychotherapy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 117 - For what purpose is the GRADE approach used in the field of evidence...

    Incorrect

    • For what purpose is the GRADE approach used in the field of evidence based medicine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Assessing the quality of evidence

      Explanation:

      Levels and Grades of Evidence in Evidence-Based Medicine

      To evaluate the quality of evidence on a subject of question, levels of grades are used. The traditional hierarchy approach places systematic reviews of randomized control trials at the top and case-series/report at the bottom. However, this approach is overly simplistic as certain research questions cannot be answered using RCTs. To address this, the Oxford Centre for Evidence-Based Medicine introduced their 2011 Levels of Evidence system, which separates the type of study questions and gives a hierarchy for each.

      The grading approach to be aware of is the GRADE system, which classifies the quality of evidence as high, moderate, low, of very low. The process begins by formulating a study question and identifying specific outcomes. Outcomes are then graded as critical of important. The evidence is then gathered and criteria are used to grade the evidence, with the type of evidence being a significant factor. Evidence can be promoted of downgraded based on certain criteria, such as limitations to study quality, inconsistency, uncertainty about directness, imprecise of sparse data, and reporting bias. The GRADE system allows for the promotion of observational studies to high-quality evidence under the right circumstances.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 118 - What is the most dependable risk factor that has been demonstrated for autism...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most dependable risk factor that has been demonstrated for autism spectrum disorder?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Valproate use during pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD) is a lifelong disorder characterized by deficits in communication and social understanding, as well as restrictive and repetitive behaviors. The distinction between autism and Asperger’s has been abandoned, and they are now grouped together under the ASD category. Intellectual ability is difficult to assess in people with ASD, with an estimated 33% having an intellectual disability. ASD was first described in Europe and the United States using different terms, with Leo Kanner and Hans Asperger being the pioneers. Diagnosis is based on persistent deficits in social communication and social interaction, as well as restricted, repetitive patterns of behavior. The worldwide population prevalence is about 1%, with comorbidity being common. Heritability is estimated at around 90%, and both genetic and environmental factors seem to cause ASD. Currently, there are no validated pharmacological treatments that alleviate core ASD symptoms, but second-generation antipsychotics are the first-line pharmacological treatment for children and adolescents with ASD and associated irritability.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 119 - What statement accurately describes percentiles? ...

    Incorrect

    • What statement accurately describes percentiles?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Q1 is the 25th percentile

      Explanation:

      Measures of dispersion are used to indicate the variation of spread of a data set, often in conjunction with a measure of central tendency such as the mean of median. The range, which is the difference between the largest and smallest value, is the simplest measure of dispersion. The interquartile range, which is the difference between the 3rd and 1st quartiles, is another useful measure. Quartiles divide a data set into quarters, and the interquartile range can provide additional information about the spread of the data. However, to get a more representative idea of spread, measures such as the variance and standard deviation are needed. The variance gives an indication of how much the items in the data set vary from the mean, while the standard deviation reflects the distribution of individual scores around their mean. The standard deviation is expressed in the same units as the data set and can be used to indicate how confident we are that data points lie within a particular range. The standard error of the mean is an inferential statistic used to estimate the population mean and is a measure of the spread expected for the mean of the observations. Confidence intervals are often presented alongside sample results such as the mean value, indicating a range that is likely to contain the true value.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 120 - What is a true statement regarding schizophrenia in women? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement regarding schizophrenia in women?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Schizophrenia in women is associated with fewer structural brain abnormalities than in men

      Explanation:

      Schizophrenia presents differently in men and women. Women tend to have a later onset and respond better to treatment, requiring lower doses of antipsychotics. Men, on the other hand, have an earlier onset, poorer premorbid functioning, and more negative symptoms and cognitive deficits. They also have greater structural brain and neurophysiological abnormalities. Females display more affective symptoms, auditory hallucinations, and persecutory delusions, but have a more favorable short- and middle-term course of illness with less smoking and substance abuse. Families of males are more critical, and expressed emotion has a greater negative impact on them. Certain neurological soft signs may be more prevalent in males. There are no clear sex differences in family history, obstetric complications, and minor physical anomalies.

      Schizophrenia Epidemiology

      Prevalence:
      – In England, the estimated annual prevalence for psychotic disorders (mostly schizophrenia) is around 0.4%.
      – Internationally, the estimated annual prevalence for psychotic disorders is around 0.33%.
      – The estimated lifetime prevalence for psychotic disorders in England is approximately 0.63% at age 43, consistent with the typically reported 1% prevalence over the life course.
      – Internationally, the estimated lifetime prevalence for psychotic disorders is around 0.48%.

      Incidence:
      – In England, the pooled incidence rate for non-affective psychosis (mostly schizophrenia) is estimated to be 15.2 per 100,000 years.
      – Internationally, the incidence of schizophrenia is about 0.20/1000/year.

      Gender:
      – The male to female ratio is 1:1.

      Course and Prognosis:
      – Long-term follow-up studies suggest that after 5 years of illness, one quarter of people with schizophrenia recover completely, and for most people, the condition gradually improves over their lifetime.
      – Schizophrenia has a worse prognosis with onset in childhood of adolescence than with onset in adult life.
      – Younger age of onset predicts a worse outcome.
      – Failure to comply with treatment is a strong predictor of relapse.
      – Over a 2-year period, one-third of patients with schizophrenia showed a benign course, and two-thirds either relapsed of failed to recover.
      – People with schizophrenia have a 2-3 fold increased risk of premature death.

      Winter Births:
      – Winter births are associated with an increased risk of schizophrenia.

      Urbanicity:
      – There is a higher incidence of schizophrenia associated with urbanicity.

      Migration:
      – There is a higher incidence of schizophrenia associated with migration.

      Class:
      – There is a higher prevalence of schizophrenia among lower socioeconomic classes.

      Learning Disability:
      – Prevalence rates for schizophrenia in people with learning disabilities are approximately three times greater than for the general population.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 121 - What is a true statement about drug screening tests? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about drug screening tests?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Standard urine drug tests for amphetamine may detect MDMA

      Explanation:

      It is unlikely for passive inhalation of cannabis and crack to result in a positive drug test, unless the individual has been exposed to heavy and prolonged smoke in a highly contaminated environment.

      Drug Screening

      Drug testing can be conducted through various methods, but urinalysis is the most common. Urine drug tests can be either screening of confirmatory. Screening tests use enzymatic immunoassays to detect drug metabolites of classes of drug metabolites in the urine. However, these tests have limitations, such as false positives due to cross-reactivity. Therefore, any positive test should be confirmed through gas chromatography of mass spectrometry.

      People may try to manipulate drug testing procedures by adulterating the sample. Normal urine parameters, such as temperature, specific gravity, and pH, can assist in detecting adulterated samples. Adulterants include household items like vinegar, detergent, and ammonia, as well as commercially available products. Diluted urine may also yield false negatives.

      Detection times vary from person to person, and the approximate drug detection time in urine can be found in a table provided by Nelson (2016). False positives can occur due to cross-reactivity, as illustrated by Moeller (2017). Clinicians should be aware of the limitations of urine drug tests and the potential for manipulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 122 - A 10-year-old boy is causing his parents some concern. He progressed normally until...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy is causing his parents some concern. He progressed normally until the age of 5 years after which his milestones slowed down. His language development is delayed and he lacks imaginative play. More recently, he has begun repeated 'hand-wringing' movements. You refer him for karyotype testing and the number of chromosomes is normal. Which one of the following conditions could this boy suffer from?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rett syndrome

      Explanation:

      Rett syndrome should be suspected in a young girl who exhibits autistic features and hand wringing movements. Despite having a normal number of chromosomes, a mutation in the MECP2 gene on the X chromosome is believed to be the cause. For more information, please refer to the Rett Syndrome Fact Sheet provided by the National Institute of Neurological Disorders and Stroke.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry Of Learning Disability
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 123 - The patient inquires about the potential memory impairment caused by ECT. Which specific...

    Incorrect

    • The patient inquires about the potential memory impairment caused by ECT. Which specific type of memory is impacted by this procedure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Retrograde and anterograde

      Explanation:

      Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is known to cause retrograde amnesia, which is the most persistent cognitive side effect (Lisanby, 2000). Patients often experience memory gaps for events that occurred around the time of ECT, and sometimes even for events that happened months of years prior. While retrograde amnesia typically improves within a few months after treatment, some patients may not fully recover and may have permanent memory loss for events close to the time of treatment. Additionally, anterograde amnesia may also be a possible side effect.

      ECT (Treatment) – Summary of Effectiveness and Recommendations

      ECT (Electroconvulsive Therapy) is a treatment that induces a therapeutic seizure through the application of electrical current under general anesthesia and muscle relaxation. It is prescribed as a course and is usually administered twice weekly for 6 to 12 treatments. ECT is the most effective short-term treatment for major depression, with remission rates of around 60-80% when used as first-line treatment in a severe depressive episode. However, without maintenance treatment, the relapse rate is extremely high (over 80%) in the 6 months after successful ECT.

      Cognitive effects are the main limitation to the wider use of ECT, particularly acute confusion shortly after the treatment, retrograde amnesia, and some losses in autobiographical memory longer term. The current state of evidence does not allow the general use of ECT in the management of schizophrenia. Bilateral ECT is more effective than unilateral ECT but may cause more cognitive impairment. With unilateral ECT, a higher stimulus dose is associated with greater efficacy but also increased cognitive impairment compared with a lower stimulus dose.

      NICE (National Institute for Health and Care Excellence) recommends that ECT is used only to achieve rapid and short-term improvement of severe symptoms after an adequate trial of other treatment options has proven ineffective and/of when the condition is considered to be potentially life-threatening. ECT is recommended for individuals with severe depression (that is life-threatening and when a rapid response is required, of when other treatments have failed), moderate depression (consider it if their depression has not responded to multiple drug treatments and psychological treatment), catatonia, and a prolonged of severe manic episode.

      The RCPsych (Royal College of Psychiatrists) position on ECT recommends it as a first-line treatment for individuals with high suicidal risk, severe psychomotor retardation and associated problems of compromised eating and drinking and/of physical deterioration, treatment-resistant depression that has responded to ECT in a previous episode of illness, pregnant individuals with severe depression, of severe mixed affective states, mania of catatonia and whose physical health of that of the fetus is at serious risk, and those who prefer this form of treatment. ECT is recommended as a second-line treatment for individuals with treatment-resistant depression, severe side-effects from medication, and persistent of life-threatening symptoms in severe of prolonged mania. ECT is indicated in some circumstances for individuals with bipolar depression, postnatal psychosis, treatment-resistant schizophrenia, treatment-resistant catatonia, and frequent relapses and recurrences of depression (maintenance).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Organisation And Delivery Of Psychiatric Services
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 124 - A 55 year old man with multiple sclerosis is referred to you for...

    Incorrect

    • A 55 year old man with multiple sclerosis is referred to you for an opinion. His wife reports that he has been laughing inappropriately especially when sad news is delivered. The man reports being unable to control this and that whilst he laughs he does not feel happy. The man and his wife are finding this very embarrassing. Which of the following would you most suspect?:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pseudobulbar affect

      Explanation:

      Pathological Crying

      Pathological crying, also known as pseudobulbar affect, is a condition characterized by sudden outbursts of crying of laughing in response to minor stimuli without any changes in mood. This condition can occur in response to nonspecific and inconsequential stimuli, and lacks a clear association with the prevailing mood state. Pathological crying can result from various neurological conditions, including strokes and multiple sclerosis.

      When it comes to treating pathological crying post-stroke, citalopram is often the recommended treatment due to its efficacy in open label studies. The Maudsley Guidelines suggest that TCAs of SSRIs may be effective for MS, while valproic acid and the combination of dextromethorphan and low dose quinidine have also shown efficacy.

      Understanding the neuroanatomy of pathological laughing and crying is important for diagnosing and treating this condition. Further research is needed to better understand the underlying mechanisms and develop more effective treatments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 125 - Among the given antidepressants, which one is more likely to cause delirium in...

    Incorrect

    • Among the given antidepressants, which one is more likely to cause delirium in an elderly patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Imipramine

      Explanation:

      Delirium and cognitive impairment are most likely caused by tertiary amine tricyclics.

      Risk Factors for Delirium

      Delirium is a common condition that affects many elderly individuals. There are several risk factors that can increase the likelihood of developing delirium. These risk factors include age, cognitive impairment, severe medical illness, previous history of delirium of neurological disease, psychoactive drug use, polypharmacy, and anticholinergic drug use.

      Medications are the most common reversible cause of delirium and dementia in the elderly. Certain classes of drugs, such as opioids, benzodiazepines, and anticholinergics, are strongly associated with the development of drug-induced dementia. Long-acting benzodiazepines are more troublesome than shorter-acting ones. Opioids are associated with an approximately 2-fold increased risk of delirium in medical and surgical patients. Pethidine, a member of the opioid class, appears to have a higher risk of delirium compared with other opioids due to its accumulation in individuals with impaired renal function and conversion to a metabolite with anticholinergic properties.

      Overall, it is important to be aware of these risk factors and to carefully monitor medication use in elderly individuals to prevent the development of delirium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 126 - An older woman with Alzheimer's is seen in clinic for review. She was...

    Incorrect

    • An older woman with Alzheimer's is seen in clinic for review. She was first seen 12 months ago, diagnosed with mild Alzheimer's, and was started on donepezil 5 mg. She was then seen again and the donepezil was increased to 10 mg. She has continued to decline and now has a MMSE of 18.

      What recommendations would you make in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Continue the donepezil and add in memantine

      Explanation:

      Dosages of donepezil exceeding 10 mg are not recommended, as his Alzheimer’s has advanced from mild to moderate. NICE recommends incorporating memantine alongside an AChE-I at this stage.

      Treatment of Dementia: AChE Inhibitors and Memantine

      Dementia is a debilitating condition that affects millions of people worldwide. Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (AChE inhibitors) and memantine are two drugs used in the management of dementia. AChE inhibitors prevent cholinesterase from breaking down acetylcholine, which is deficient in Alzheimer’s due to loss of cholinergic neurons. Donepezil, galantamine, and rivastigmine are AChE inhibitors used in the management of Alzheimer’s. Memantine is an NMDA receptor antagonist that blocks the effects of pathologically elevated levels of glutamate that may lead to neuronal dysfunction.

      NICE guidelines recommend the use of AChE inhibitors for managing mild to moderate Alzheimer’s and memantine for managing moderate to severe Alzheimer’s. For those already taking an AChE inhibitor, memantine can be added if the disease is moderate of severe. AChE inhibitors are also recommended for managing mild, moderate, and severe dementia with Lewy bodies, while memantine is considered if AChE inhibitors are not tolerated of contraindicated. AChE inhibitors and memantine are not recommended for vascular dementia, frontotemporal dementia, of cognitive impairment due to multiple sclerosis.

      The British Association for Psychopharmacology recommends AChE inhibitors as the first choice for Alzheimer’s and mixed dementia, while memantine is the second choice. AChE inhibitors and memantine are also recommended for dementia with Parkinson’s and dementia with Lewy bodies.

      In summary, AChE inhibitors and memantine are important drugs used in the management of dementia. The choice of drug depends on the type and severity of dementia, as well as individual patient factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 127 - The combination of hypomania and depression is referred to as a subtype in...

    Incorrect

    • The combination of hypomania and depression is referred to as a subtype in Klerman's expanded classification of bipolar disorders as:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bipolar II

      Explanation:

      Bipolar Disorder: Historical Subtypes

      Bipolar disorder is a complex mental illness that has been classified into several subtypes over the years. The most widely recognized subtypes are Bipolar I, Bipolar II, and Cyclothymia. However, there have been other classification systems proposed by experts in the field.

      In 1981, Gerald Klerman proposed a classification system that included Bipolar I, Bipolar II, Bipolar III, Bipolar IV, Bipolar V, and Bipolar VI. This system was later expanded by Akiskal in 1999, who added more subtypes such as Bipolar I 1/2, Bipolar II 1/2, and Bipolar III 1/2.

      Bipolar I is characterized by full-blown mania, while Bipolar II is characterized by hypomania with depression. Cyclothymia is a milder form of bipolar disorder that involves cycling between hypomania and mild depression.

      Other subtypes include Bipolar III, which is associated with hypomania of mania precipitated by antidepressant drugs, and Bipolar IV, which is characterized by hyperthymic depression. Bipolar V is associated with depressed patients who have a family history of bipolar illness, while Bipolar VI is characterized by mania without depression (unipolar mania).

      Overall, the classification of bipolar disorder subtypes has evolved over time, and different experts have proposed different systems. However, the most widely recognized subtypes are still Bipolar I, Bipolar II, and Cyclothymia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 128 - What is accurate about the gastrointestinal issues observed in individuals with anorexia nervosa?...

    Incorrect

    • What is accurate about the gastrointestinal issues observed in individuals with anorexia nervosa?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mild transaminitis is common and often asymptomatic

      Explanation:

      Eating disorders are linked to both acute and chronic pancreatitis.

      Anorexia is a serious mental health condition that can have severe physical complications. These complications can affect various systems in the body, including the cardiac, skeletal, hematologic, reproductive, metabolic, gastrointestinal, CNS, and dermatological systems. Some of the recognized physical complications of anorexia nervosa include bradycardia, hypotension, osteoporosis, anemia, amenorrhea, hypothyroidism, delayed gastric emptying, cerebral atrophy, and lanugo.

      The Royal College of Psychiatrists has issued advice on managing sick patients with anorexia nervosa, recommending hospital admission for those with high-risk items. These items include a BMI of less than 13, a pulse rate of less than 40 bpm, a SUSS test score of less than 2, a sodium level of less than 130 mmol/L, a potassium level of less than 3 mmol/L, a serum glucose level of less than 3 mmol/L, and a QTc interval of more than 450 ms. The SUSS test involves assessing the patient’s ability to sit up and squat without using their hands. A rating of 0 indicates complete inability to rise, while a rating of 3 indicates the ability to rise without difficulty. Proper management and treatment of anorexia nervosa are crucial to prevent of manage these physical complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 129 - What is a true statement about antisocial personality disorder? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about antisocial personality disorder?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mortality rates are increased in antisocial personality disorder

      Explanation:

      While the PCL-R can aid in evaluating the extent of the disorder, it should not be solely relied upon for diagnosis.

      Personality Disorder (Antisocial / Dissocial)

      Antisocial personality disorder is characterized by impulsive, irresponsible, and often criminal behavior. The criteria for this disorder differ somewhat between the ICD-11 and DSM-5. The ICD-11 abolished all categories of personality disorder except for a general description of personality disorder. This diagnosis can be further specified as “mild,” “moderate,” of “severe.” Patient behavior can be described using one of more of five personality trait domains; negative affectivity, dissociality, anankastic, detachment, and disinhibition. Clinicians may also specify a borderline pattern qualifier.

      The core feature of dissociality is a disregard for the rights and feelings of others, encompassing both self-centeredness and lack of empathy. Common manifestations of Dissociality include self-centeredness and lack of empathy. The DSM-5 defines antisocial personality disorder as a pervasive pattern of disregard for and violation of the rights of others, occurring since age 15, as indicated by three (of more) of the following: failure to conform to social norms with respect to lawful behaviors, deceitfulness, impulsivity of failure to plan ahead, irritability and aggressiveness, reckless disregard for safety of self of others, consistent irresponsibility, and lack of remorse.

      Prevalence estimates are between 1%-6% in men and between 0.2-0.8% in women. Antisocial behaviors typically have their onset before age 8 years. Nearly 80% of people with ASPD developed their first symptom by age 11 years. Boys develop symptoms earlier than girls, who may not develop symptoms until puberty. An estimated 25% of girls and 40% of boys with Conduct Disorder will later meet criteria for ASPD.

      The 2009 NICE Guidelines essentially make two recommendations on treatment: consider offering group-based cognitive and behavioral interventions and pharmacological interventions should not be routinely used for the treatment of antisocial personality disorder of associated behaviors of aggression, anger, and impulsivity. A Cochrane review found that there is not enough good quality evidence to recommend of reject any psychological treatment for people with a diagnosis of AsPD.

      The term psychopathy has varied meanings. Some use the term synonymously with APD and consider it to represent the severe end of the spectrum of APD. Others maintain a clear distinction between psychopathy and APD. Psychopathy has been said to be a richer (broader) concept than APD. The DSM-5 view of APD is largely based on behavioral difficulties whereas the concept of psychopathy considers behavior in addition to personality-based (interpersonal of affective) symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Forensic Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 130 - What is the highest approved dosage of risperidone that can be administered for...

    Incorrect

    • What is the highest approved dosage of risperidone that can be administered for treating aggression and agitation related to Alzheimer's disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1 mg BD

      Explanation:

      According to the Maudsley 14th, Risperidone is approved for a maximum dosage of 1 mg twice daily, but the recommended of optimal dose is 500 µg.

      Management of Non-Cognitive Symptoms in Dementia

      Non-cognitive symptoms of dementia can include agitation, aggression, distress, psychosis, depression, anxiety, sleep problems, wandering, hoarding, sexual disinhibition, apathy, and shouting. Non-pharmacological measures, such as music therapy, should be considered before prescribing medication. Pain may cause agitation, so a trial of analgesics is recommended. Antipsychotics, such as risperidone, olanzapine, and aripiprazole, may be used for severe distress of serious risk to others, but their use is controversial due to issues of tolerability and an association with increased mortality. Cognitive enhancers, such as AChE-Is and memantine, may have a modest benefit on BPSD, but their effects may take 3-6 months to take effect. Benzodiazepines should be avoided except in emergencies, and antidepressants, such as citalopram and trazodone, may have mixed evidence for BPSD. Mood stabilizers, such as valproate and carbamazepine, have limited evidence to support their use. Sedating antihistamines, such as promethazine, may cause cognitive impairment and should only be used short-term. Melatonin has limited evidence to support its use but is safe to use and may be justified in some cases where benefits are seen. For Lewy Body dementia, clozapine is favored over risperidone, and quetiapine may be a reasonable choice if clozapine is not appropriate. Overall, medication should only be used when non-pharmacological measures are ineffective, and the need is balanced with the increased risk of adverse effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 131 - Which of the options below is not utilized as a means of opioid...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the options below is not utilized as a means of opioid detoxification?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ephedrine

      Explanation:

      Medications utilized for opioid detoxification comprise of Methadone, Buprenorphine, and Lofexidine.

      Opioid Maintenance Therapy and Detoxification

      Withdrawal symptoms can occur after as little as 5 days of regular opioid use. Short-acting opioids like heroin have acute withdrawal symptoms that peak in 32-72 hours and last for 3-5 days. Longer-acting opioids like methadone have acute symptoms that peak at day 4-6 and last for 10 days. Buprenorphine withdrawal lasts up to 10 days and includes symptoms like myalgia, anxiety, and increased drug craving.

      Opioids affect the brain through opioid receptors, with the µ receptor being the main target for opioids. Dopaminergic cells in the ventral tegmental area produce dopamine, which is released into the nucleus accumbens upon stimulation of µ receptors, producing euphoria and reward. With repeat opioid exposure, µ receptors become less responsive, causing dysphoria and drug craving.

      Methadone and buprenorphine are maintenance-oriented treatments for opioid dependence. Methadone is a full agonist targeting µ receptors, while buprenorphine is a partial agonist targeting µ receptors and a partial k agonist of functional antagonist. Naloxone and naltrexone are antagonists targeting all opioid receptors.

      Methadone is preferred over buprenorphine for detoxification, and ultra-rapid detoxification should not be offered. Lofexidine may be considered for mild of uncertain dependence. Clonidine and dihydrocodeine should not be used routinely in opioid detoxification. The duration of detoxification should be up to 4 weeks in an inpatient setting and up to 12 weeks in a community setting.

      Pregnant women dependent on opioids should use opioid maintenance treatment rather than attempt detoxification. Methadone is preferred over buprenorphine, and transfer to buprenorphine during pregnancy is not advised. Detoxification should only be considered if appropriate for the women’s wishes, circumstances, and ability to cope. Methadone or buprenorphine treatment is not a contraindication to breastfeeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 132 - Which antiepileptic medication has the most substantial evidence linking it to aggression when...

    Incorrect

    • Which antiepileptic medication has the most substantial evidence linking it to aggression when utilized in the treatment of epilepsy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Perampanel

      Explanation:

      Antiepileptic drugs (AEDs) are commonly used for the treatment of epilepsy, but many of them also have mood stabilizing properties and are used for the prophylaxis and treatment of bipolar disorder. However, some AEDs carry product warnings for serious side effects such as hepatic failure, pancreatitis, thrombocytopenia, and skin reactions. Additionally, some AEDs have been associated with an increased risk of suicidal behavior and ideation.

      Behavioral side-effects associated with AEDs include depression, aberrant behaviors, and the development of worsening of irritability, impulsivity, anger, hostility, and aggression. Aggression can occur before, after, of in between seizures. Some AEDs are considered to carry a higher risk of aggression, including levetiracetam, perampanel, and topiramate. However, data on the specific risk of aggression for other AEDs is lacking of mixed. It is important for healthcare providers to carefully consider the potential risks and benefits of AEDs when prescribing them for patients with epilepsy of bipolar disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 133 - What is a true statement about mild cognitive impairment (MCI)? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about mild cognitive impairment (MCI)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: MCI represents a middle ground between normality and dementia

      Explanation:

      Mild cognitive impairment is a stage that occurs between normal ageing and dementia, marking a transition from one to the other.

      Mild Cognitive Impairment: A Transitional Zone between Normal Function and Alzheimer’s Disease

      Mild cognitive impairment (MCI) is a clinical syndrome that describes individuals who do not meet the criteria for dementia but have a high risk of progressing to a dementia disorder. MCI is a transitional zone between normal cognitive function and clinically probable Alzheimer’s disease (AD). The diagnosis of MCI is based on self and/of informant report and impairment on objective cognitive tasks, evidence of decline over time on objective cognitive tasks, and preserved basic activities of daily living/minimal impairment in complex instrumental functions.

      When individuals with MCI are followed over time, some progress to AD and other dementia types, while others remain stable of even recover. The principal cognitive impairment can be amnestic, single non-memory domain, of involving multiple cognitive domains. There is evidence that deficits in regional cerebral blood flow and regional cerebral glucose metabolism could predict future development of AD in individuals with MCI.

      Currently, there is no evidence for long-term efficacy of approved pharmacological treatments in MCI. However, epidemiological studies have indicated a reduced risk of dementia in individuals taking antihypertensive medications, cholesterol-lowering drugs, antioxidants, anti-inflammatories, and estrogen therapy. Randomized clinical trials are needed to verify these associations.

      Two clinical screening instruments, the CAMCog (part of the CAMDEX) and the SISCO (part of the SIDAM), allow for a broad assessment of mild cognitive impairment. MCI represents a critical stage in the progression of cognitive decline and highlights the importance of early detection and intervention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 134 - Which of the following options is not a possible value for Pearson's correlation...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following options is not a possible value for Pearson's correlation coefficient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1.5

      Explanation:

      Stats: Correlation and Regression

      Correlation and regression are related but not interchangeable terms. Correlation is used to test for association between variables, while regression is used to predict values of dependent variables from independent variables. Correlation can be linear, non-linear, of non-existent, and can be strong, moderate, of weak. The strength of a linear relationship is measured by the correlation coefficient, which can be positive of negative and ranges from very weak to very strong. However, the interpretation of a correlation coefficient depends on the context and purposes. Correlation can suggest association but cannot prove of disprove causation. Linear regression, on the other hand, can be used to predict how much one variable changes when a second variable is changed. Scatter graphs are used in correlation and regression analyses to visually determine if variables are associated and to detect outliers. When constructing a scatter graph, the dependent variable is typically placed on the vertical axis and the independent variable on the horizontal axis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 135 - What study method would be most suitable for a researcher tasked with comparing...

    Incorrect

    • What study method would be most suitable for a researcher tasked with comparing the cost-effectiveness of olanzapine and haloperidol in reducing symptom severity of schizophrenia, as measured by the Positive and Negative Syndrome Scale?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cost-effectiveness analysis

      Explanation:

      The task assigned to the researcher is to conduct a cost-effectiveness analysis, which involves comparing two interventions based on their costs and their impact on a single clinical measure of effectiveness, specifically the reduction in symptom severity as measured by the PANSS.

      Methods of Economic Evaluation

      There are four main methods of economic evaluation: cost-effectiveness analysis (CEA), cost-benefit analysis (CBA), cost-utility analysis (CUA), and cost-minimisation analysis (CMA). While all four methods capture costs, they differ in how they assess health effects.

      Cost-effectiveness analysis (CEA) compares interventions by relating costs to a single clinical measure of effectiveness, such as symptom reduction of improvement in activities of daily living. The cost-effectiveness ratio is calculated as total cost divided by units of effectiveness. CEA is typically used when CBA cannot be performed due to the inability to monetise benefits.

      Cost-benefit analysis (CBA) measures all costs and benefits of an intervention in monetary terms to establish which alternative has the greatest net benefit. CBA requires that all consequences of an intervention, such as life-years saved, treatment side-effects, symptom relief, disability, pain, and discomfort, are allocated a monetary value. CBA is rarely used in mental health service evaluation due to the difficulty in converting benefits from mental health programmes into monetary values.

      Cost-utility analysis (CUA) is a special form of CEA in which health benefits/outcomes are measured in broader, more generic ways, enabling comparisons between treatments for different diseases and conditions. Multidimensional health outcomes are measured by a single preference- of utility-based index such as the Quality-Adjusted-Life-Years (QALY). QALYs are a composite measure of gains in life expectancy and health-related quality of life. CUA allows for comparisons across treatments for different conditions.

      Cost-minimisation analysis (CMA) is an economic evaluation in which the consequences of competing interventions are the same, and only inputs, i.e. costs, are taken into consideration. The aim is to decide the least costly way of achieving the same outcome.

      Costs in Economic Evaluation Studies

      There are three main types of costs in economic evaluation studies: direct, indirect, and intangible. Direct costs are associated directly with the healthcare intervention, such as staff time, medical supplies, cost of travel for the patient, childcare costs for the patient, and costs falling on other social sectors such as domestic help from social services. Indirect costs are incurred by the reduced productivity of the patient, such as time off work, reduced work productivity, and time spent caring for the patient by relatives. Intangible costs are difficult to measure, such as pain of suffering on the part of the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 136 - What instrument was utilized during the National Comorbidity survey? ...

    Incorrect

    • What instrument was utilized during the National Comorbidity survey?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Composite International Diagnostic Interview (CIDI)

      Explanation:

      Epidemiological surveys and prevalence estimates have been conducted to determine the prevalence of various mental health conditions. The Epidemiological Catchment Area (ECA) study was conducted in the mid-1980s using the Diagnostic Interview Schedule (DIS) based on DSM-III criteria. The National Comorbidity Survey (NCS) used the Composite International Diagnostic Interview (CIDI) and was conducted in the 1990s and repeated in 2001. The Adult Psychiatric Morbidity Survey (APMS) used the Clinical Interview Schedule (CIS-R) and was conducted in England every 7 years since 1993. The WHO World Mental Health (WMH) Survey Initiative used the World Mental Health Composite International Diagnostic Interview (WMH-CIDI) and was conducted in close to 30 countries from 2001 onwards.

      The main findings of these studies show that major depression has a prevalence of 4-10% worldwide, with 6.7% in the past 12 months and 16.6% lifetime prevalence. Generalised anxiety disorder (GAD) has a 3.1% 12-month prevalence and 5.7% lifetime prevalence. Panic disorder has a 2.7% 12-month prevalence and 4.7% lifetime prevalence. Specific phobia has an 8.7% 12-month prevalence and 12.5% lifetime prevalence. Social anxiety disorder has a 6.8% 12-month prevalence and 12.1% lifetime prevalence. Agoraphobia without panic disorder has a 0.8% 12-month prevalence and 1.4% lifetime prevalence. Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) has a 1.0% 12-month prevalence and 1.6% lifetime prevalence. Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) has a 1.3-3.6% 12-month prevalence and 6.8% lifetime prevalence. Schizophrenia has a 0.33% 12-month prevalence and 0.48% lifetime prevalence. Bipolar I disorder has a 1.5% 12-month prevalence and 2.1% lifetime prevalence. Bulimia nervosa has a 0.63% lifetime prevalence, anorexia nervosa has a 0.16% lifetime prevalence, and binge eating disorder has a 1.53% lifetime prevalence.

      These prevalence estimates provide important information for policymakers, healthcare providers, and researchers to better understand the burden of mental health conditions and to develop effective prevention and treatment strategies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 137 - What is the most frequently observed symptom in individuals with bipolar disorder and...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most frequently observed symptom in individuals with bipolar disorder and psychosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prominent affective symptoms and mood congruent delusions

      Explanation:

      Bipolar disorder with psychosis typically displays noticeable mood symptoms, including heightened mood and restlessness, accompanied by delusions that align with the mood, such as grandiose delusions. In contrast, schizophrenia typically exhibits non-prominent mood symptoms and delusions that do not align with the mood, often being neutral of opposite to it.

      Bipolar Disorder Diagnosis

      Bipolar and related disorders are mood disorders characterized by manic, mixed, of hypomanic episodes alternating with depressive episodes. The lifetime risk of suicide in individuals with bipolar disorder is estimated to be at least 15 times that of the general population. Under the ICD-11, there are three subtypes of bipolar disorder: Bipolar I, Bipolar II, and Cyclothymic disorder.

      Bipolar I disorder is diagnosed when an individual has a history of at least one manic of mixed episode. The typical course of the disorder is characterized by recurrent depressive and manic of mixed episodes. Onset of the first mood episode most often occurs during the late teen years, but onset of bipolar type I can occur at any time through the life cycle. The lifetime prevalence of bipolar I disorder is estimated to be around 2.1%.

      Bipolar II disorder is diagnosed when an individual has a history of at least one hypomanic episode and at least one depressive episode. The typical course of the disorder is characterized by recurrent depressive and hypomanic episodes. Onset of bipolar type II most often occurs during the mid-twenties. The number of lifetime episodes tends to be higher for bipolar II disorder than for major depressive disorder of bipolar I disorder.

      Cyclothymic disorder is diagnosed when an individual experiences mood instability over an extended period of time characterized by numerous hypomanic and depressive periods. The symptoms are present for more days than not, and there is no history of manic or mixed episodes. The course of cyclothymic disorder is often gradual and persistent, and onset commonly occurs during adolescence of early adulthood.

      Rapid cycling is not a subtype of bipolar disorder but instead is a qualifier. It is defined as the presence of at least four mood episodes in the previous 12 months that meet the criteria for a manic, hypomanic, of major depressive episode. Rapid cycling is associated with an increased risk of suicide and tends to be precipitated by stressors such as life events, alcohol abuse, use of antidepressants, and medical disorders.

      Overall, the diagnosis of bipolar disorder requires careful evaluation of an individual’s symptoms and history. Treatment typically involves a combination of medication and psychotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 138 - Which option is not advised by NICE for the treatment of delirium? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which option is not advised by NICE for the treatment of delirium?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Avoid regular visits from family

      Explanation:

      Delirium Management

      Pharmacological management of delirium includes the use of haloperidol as a prophylactic measure. NICE guidelines recommend short-term use of haloperidol in cases where delirium is associated with distress of risk to self/others. Quetiapine is also considered a first-choice option in many units. Lorazepam can be used as an alternative if haloperidol is contraindicated, but it is more likely to cause respiratory depression, over-sedation, and paradoxical excitement.

      Non-pharmacological management of delirium includes appropriate lighting and clear signage, talking to the person to reorient them, cognitively stimulating activities, regular visits from family and friends, and promoting good sleep patterns. Additional options such as donepezil, rivastigmine, melatonin, trazodone, and sodium valproate are not recommended. It is important to carefully consider the individual’s needs and medical history when choosing a management plan for delirium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 139 - How would you define the term 'containment'? ...

    Incorrect

    • How would you define the term 'containment'?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Therapists ability to modify and return the patient's difficult material in a way that they can tolerate

      Explanation:

      The Significance of Containment in Therapeutic Relationships

      Containment is a term coined by Bion to describe the process of emotional containment, which is best exemplified by the relationship between a mother and her infant. Infants often project their unbearable feelings onto their mothers, who receive and accommodate them for a while, making them tolerable and acceptable again to the child.

      In therapeutic relationships, containment plays a crucial role. It occurs when one person receives and comprehends the emotional communication of another without being overwhelmed by it. The receiver then processes the information and communicates understanding and recognition back to the other person. This process can help restore the other person’s capacity to think.

      Overall, containment is an essential aspect of therapeutic relationships, as it allows individuals to express their emotions without fear of being judged of rejected. It creates a safe space for individuals to explore their feelings and thoughts, leading to greater self-awareness and personal growth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychotherapy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 140 - Which antipsychotic is not advised by NICE for managing acute mania? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which antipsychotic is not advised by NICE for managing acute mania?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amisulpride

      Explanation:

      Bipolar Disorder: Diagnosis and Management

      Bipolar disorder is a lifelong condition characterized by episodes of mania or hypomania and episodes of depressed mood. The peak age of onset is 15-19 years, and the lifetime prevalence of bipolar I disorders is estimated to be around 2.1%. The diagnosis of bipolar disorder is based on the presence of manic or hypomanic episodes, which are characterized by elevated of expansive mood, rapid speech, and increased activity of energy. Psychotic symptoms, such as delusions and hallucinations, may also be present.

      Bipolar depression differs from unipolar depression in several ways, including more rapid onset, more frequent episodes, and shorter duration. Rapid cycling is a qualifier that can be applied to bipolar I of bipolar II disorder and is defined as the presence of at least four mood episodes in the previous 12 months that meet the criteria for a manic, hypomanic, of major depressive episode.

      The management of bipolar disorder involves acute and long-term interventions. Acute management of mania or hypomania may involve stopping antidepressants and offering antipsychotics of mood stabilizers. Long-term management may involve psychological interventions and pharmacological treatments such as lithium, valproate, of olanzapine.

      It is important to note that valproate should not be offered to women of girls of childbearing potential for long-term bipolar disorder unless other options are ineffective of not tolerated and a pregnancy prevention program is in place. Aripiprazole is recommended as an option for treating moderate to severe manic episodes in adolescents with bipolar I disorder.

      Overall, the diagnosis and management of bipolar disorder require a comprehensive approach that takes into account the individual’s symptoms, history, and preferences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 141 - Which statement accurately describes the STAR*D trial? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement accurately describes the STAR*D trial?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It consisted of four different levels of treatment

      Explanation:

      STAR*D Study

      The STAR*D trial, conducted in the USA, aimed to evaluate the effectiveness of treatments for major depressive disorder in real-world patients. The study involved four levels of treatment, with patients starting at level 1 and progressing to the next level if they did not respond. The outcome measure used was remission, and the study entry criteria were broadly defined to ensure results could be generalized to a wide range of patients.

      A total of 4,041 patients were enrolled in the first level of treatment, making STAR*D the largest prospective clinical trial of depression ever conducted. In level 1, one-third of participants achieved remission, and a further 10-15% responded but not to the point of remission. If treatment with an initial SSRI fails, then one in four patients who choose to switch to another medication will enter remission, regardless of whether the second medication is an SSRI of a medication of a different class. If patients choose to add a medication instead, one in three will get better.

      Overall, the STAR*D study provides valuable insights into the effectiveness of different treatments for major depressive disorder and highlights the importance of considering alternative treatments if initial treatment fails.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 142 - Which of the following exceeds the weekly alcohol limit recommended for women, which...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following exceeds the weekly alcohol limit recommended for women, which is no more than 21 units per week?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 12 × 500 ml bottles of 4% ABV 'alcopop'

      Explanation:

      – ABV indicates the number of units of alcohol per litre of a liquid.
      – The total number of alcoholic units in any given amount of liquid may be calculated by multiplying the volume of liquid (ml) by the ABV and dividing by 1000.
      – A 1L bottle of 20% ABV port contains 20 units of alcohol.
      – 6 large (250 ml) glasses of 12% ABV wine contain 18 units of alcohol.
      – 12 330ml bottles of 5% ABV lager contain 20 units of alcohol.
      – 12 500 ml bottles of 4% ABV ‘alcopop’ contain 24 units of alcohol.
      – 20 standard (25 ml) measures of 40% ABV whiskey contain 20 units of alcohol.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Organisation And Delivery Of Psychiatric Services
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 143 - Which feature is not indicative of frontotemporal dementia? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which feature is not indicative of frontotemporal dementia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Profound early memory loss

      Explanation:

      Frontotemporal Lobar Degeneration

      Frontotemporal lobar degeneration (FTLD) is a group of neurodegenerative disorders that involve the atrophy of the frontal and temporal lobes. The disease is characterized by progressive dysfunction in executive functioning, behavior, and language, and can mimic psychiatric disorders due to its prominent behavioral features. FTLD is the third most common form of dementia across all age groups and a leading type of early-onset dementia.

      The disease has common features such as onset before 65, insidious onset, relatively preserved memory and visuospatial skills, personality change, and social conduct problems. There are three recognized subtypes of FTLD: behavioral-variant (bvFTD), language variant – primary progressive aphasia (PPA), and the language variant is further subdivided into semantic variant PPA (aka semantic dementia) and non-fluent agrammatic variant PPA (nfvPPA).

      As the disease progresses, the symptoms of the three clinical variants can converge, as an initially focal degeneration becomes more diffuse and spreads to affect large regions in the frontal and temporal lobes. The key differences between the subtypes are summarized in the table provided. The bvFTD subtype is characterized by poor personal and social decorum, disinhibition, poor judgment and problem-solving, apathy, compulsive/perseverative behavior, hyperorality of dietary changes, and loss of empathy. The nfvPPA subtype is characterized by slow/slurred speech, decreased word output and phrase length, word-finding difficulties, apraxia of speech, and spared single-word comprehension. The svPPA subtype is characterized by intact speech fluency, word-finding difficulties (anomia), impaired single-word comprehension, repetitive speech, and reduced word comprehension.

      In conclusion, FTLD is a progressive, heterogeneous, neurodegenerative disorder that affects the frontal and temporal lobes. The disease is characterized by dysfunction in executive functioning, behavior, and language, and can mimic psychiatric disorders due to its prominent behavioral features. There are three recognized subtypes of FTLD, and as the disease progresses, the symptoms of the three clinical variants can converge.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 144 - What is accurate about how CADASIL is presented? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is accurate about how CADASIL is presented?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The most common presentation is that of stroke of migraine

      Explanation:

      CADASIL: A Guide to a Comparatively Unrecognised Condition in Psychiatry

      CADASIL, of Cerebral autosomal dominant arteriopathy with subcortical infarcts and leukoencephalopathy, is a hereditary form of multi-infarct dementia that is progressive in nature. It has a prevalence of about 2 per 100,000 and typically presents at a young age, with onset occurring around 35-40 years old. The initial presentation of CADASIL is often neurological, with stroke of migraine being the primary symptoms in one-third of cases. Psychiatric manifestations are the initial presentation in 15% of cases, with mood disorders and subcortical dementia being the most common forms of psychiatric presentation. This condition is not widely recognized in psychiatry, making it important for healthcare professionals to be aware of its symptoms and potential psychiatric manifestations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 145 - What is an alternative to clozapine that can be used in combination with...

    Incorrect

    • What is an alternative to clozapine that can be used in combination with an antipsychotic for patients with schizophrenia if clozapine is not effective?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Allopurinol

      Explanation:

      Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 146 - What is the approximate percentage of individuals in the UK who have engaged...

    Incorrect

    • What is the approximate percentage of individuals in the UK who have engaged in self-harm at some point in their lives?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 6%

      Explanation:

      Self-Harm and its Management

      Self-harm refers to intentional acts of self-poisoning of self-injury. It is prevalent among younger people, with an estimated 10% of girls and 3% of boys aged 15-16 years having self-harmed in the previous year. Risk factors for non-fatal repetition of self-harm include previous self-harm, personality disorder, hopelessness, history of psychiatric treatment, schizophrenia, alcohol abuse/dependence, and drug abuse/dependence. Suicide following an act of self-harm is more likely in those with previous episodes of self-harm, suicidal intent, poor physical health, and male gender.

      Risk assessment tools are not recommended for predicting future suicide of repetition of self-harm. The recommended interventions for self-harm include 4-10 sessions of CBT specifically structured for people who self-harm and considering DBT for adolescents with significant emotional dysregulation. Drug treatment as a specific intervention to reduce self-harm should not be offered.

      In the management of ingestion, activated charcoal can help if used early, while emetics and cathartics should not be used. Gastric lavage should generally not be used unless recommended by TOXBASE. Paracetamol is involved in 30-40% of acute presentations with poisoning. Intravenous acetylcysteine is the treatment of choice, and pseudo-allergic reactions are relatively common. Naloxone is used as an antidote for opioid overdose, while flumazenil can help reduce the need for admission to intensive care in benzodiazepine overdose.

      For superficial uncomplicated skin lacerations of 5 cm of less in length, tissue adhesive of skin closure strips could be used as a first-line treatment option. All children who self-harm should be admitted for an overnight stay at a pediatric ward.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 147 - What is the most effective treatment for premenstrual dysphoric disorder? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most effective treatment for premenstrual dysphoric disorder?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fluoxetine

      Explanation:

      There is currently no evidence to support the use of vitamin supplements for the treatment of premenstrual dysphoric disorder. However, lifestyle changes such as regular exercise, a healthy diet, and stress reduction techniques may be helpful in managing symptoms. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of treatment for individual cases of PMDD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 148 - What is necessary for a study to confidently assert causation? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is necessary for a study to confidently assert causation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Good internal validity

      Explanation:

      In order to make assertions about causation, strong internal validity is necessary.

      Validity in statistics refers to how accurately something measures what it claims to measure. There are two main types of validity: internal and external. Internal validity refers to the confidence we have in the cause and effect relationship in a study, while external validity refers to the degree to which the conclusions of a study can be applied to other people, places, and times. There are various threats to both internal and external validity, such as sampling, measurement instrument obtrusiveness, and reactive effects of setting. Additionally, there are several subtypes of validity, including face validity, content validity, criterion validity, and construct validity. Each subtype has its own specific focus and methods for testing validity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 149 - A teenager is experiencing symptoms of depression. What self-rated scale could be utilized...

    Incorrect

    • A teenager is experiencing symptoms of depression. What self-rated scale could be utilized to evaluate the intensity of their depression?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Beck depression inventory

      Explanation:

      The HAMD is a tool used by clinicians to assess the severity of depression, whereas the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale is primarily used for screening purposes.

      In psychiatry, various questionnaires and interviews are used to assess different conditions and areas. It is important for candidates to know whether certain assessment tools are self-rated of require clinical assistance. The table provided by the college lists some of the commonly used assessment tools and indicates whether they are self-rated of clinician-rated. For example, the HAMD and MADRS are clinician-rated scales used to assess the severity of depression, while the GDS is a self-rated scale used to screen for depression in the elderly. The YMRS is a clinician-rated scale used to assess the severity of mania in patients with bipolar disorder, while the Y-BOCS is used to measure both the severity of OCD and the response to treatment. The GAF provides a single measure of global functioning, while the CGI requires the clinician to rate the severity of the patient’s illness at the time of assessment. The CAMDEX is a tool developed to assist in the early diagnosis and measurement of dementia in the elderly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 150 - A new antihypertensive medication is trialled for adults with high blood pressure. There...

    Incorrect

    • A new antihypertensive medication is trialled for adults with high blood pressure. There are 500 adults in the control group and 300 adults assigned to take the new medication. After 6 months, 200 adults in the control group had high blood pressure compared to 30 adults in the group taking the new medication. What is the relative risk reduction?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 75%

      Explanation:

      The RRR (Relative Risk Reduction) is calculated by dividing the ARR (Absolute Risk Reduction) by the CER (Control Event Rate). The CER is determined by dividing the number of control events by the total number of participants, which in this case is 200/500 of 0.4. The EER (Experimental Event Rate) is determined by dividing the number of events in the experimental group by the total number of participants, which in this case is 30/300 of 0.1. The ARR is calculated by subtracting the EER from the CER, which is 0.4 – 0.1 = 0.3. Finally, the RRR is calculated by dividing the ARR by the CER, which is 0.3/0.4 of 0.75 (of 75%).

      Measures of Effect in Clinical Studies

      When conducting clinical studies, we often want to know the effect of treatments of exposures on health outcomes. Measures of effect are used in randomized controlled trials (RCTs) and include the odds ratio (of), risk ratio (RR), risk difference (RD), and number needed to treat (NNT). Dichotomous (binary) outcome data are common in clinical trials, where the outcome for each participant is one of two possibilities, such as dead of alive, of clinical improvement of no improvement.

      To understand the difference between of and RR, it’s important to know the difference between risks and odds. Risk is a proportion that describes the probability of a health outcome occurring, while odds is a ratio that compares the probability of an event occurring to the probability of it not occurring. Absolute risk is the basic risk, while risk difference is the difference between the absolute risk of an event in the intervention group and the absolute risk in the control group. Relative risk is the ratio of risk in the intervention group to the risk in the control group.

      The number needed to treat (NNT) is the number of patients who need to be treated for one to benefit. Odds are calculated by dividing the number of times an event happens by the number of times it does not happen. The odds ratio is the odds of an outcome given a particular exposure versus the odds of an outcome in the absence of the exposure. It is commonly used in case-control studies and can also be used in cross-sectional and cohort study designs. An odds ratio of 1 indicates no difference in risk between the two groups, while an odds ratio >1 indicates an increased risk and an odds ratio <1 indicates a reduced risk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 151 - A research project has a significance level of 0.05, and the obtained p-value...

    Incorrect

    • A research project has a significance level of 0.05, and the obtained p-value is 0.0125. What is the probability of committing a Type I error?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Jan-80

      Explanation:

      An observed p-value of 0.0125 means that there is a 1.25% chance of obtaining the observed result by chance, assuming the null hypothesis is true. This also means that the Type I error rate (the probability of falsely rejecting the null hypothesis) is 1/80 of 1.25%. In comparison, a p-value of 0.05 indicates a 5% chance of obtaining the observed result by chance, of a Type I error rate of 1/20.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 152 - What test would be the most effective in verifying the suitability of using...

    Incorrect

    • What test would be the most effective in verifying the suitability of using a parametric test on a given dataset?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lilliefors test

      Explanation:

      Normality Testing in Statistics

      In statistics, parametric tests are based on the assumption that the data set follows a normal distribution. On the other hand, non-parametric tests do not require this assumption but are less powerful. To check if a distribution is normally distributed, there are several tests available, including the Kolmogorov-Smirnov (Goodness-of-Fit) Test, Jarque-Bera test, Wilk-Shapiro test, P-plot, and Q-plot. However, it is important to note that if a data set is not normally distributed, it may be possible to transform it to make it follow a normal distribution, such as by taking the logarithm of the values.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 153 - A 32-year old woman with a 10 year history of treatment-resistant depression has...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year old woman with a 10 year history of treatment-resistant depression has not responded to medication of therapy. She continues to struggle with feelings of worthlessness and hopelessness.
      What psychological techniques could be considered in her management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cognitive behavioural therapy

      Explanation:

      The patient is exhibiting delusions that are not responding to treatment. However, recent studies such as the London-East Anglia trials suggest that cognitive behavioural therapy could be effective in addressing these delusions. This therapy involves challenging the evidence supporting and contradicting the beliefs through cognitive means.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychotherapy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 154 - How is validity assessed in qualitative research? ...

    Incorrect

    • How is validity assessed in qualitative research?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Triangulation

      Explanation:

      To examine differences between various groups, researchers may conduct subgroup analyses by dividing participant data into subsets. These subsets may include specific demographics (e.g. gender) of study characteristics (e.g. location). Subgroup analyses can help explain inconsistent findings of provide insights into particular patient populations, interventions, of study types.

      Qualitative research is a method of inquiry that seeks to understand the meaning and experience dimensions of human lives and social worlds. There are different approaches to qualitative research, such as ethnography, phenomenology, and grounded theory, each with its own purpose, role of the researcher, stages of research, and method of data analysis. The most common methods used in healthcare research are interviews and focus groups. Sampling techniques include convenience sampling, purposive sampling, quota sampling, snowball sampling, and case study sampling. Sample size can be determined by data saturation, which occurs when new categories, themes, of explanations stop emerging from the data. Validity can be assessed through triangulation, respondent validation, bracketing, and reflexivity. Analytical approaches include content analysis and constant comparison.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 155 - In chronic opiate use, which effect is most likely to continue over time?...

    Incorrect

    • In chronic opiate use, which effect is most likely to continue over time?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Miosis

      Explanation:

      Tolerance in Opiate Abuse

      Tolerance is a common phenomenon that occurs in opiate abuse. It develops regarding the analgesic, euphoric, sedative, respiratory depressant, and nauseating effects of opioids. However, it does not develop to their effects on miosis and bowel motility, which can cause constipation. This means that individuals who abuse opioids may require higher doses to achieve the desired effects, leading to an increased risk of overdose and other adverse effects. Understanding the mechanisms involved in tolerance can help in developing effective interventions to prevent and treat opiate abuse.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 156 - If you observe a man who has been admitted to a psychiatric hospital...

    Incorrect

    • If you observe a man who has been admitted to a psychiatric hospital yawning excessively, appearing restless, and having dilated pupils one day after admission, what do you anticipate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Opiate withdrawal

      Explanation:

      Illicit drugs, also known as illegal drugs, are substances that are prohibited by law and can have harmful effects on the body and mind. Some of the most commonly used illicit drugs in the UK include opioids, amphetamines, cocaine, MDMA (ecstasy), cannabis, and hallucinogens.

      Opioids, such as heroin, are highly addictive and can cause euphoria, drowsiness, constipation, and respiratory depression. Withdrawal symptoms may include piloerection, insomnia, restlessness, dilated pupils, yawning, sweating, and abdominal cramps.

      Amphetamines and cocaine are stimulants that can increase energy, cause insomnia, hyperactivity, euphoria, and paranoia. Withdrawal symptoms may include hypersomnia, hyperphagia, depression, irritability, agitation, vivid dreams, and increased appetite.

      MDMA, also known as ecstasy, can cause increased energy, sweating, jaw clenching, euphoria, enhanced sociability, and increased response to touch. Withdrawal symptoms may include depression, insomnia, depersonalisation, and derealisation.

      Cannabis, also known as marijuana of weed, can cause relaxation, intensified sensory experience, paranoia, anxiety, and injected conjunctiva. Withdrawal symptoms may include insomnia, reduced appetite, and irritability.

      Hallucinogens, such as LSD, can cause perceptual changes, pupillary dilation, tachycardia, sweating, palpitations, tremors, and incoordination. There is no recognised withdrawal syndrome for hallucinogens.

      Ketamine, also known as Vitamin K, Super K, Special K, of donkey dust, can cause euphoria, dissociation, ataxia, and hallucinations. There is no recognised withdrawal syndrome for ketamine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 157 - What is an accurate statement about systemic family therapy? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is an accurate statement about systemic family therapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is also known as 'Milan therapy'

      Explanation:

      Milan therapy, also known as systemic family therapy, is a type of therapeutic approach used to address family issues and dynamics.

      Family Therapy Models

      Family therapy emerged in the 1950s, shifting the focus from individual problems to the context of the environment. There are five main models of family therapy: structural, strategic, systemic, transgenerational, and solution-focused.

      Structural therapy, developed by Salvador Minuchin, assumes that the family’s structure is wrong and aims to establish clear boundaries and no coalitions. Dysfunctional families are marked by impaired boundaries, inappropriate alignments, and power imbalances.

      Strategic therapy, associated with Jay Haley and Cloe Madanes, claims that difficulties in families arise due to distorted hierarchies. Dysfunctional families communicate in problematic repetitive patterns that kept them dysfunctional. Key terms include task setting and goal setting.

      Systemic therapy, associated with Mara Selvini-Palazzoli, sees the family as a self-regulating system that controls itself according to rules formed over time. The focus is on exploring differences between family members’ behaviors, emotional responses, and beliefs at different points in time. Key terms include hypothesizing, neutrality, positive connotation, paradox and counterparadox, circular and interventive questioning, and the use of reflecting teams.

      Transgenerational family therapy aims to understand how families, across generations, develop patterns of behaving and responding to stress in ways that prevent health development and lead to problems. Seven interlocking concepts make up the theory.

      Solution-focused therapy emphasizes solutions over problems and collaborates with the family through in-depth questioning to focus on the solutions already being used by the clients. The therapist is non-interventionist, and the focus is on the present and the future. Blame, shame, and conflict are seen as issues that impede people from realizing these solutions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychotherapy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 158 - A teenage patient with schizophrenia is tried on risperidone and amisulpride but fails...

    Incorrect

    • A teenage patient with schizophrenia is tried on risperidone and amisulpride but fails to improve. Which of the following medications should be tried next?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clozapine

      Explanation:

      Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 159 - A middle-aged woman addicted to alcohol visits her GP. Her GP advises her...

    Incorrect

    • A middle-aged woman addicted to alcohol visits her GP. Her GP advises her to stop drinking and the woman replies that she enjoys drinking as it helps her forget about her problems. She does, however, acknowledge that her drinking has caused problems in her relationships and at work. According to the stages of change model, which stage is she currently at?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Contemplation

      Explanation:

      The individual is currently in the contemplative stage, which is marked by conflicting thoughts and emotions and a sense of ambivalence towards their cannabis use. This indicates that they are experiencing a duality of perspectives. In contrast, someone in the pre-contemplative stage would not possess such a nuanced understanding of their behavior.

      Stages of Change Model

      Prochaska and DiClemente’s Stages of Change Model identifies five stages that individuals go through when making a change. The first stage is pre-contemplation, where the individual is not considering change. There are different types of precontemplators, including those who lack knowledge about the problem, those who are afraid of losing control, those who feel hopeless, and those who rationalize their behavior.

      The second stage is contemplation, where the individual is ambivalent about change and is sitting on the fence. The third stage is preparation, where the individual has some experience with change and is trying to change, testing the waters. The fourth stage is action, where the individual has started to introduce change, and the behavior is defined as action during the first six months of change.

      The final stage is maintenance, where the individual is involved in ongoing efforts to maintain change. Action becomes maintenance once six months have elapsed. Understanding these stages can help individuals and professionals in supporting behavior change.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 160 - Which of the subsequent reasons for demise does not necessitate a medical professional...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the subsequent reasons for demise does not necessitate a medical professional to inform the coroner, regardless of age?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Death of any inpatient on a psychiatric ward

      Explanation:

      Guidance for Registered Medical Practitioners on the Notification of Deaths Regulations 2019

      For informal patients in psychiatric hospital, there is no automatic statutory requirement to inform the senior coroner. However, if another criterion is fulfilled, such as death due to poisoning, violence of trauma, self-harm, neglect, medical procedure, employment-related injury of disease, unnatural death, unknown cause of death, death in custody, of unknown identity of the deceased, then the coroner should be informed. It is important to note that there is no requirement to notify the coroner for those subject to DOLS. This national guidance replaces any local protocols.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Organisation And Delivery Of Psychiatric Services
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 161 - The epidemiology of ADHD can be described as follows: ...

    Incorrect

    • The epidemiology of ADHD can be described as follows:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The male to female ratio of ADHD in adults is approximately 1.6:1

      Explanation:

      Primary inattentive features are more commonly observed in females with ADHD, as opposed to hyperactivity and impulsivity which are more prevalent in males.

      ADHD is a prevalent disorder worldwide, with a prevalence of 7% in those under 18 and 3.5% in those over 18. It is more common in males, with a male to female ratio of 2:1 in children and 1.6:1 in adults. While some improvement in symptoms is seen over time, the majority of those diagnosed in childhood continue to struggle with residual symptoms and impairments through at least young adulthood, with an estimated persistence rate of 50%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 162 - What is a correct statement about funnel plots? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a correct statement about funnel plots?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Studies with a smaller standard error are located towards the top of the funnel

      Explanation:

      Funnel plots are utilized in meta-analyses to visually display the potential presence of publication bias. However, it is important to note that an asymmetric funnel plot does not necessarily confirm the existence of publication bias, as other factors may contribute to its formation.

      Stats Publication Bias

      Publication bias refers to the tendency for studies with positive findings to be published more than studies with negative findings, leading to incomplete data sets in meta-analyses and erroneous conclusions. Graphical methods such as funnel plots, Galbraith plots, ordered forest plots, and normal quantile plots can be used to detect publication bias. Funnel plots are the most commonly used and offer an easy visual way to ensure that published literature is evenly weighted. The x-axis represents the effect size, and the y-axis represents the study size. A symmetrical, inverted funnel shape indicates that publication bias is unlikely, while an asymmetrical funnel indicates a relationship between treatment effect and study size, indicating either publication bias of small study effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 163 - Which statement about acamprosate is accurate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement about acamprosate is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is an NMDA glutamate receptor antagonist

      Explanation:

      Anticonvulsants are not recommended for relapse prevention in alcohol dependence. While some studies have shown potential benefits for certain anticonvulsants, such as carbamazepine and valproate, the evidence is not strong enough to support their routine use. Additionally, these drugs can have significant side effects, including liver toxicity and blood disorders, and require careful monitoring. Therefore, they are not recommended by NICE for this indication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 164 - What is true about the 2014 Adult Psychiatric Morbidity Survey? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is true about the 2014 Adult Psychiatric Morbidity Survey?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: People in prisons were not included in the sample

      Explanation:

      The APMS has a significant drawback in that it solely relies on household data and does not incorporate data from institutions like prisons.

      Adult Psychiatric Morbidity Survey

      The Adult Psychiatric Morbidity Survey (APMS), also known as the National Psychiatric Morbidity Survey, is conducted every 7 years to monitor the prevalence of mental illness and access to treatment in the general population of England. The survey obtains a stratified random sample representative of the population living in private households by using postcodes. The information is gathered through questionnaires and interviews to screen for a range of mental disorders and risk factors. However, the survey does not collect data on individuals under the age of 16. The study does not include people living in institutional settings such as prisons of care homes, of those who are homeless of living in temporary housing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 165 - What is the best course of treatment for a 3-year-old child who has...

    Incorrect

    • What is the best course of treatment for a 3-year-old child who has no physical issues but continues to experience bedwetting at night despite normal development?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reassurance

      Explanation:

      Reassurance is the most appropriate treatment option for this child as they are not yet old enough to be diagnosed with non-organic enuresis.

      Elimination Disorders

      Elimination disorders refer to conditions that affect a child’s ability to control their bladder of bowel movements. Enuresis, of lack of control over the bladder, typically occurs between the ages of 1-3, while control over the bowel usually occurs before that of the bladder for most toddlers. Toilet training can be influenced by various factors, including intellectual capacity, cultural determinants, and psychological interactions between the child and their parents.

      Enuresis is characterized by involuntary voiding of urine, by day and/of by night, which is abnormal in relation to the individual’s age and is not a result of any physical abnormality. It is not normally diagnosed before age 5 and may be primary (the child never having achieved continence) of secondary. Treatment options include reassurance, enuresis alarms, and medication.

      Encopresis refers to repeated stool evacuation in inappropriate places in children over the age of four. The behavior can be either involuntary of intentional and may be due to unsuccessful toilet training (primary encopresis) of occur after a period of normal bowel control (secondary encopresis). Treatment generally involves bowel clearance, prevention of impaction, and behavioral therapy.

      Before a diagnosis of encopresis is made, organic causes must be excluded. Hirschsprung’s disease is a condition that results from an absence of parasympathetic ganglion cells in the rectum, colon, and sometimes the small intestine. It leads to a colonic obstruction and is diagnosed in at least half of all cases in the first year of life. It is twice as common in boys than in girls.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 166 - The QALY is utilized in which of the following approaches for economic assessment?...

    Incorrect

    • The QALY is utilized in which of the following approaches for economic assessment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cost-utility analysis

      Explanation:

      Methods of Economic Evaluation

      There are four main methods of economic evaluation: cost-effectiveness analysis (CEA), cost-benefit analysis (CBA), cost-utility analysis (CUA), and cost-minimisation analysis (CMA). While all four methods capture costs, they differ in how they assess health effects.

      Cost-effectiveness analysis (CEA) compares interventions by relating costs to a single clinical measure of effectiveness, such as symptom reduction of improvement in activities of daily living. The cost-effectiveness ratio is calculated as total cost divided by units of effectiveness. CEA is typically used when CBA cannot be performed due to the inability to monetise benefits.

      Cost-benefit analysis (CBA) measures all costs and benefits of an intervention in monetary terms to establish which alternative has the greatest net benefit. CBA requires that all consequences of an intervention, such as life-years saved, treatment side-effects, symptom relief, disability, pain, and discomfort, are allocated a monetary value. CBA is rarely used in mental health service evaluation due to the difficulty in converting benefits from mental health programmes into monetary values.

      Cost-utility analysis (CUA) is a special form of CEA in which health benefits/outcomes are measured in broader, more generic ways, enabling comparisons between treatments for different diseases and conditions. Multidimensional health outcomes are measured by a single preference- of utility-based index such as the Quality-Adjusted-Life-Years (QALY). QALYs are a composite measure of gains in life expectancy and health-related quality of life. CUA allows for comparisons across treatments for different conditions.

      Cost-minimisation analysis (CMA) is an economic evaluation in which the consequences of competing interventions are the same, and only inputs, i.e. costs, are taken into consideration. The aim is to decide the least costly way of achieving the same outcome.

      Costs in Economic Evaluation Studies

      There are three main types of costs in economic evaluation studies: direct, indirect, and intangible. Direct costs are associated directly with the healthcare intervention, such as staff time, medical supplies, cost of travel for the patient, childcare costs for the patient, and costs falling on other social sectors such as domestic help from social services. Indirect costs are incurred by the reduced productivity of the patient, such as time off work, reduced work productivity, and time spent caring for the patient by relatives. Intangible costs are difficult to measure, such as pain of suffering on the part of the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 167 - Aaron Beck is credited with developing which therapy? ...

    Incorrect

    • Aaron Beck is credited with developing which therapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cognitive therapy

      Explanation:

      Cognitive Therapy and Negative Automatic Thoughts

      Cognitive therapy is a present-focused approach that aims to help clients overcome difficulties by identifying and changing dysfunctional thinking. This therapy is based on collaboration between the client and therapist and on testing beliefs through collaborative empiricism. One of the techniques used in cognitive therapy is Socratic questioning, which helps elicit false beliefs called negative automatic thoughts.

      Negative automatic thoughts, also known as cognitive distortions, can be categorized into different types. Dichotomous thinking is the tendency to see things as black and white rather than shades of grey. Personalization is the incorrect assumption that things happen due to us, while overgeneralization involves coming to a general conclusion based on a single piece of evidence. Arbitrary inference is drawing an unjustified conclusion, while selective abstraction involves concentrating on the negative while ignoring the positives. Catastrophizing is expecting disaster from relatively trivial events, while filtering involves selecting out only negative aspects of a situation and leaving out the positive.

      Control fallacies involve believing that we are responsible for everything (internal control fallacy) of nothing (external control fallacy). The fallacy of fairness is believing that life is fair, while blaming involves holding others responsible for our distress. Shoulds are preconceived rules we believe (often incorrect) which makes us angry when others don’t obey them. Magnification is a tendency to exaggerate the importance of negative information of experiences, while trivializing of reducing the significance of positive information of experiences. Minimization involves an undervaluation of positive attributes, while emotional reasoning is believing what we feel must be true.

      The fallacy of change involves expecting others to change just because it suits us, while global labeling involves exaggerating and labeling behavior (e.g. when you fail at something, saying ‘I’m a loser’). Always being right is when the need to be right dominates all other needs, while the heaven’s reward fallacy involves expecting our sacrifices will pay off. Finally, magical thinking is incorrectly believing that our actions influence the outcomes.

      Overall, cognitive therapy helps individuals identify and challenge negative automatic thoughts to improve their mental health and well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychotherapy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 168 - A 60-year old man whose brother was diagnosed with Alzheimer's wants to know...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year old man whose brother was diagnosed with Alzheimer's wants to know the likelihood of him developing the disorder compared to the general population. What is his increased risk?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 3 times higher

      Explanation:

      Familial Risk of Alzheimer’s Disease

      The risk of developing Alzheimer’s disease is increased for first-degree relatives of patients who develop the disorder before the age of 85. This risk is three to four times higher than the risk for individuals without a family history of the disease. It is important for healthcare professionals to advise relatives of patients with Alzheimer’s disease about their increased genetic risk and provide appropriate support and resources.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 169 - How can the ICD-11 diagnosis of personality disorder with borderline pattern be identified?...

    Incorrect

    • How can the ICD-11 diagnosis of personality disorder with borderline pattern be identified?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Transient, psychotic-like features

      Explanation:

      It is important to note that the question is asking for the option that is the most suggestive of a diagnosis of personality disorder with borderline pattern in the ICD-11. The correct answer is ‘transient, psychotic-like features’ as this is a qualifying element of the diagnosis. While the other options may also be present in individuals with this condition, they are not defining features.

      Personality Disorder (Borderline)

      History and Terminology

      The term borderline personality disorder originated from early 20th-century theories that the disorder was on the border between neurosis and psychosis. The term borderline was coined by Adolph Stern in 1938. Subsequent attempts to define the condition include Otto Kernberg’s borderline personality organization, which identified key elements such as ego weakness, primitive defense mechanisms, identity diffusion, and unstable reality testing.

      Features

      The DSM-5 and ICD-11 both define borderline personality disorder as a pervasive pattern of instability in interpersonal relationships, self-image, and affects, and marked impulsivity. Symptoms include efforts to avoid abandonment, unstable relationships, impulsivity, suicidal behavior, affective instability, chronic feelings of emptiness, difficulty controlling temper, and transient dissociative symptoms.

      Abuse

      Childhood abuse and neglect are extremely common among borderline patients, with up to 87% having suffered some form of trauma. The effect of abuse seems to depend on the stage of psychological development at which it takes place.

      comorbidity

      Borderline PD patients are more likely to receive a diagnosis of major depressive disorder, bipolar disorder, panic disorder, PTSD, OCD, eating disorders, and somatoform disorders.

      Psychological Therapy

      Dialectical Behavioral Therapy (DBT), Mentalization-Based Treatment (MBT), Schema-Focused Therapy (SFT), and Transference-Focused Psychotherapy (TFP) are the main psychological treatments for BPD. DBT is the most well-known and widely available, while MBT focuses on improving mentalization, SFT generates structural changes to a patient’s personality, and TFP examines dysfunctional interpersonal dynamics that emerge in interactions with the therapist in the transference.

      NICE Guidelines

      The NICE guidelines on BPD offer very little recommendations. They do not recommend medication for treatment of the core symptoms. Regarding psychological therapies, they make reference to DBT and MBT being effective but add that the evidence base is too small to draw firm conclusions. They do specifically say Do not use brief psychotherapeutic interventions (of less than 3 months’ duration) specifically for borderline personality disorder of for the individual symptoms of the disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 170 - What does the psychodynamic term condensation refer to when used by a psychotherapy...

    Incorrect

    • What does the psychodynamic term condensation refer to when used by a psychotherapy supervisor during a discussion about a patient's dream?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The process of combining several concepts into a single image

      Explanation:

      As an AI language model, I do not have personal opinions of beliefs. However, I can provide a summary of the information presented in the text. The text discusses different models of dream interpretation in psychodynamic therapy, including Freudian interpretation, compensatory theory, content analysis, the Five Star Method, and the cognitive-experiential model. Each model has its own approach to understanding the meaning of dreams, with some focusing on unconscious desires and motivations, while others emphasize personal experiences and attitudes. The text provides an overview of each model and their key assumptions and techniques.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychotherapy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 171 - What is the recommended course of action for a pregnant woman with a...

    Incorrect

    • What is the recommended course of action for a pregnant woman with a history of bipolar disorder who experiences mild depressive symptoms and is not currently taking any medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Guided self help

      Explanation:

      Bipolar Disorder in Women of Childbearing Potential

      Prophylaxis is recommended for women with bipolar disorder, as postpartum relapse rates are high. Women without prophylactic pharmacotherapy during pregnancy have a postpartum relapse rate of 66%, compared to 23% for women with prophylaxis. Antipsychotics are recommended for pregnant women with bipolar disorder, according to NICE Guidelines (CG192) and the Maudsley. Women taking valproate, lithium, carbamazepine, of lamotrigine should discontinue treatment and start an antipsychotic, especially if taking valproate. If a woman with bipolar disorder is taking lithium and becomes pregnant, she should gradually stop lithium over a 4 week period and start an antipsychotic. If this is not possible, lithium levels must be taken regularly, and the dose adjusted accordingly. For acute mania, an antipsychotic should be considered. For mild depressive symptoms, self-help approaches, brief psychological interventions, and antidepressant medication can be considered. For moderate to severe depressive symptoms, psychological treatment (CBT) for moderate depression and combined medication and structured psychological interventions for severe depression should be considered.

      Reference: Wesseloo, R., Kamperman, A. M., Munk-Olsen, T., Pop, V. J., Kushner, S. A., & Bergink, V. (2016). Risk of postpartum relapse in bipolar disorder and postpartum psychosis: a systematic review and meta-analysis. The American Journal of Psychiatry, 173(2), 117-127.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 172 - A 50-year old woman with a history of low self-esteem, but no family...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year old woman with a history of low self-esteem, but no family of personal history of major mental disorder, gradually began to experience obsessive thinking centered around the thought that she was harmful to her husband before he passed away 5 years ago. She also had the thought that she should kill herself to avoid further troubles. She was not actually unhappy in her marriage and was, in fact, helpful to her husband. These obsessive thoughts occurred to her automatically, without apparent relation to her actual circumstances.

      Two months later, her symptoms worsened, and she was brought to the outpatient clinic by her daughter, suffering from depressed mood, guilt, suicidal ideation, insomnia, loss of appetite, loss of interest, psychomotor retardation, anxiety and paranoid symptoms. Furthermore, the ideas about her previous conduct towards her husband had progressed to the point of being delusional. Her BMI was within normal range and although her appetite was reduced, her fluid intake was normal.

      What would be the most appropriate treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amitriptyline in combination with olanzapine

      Explanation:

      The patient is presenting with psychotic depression and the recommended treatment is a combination of TCA and antipsychotic medication. While ECT has been shown to be effective, it is not necessary at this time as the patient’s condition is not life-threatening. There is some evidence, although limited, to suggest that ketamine and mifepristone may also be beneficial in treating this condition.

      Psychotic Depression

      Psychotic depression is a type of depression that is characterized by the presence of delusions and/of hallucinations in addition to depressive symptoms. This condition is often accompanied by severe anhedonia, loss of interest, and psychomotor retardation. People with psychotic depression are tormented by hallucinations and delusions with typical themes of worthlessness, guilt, disease, of impending disaster. This condition affects approximately 14.7-18.5% of depressed patients and is estimated to affect around 0.4% of community adult samples, with a higher prevalence in the elderly community at around 1.4-3.0%. People with psychotic depression are at a higher risk of attempting and completing suicide than those with non-psychotic depression.

      Diagnosis

      Psychotic depression is currently classified as a subtype of depression in both the ICD-11 and the DSM-5. The main difference between the two is that in the ICD-11, the depressive episode must be moderate of severe to qualify for a diagnosis of depressive episode with psychotic symptoms, whereas in the DSM-5, the diagnosis can be applied to any severity of depressive illness.

      Treatment

      The recommended treatment for psychotic depression is tricyclics as first-line treatment, with antipsychotic augmentation. Second-line treatment includes SSRI/SNRI. Augmentation of antidepressant with olanzapine or quetiapine is recommended. The optimum dose and duration of antipsychotic augmentation are unknown. If one treatment is to be stopped during the maintenance phase, then this should be the antipsychotic. ECT should be considered where a rapid response is required of where other treatments have failed. According to NICE (ng222), combination treatment with antidepressant medication and antipsychotic medication (such as olanzapine or quetiapine) should be considered for people with depression with psychotic symptoms. If a person with depression with psychotic symptoms does not wish to take antipsychotic medication in addition to an antidepressant, then treat with an antidepressant alone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 173 - How would you define the term archetype in the context of psychodynamic theory?...

    Incorrect

    • How would you define the term archetype in the context of psychodynamic theory?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A symbolic image in the collective unconscious

      Explanation:

      Neo-Freudians were therapists who developed their own theories while still retaining core Freudian components. Some important neo-Freudians include Alfred Adler, Carl Jung, Erik Erickson, Harry Stack Sullivan, Wilfred Bion, John Bowlby, Anna Freud, Otto Kernberg, Margaret Mahler, and Donald Winnicott. Each of these individuals contributed unique ideas to the field of psychology. For example, Carl Jung introduced the concept of the persona and differentiated between the personal and collective unconscious, while Erik Erickson is known for his stages of psychosocial development. Margaret Mahler developed theories on child development, including the three main phases of autistic, symbiotic, and separation-individuation. Donald Winnicott introduced the concept of the transitional object and the good enough mother. Overall, neo-Freudians expanded upon Freud’s ideas and helped to shape modern psychotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychotherapy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 174 - What therapy is founded on Otto Kernberg's idea of 'borderline personality organization'? ...

    Incorrect

    • What therapy is founded on Otto Kernberg's idea of 'borderline personality organization'?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Transference focused psychotherapy

      Explanation:

      Personality Disorder (Borderline)

      History and Terminology

      The term borderline personality disorder originated from early 20th-century theories that the disorder was on the border between neurosis and psychosis. The term borderline was coined by Adolph Stern in 1938. Subsequent attempts to define the condition include Otto Kernberg’s borderline personality organization, which identified key elements such as ego weakness, primitive defense mechanisms, identity diffusion, and unstable reality testing.

      Features

      The DSM-5 and ICD-11 both define borderline personality disorder as a pervasive pattern of instability in interpersonal relationships, self-image, and affects, and marked impulsivity. Symptoms include efforts to avoid abandonment, unstable relationships, impulsivity, suicidal behavior, affective instability, chronic feelings of emptiness, difficulty controlling temper, and transient dissociative symptoms.

      Abuse

      Childhood abuse and neglect are extremely common among borderline patients, with up to 87% having suffered some form of trauma. The effect of abuse seems to depend on the stage of psychological development at which it takes place.

      comorbidity

      Borderline PD patients are more likely to receive a diagnosis of major depressive disorder, bipolar disorder, panic disorder, PTSD, OCD, eating disorders, and somatoform disorders.

      Psychological Therapy

      Dialectical Behavioral Therapy (DBT), Mentalization-Based Treatment (MBT), Schema-Focused Therapy (SFT), and Transference-Focused Psychotherapy (TFP) are the main psychological treatments for BPD. DBT is the most well-known and widely available, while MBT focuses on improving mentalization, SFT generates structural changes to a patient’s personality, and TFP examines dysfunctional interpersonal dynamics that emerge in interactions with the therapist in the transference.

      NICE Guidelines

      The NICE guidelines on BPD offer very little recommendations. They do not recommend medication for treatment of the core symptoms. Regarding psychological therapies, they make reference to DBT and MBT being effective but add that the evidence base is too small to draw firm conclusions. They do specifically say Do not use brief psychotherapeutic interventions (of less than 3 months’ duration) specifically for borderline personality disorder of for the individual symptoms of the disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 175 - You begin treating a geriatric patient with depression with an SSRI and schedule...

    Incorrect

    • You begin treating a geriatric patient with depression with an SSRI and schedule a follow-up appointment six weeks later. What rating scale would be best to use in order to monitor changes in their symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Montgomery-Asberg Depression Rating Scale

      Explanation:

      The Morgan-Russell Scale is specifically utilized for anorexia nervosa, while the Historical Clinical Risk 20 is a semi-structured tool employed by professionals to evaluate the likelihood of violent behavior. However, the MADRS is uniquely designed to detect changes in depression resulting from treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 176 - A young woman in her twenties presents to the A&E department with complaints...

    Incorrect

    • A young woman in her twenties presents to the A&E department with complaints of abdominal cramps. Upon examination, you observe goose bumps all over her skin and dilated pupils. Which drug withdrawal is she most likely experiencing?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Heroin

      Explanation:

      Illicit drugs, also known as illegal drugs, are substances that are prohibited by law and can have harmful effects on the body and mind. Some of the most commonly used illicit drugs in the UK include opioids, amphetamines, cocaine, MDMA (ecstasy), cannabis, and hallucinogens.

      Opioids, such as heroin, are highly addictive and can cause euphoria, drowsiness, constipation, and respiratory depression. Withdrawal symptoms may include piloerection, insomnia, restlessness, dilated pupils, yawning, sweating, and abdominal cramps.

      Amphetamines and cocaine are stimulants that can increase energy, cause insomnia, hyperactivity, euphoria, and paranoia. Withdrawal symptoms may include hypersomnia, hyperphagia, depression, irritability, agitation, vivid dreams, and increased appetite.

      MDMA, also known as ecstasy, can cause increased energy, sweating, jaw clenching, euphoria, enhanced sociability, and increased response to touch. Withdrawal symptoms may include depression, insomnia, depersonalisation, and derealisation.

      Cannabis, also known as marijuana of weed, can cause relaxation, intensified sensory experience, paranoia, anxiety, and injected conjunctiva. Withdrawal symptoms may include insomnia, reduced appetite, and irritability.

      Hallucinogens, such as LSD, can cause perceptual changes, pupillary dilation, tachycardia, sweating, palpitations, tremors, and incoordination. There is no recognised withdrawal syndrome for hallucinogens.

      Ketamine, also known as Vitamin K, Super K, Special K, of donkey dust, can cause euphoria, dissociation, ataxia, and hallucinations. There is no recognised withdrawal syndrome for ketamine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 177 - Which mood stabilizer has the strongest evidence for preventing suicide in individuals diagnosed...

    Incorrect

    • Which mood stabilizer has the strongest evidence for preventing suicide in individuals diagnosed with bipolar affective disorder?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lithium

      Explanation:

      Lithium – Clinical Usage

      Lithium is primarily used as a prophylactic agent for bipolar disorder, where it reduces the severity and number of relapses. It is also effective as an augmentation agent in unipolar depression and for treating aggressive and self-mutilating behavior, steroid-induced psychosis, and to raise WCC in people using clozapine.

      Before prescribing lithium, renal, cardiac, and thyroid function should be checked, along with a Full Blood Count (FBC) and BMI. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.

      Once daily administration is preferred, and various preparations are available. Abrupt discontinuation of lithium increases the risk of relapse, and if lithium is to be discontinued, the dose should be reduced gradually over a period of at least 4 weeks.

      Inadequate monitoring of patients taking lithium is common, and it is often an exam hot topic. Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio, and samples should ideally be taken 12 hours after the dose. The target range for prophylaxis is 0.6–0.75 mmol/L.

      Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI and neuro symptoms.

      The severity of toxicity can be assessed using the AMDISEN rating scale.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 178 - How do the odds of excessive drinking differ between patients with liver cirrhosis...

    Incorrect

    • How do the odds of excessive drinking differ between patients with liver cirrhosis and those without cirrhosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 16

      Explanation:

      Measures of Effect in Clinical Studies

      When conducting clinical studies, we often want to know the effect of treatments of exposures on health outcomes. Measures of effect are used in randomized controlled trials (RCTs) and include the odds ratio (of), risk ratio (RR), risk difference (RD), and number needed to treat (NNT). Dichotomous (binary) outcome data are common in clinical trials, where the outcome for each participant is one of two possibilities, such as dead of alive, of clinical improvement of no improvement.

      To understand the difference between of and RR, it’s important to know the difference between risks and odds. Risk is a proportion that describes the probability of a health outcome occurring, while odds is a ratio that compares the probability of an event occurring to the probability of it not occurring. Absolute risk is the basic risk, while risk difference is the difference between the absolute risk of an event in the intervention group and the absolute risk in the control group. Relative risk is the ratio of risk in the intervention group to the risk in the control group.

      The number needed to treat (NNT) is the number of patients who need to be treated for one to benefit. Odds are calculated by dividing the number of times an event happens by the number of times it does not happen. The odds ratio is the odds of an outcome given a particular exposure versus the odds of an outcome in the absence of the exposure. It is commonly used in case-control studies and can also be used in cross-sectional and cohort study designs. An odds ratio of 1 indicates no difference in risk between the two groups, while an odds ratio >1 indicates an increased risk and an odds ratio <1 indicates a reduced risk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 179 - A 72-year-old man comes to you with complaints of feeling low and having...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man comes to you with complaints of feeling low and having trouble sleeping. Upon further discussion and using a validated symptom measure, you diagnose him with moderate depression. He has a history of cerebrovascular disease and is currently on aspirin, ramipril, and simvastatin. What would be the best course of action in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Start citalopram + lansoprazole

      Explanation:

      SSRI and Bleeding Risk: Management Strategies

      SSRIs have been linked to an increased risk of bleeding, particularly in vulnerable populations such as the elderly, those with a history of bleeding, and those taking medications that predispose them to bleeding. The risk of bleeding is further elevated in patients with comorbidities such as liver of renal disease, smoking, and alcohol of drug misuse.

      To manage this risk, the Maudsley recommends avoiding SSRIs in patients receiving NSAIDs, aspirin, of oral anticoagulants, of those with a history of cerebral of GI bleeds. If SSRI use cannot be avoided, close monitoring and prescription of gastroprotective proton pump inhibitors are recommended. The degree of serotonin reuptake inhibition varies among antidepressants, with some having weaker of no inhibition, which may be associated with a lower risk of bleeding.

      NICE recommends caution when using SSRIs in patients taking aspirin and suggests considering alternative antidepressants such as trazodone, mianserin, of reboxetine. In patients taking warfarin of heparin, SSRIs are not recommended, but mirtazapine may be considered with caution.

      Overall, healthcare providers should carefully weigh the risks and benefits of SSRI use in patients at risk of bleeding and consider alternative antidepressants of gastroprotective measures when appropriate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 180 - What is the most common factor associated with suicide? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most common factor associated with suicide?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Depression

      Explanation:

      Suicide Risk Factors

      Risk factors for completed suicide are numerous and include various demographic, social, and psychological factors. Men are at a higher risk than women, with the risk peaking at age 45 for men and age 55 for women. Being unmarried and unemployed are also risk factors. Concurrent mental disorders are present in about 90% of people who commit suicide, with depression being the most commonly associated disorder. Previous suicide attempts and substance misuse are also significant risk factors. Co-existing serious medical conditions and personality factors such as rigid thinking, pessimism, and perfectionism also increase the risk of suicide. It is important to identify and address these risk factors in order to prevent suicide.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 181 - A woman in her mid-thirties experiencing moderate depression is resistant to taking antidepressants...

    Incorrect

    • A woman in her mid-thirties experiencing moderate depression is resistant to taking antidepressants but interested in a therapy that involves talking. What characteristic indicates that she may be a good candidate for brief psychodynamic psychotherapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: There is a clearly defined psychodynamic focus

      Explanation:

      Brief psychodynamic psychotherapy is appropriate when there is a distinct and identifiable psychodynamic issue.

      Brief Psychodynamic Psychotherapy: A Time-Limited Treatment

      Brief psychodynamic psychotherapy is a type of therapy that is based on psychodynamic principles and is designed to be completed within a limited time frame, typically 10-12 sessions. This therapy is particularly effective when there is a specific focus of problem that the patient is dealing with. However, it is important that the patient is highly motivated and able to think in feeling terms for the therapy to be successful.

      There are different subtypes of brief psychodynamic psychotherapy, and some factors are considered contraindications for this type of therapy. These include serious suicide attempts, substance abuse, and marked acting out. Overall, brief psychodynamic psychotherapy can be a useful tool for addressing specific issues and helping patients achieve their therapeutic goals within a limited time frame.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychotherapy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 182 - What is a true statement about dyslexia? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about dyslexia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is more common in boys than in girls

      Explanation:

      Dyslexia is characterized by typical levels of intellectual ability. However, if there is an intellectual disability, a diagnosis of dyslexia can only be made if the challenges with reading and writing are more severe than what is typically seen with the learning disability.

      Dyslexia is a specific learning disorder that affects a person’s ability to read and process information. It is not caused by intellectual disabilities, visual of auditory impairments, of inadequate education. Dyslexia can affect both reading and writing skills, as well as the processing of information that is seen of heard. It is a lifelong condition that occurs across the range of intellectual abilities, with boys being diagnosed more often than girls. The prevalence of dyslexia is around 5-10% among school-aged children. Signs of dyslexia include poor spelling, difficulty with written information, confusion with letter order, and poor handwriting. Dyslexia is often associated with other disorders such as ADHD, conduct disorder, and oppositional defiant disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Learning Disability
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 183 - What antidepressant is suggested for women who are taking tamoxifen? ...

    Incorrect

    • What antidepressant is suggested for women who are taking tamoxifen?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Venlafaxine

      Explanation:

      It is recommended to steer clear of fluoxetine, paroxetine, and bupropion. The safety of reboxetine is unknown due to lack of research. Venlafaxine is considered a safe option.

      Tamoxifen and Antidepressant Interactions

      Tamoxifen is a medication used to treat breast cancer by reducing relapse rates and increasing overall survival. It works by antagonizing estrogen in the breast, with its anti-estrogen affinity depending on its primary metabolite, endoxifen. However, tamoxifen is metabolized to endoxifen through the liver enzyme CYP2D6, and any drug that inhibits this enzyme can reduce the conversion of tamoxifen to endoxifen.

      Women taking tamoxifen for breast cancer treatment of prevention may also take antidepressants for psychiatric disorders of hot flushes. Some antidepressants have been found to inhibit the metabolism of tamoxifen to its more active metabolites by the CYP2D6 enzyme, thereby decreasing its anticancer effect. Strong CYP2D6 inhibitors include paroxetine, fluoxetine, bupropion, and duloxetine, while moderate inhibitors include sertraline, escitalopram, and doxepin, and venlafaxine is a weak inhibitor.

      Therefore, it is important for healthcare providers to consider potential drug interactions when prescribing antidepressants to women taking tamoxifen for breast cancer treatment of prevention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 184 - What is a true statement about frontotemporal lobar degeneration? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about frontotemporal lobar degeneration?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Behavioural variant is the most common subtype of frontotemporal lobar degeneration

      Explanation:

      Frontotemporal Lobar Degeneration

      Frontotemporal lobar degeneration (FTLD) is a group of neurodegenerative disorders that involve the atrophy of the frontal and temporal lobes. The disease is characterized by progressive dysfunction in executive functioning, behavior, and language, and can mimic psychiatric disorders due to its prominent behavioral features. FTLD is the third most common form of dementia across all age groups and a leading type of early-onset dementia.

      The disease has common features such as onset before 65, insidious onset, relatively preserved memory and visuospatial skills, personality change, and social conduct problems. There are three recognized subtypes of FTLD: behavioral-variant (bvFTD), language variant – primary progressive aphasia (PPA), and the language variant is further subdivided into semantic variant PPA (aka semantic dementia) and non-fluent agrammatic variant PPA (nfvPPA).

      As the disease progresses, the symptoms of the three clinical variants can converge, as an initially focal degeneration becomes more diffuse and spreads to affect large regions in the frontal and temporal lobes. The key differences between the subtypes are summarized in the table provided. The bvFTD subtype is characterized by poor personal and social decorum, disinhibition, poor judgment and problem-solving, apathy, compulsive/perseverative behavior, hyperorality of dietary changes, and loss of empathy. The nfvPPA subtype is characterized by slow/slurred speech, decreased word output and phrase length, word-finding difficulties, apraxia of speech, and spared single-word comprehension. The svPPA subtype is characterized by intact speech fluency, word-finding difficulties (anomia), impaired single-word comprehension, repetitive speech, and reduced word comprehension.

      In conclusion, FTLD is a progressive, heterogeneous, neurodegenerative disorder that affects the frontal and temporal lobes. The disease is characterized by dysfunction in executive functioning, behavior, and language, and can mimic psychiatric disorders due to its prominent behavioral features. There are three recognized subtypes of FTLD, and as the disease progresses, the symptoms of the three clinical variants can converge.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 185 - You are asked to evaluate a 35 year-old man on the medical ward...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to evaluate a 35 year-old man on the medical ward with HIV. He has just recuperated from an episode of mania and has a history of bipolar disorder. You observe that he recently visited the HIV specialist in clinic and had an eGFR of 45. What would be the most suitable medication for the extended management of this man's bipolar disorder?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Valproate

      Explanation:

      The individual has bipolar disorder and needs ongoing treatment. The recommended initial medications are Lithium and Valproate. However, due to the person’s eGFR of 45, which indicates stage 3a CKD, Lithium is not a viable option. It is important to note that an eGFR < 90 in a working age adult is a strong indication of renal impairment, although a detailed understanding of CKD is not necessary for the MRCPsych exams. Therefore, Valproate is the preferred treatment in this case. HIV and Mental Health: Understanding the Relationship and Treatment Options Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is a blood-borne virus that causes cellular immune deficiency, resulting in a decrease in the number of CD4+ T-cells. People with severe mental illness are at increased risk of contracting and transmitting HIV, and the prevalence of HIV infection among them is higher than in the general population. Antiretroviral drugs are used to manage HIV, but they are not curative. Depression is the most common mental disorder in the HIV population, and it can result from HIV of the psycho-social consequences of having the condition. HIV-associated neurocognitive disorder (HAND) is the umbrella term for the spectrum of neurocognitive impairment induced by HIV, ranging from mild impairment through to dementia. Poor episodic memory is the most frequently reported cognitive difficulty in HIV-positive individuals. Treatment options for mental health issues in people with HIV include atypical antipsychotics for psychosis, SSRIs for depression and anxiety, valproate for bipolar disorder, and antiretroviral therapy for HAND. It is important to avoid benzodiazepines for delirium and MAOIs for depression. Understanding the relationship between HIV and mental health and providing appropriate treatment options can improve the quality of life for people living with HIV.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 186 - What is the primary cause for young children being referred to mental health...

    Incorrect

    • What is the primary cause for young children being referred to mental health services in England?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Conduct disorder

      Explanation:

      Disruptive Behaviour of Dissocial Disorders

      Conduct disorders are the most common reason for referral of young children to mental health services. These disorders are characterized by a repetitive and persistent pattern of antisocial, aggressive, of defiant conduct that goes beyond ordinary childish mischief of adolescent rebelliousness. Oppositional defiant disorder (ODD) shares some negative attributes but in a more limited fashion.

      ICD-11 terms the disorder as ‘Conduct-dissocial disorder’, while DSM-5 recognizes three separate conditions related to emotional/behavioral problems seen in younger people: conduct disorder, oppositional defiant disorder, and intermittent explosive disorder. Conduct disorder is about poorly controlled behavior, intermittent explosive disorder is about poorly controlled emotions, and ODD is in between. Conduct disorders are further divided into childhood onset (before 10 years) and adolescent onset (10 years of older).

      The behavior pattern of conduct disorders must be persistent and recurrent, including multiple incidents of aggression towards people of animals, destruction of property, deceitfulness of theft, and serious violations of rules. The pattern of behavior must result in significant impairment in personal, family, social, educational, occupational, of other important areas of functioning.

      Oppositional defiant disorder represents a less severe form of conduct disorder, where there is an absence of more severe dissocial of aggressive acts. The behavior pattern of ODD includes persistent difficulty getting along with others, provocative, spiteful, of vindictive behavior, and extreme irritability of anger.

      The prevalence of conduct disorders increases throughout childhood and is more common in boys than girls. The most frequent comorbid problem seen with conduct disorder is hyperactivity. The conversion rate from childhood conduct disorder to adult antisocial personality disorder varies from 40 to 70% depending on the study.

      NICE recommends group parent-based training programs of parent and child training programs for children with complex needs for ages 3-11, child-focused programs for ages 9-14, and multimodal interventions with a family focus for ages 11-17. Medication is not recommended in routine practice, but risperidone can be used where other approaches fail and they are seriously aggressive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 187 - You are consulted by the healthcare team for advice on a patient who...

    Incorrect

    • You are consulted by the healthcare team for advice on a patient who is HIV positive and experiencing depression. What would be the most effective course of treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Citalopram

      Explanation:

      Citalopram is the preferred first-line treatment for depression in patients with HIV, as it has minimal impact on the cytochrome system and does not interfere with HIV medications (unlike fluoxetine). TCAs are generally not well-tolerated in this population due to severe side effects, and MAOIs are not recommended. Although other medications such as mirtazapine, trazodone, reboxetine, and bupropion have been studied, they were limited by high rates of side effects.

      HIV and Mental Health: Understanding the Relationship and Treatment Options

      Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is a blood-borne virus that causes cellular immune deficiency, resulting in a decrease in the number of CD4+ T-cells. People with severe mental illness are at increased risk of contracting and transmitting HIV, and the prevalence of HIV infection among them is higher than in the general population. Antiretroviral drugs are used to manage HIV, but they are not curative.

      Depression is the most common mental disorder in the HIV population, and it can result from HIV of the psycho-social consequences of having the condition. HIV-associated neurocognitive disorder (HAND) is the umbrella term for the spectrum of neurocognitive impairment induced by HIV, ranging from mild impairment through to dementia. Poor episodic memory is the most frequently reported cognitive difficulty in HIV-positive individuals.

      Treatment options for mental health issues in people with HIV include atypical antipsychotics for psychosis, SSRIs for depression and anxiety, valproate for bipolar disorder, and antiretroviral therapy for HAND. It is important to avoid benzodiazepines for delirium and MAOIs for depression. Understanding the relationship between HIV and mental health and providing appropriate treatment options can improve the quality of life for people living with HIV.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 188 - What is the level of CPA designed for individuals with high-risk and complex...

    Incorrect

    • What is the level of CPA designed for individuals with high-risk and complex needs?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Enhanced

      Explanation:

      The Care Program Approach (CPA) was implemented in 1991 to enhance community care for individuals with severe mental illness. The CPA comprises four primary components, including assessment, a care plan, a Care Coordinator (formerly known as a Key Worker), and regular review. There are two levels of CPA, namely standard and enhanced. Standard care plans are suitable for individuals who require minimal input from a single agency and pose minimal risk to themselves of others. Enhanced care plans are designed for individuals with complex needs who require collaboration among multiple agencies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Organisation And Delivery Of Psychiatric Services
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 189 - What strategies are effective in managing obsessive compulsive disorder? ...

    Incorrect

    • What strategies are effective in managing obsessive compulsive disorder?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Exposure and response prevention

      Explanation:

      Maudsley Guidelines

      First choice: SSRI of clomipramine (SSRI preferred due to tolerability issues with clomipramine)

      Second line:

      – SSRI + antipsychotic
      – Citalopram + clomipramine
      – Acetylcysteine + (SSRI of clomipramine)
      – Lamotrigine + SSRI
      – Topiramate + SSRI

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 190 - You are asked to see a 70-year-old male who is an inpatient detained...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to see a 70-year-old male who is an inpatient detained under section 3 of the Mental Health Act on a geriatric unit. Nursing staff are concerned as he fell earlier, and has been refusing all medication. He has a diagnosis of dementia, and agitation. His blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg. He has lost 2 kg in the past week, and on examination is unable to stand without assistance. You arrange several urgent investigations.
      Which of the following results would be most alarming?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urea 20

      Explanation:

      1. Dehydration can lead to medical crisis and urgent medical assessment is necessary.
      2. Oral replacement is preferable, but parenteral fluids may be required if the patient is refusing to drink.
      3. A white cell count of >4 and neutrophils >1.5 is not normally a cause for concern.
      4. Chronic low potassium levels (down to 1.5) in purging are common, but acute changes are more dangerous.
      5. An albumin level of 36 is not normally a cause for concern.
      6. Glucose levels of 3.0 may be concerning, but immediate action is required if levels drop below 2.5.
      7. The Mental Health Act may be used to provide treatment for anorexia nervosa.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 191 - What is a true statement about the epidemiology of schizophrenia? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about the epidemiology of schizophrenia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: People with schizophrenia have an increased risk of premature death compared to the general population

      Explanation:

      Schizophrenia Epidemiology

      Prevalence:
      – In England, the estimated annual prevalence for psychotic disorders (mostly schizophrenia) is around 0.4%.
      – Internationally, the estimated annual prevalence for psychotic disorders is around 0.33%.
      – The estimated lifetime prevalence for psychotic disorders in England is approximately 0.63% at age 43, consistent with the typically reported 1% prevalence over the life course.
      – Internationally, the estimated lifetime prevalence for psychotic disorders is around 0.48%.

      Incidence:
      – In England, the pooled incidence rate for non-affective psychosis (mostly schizophrenia) is estimated to be 15.2 per 100,000 years.
      – Internationally, the incidence of schizophrenia is about 0.20/1000/year.

      Gender:
      – The male to female ratio is 1:1.

      Course and Prognosis:
      – Long-term follow-up studies suggest that after 5 years of illness, one quarter of people with schizophrenia recover completely, and for most people, the condition gradually improves over their lifetime.
      – Schizophrenia has a worse prognosis with onset in childhood of adolescence than with onset in adult life.
      – Younger age of onset predicts a worse outcome.
      – Failure to comply with treatment is a strong predictor of relapse.
      – Over a 2-year period, one-third of patients with schizophrenia showed a benign course, and two-thirds either relapsed of failed to recover.
      – People with schizophrenia have a 2-3 fold increased risk of premature death.

      Winter Births:
      – Winter births are associated with an increased risk of schizophrenia.

      Urbanicity:
      – There is a higher incidence of schizophrenia associated with urbanicity.

      Migration:
      – There is a higher incidence of schizophrenia associated with migration.

      Class:
      – There is a higher prevalence of schizophrenia among lower socioeconomic classes.

      Learning Disability:
      – Prevalence rates for schizophrenia in people with learning disabilities are approximately three times greater than for the general population.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 192 - What is the primary benefit of conducting non-inferiority trials in the evaluation of...

    Incorrect

    • What is the primary benefit of conducting non-inferiority trials in the evaluation of a new medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Small sample size is required

      Explanation:

      Study Designs for New Drugs: Options and Considerations

      When launching a new drug, there are various study design options available. One common approach is a placebo-controlled trial, which can provide strong evidence but may be deemed unethical if established treatments are available. Additionally, it does not allow for a comparison with standard treatments. Therefore, statisticians must decide whether the trial aims to demonstrate superiority, equivalence, of non-inferiority to an existing treatment.

      Superiority trials may seem like the obvious choice, but they require a large sample size to show a significant benefit over an existing treatment. Equivalence trials define an equivalence margin on a specified outcome, and if the confidence interval of the difference between the two drugs falls within this margin, the drugs are assumed to have a similar effect. Non-inferiority trials are similar to equivalence trials, but only the lower confidence interval needs to fall within the equivalence margin. These trials require smaller sample sizes, and once a drug has been shown to be non-inferior, larger studies may be conducted to demonstrate superiority.

      It is important to note that drug companies may not necessarily aim to show superiority over an existing product. If they can demonstrate that their product is equivalent of even non-inferior, they may compete on price of convenience. Overall, the choice of study design depends on various factors, including ethical considerations, sample size, and the desired outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 193 - Which of the options below could indicate the presence of narcissistic personality disorder?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the options below could indicate the presence of narcissistic personality disorder?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Need for constant attention and admiration

      Explanation:

      Individuals with both narcissistic personality disorder and obsessive-compulsive personality disorder may exhibit a commitment to perfectionism and a belief that others cannot perform as well. However, those with narcissistic personality disorder are more likely to believe that they have already achieved perfection, while those with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder may be self-critical. Borderline personality disorder is characterized by a needy interactive style and an unstable self-image. In contrast, individuals with antisocial and narcissistic personality disorders share traits such as being tough-minded, glib, superficial, exploitative, and unempathic. However, it is important to note that narcissistic personality disorder does not necessarily involve impulsivity, aggression, and deceit.

      Personality Disorder (Narcissistic)

      Narcissistic personality disorder is a mental illness characterized by individuals having an exaggerated sense of their own importance, an intense need for excessive attention and admiration, troubled relationships, and a lack of empathy towards others. The DSM-5 diagnostic manual outlines the criteria for this disorder, which includes a pervasive pattern of grandiosity, a need for admiration, and a lack of empathy. To be diagnosed with this disorder, an individual must exhibit at least five of the following traits: a grandiose sense of self-importance, preoccupation with fantasies of unlimited success, belief in being special and unique, excessive admiration requirements, a sense of entitlement, interpersonal exploitation, lack of empathy, envy towards others, and arrogant of haughty behaviors. While the previous version of the ICD included narcissistic personality disorder, the ICD-11 does not have a specific reference to this condition, but it can be coded under the category of general personality disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 194 - A 45-year-old male complains of headaches, weakness in his arms and legs, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old male complains of headaches, weakness in his arms and legs, and body aches. He reports feeling like his condition is deteriorating. He has no significant medical history except for a surgery for appendicitis 10 years ago.
      Upon examination, his neurological and musculoskeletal systems appear normal. There are no alarming symptoms associated with his headaches. His primary care physician orders a complete blood count, which returns with normal results.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Somatoform disorder

      Explanation:

      This young woman is experiencing physical symptoms, but there is no evidence of any underlying disease. This could be a manifestation of somatisation/somatoform disorder, where patients develop various symptoms such as pain, memory problems, visual problems, of neurological issues without any apparent cause. Often, there is an underlying psychological distress that may lead to depression of anxiety. It is possible that this women’s history, such as her miscarriage, may reveal underlying depression. It is important to differentiate somatisation disorder from hypochondriasis, where patients believe they have a severe disorder, and Münchhausen syndrome, where patients mimic a particular disorder to gain attention of sympathy. To diagnose Münchhausen syndrome, there must be evidence that the patient is causing their own physical illness. Malingering is another condition where patients purposefully generate symptoms for personal gain, such as time off work. In somatisation disorder, patients may have no clinical evidence of illness of injury, but they believe they are experiencing symptoms and are often quite worried about it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 195 - In the management of acute mania in adult patients, NICE recommends which of...

    Incorrect

    • In the management of acute mania in adult patients, NICE recommends which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Risperidone

      Explanation:

      Bipolar Disorder: Diagnosis and Management

      Bipolar disorder is a lifelong condition characterized by episodes of mania or hypomania and episodes of depressed mood. The peak age of onset is 15-19 years, and the lifetime prevalence of bipolar I disorders is estimated to be around 2.1%. The diagnosis of bipolar disorder is based on the presence of manic or hypomanic episodes, which are characterized by elevated of expansive mood, rapid speech, and increased activity of energy. Psychotic symptoms, such as delusions and hallucinations, may also be present.

      Bipolar depression differs from unipolar depression in several ways, including more rapid onset, more frequent episodes, and shorter duration. Rapid cycling is a qualifier that can be applied to bipolar I of bipolar II disorder and is defined as the presence of at least four mood episodes in the previous 12 months that meet the criteria for a manic, hypomanic, of major depressive episode.

      The management of bipolar disorder involves acute and long-term interventions. Acute management of mania or hypomania may involve stopping antidepressants and offering antipsychotics of mood stabilizers. Long-term management may involve psychological interventions and pharmacological treatments such as lithium, valproate, of olanzapine.

      It is important to note that valproate should not be offered to women of girls of childbearing potential for long-term bipolar disorder unless other options are ineffective of not tolerated and a pregnancy prevention program is in place. Aripiprazole is recommended as an option for treating moderate to severe manic episodes in adolescents with bipolar I disorder.

      Overall, the diagnosis and management of bipolar disorder require a comprehensive approach that takes into account the individual’s symptoms, history, and preferences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 196 - What is the relationship between criminal behavior and individuals with learning disabilities (LD)?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the relationship between criminal behavior and individuals with learning disabilities (LD)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The majority of those convicted belong to the mild and moderate LD population.

      Explanation:

      Individuals with mild to moderate LD make up the majority of those who are convicted, likely due to the smaller population of individuals with severe LD and potential underreporting within this group.

      Learning Disability and Criminality

      Learning disability (LD) is a condition that affects a person’s ability to learn and process information. In some cases, individuals with LD may also be at a higher risk of engaging in criminal behavior. When it comes to criminality and LD, there are several key points to keep in mind.

      Firstly, individuals with LD are more likely to engage in property offenses than other types of crimes. This may be due to a lack of understanding of social norms and boundaries, as well as difficulties with impulse control.

      Secondly, individuals with LD are overrepresented in sexual offenses and arson. This may be due to a lack of understanding of appropriate sexual behavior and the potential consequences of setting fires.

      Finally, it is important to note that individuals with mild LD are more likely than those with severe LD to be involved in violent crimes that involve planning. This may be due to a combination of factors, including a lack of social support and a greater ability to plan and carry out complex actions.

      Overall, it is important to recognize the potential link between LD and criminality and to provide appropriate support and interventions to help individuals with LD avoid engaging in criminal behavior.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Forensic Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 197 - How are correlation and regression related? ...

    Incorrect

    • How are correlation and regression related?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Regression allows one variable to be predicted from another variable

      Explanation:

      Stats: Correlation and Regression

      Correlation and regression are related but not interchangeable terms. Correlation is used to test for association between variables, while regression is used to predict values of dependent variables from independent variables. Correlation can be linear, non-linear, of non-existent, and can be strong, moderate, of weak. The strength of a linear relationship is measured by the correlation coefficient, which can be positive of negative and ranges from very weak to very strong. However, the interpretation of a correlation coefficient depends on the context and purposes. Correlation can suggest association but cannot prove of disprove causation. Linear regression, on the other hand, can be used to predict how much one variable changes when a second variable is changed. Scatter graphs are used in correlation and regression analyses to visually determine if variables are associated and to detect outliers. When constructing a scatter graph, the dependent variable is typically placed on the vertical axis and the independent variable on the horizontal axis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 198 - You are asked to review a woman on a hospital ward with hemochromatosis...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to review a woman on a hospital ward with hemochromatosis who has been observed to be low in mood. On review of her blood results you note significant hepatic impairment. You history and examination confirms that she is depressed. Which of the following medications would be indicated to manage her depression?:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Paroxetine

      Explanation:

      Haemochromatosis is a genetic condition that causes a gradual accumulation of iron in the body over time. If left untreated, this excess iron can be deposited in organs like the liver and heart, potentially leading to organ failure. Treatment typically involves phlebotomy, which removes excess iron from the body and helps maintain healthy iron levels.

      Hepatic Impairment: Recommended Drugs

      Patients with hepatic impairment may experience reduced ability to metabolize drugs, toxicity, enhanced dose-related side effects, reduced ability to synthesize plasma proteins, and elevated levels of drugs subject to first-pass metabolism due to reduced hepatic blood flow. The Maudsley Guidelines 14th Ed recommends the following drugs for patients with hepatic impairment:

      Antipsychotics: Paliperidone (if depot required), Amisulpride, Sulpiride

      Antidepressants: Sertraline, Citalopram, Paroxetine, Vortioxetine (avoid TCA and MAOI)

      Mood stabilizers: Lithium

      Sedatives: Lorazepam, Oxazepam, Temazepam, Zopiclone 3.75mg (with care)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 199 - What is the most appropriate option for augmentation in cases of schizophrenia that...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most appropriate option for augmentation in cases of schizophrenia that are resistant to clozapine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amisulpride

      Explanation:

      Amisulpride is the only option with documented evidence supporting its effectiveness as a clozapine augmentation treatment.

      Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 200 - A 25-year-old woman who gave birth 3 days ago comes in for a...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman who gave birth 3 days ago comes in for a consultation as she is worried about her mood. She is experiencing trouble sleeping and feels generally anxious and weepy. Since giving birth, she has also noticed herself being short-tempered with her partner. This is her first pregnancy, she is not nursing, and there is no history of mental health issues in her medical history. What is the best course of action for managing her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Explanation and reassurance

      Explanation:

      It is common for women to experience the baby-blues, which affects approximately two-thirds of them. Although lack of sleep can be a symptom of depression, it is a normal occurrence for new mothers.

      Perinatal Depression, Baby Blues, and Postpartum Depression

      Perinatal depression, also known as postpartum depression, is a common mood disorder experienced by new mothers after childbirth. The term baby blues is used to describe the emotional lability that some mothers experience during the first week after childbirth, which usually resolves by day 10 without treatment. The prevalence of baby blues is around 40%. Postpartum depression, on the other hand, refers to depression that occurs after childbirth. While neither DSM-5 nor ICD-11 specifically mention postpartum depression, both diagnostic systems offer categories that encompass depression during pregnancy of in the weeks following delivery. The prevalence of postpartum depression is approximately 10-15%.

      Various factors have been shown to increase the risk of postnatal depression, including youth, marital and family conflict, lack of social support, anxiety and depression during pregnancy, substance misuse, previous pregnancy loss, ambivalence about the current pregnancy, and frequent antenatal admissions to a maternity hospital. However, obstetric factors such as length of labor, assisted delivery, of separation of the mother from the baby in the Special Care Baby Unit do not seem to influence the development of postnatal depression. Additionally, social class does not appear to be associated with postnatal depression.

      Puerperal psychosis, along with severe depression, is thought to be mainly caused by biological factors, while psychosocial factors are most important in the milder postnatal depressive illnesses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Psychotherapy (6/6) 100%
Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice (10/12) 83%
Substance Misuse/Addictions (7/7) 100%
Old Age Psychiatry (9/10) 90%
General Adult Psychiatry (27/32) 84%
Forensic Psychiatry (10/14) 71%
Child And Adolescent Psychiatry (5/7) 71%
Organisation And Delivery Of Psychiatric Services (0/1) 0%
Learning Disability (2/2) 100%
Passmed