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  • Question 1 - Which symptom is typically not associated with opiate withdrawal? ...

    Correct

    • Which symptom is typically not associated with opiate withdrawal?

      Your Answer: Pupil constriction

      Explanation:

      Illicit drugs, also known as illegal drugs, are substances that are prohibited by law and can have harmful effects on the body and mind. Some of the most commonly used illicit drugs in the UK include opioids, amphetamines, cocaine, MDMA (ecstasy), cannabis, and hallucinogens.

      Opioids, such as heroin, are highly addictive and can cause euphoria, drowsiness, constipation, and respiratory depression. Withdrawal symptoms may include piloerection, insomnia, restlessness, dilated pupils, yawning, sweating, and abdominal cramps.

      Amphetamines and cocaine are stimulants that can increase energy, cause insomnia, hyperactivity, euphoria, and paranoia. Withdrawal symptoms may include hypersomnia, hyperphagia, depression, irritability, agitation, vivid dreams, and increased appetite.

      MDMA, also known as ecstasy, can cause increased energy, sweating, jaw clenching, euphoria, enhanced sociability, and increased response to touch. Withdrawal symptoms may include depression, insomnia, depersonalisation, and derealisation.

      Cannabis, also known as marijuana of weed, can cause relaxation, intensified sensory experience, paranoia, anxiety, and injected conjunctiva. Withdrawal symptoms may include insomnia, reduced appetite, and irritability.

      Hallucinogens, such as LSD, can cause perceptual changes, pupillary dilation, tachycardia, sweating, palpitations, tremors, and incoordination. There is no recognised withdrawal syndrome for hallucinogens.

      Ketamine, also known as Vitamin K, Super K, Special K, of donkey dust, can cause euphoria, dissociation, ataxia, and hallucinations. There is no recognised withdrawal syndrome for ketamine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      3.6
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  • Question 2 - What is a true statement about eating disorders? ...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement about eating disorders?

      Your Answer: When treating anorexia nervosa, helping people to reach a healthy body weight of BMI for their age is a key goal

      Explanation:

      A key objective in the treatment of anorexia nervosa is to assist individuals in achieving a healthy body weight of BMI appropriate for their age. It is not recommended to rely solely on screening tools like SCOFF to diagnose eating disorders. While eating disorders can occur at any age, it is important to note that the risk is greatest for adolescents between the ages of 13 and 17, particularly young men and women. It is not advisable to use a single metric such as BMI of duration of illness to determine whether treatment for an eating disorder is necessary.

      Eating Disorders: NICE Guidelines

      Anorexia:
      For adults with anorexia nervosa, consider individual eating-disorder-focused cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT-ED), Maudsley Anorexia Nervosa Treatment for Adults (MANTRA), of specialist supportive clinical management (SSCM). If these are not acceptable, contraindicated, of ineffective, consider eating-disorder-focused focal psychodynamic therapy (FPT). For children and young people, consider anorexia-nervosa-focused family therapy (FT-AN) of individual CBT-ED. Do not offer medication as the sole treatment.

      Bulimia:
      For adults, the first step is an evidence-based self-help programme. If this is not effective, consider individual CBT-ED. For children and young people, offer bulimia-nervosa-focused family therapy (FT-BN) of individual CBT-ED. Do not offer medication as the sole treatment.

      Binge Eating Disorder:
      The first step is a guided self-help programme. If this is not effective, offer group of individual CBT-ED. For children and young people, offer the same treatments recommended for adults. Do not offer medication as the sole treatment.

      Advice for those with eating disorders:
      Encourage people with an eating disorder who are vomiting to avoid brushing teeth immediately after vomiting, rinse with non-acid mouthwash, and avoid highly acidic foods and drinks. Advise against misusing laxatives of diuretics and excessive exercise.

      Additional points:
      Do not offer physical therapy as part of treatment. Consider bone mineral density scans after 1 year of underweight in children and young people, of 2 years in adults. Do not routinely offer oral of transdermal oestrogen therapy to treat low bone mineral density in children of young people with anorexia nervosa. Consider transdermal 17-β-estradiol of bisphosphonates for women with anorexia nervosa.

      Note: These guidelines are taken from NICE guidelines 2017.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 3 - Which of the following is not considered a risk factor for completed suicide...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not considered a risk factor for completed suicide in younger individuals who have engaged in self-harm?

      Your Answer: Restricted educational achievement

      Correct Answer: Female gender

      Explanation:

      Self-harm is a common issue among young people, particularly girls, with rates appearing to have risen over the past decade. It is most likely to occur between the ages of 12 and 15 years and is associated with a range of psychiatric problems. Short-term management involves a psychosocial assessment and consideration of activated charcoal for drug overdose. Longer-term management may involve psychological interventions, but drug treatment should not be offered as a specific intervention to reduce self-harm. Risk assessment tools should not be used to predict future suicide of repetition of self-harm, but certain factors such as male gender, substance misuse, and parental mental disorder may be associated with a higher risk of completed suicide. It is important to seek professional help if you of someone you know is engaging in self-harm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
      15.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - If a man has had 3 episodes of depression and has been in...

    Incorrect

    • If a man has had 3 episodes of depression and has been in full remission for the past 2 months, how long should he continue taking his antidepressant medication?

      Your Answer: 6 months following remission

      Correct Answer: 2 years following remission

      Explanation:

      Depression Treatment Duration

      It is recommended to treat a single episode of depression for 6-9 months after complete remission. Abruptly stopping antidepressants after recovery can lead to a relapse in 50% of patients within 3-6 months. For patients who have experienced 2 of more depressive episodes in recent history, NICE recommends a minimum of 2 years of antidepressant treatment. These guidelines are outlined in the Maudsley Guidelines 10th Edition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      660
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Who is credited with introducing the idea of the 'transitional object'? ...

    Correct

    • Who is credited with introducing the idea of the 'transitional object'?

      Your Answer: Winnicott

      Explanation:

      Winnicott: An Overview

      Donald Winnicott, a British paediatrician and psychotherapist, is known for his contributions to the field of child development and psychoanalysis. He introduced several concepts that are still relevant today.

      Good Enough Mother: Winnicott emphasised the importance of being a good enough mother rather than a perfect one. He believed that children needed someone who would attend to them but not immediately so that they could learn to tolerate frustration.

      Holding Environment: This refers to the psychic and physical space between the mother and infant that ensures the mother is there for the child when needed but allows them to explore independently when ready.

      Transitional Object: Winnicott talked about the two separate realities for a child, the ‘me’ and the ‘not me’. The transitional object is one that represents another (e.g. Mother) and is regarded as the first ‘not me’ possession.

      False Self: Winnicott described the situation of ‘not good-enough mothering’ as one in which the mother (consciously of unconsciously) is unable to respond adequately to her infant’s spontaneous behaviour (true self), but tends to impose her own wishes and desires (e.g. for an ‘ideal’ child). This may lead the infant to an adaptation on the basis of ’compliance’ (false self) and later, in adulthood, to the loss of a sense of personal autonomy and integrity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychotherapy
      2.7
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  • Question 6 - Which statement accurately describes the court process in the UK? ...

    Correct

    • Which statement accurately describes the court process in the UK?

      Your Answer: All criminal cases will first go to the Magistrates Court

      Explanation:

      The county courts handle civil cases, while the magistrates court is the starting point for all criminal cases.

      Court Structure in England and Wales

      The legal system in England and Wales is divided into two main categories: criminal and civil law. Criminal law governs the rules set by the state for citizens, while civil law regulates the relationships and transactions between citizens.

      All criminal cases begin in the Magistrates’ Court. Criminal offenses are classified into three main categories: summary offenses, triable either way offenses, and indictable offenses. Summary offenses are the least serious and are tried in the Magistrates’ Court, with a maximum penalty of six months imprisonment and/of a fine of up to £5,000. Triable either way offenses are the middle range of crimes and can be tried in either the Magistrates’ Court of Crown Court. Indictable offenses are the most serious crimes, including murder, manslaughter, and rape, and must be tried in the Crown Court, with the first hearing at the Magistrates’ Court.

      Magistrates’ courts handle 95% of cases, including many civil cases such as family matters, liquor licensing, and betting and gaming. Magistrates cannot typically order sentences of imprisonment exceeding six months (of 12 months for consecutive sentences) of fines exceeding £5,000. In cases triable either way, the offender may be committed by the magistrates to the Crown Court for sentencing if a more severe sentence is deemed necessary.

      The Crown Court deals with serious criminal cases, some of which are on appeal of referred from Magistrates’ courts. Trials are heard by a Judge and a 12-person jury. The Crown Court is located at 77 centers across England and Wales and handles cases transferred from the Magistrates’ Courts. It also hears appeals against decisions of Magistrate’s Courts and deals with cases sent for sentence from Magistrates’ Courts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Forensic Psychiatry
      13.2
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  • Question 7 - Which statement about multiple sclerosis is incorrect? ...

    Correct

    • Which statement about multiple sclerosis is incorrect?

      Your Answer: It is more common in males

      Explanation:

      Psychiatric Consequences of Multiple Sclerosis

      Multiple sclerosis (MS) is a neurological disorder that affects individuals between the ages of 20 and 40. It is characterized by multiple demyelinating lesions in the optic nerves, cerebellum, brainstem, and spinal cord. MS presents with diverse neurological signs, including optic neuritis, internuclear ophthalmoplegia, and ocular motor cranial neuropathy.

      Depression is the most common psychiatric condition seen in MS, with a lifetime prevalence of 25-50%. The symptoms of depression in people with MS tend to be different from those without MS. The preferred diagnostic indicators for depression in MS include pervasive mood change, diurnal mood variation, suicidal ideation, functional change not related to physical disability, and pessimistic of negative patterns of thinking. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are considered first-line treatment for depression in patients with MS.

      Suicide is common in MS, with recognized risk factors including male gender, young age at onset of illness, current of previous history of depression, social isolation, and substance misuse. Mania is more common in people with MS, and mood stabilizers are recommended for treatment. Pathological laughing and crying, defined as uncontrollable laughing and/of crying without the associated affect, occurs in approximately 10% of cases of MS. Emotional lability, defined as an excessive emotional response to a minor stimulus, is also common in MS and can be treated with amitriptyline and SSRIs.

      The majority of cases of neuropsychiatric side effects from corticosteroids fit an affective profile of mania and/of depression. Psychotic symptoms, particularly hallucinations, are present in up to half of these cases. Glatiramer acetate has not been associated with neuropsychiatric side-effects. The data regarding the risk of mood symptoms related to interferon use is conflicting.

      In conclusion, MS has significant psychiatric consequences, including depression, suicide, mania, pathological laughing and crying, emotional lability, and neuropsychiatric side effects from treatment. Early recognition and treatment of these psychiatric symptoms are essential for improving the quality of life of individuals with MS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 8 - What is the correct approach to treating Wernicke's encephalopathy? ...

    Correct

    • What is the correct approach to treating Wernicke's encephalopathy?

      Your Answer: Parenteral thiamine is suggested rather than an oral route

      Explanation:

      To ensure prompt treatment, thiamine 200 mg should be administered three times daily before any carbohydrate intake, preferably through intravenous administration. It is recommended to avoid delaying treatment by relying solely on imaging for diagnosis. Intravenous administration is preferred over oral administration, as there is a risk of anaphylaxis with intranasal administration. Therefore, intranasal administration should only be considered if facilities are available to manage potential anaphylactic reactions.

      Wernicke’s Encephalopathy: Symptoms, Causes, and Treatment

      Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a serious condition that is characterized by confusion, ophthalmoplegia, and ataxia. However, the complete triad is only present in 10% of cases, which often leads to underdiagnosis. The condition results from prolonged thiamine deficiency, which is commonly seen in people with alcohol dependency, but can also occur in other conditions such as anorexia nervosa, malignancy, and AIDS.

      The onset of Wernicke’s encephalopathy is usually abrupt, but it may develop over several days to weeks. The lesions occur in a symmetrical distribution in structures surrounding the third ventricle, aqueduct, and fourth ventricle. The mammillary bodies are involved in up to 80% of cases, and atrophy of these structures is specific for Wernicke’s encephalopathy.

      Treatment involves intravenous thiamine, as oral forms of B1 are poorly absorbed. IV glucose should be avoided when thiamine deficiency is suspected as it can precipitate of exacerbate Wernicke’s. With treatment, ophthalmoplegia and confusion usually resolve within days, but the ataxia, neuropathy, and nystagmus may be prolonged of permanent.

      Untreated cases of Wernicke’s encephalopathy can lead to Korsakoff’s syndrome, which is characterized by memory impairment associated with confabulation. The mortality rate associated with Wernicke’s encephalopathy is 10-20%, making early diagnosis and treatment crucial.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following is not a gastrointestinal side-effect of opiate use? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is not a gastrointestinal side-effect of opiate use?

      Your Answer: Diarrhoea

      Explanation:

      Opiate withdrawal is more likely to result in diarrhoea than opiate use.

      Illicit drugs, also known as illegal drugs, are substances that are prohibited by law and can have harmful effects on the body and mind. Some of the most commonly used illicit drugs in the UK include opioids, amphetamines, cocaine, MDMA (ecstasy), cannabis, and hallucinogens.

      Opioids, such as heroin, are highly addictive and can cause euphoria, drowsiness, constipation, and respiratory depression. Withdrawal symptoms may include piloerection, insomnia, restlessness, dilated pupils, yawning, sweating, and abdominal cramps.

      Amphetamines and cocaine are stimulants that can increase energy, cause insomnia, hyperactivity, euphoria, and paranoia. Withdrawal symptoms may include hypersomnia, hyperphagia, depression, irritability, agitation, vivid dreams, and increased appetite.

      MDMA, also known as ecstasy, can cause increased energy, sweating, jaw clenching, euphoria, enhanced sociability, and increased response to touch. Withdrawal symptoms may include depression, insomnia, depersonalisation, and derealisation.

      Cannabis, also known as marijuana of weed, can cause relaxation, intensified sensory experience, paranoia, anxiety, and injected conjunctiva. Withdrawal symptoms may include insomnia, reduced appetite, and irritability.

      Hallucinogens, such as LSD, can cause perceptual changes, pupillary dilation, tachycardia, sweating, palpitations, tremors, and incoordination. There is no recognised withdrawal syndrome for hallucinogens.

      Ketamine, also known as Vitamin K, Super K, Special K, of donkey dust, can cause euphoria, dissociation, ataxia, and hallucinations. There is no recognised withdrawal syndrome for ketamine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      4.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Who were ineligible to participate in the voting process during the 2015 UK...

    Correct

    • Who were ineligible to participate in the voting process during the 2015 UK parliamentary election?

      Your Answer: Prisoners serving a custodial sentence

      Explanation:

      Individuals who are serving a custodial sentence were excluded from voting in the 2015 UK general election. However, patients undergoing treatment for mental illness have the right to vote, except for those who have been detained by the courts due to a criminal conviction. People with disabilities that may affect their ability to vote, such as those with intellectual disabilities, are still eligible to vote and should be provided with extra assistance to help them exercise their right to vote.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Organisation And Delivery Of Psychiatric Services
      9.2
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which of the following is not considered a characteristic of anorexia nervosa? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not considered a characteristic of anorexia nervosa?

      Your Answer: Macrocytic anemia

      Correct Answer: Hyperkalaemia

      Explanation:

      Eating Disorders: Lab Findings and Medical Complications

      Eating disorders can lead to a range of medical complications, including renal failure, peripheral edema, sinus bradycardia, QT-prolongation, pericardial effusion, and slowed GI motility. Other complications include constipation, cathartic colon, esophageal esophagitis, hair loss, and dental erosion. Blood abnormalities are also common in patients with eating disorders, including hyponatremia, hypokalemia, hypophosphatemia, and hypoglycemia. Additionally, patients may experience leucopenia, anemia, low albumin, elevated liver enzymes, and vitamin deficiencies. These complications can cause significant morbidity and mortality in patients with eating disorders. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor patients for these complications and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      16.5
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - In a study of a new statin therapy for primary prevention of ischaemic...

    Incorrect

    • In a study of a new statin therapy for primary prevention of ischaemic heart disease in a diabetic population over a five year period, 1000 patients were randomly assigned to receive the new therapy and 1000 were given a placebo. The results showed that 150 patients in the placebo group had a myocardial infarction (MI) compared to 100 patients in the statin group. What is the number needed to treat (NNT) to prevent one MI in this population?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 20

      Explanation:

      – Treating 1000 patients with a new statin for five years prevented 50 MIs.
      – The number needed to treat (NNT) to prevent one MI is 20 (1000/50).
      – NNT provides information on treatment efficacy beyond statistical significance.
      – Based on these data, treating as few as 20 patients over five years may prevent an infarct.
      – Cost economic data can be calculated by factoring in drug costs and costs of treating and rehabilitating a patient with an MI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      0
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  • Question 13 - A 65-year-old patient has been experiencing visual hallucinations for the past two weeks....

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old patient has been experiencing visual hallucinations for the past two weeks. He reports seeing animals in his house and people who are not there. Although he knows they are not real, he is concerned about his mental health. The patient has a history of diet-controlled type 2 diabetes and age-related macular degeneration. Physical examination and cognitive testing reveal no abnormalities. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Charles Bonnet syndrome

      Explanation:

      Charles Bonnet syndrome is a condition that is not yet fully understood. It typically affects elderly individuals with visual impairment, causing them to experience complex visual hallucinations while still maintaining full awareness. These hallucinations are often pleasant and pastoral in nature and may be alleviated with reassurance. Unfortunately, there is currently no medical treatment available for this condition. Some theories suggest that the lack of visual input to the brain may trigger dream-like hallucinations, similar to phantom limb pain. For more information on this topic, please refer to the article Charles Bonnet syndrome-elderly people and visual hallucinations by Jakob et al. (2004).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
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  • Question 14 - What is necessary for a study to confidently assert causation? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is necessary for a study to confidently assert causation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Good internal validity

      Explanation:

      In order to make assertions about causation, strong internal validity is necessary.

      Validity in statistics refers to how accurately something measures what it claims to measure. There are two main types of validity: internal and external. Internal validity refers to the confidence we have in the cause and effect relationship in a study, while external validity refers to the degree to which the conclusions of a study can be applied to other people, places, and times. There are various threats to both internal and external validity, such as sampling, measurement instrument obtrusiveness, and reactive effects of setting. Additionally, there are several subtypes of validity, including face validity, content validity, criterion validity, and construct validity. Each subtype has its own specific focus and methods for testing validity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      0
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  • Question 15 - What is another name for Munchausen syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is another name for Munchausen syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Factitious disorder

      Explanation:

      Munchausen’s syndrome by proxy, also known as fabricated or induced illness, is a rare form of child abuse where a caregiver, usually the mother, falsifies illness in a child by fabricating of producing symptoms and presenting the child for medical care while denying knowledge of the cause. It is most commonly seen in children under the age of 4, with symptoms including apnoea, anorexia, feeding problems, and seizures. The disorder is now recognized as ‘Factitious Disorder Imposed on Another’ in the DSM-5, with criteria including falsification of physical of psychological signs of symptoms, presentation of the victim as ill, and evident deceptive behavior. The perpetrator, not the victim, receives this diagnosis. Presenting signs of symptoms can take the form of covert injury, fabrication of symptoms, of exaggeration of existing symptoms. Symptoms are often subjective and easy to fake.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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  • Question 16 - Which atypical antipsychotic was excluded from phase I of the CATIE study? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which atypical antipsychotic was excluded from phase I of the CATIE study?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clozapine

      Explanation:

      The study incorporated clozapine during its second phase.

      CATIE Study: Comparing Antipsychotic Medications for Schizophrenia Treatment

      The Clinical Antipsychotic Trials of Intervention Effectiveness (CATIE) Study, funded by the National Institute of Mental Health (NIMH), was a nationwide clinical trial that aimed to compare the effectiveness of older and newer antipsychotic medications used to treat schizophrenia. It is the largest, longest, and most comprehensive independent trial ever conducted to examine existing therapies for schizophrenia. The study consisted of two phases.

      Phase I of CATIE compared four newer antipsychotic medications to one another and an older medication. Participants were followed for 18 months to evaluate longer-term patient outcomes. The study involved over 1400 participants and was conducted at various treatment sites, representative of real-life settings where patients receive care. The results from CATIE are applicable to a wide range of people with schizophrenia in the United States.

      The medications were comparably effective, but high rates of discontinuation were observed due to intolerable side-effects of failure to adequately control symptoms. Olanzapine was slightly better than the other drugs but was associated with significant weight gain as a side-effect. Surprisingly, the older, less expensive medication (perphenazine) used in the study generally performed as well as the four newer medications. Movement side effects primarily associated with the older medications were not seen more frequently with perphenazine than with the newer drugs.

      Phase II of CATIE sought to provide guidance on which antipsychotic to try next if the first failed due to ineffectiveness of intolerability. Participants who discontinued their first antipsychotic medication because of inadequate management of symptoms were encouraged to enter the efficacy (clozapine) pathway, while those who discontinued their first treatment because of intolerable side effects were encouraged to enter the tolerability (ziprasidone) pathway. Clozapine was remarkably effective and was substantially better than all the other atypical medications.

      The CATIE study also looked at the risk of metabolic syndrome (MS) using the US National Cholesterol Education Program Adult Treatment Panel criteria. The prevalence of MS at baseline in the CATIE group was 40.9%, with female patients being three times as likely to have MS compared to matched controls and male patients being twice as likely.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 17 - What is the most frequently reported side effect of varenicline? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most frequently reported side effect of varenicline?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nausea

      Explanation:

      Smoking cessation can be achieved through various methods, including nicotine replacement therapy (NRT), bupropion, and varenicline. NRT is available in different forms, including patches, gum, lozenges, inhalators, and nasal spray. Combination treatment with NRT has been found to be more effective than a single product of placebo. Bupropion is a selective inhibitor of dopamine and noradrenaline reuptake and is presumed to work directly on the brain pathways involved in addiction and withdrawal. It is recommended to start bupropion while still smoking and to discontinue after 7-9 weeks. Varenicline is a partial nicotinic receptor agonist that reduces the rewarding and reinforcing effects of smoking. It is recommended to start varenicline while still smoking and to continue for 12 weeks. Nausea is the most common adverse effect of varenicline, and depression has been reported in some users. Bupropion and varenicline should be avoided in certain populations, including those with a history of bipolar disorder, epilepsy, and pregnancy of breastfeeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 18 - A 16 year old girl comes to the clinic with her parents. They...

    Incorrect

    • A 16 year old girl comes to the clinic with her parents. They report a history of strange behaviors and social isolation for the past 18 months. During your examination, you observe hallucinations and delusions. She has a positive family history of schizophrenia. She was previously treated with olanzapine for 6 months, but it did not show any significant improvement. Currently, she is taking risperidone 5 mg twice daily for the past 10 weeks, but there is no noticeable improvement. What would be the appropriate course of action in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Offer clozapine

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidance, clozapine should be offered to children and young people with schizophrenia if their illness has not responded adequately to at least two different antipsychotic drugs, each used for 6-8 weeks. The BNF (Children) recommends that risperidone can be used for children aged 12-17 years under expert supervision, with a starting dose of 2mg daily for day 1, followed by 4 mg daily for day 2, and a usual dose of 4-6 mg daily. Doses above 10 mg daily should only be used if the benefit is considered to outweigh the risk, and the maximum daily dose is 16mg. Slower titration may be appropriate for some patients.

      Schizophrenia in children and young people is treated similarly to adults, according to the NICE Guidelines. The Maudsley Guidelines suggest avoiding first generation antipsychotics and using olanzapine, aripiprazole, and risperidone, which have been proven effective in randomized controlled trials. In cases where treatment resistance is present, clozapine should be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
      0
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  • Question 19 - Which of the options below is not included in the DSM-5 criteria for...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the options below is not included in the DSM-5 criteria for diagnosing attention deficit hyperactivity disorder?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Often loses temper

      Explanation:

      ADHD (Diagnosis and Management in Children)

      ADHD is a behavioural syndrome characterised by symptoms of inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsivity. The DSM-5 and ICD-11 provide diagnostic criteria for the condition, with both recognising three subtypes: predominantly inattentive, predominantly hyperactive-impulsive, and combined.

      Treatment for children under 5 involves offering an ADHD-focused group parent-training programme as a first-line option. Medication should only be considered after obtaining advice from a specialist ADHD service. For children and young people aged 5-18, advice and support should be given, along with an ADHD-focused group parent-training programme. Medication should only be offered if ADHD symptoms persist after environmental modifications have been implemented and reviewed. Cognitive behavioural therapy may also be considered for those who have benefited from medication but still experience significant impairment.

      NICE advises against elimination diets, dietary fatty acid supplementation, and the use of the ‘few foods diet’. Methylphenidate of lisdexamfetamine is the first-line medication option, with dexamphetamine considered for those who respond to lisdexamfetamine but cannot tolerate the longer effect profile. Atomoxetine of guanfacine may be offered for those who cannot tolerate methylphenidate of lisdexamfetamine. Clonidine and atypical antipsychotics should only be used with advice from a tertiary ADHD service.

      Drug holidays may be considered for children and young people who have not met the expected height for their age due to medication. However, NICE advises that withdrawal from treatment is associated with a risk of symptom exacerbation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
      0
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  • Question 20 - NICE recommends a certain treatment for post-traumatic stress disorder. ...

    Incorrect

    • NICE recommends a certain treatment for post-traumatic stress disorder.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Eye movement desensitisation and reprocessing

      Explanation:

      EMDR: A Trauma-Focused Therapy for PTSD

      EMDR, of eye movement desensitisation and reprocessing, is a therapy developed by Francine Shapiro in the 1980s that focuses on processing traumatic memories. While the exact way it works is not fully understood, it involves reliving traumatic memories while experiencing bilateral alternating stimulation, often through a light source. EMDR is recommended by the NICE Guidelines as a treatment for PTSD, along with trauma-focused cognitive-behavioral therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      0
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  • Question 21 - What is the recommended duration for inpatient opioid detoxification according to the NICE...

    Incorrect

    • What is the recommended duration for inpatient opioid detoxification according to the NICE guidelines?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Up to 4 weeks

      Explanation:

      In an inpatient of residential setting, the recommended duration for opioid detoxification is typically no more than 4 weeks, while in a community setting, it can last up to 12 weeks.

      Opioid Maintenance Therapy and Detoxification

      Withdrawal symptoms can occur after as little as 5 days of regular opioid use. Short-acting opioids like heroin have acute withdrawal symptoms that peak in 32-72 hours and last for 3-5 days. Longer-acting opioids like methadone have acute symptoms that peak at day 4-6 and last for 10 days. Buprenorphine withdrawal lasts up to 10 days and includes symptoms like myalgia, anxiety, and increased drug craving.

      Opioids affect the brain through opioid receptors, with the µ receptor being the main target for opioids. Dopaminergic cells in the ventral tegmental area produce dopamine, which is released into the nucleus accumbens upon stimulation of µ receptors, producing euphoria and reward. With repeat opioid exposure, µ receptors become less responsive, causing dysphoria and drug craving.

      Methadone and buprenorphine are maintenance-oriented treatments for opioid dependence. Methadone is a full agonist targeting µ receptors, while buprenorphine is a partial agonist targeting µ receptors and a partial k agonist of functional antagonist. Naloxone and naltrexone are antagonists targeting all opioid receptors.

      Methadone is preferred over buprenorphine for detoxification, and ultra-rapid detoxification should not be offered. Lofexidine may be considered for mild of uncertain dependence. Clonidine and dihydrocodeine should not be used routinely in opioid detoxification. The duration of detoxification should be up to 4 weeks in an inpatient setting and up to 12 weeks in a community setting.

      Pregnant women dependent on opioids should use opioid maintenance treatment rather than attempt detoxification. Methadone is preferred over buprenorphine, and transfer to buprenorphine during pregnancy is not advised. Detoxification should only be considered if appropriate for the women’s wishes, circumstances, and ability to cope. Methadone or buprenorphine treatment is not a contraindication to breastfeeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 22 - What is accurate about the haematological issues associated with anorexia nervosa? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is accurate about the haematological issues associated with anorexia nervosa?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Plasma volume depletion can mask an anaemia

      Explanation:

      Anorexia is a serious mental health condition that can have severe physical complications. These complications can affect various systems in the body, including the cardiac, skeletal, hematologic, reproductive, metabolic, gastrointestinal, CNS, and dermatological systems. Some of the recognized physical complications of anorexia nervosa include bradycardia, hypotension, osteoporosis, anemia, amenorrhea, hypothyroidism, delayed gastric emptying, cerebral atrophy, and lanugo.

      The Royal College of Psychiatrists has issued advice on managing sick patients with anorexia nervosa, recommending hospital admission for those with high-risk items. These items include a BMI of less than 13, a pulse rate of less than 40 bpm, a SUSS test score of less than 2, a sodium level of less than 130 mmol/L, a potassium level of less than 3 mmol/L, a serum glucose level of less than 3 mmol/L, and a QTc interval of more than 450 ms. The SUSS test involves assessing the patient’s ability to sit up and squat without using their hands. A rating of 0 indicates complete inability to rise, while a rating of 3 indicates the ability to rise without difficulty. Proper management and treatment of anorexia nervosa are crucial to prevent of manage these physical complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 23 - Which of the following statements accurately describes significance tests? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements accurately describes significance tests?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chi-squared test is used to compare non-parametric data

      Explanation:

      The chi-squared test is a statistical test that does not rely on any assumptions about the underlying distribution of the data, making it a non-parametric test.

      Choosing the right statistical test can be challenging, but understanding the basic principles can help. Different tests have different assumptions, and using the wrong one can lead to inaccurate results. To identify the appropriate test, a flow chart can be used based on three main factors: the type of dependent variable, the type of data, and whether the groups/samples are independent of dependent. It is important to know which tests are parametric and non-parametric, as well as their alternatives. For example, the chi-squared test is used to assess differences in categorical variables and is non-parametric, while Pearson’s correlation coefficient measures linear correlation between two variables and is parametric. T-tests are used to compare means between two groups, and ANOVA is used to compare means between more than two groups. Non-parametric equivalents to ANOVA include the Kruskal-Wallis analysis of ranks, the Median test, Friedman’s two-way analysis of variance, and Cochran Q test. Understanding these tests and their assumptions can help researchers choose the appropriate statistical test for their data.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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  • Question 24 - What is the approximate incidence of agranulocytosis linked to the usage of clozapine?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the approximate incidence of agranulocytosis linked to the usage of clozapine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1%

      Explanation:

      Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 25 - A 25-year-old marathon runner who is currently training for a regional race requests...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old marathon runner who is currently training for a regional race requests to meet with the team physician due to an unusual sensation in her legs. She reports feeling a numbness below her knee. Upon examination, the physician observes sensory loss below the left knee in a non-dermatomal distribution. After conducting further investigations, which all come back normal, the physician concludes that the symptoms are not consistent with neurological disease. During a discussion with the patient's parents, the physician learns that the patient recently lost her sister in a tragic accident. Despite this, the patient appears strangely indifferent to her symptoms. What is the most likely diagnosis at this point?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dissociative neurological symptom disorder

      Explanation:

      Somatoform and dissociative disorders are two groups of psychiatric disorders that are characterized by physical symptoms and disruptions in the normal integration of identity, sensations, perceptions, affects, thoughts, memories, control over bodily movements, of behavior. Somatoform disorders are characterized by physical symptoms that are presumed to have a psychiatric origin, while dissociative disorders are characterized by the loss of integration between memories, identity, immediate sensations, and control of bodily movements. The ICD-11 lists two main types of somatoform disorders: bodily distress disorder and body integrity dysphoria. Dissociative disorders include dissociative neurological symptom disorder, dissociative amnesia, trance disorder, possession trance disorder, dissociative identity disorder, partial dissociative identity disorder, depersonalization-derealization disorder, and other specified dissociative disorders. The symptoms of these disorders result in significant impairment in personal, family, social, educational, occupational, of other important areas of functioning. Diagnosis of these disorders involves a thorough evaluation of the individual’s symptoms and medical history, as well as ruling out other possible causes of the symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 26 - What eye condition is frequently linked to Charles Bonnet syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • What eye condition is frequently linked to Charles Bonnet syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Macular degeneration

      Explanation:

      Macular degeneration is the sole condition among the options that typically results in notable visual impairment, which is often associated with Charles Bonnet syndrome.

      Charles Bonnet Syndrome: A Condition of Complex Visual Hallucinations

      Charles Bonnet Syndrome (CBS) is a condition characterized by persistent of recurrent complex visual hallucinations that occur in clear consciousness. This condition is observed in individuals who have suffered damage to the visual pathway, which can be caused by damage to any part of the pathway from the eye to the cortex. The hallucinations are thought to result from a release phenomenon secondary to the deafferentation of the cerebral cortex. CBS is equally distributed between sexes and does not show any familial predisposition. The most common ophthalmological conditions associated with this syndrome are age-related macular degeneration, followed by glaucoma and cataract.

      Risk factors for CBS include advanced age, peripheral visual impairment, social isolation, sensory deprivation, and early cognitive impairment. Well-formed complex visual hallucinations are thought to occur in 10-30 percent of individuals with severe visual impairment. Only around a third of individuals find the hallucinations themselves an unpleasant or disturbing experience. The most effective treatment is reversal of the visual impairment. Antipsychotic drugs are commonly prescribed but are largely ineffective. CBS is a long-lasting condition, with 88% of individuals experiencing it for two years of more, and only 25% resolving at nine years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
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  • Question 27 - Among the given options, which delusion is the least probable to be observed...

    Incorrect

    • Among the given options, which delusion is the least probable to be observed during a manic episode?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Belief that people are inserting thoughts into their minds

      Explanation:

      Mood congruent delusions are commonly observed in affective disorders such as depression and bipolar disorder, whereas mood incongruent delusions are more typical of schizophrenia. In mania, psychotic experiences are often consistent with the individual’s mood, which is known as mood congruent. Conversely, mood incongruent psychotic experiences are either unrelated to mood of in opposition to the prevailing mood.

      Bipolar Disorder Diagnosis

      Bipolar and related disorders are mood disorders characterized by manic, mixed, of hypomanic episodes alternating with depressive episodes. The lifetime risk of suicide in individuals with bipolar disorder is estimated to be at least 15 times that of the general population. Under the ICD-11, there are three subtypes of bipolar disorder: Bipolar I, Bipolar II, and Cyclothymic disorder.

      Bipolar I disorder is diagnosed when an individual has a history of at least one manic of mixed episode. The typical course of the disorder is characterized by recurrent depressive and manic of mixed episodes. Onset of the first mood episode most often occurs during the late teen years, but onset of bipolar type I can occur at any time through the life cycle. The lifetime prevalence of bipolar I disorder is estimated to be around 2.1%.

      Bipolar II disorder is diagnosed when an individual has a history of at least one hypomanic episode and at least one depressive episode. The typical course of the disorder is characterized by recurrent depressive and hypomanic episodes. Onset of bipolar type II most often occurs during the mid-twenties. The number of lifetime episodes tends to be higher for bipolar II disorder than for major depressive disorder of bipolar I disorder.

      Cyclothymic disorder is diagnosed when an individual experiences mood instability over an extended period of time characterized by numerous hypomanic and depressive periods. The symptoms are present for more days than not, and there is no history of manic or mixed episodes. The course of cyclothymic disorder is often gradual and persistent, and onset commonly occurs during adolescence of early adulthood.

      Rapid cycling is not a subtype of bipolar disorder but instead is a qualifier. It is defined as the presence of at least four mood episodes in the previous 12 months that meet the criteria for a manic, hypomanic, of major depressive episode. Rapid cycling is associated with an increased risk of suicide and tends to be precipitated by stressors such as life events, alcohol abuse, use of antidepressants, and medical disorders.

      Overall, the diagnosis of bipolar disorder requires careful evaluation of an individual’s symptoms and history. Treatment typically involves a combination of medication and psychotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 28 - What diagnosis is suggested by the MRI findings of ventricular enlargement with preserved...

    Incorrect

    • What diagnosis is suggested by the MRI findings of ventricular enlargement with preserved medial temporal lobe structures in a patient with memory impairment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lewy body dementia

      Explanation:

      Dementia is a condition that can be diagnosed and supported with the use of neuroimaging techniques. In Alzheimer’s disease, MRI and CT scans are used to assess volume changes in specific areas of the brain, such as the mesial temporal lobe and temporoparietal cortex. SPECT and PET scans can also show functional changes, such as hypoperfusion and glucose hypometabolism. Vascular dementia can be detected with CT and MRI scans that show atrophy, infarcts, and white matter lesions, while SPECT scans reveal a patchy multifocal pattern of hypoperfusion. Lewy body dementia tends to show nonspecific and subtle changes on structural imaging, but SPECT and PET scans can reveal posterior deficits and reduced D2 receptor density. Frontotemporal dementia is characterized by frontal lobe atrophy, which can be seen on CT and MRI scans, while SPECT scans show anterior perfusion deficits. NICE recommends the use of MRI for early diagnosis and detection of subcortical vascular changes, SPECT for differentiating between Alzheimer’s disease, vascular dementia, and frontotemporal dementia, and DaTscan for establishing a diagnosis of dementia with Lewy bodies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
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  • Question 29 - Which group of individuals is most likely to experience a delay in the...

    Incorrect

    • Which group of individuals is most likely to experience a delay in the development of empathy skills?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Deaf children of hearing parents

      Explanation:

      Empathy Development in Deaf Preadolescents

      Deaf preadolescents face challenges in developing empathy compared to their hearing peers, and the age at which they became deaf is a factor in this ability. Furthermore, deaf children with hearing parents are more likely to experience delays in developing empathy skills. These findings were reported in the American Annals of the Deaf.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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  • Question 30 - Which investigation is not typically performed as part of a dementia diagnosis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which investigation is not typically performed as part of a dementia diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: EEG

      Explanation:

      According to NICE, the use of electroencephalography for the diagnosis of Alzheimer’s disease is not recommended.

      As an AI language model, I do not have the ability to perform investigations of provide medical advice. However, I can provide information on the NICE guidelines for investigations in people with dementia. The guidelines suggest routine blood tests to exclude reversible causes, such as full blood count, ESR, CRP, urea and electrolytes, calcium, HbA1c, liver function tests, thyroid function tests, and serum B12 and folate levels. Other investigations that may be appropriate if clinically indicated include urine microscopy and culture, chest X-ray, ECG, syphilis serology, and HIV testing. Structural imaging and CSF analysis may also be necessary to exclude other cerebral pathologies and establish the subtype diagnosis. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is preferred over CT if the subtype is unclear and vascular is suspected. FDG-PET of perfusion SPECT may be considered if the diagnosis is uncertain and frontotemporal dementia of dementia with Lewy bodies is suspected. However, it is important to note that Apolipoprotein E genotyping and electroencephalography should not be used to diagnose Alzheimer’s disease. It is recommended to consult with a healthcare professional for proper evaluation and management of dementia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
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  • Question 31 - What publication was commissioned following Graham Young's conditional discharge from Broadmoor Hospital and...

    Incorrect

    • What publication was commissioned following Graham Young's conditional discharge from Broadmoor Hospital and subsequent murder of two colleagues?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Butler Committee Report

      Explanation:

      The Butler Committee report was initiated after Graham Young murdered two colleagues following his release from Broadmoor Hospital. It suggested that each health authority should have a regional secure unit. Similarly, the Glancy Report recommended the development of secure hospital units for patients who could not be managed on open wards. The Reed Report recommended that mentally ill offenders should receive care and treatment from health and social services instead of custodial care. The Fallon Inquiry report highlighted serious deficiencies in the Personality Disorder Unit at Ashworth Special Hospital, leading to the Tilt Report, which reviewed security at three English High Security Hospitals (Broadmoor, Ashworth, and Rampton).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Forensic Psychiatry
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  • Question 32 - What is a true statement about childhood disintegrative disorder? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about childhood disintegrative disorder?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Normal development is expected for at least 24 months prior to regression

      Explanation:

      Childhood disintegrative disorder, also known as Heller’s syndrome, is identified by significant regression in multiple areas of development after at least two years of typical development. While it was previously considered a distinct disorder, it is now classified as a subset of autism in DSM-V. The estimated prevalence of this disorder is 1 in 100,000, with a higher incidence in boys than girls at a ratio of 4-8:1. Typically, symptoms begin to manifest between the ages of 3-4 years.

      Rett Syndrome: A Rare Neurodevelopmental Disorder

      Rett syndrome is a neurodevelopmental disorder that is rare, affecting approximately 1 in 10,000 female births. Although it mostly affects females, there have been cases of males with the disorder. While the exact cause of the disorder is not known, it is believed to have a genetic basis, with mutations in the MECP2 gene (Xq28) being associated with the disorder. Monozygotic twins have been found to have complete concordance in cases of Rett syndrome.

      The disorder has a unique presentation, with affected children experiencing a normal period of development until 6-18 months. After this period, they begin to develop problems with language, losing previously acquired speech. Purposeful hand movements are replaced with stereotypic movements, such as hand wringing, and ataxia and psychomotor retardation may occur. Other stereotypical movements, such as finger licking of biting and tapping of slapping, may also be seen. Head circumference is normal at birth, but growth begins to decelerate between 6-12 months, resulting in microcephaly. All language skills are lost, both receptive and expressive, and social skills plateau at developmental levels between 6-12 months.

      Seizures are associated with Rett syndrome in 75% of those affected, and almost all affected children have abnormal EEG findings. Breathing problems, such as hyperventilation, apnea, and breath holding, are also seen. Children with Rett syndrome may live for well over a decade after the onset of the disorder, but after 10 years, many patients are wheelchair-bound with virtually no language ability. Additional features of the disorder include seizures, breath holding and hyperventilation, sleep difficulties, and issues with locomotion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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  • Question 33 - What is an unlikely finding in the blood test results of a patient...

    Incorrect

    • What is an unlikely finding in the blood test results of a patient with anorexia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Low cortisol

      Explanation:

      Anorexia is marked by prolonged hypercortisolism, with increased levels of free cortisol in both the plasma and CSF. Dexamethasone typically fails to suppress cortisol in individuals with anorexia.

      Eating Disorders: Lab Findings and Medical Complications

      Eating disorders can lead to a range of medical complications, including renal failure, peripheral edema, sinus bradycardia, QT-prolongation, pericardial effusion, and slowed GI motility. Other complications include constipation, cathartic colon, esophageal esophagitis, hair loss, and dental erosion. Blood abnormalities are also common in patients with eating disorders, including hyponatremia, hypokalemia, hypophosphatemia, and hypoglycemia. Additionally, patients may experience leucopenia, anemia, low albumin, elevated liver enzymes, and vitamin deficiencies. These complications can cause significant morbidity and mortality in patients with eating disorders. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor patients for these complications and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 34 - Which model of the mind is composed of the fundamental elements of the...

    Incorrect

    • Which model of the mind is composed of the fundamental elements of the Id, ego, and Superego?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Structural

      Explanation:

      Freud’s Structural Theory: Understanding the Three Areas of the Mind

      According to Freud’s structural model, the human mind is divided into three distinct areas: the Id, the Ego, and the Superego. The Id is the part of the mind that contains instinctive drives and operates on the ‘pleasure principle’. It functions without a sense of time and is governed by ‘primary process thinking’. The Ego, on the other hand, attempts to modify the drives from the Id with external reality. It operates on the ‘reality principle’ and has conscious, preconscious, and unconscious aspects. It is also home to the defense mechanisms. Finally, the Superego acts as a critical agency, constantly observing a person’s behavior. Freud believed that it developed from the internalized values of a child’s main caregivers. The Superego contains the ‘ego ideal’, which represents ideal attitudes and behavior. It is often referred to as the conscience. Understanding these three areas of the mind is crucial to understanding Freud’s structural theory.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychotherapy
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  • Question 35 - Freud coined a term to describe the unconscious desire of a boy to...

    Incorrect

    • Freud coined a term to describe the unconscious desire of a boy to have his mother's exclusive love, what is this term?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oedipus complex

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Oedipus Complex

      The Oedipus complex is a term coined by Sigmund Freud to describe the unconscious desire for exclusive love that a child has for their opposite-sex parent. This phenomenon is believed to occur during the phallic phase of normal development. While Freud initially used the term for both genders, it has since been differentiated into the Electra complex for women and the Oedipus complex for men.

      The Oedipus complex is a crucial concept in psychoanalytic theory, as it is believed to shape a person’s future relationships and personality. According to Freud, unresolved Oedipal conflicts can lead to neuroses and other psychological issues. Understanding this complex can help individuals gain insight into their own behavior and relationships, as well as provide a framework for therapists to address underlying issues in their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychotherapy
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  • Question 36 - For what purpose was the SUSS test created to assess? ...

    Incorrect

    • For what purpose was the SUSS test created to assess?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anorexia nervosa

      Explanation:

      The SUSS test was created to aid in the evaluation and assessment of anorexia nervosa by providing a more precise method of measuring power. Traditional neurological examinations of anorexia patients often miss significant power deficiencies caused by muscle loss. The test requires patients to transition from lying down to sitting up, then squatting, and finally standing up again, with a structured scoring system in place.

      Anorexia is a serious mental health condition that can have severe physical complications. These complications can affect various systems in the body, including the cardiac, skeletal, hematologic, reproductive, metabolic, gastrointestinal, CNS, and dermatological systems. Some of the recognized physical complications of anorexia nervosa include bradycardia, hypotension, osteoporosis, anemia, amenorrhea, hypothyroidism, delayed gastric emptying, cerebral atrophy, and lanugo.

      The Royal College of Psychiatrists has issued advice on managing sick patients with anorexia nervosa, recommending hospital admission for those with high-risk items. These items include a BMI of less than 13, a pulse rate of less than 40 bpm, a SUSS test score of less than 2, a sodium level of less than 130 mmol/L, a potassium level of less than 3 mmol/L, a serum glucose level of less than 3 mmol/L, and a QTc interval of more than 450 ms. The SUSS test involves assessing the patient’s ability to sit up and squat without using their hands. A rating of 0 indicates complete inability to rise, while a rating of 3 indicates the ability to rise without difficulty. Proper management and treatment of anorexia nervosa are crucial to prevent of manage these physical complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 37 - Which antiepileptic medication has the most substantial evidence linking it to aggression when...

    Incorrect

    • Which antiepileptic medication has the most substantial evidence linking it to aggression when utilized in the treatment of epilepsy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Perampanel

      Explanation:

      Antiepileptic drugs (AEDs) are commonly used for the treatment of epilepsy, but many of them also have mood stabilizing properties and are used for the prophylaxis and treatment of bipolar disorder. However, some AEDs carry product warnings for serious side effects such as hepatic failure, pancreatitis, thrombocytopenia, and skin reactions. Additionally, some AEDs have been associated with an increased risk of suicidal behavior and ideation.

      Behavioral side-effects associated with AEDs include depression, aberrant behaviors, and the development of worsening of irritability, impulsivity, anger, hostility, and aggression. Aggression can occur before, after, of in between seizures. Some AEDs are considered to carry a higher risk of aggression, including levetiracetam, perampanel, and topiramate. However, data on the specific risk of aggression for other AEDs is lacking of mixed. It is important for healthcare providers to carefully consider the potential risks and benefits of AEDs when prescribing them for patients with epilepsy of bipolar disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 38 - A 72-year-old man comes to you with complaints of feeling low and having...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man comes to you with complaints of feeling low and having trouble sleeping. Upon further discussion and using a validated symptom measure, you diagnose him with moderate depression. He has a history of cerebrovascular disease and is currently on aspirin, ramipril, and simvastatin. What would be the best course of action in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Start citalopram + lansoprazole

      Explanation:

      SSRI and Bleeding Risk: Management Strategies

      SSRIs have been linked to an increased risk of bleeding, particularly in vulnerable populations such as the elderly, those with a history of bleeding, and those taking medications that predispose them to bleeding. The risk of bleeding is further elevated in patients with comorbidities such as liver of renal disease, smoking, and alcohol of drug misuse.

      To manage this risk, the Maudsley recommends avoiding SSRIs in patients receiving NSAIDs, aspirin, of oral anticoagulants, of those with a history of cerebral of GI bleeds. If SSRI use cannot be avoided, close monitoring and prescription of gastroprotective proton pump inhibitors are recommended. The degree of serotonin reuptake inhibition varies among antidepressants, with some having weaker of no inhibition, which may be associated with a lower risk of bleeding.

      NICE recommends caution when using SSRIs in patients taking aspirin and suggests considering alternative antidepressants such as trazodone, mianserin, of reboxetine. In patients taking warfarin of heparin, SSRIs are not recommended, but mirtazapine may be considered with caution.

      Overall, healthcare providers should carefully weigh the risks and benefits of SSRI use in patients at risk of bleeding and consider alternative antidepressants of gastroprotective measures when appropriate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
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  • Question 39 - You are seeing a 67-year-old man with a history of cardiovascular disease who...

    Incorrect

    • You are seeing a 67-year-old man with a history of cardiovascular disease who is experiencing symptoms of depression. He had a heart attack six months ago.
      Which antidepressant would be the safest and most appropriate choice for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sertraline

      Explanation:

      The most appropriate treatment for chronic heart disease (CHD) is SSRIs, with sertraline being the preferred option for post-MI patients due to its safety. However, venlafaxine should be used cautiously in patients with established cardiac disease that may increase the risk of ventricular arrhythmias. Tricyclic antidepressants, such as Amitriptyline, should be avoided in CHD patients as they are considered cardiotoxic and contraindicated in those who have had a recent MI. While citalopram is generally used post-MI, its dose-dependent QT interval prolongation should be taken into consideration. Mirtazapine can be used as an alternative in CHD patients who cannot tolerate SSRIs, but it may not be the most appropriate treatment option.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
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  • Question 40 - After observing a positive response to clozapine with good tolerance in a male...

    Incorrect

    • After observing a positive response to clozapine with good tolerance in a male patient with schizophrenia, his plasma concentration is measured and found to be 850 µg/L. What would be your next step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Continue current dose and consider use of an anticonvulsant

      Explanation:

      Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 41 - A 45-year-old male complains of headaches, weakness in his arms and legs, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old male complains of headaches, weakness in his arms and legs, and body aches. He reports feeling like his condition is deteriorating. He has no significant medical history except for a surgery for appendicitis 10 years ago.
      Upon examination, his neurological and musculoskeletal systems appear normal. There are no alarming symptoms associated with his headaches. His primary care physician orders a complete blood count, which returns with normal results.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Somatoform disorder

      Explanation:

      This young woman is experiencing physical symptoms, but there is no evidence of any underlying disease. This could be a manifestation of somatisation/somatoform disorder, where patients develop various symptoms such as pain, memory problems, visual problems, of neurological issues without any apparent cause. Often, there is an underlying psychological distress that may lead to depression of anxiety. It is possible that this women’s history, such as her miscarriage, may reveal underlying depression. It is important to differentiate somatisation disorder from hypochondriasis, where patients believe they have a severe disorder, and Münchhausen syndrome, where patients mimic a particular disorder to gain attention of sympathy. To diagnose Münchhausen syndrome, there must be evidence that the patient is causing their own physical illness. Malingering is another condition where patients purposefully generate symptoms for personal gain, such as time off work. In somatisation disorder, patients may have no clinical evidence of illness of injury, but they believe they are experiencing symptoms and are often quite worried about it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 42 - You evaluate a 7-year-old girl who presents with facial features such as a...

    Incorrect

    • You evaluate a 7-year-old girl who presents with facial features such as a flat and broad head, a prominent forehead, heavy brows, up-slanting eyes, a depressed nasal bridge, and a wide mouth with a fleshy and inverted central portion of the upper lip. Additionally, you observe short and broad hands, short stature, a hoarse deep voice, speech delay, and hearing loss. During follow-up, you notice a predominance of various self-injurious behaviors, including self-biting, head-banging, and picking sores. The patient also exhibits self-hugging behavior. What is your preferred diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Smith-Magenis syndrome

      Explanation:

      Smith-Magenis syndrome is characterized by a behavioural phenotype that often involves severe self harm, but it is distinguished by a unique behaviour known as self-hugging. The syndrome is caused by a deletion on chromosome 17 (17p11.2) and is estimated to occur in one out of every 25,000 births. Due to its prevalence and distinct features, Smith-Magenis syndrome is frequently tested on the Royal College examinations and is important to understand in detail.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry Of Learning Disability
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  • Question 43 - The Maudsley Guidelines suggest a particular treatment option to enhance the effectiveness of...

    Incorrect

    • The Maudsley Guidelines suggest a particular treatment option to enhance the effectiveness of clozapine.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amisulpride

      Explanation:

      Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 44 - What is true about strategies for prevention? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is true about strategies for prevention?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Indicated interventions might be reasonable even if the intervention entails some risk

      Explanation:

      Prevention measures can be classified into different levels, depending on the stage at which they are implemented. The first model, developed in the 1960s, includes primary, secondary, and tertiary prevention. Primary prevention aims to intervene before a disease of problem begins, and can be universal (targeted to the general public), selective (targeted to a high-risk population), of indicated (targeted to individuals with minimal but detectable signs of a disorder). Secondary prevention aims to detect and treat disease that has not yet become symptomatic, while tertiary prevention involves the care of established disease.

      A newer model, developed in 1992, focuses on prevention interventions used before the initial onset of a disorder. This model also includes three levels: universal prevention (targeted to the general population), selective prevention (targeted to a high-risk population), and indicated prevention (targeted to individuals with minimal but detectable signs of a disorder). Examples of prevention measures include cognitive interventions for adolescents with cognitive deficits to prevent the later phases of schizophrenia, screening procedures for early detection and treatment of disease, and the use of low-dose atypical antipsychotics and CBT for patients with prodromal symptoms of schizophrenia to delay of prevent disease onset.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Organisation And Delivery Of Psychiatric Services
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  • Question 45 - A middle-aged patient is referred to secondary care due to issues with depression....

    Incorrect

    • A middle-aged patient is referred to secondary care due to issues with depression. You see the man several times and his depression responds well to treatment with an SSRI.

      During consultations, you are struck by the man’s excessive formality and seriousness. On further enquiry you identify that he has significant difficulties at work. He explains that he is overworked and feels he can't ask colleagues for help as they are unable to do the job properly. He feels that despite all his hard work he is still underperforming in his job. He reports also feeling that he is an inadequate father and reports that his children complain about his refusal to spend money and enjoy himself.

      Which of the following ICD-11 conditions do you most suspect?:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Personality disorder with anankastic

      Explanation:

      Personality Disorder (Obsessive Compulsive)

      Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder is characterized by a preoccupation with orderliness, perfectionism, and control, which can hinder flexibility and efficiency. This pattern typically emerges in early adulthood and can be present in various contexts. The estimated prevalence ranges from 2.1% to 7.9%, with males being diagnosed twice as often as females.

      The DSM-5 diagnosis requires the presence of four of more of the following criteria: preoccupation with details, rules, lists, order, organization, of agenda to the point that the key part of the activity is lost; perfectionism that hampers completing tasks; extreme dedication to work and efficiency to the elimination of spare time activities; meticulous, scrupulous, and rigid about etiquettes of morality, ethics, of values; inability to dispose of worn-out of insignificant things even when they have no sentimental meaning; unwillingness to delegate tasks of work with others except if they surrender to exactly their way of doing things; miserly spending style towards self and others; and rigidity and stubbornness.

      The ICD-11 abolished all categories of personality disorder except for a general description of personality disorder, which can be further specified as “mild,” “moderate,” of “severe.” The anankastic trait domain is characterized by a narrow focus on one’s rigid standard of perfection and of right and wrong, and on controlling one’s own and others’ behavior and controlling situations to ensure conformity to these standards. Common manifestations of anankastic include perfectionism and emotional and behavioral constraint.

      Differential diagnosis includes OCD, hoarding disorder, narcissistic personality disorder, antisocial personality disorder, and schizoid personality disorder. OCD is distinguished by the presence of true obsessions and compulsions, while hoarding disorder should be considered when hoarding is extreme. Narcissistic personality disorder individuals are more likely to believe that they have achieved perfection, while those with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder are usually self-critical. Antisocial personality disorder individuals lack generosity but will indulge themselves, while those with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder adopt a miserly spending style toward both self and others. Schizoid personality disorder is characterized by a fundamental lack of capacity for intimacy, while in obsessive-compulsive personality disorder, this stems from discomfort with emotions and excessive devotion to work.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 46 - What is the recommended initial medication treatment for an adult patient with obsessive...

    Incorrect

    • What is the recommended initial medication treatment for an adult patient with obsessive compulsive disorder who prefers pharmacological therapy over psychological therapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fluoxetine

      Explanation:

      Both the NICE Guidelines and the Maudsley Guidelines suggest using SSRIs as the primary treatment for OCD, with the Maudsley also mentioning clomipramine as an option. However, the Maudsley advises trying SSRIs first due to potential tolerability concerns with clomipramine. It is recommended to follow both sets of guidelines consistently whenever feasible.

      Maudsley Guidelines

      First choice: SSRI of clomipramine (SSRI preferred due to tolerability issues with clomipramine)

      Second line:

      – SSRI + antipsychotic
      – Citalopram + clomipramine
      – Acetylcysteine + (SSRI of clomipramine)
      – Lamotrigine + SSRI
      – Topiramate + SSRI

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 47 - In this case, a 23-year-old woman with autism spectrum disorder and attention deficit...

    Incorrect

    • In this case, a 23-year-old woman with autism spectrum disorder and attention deficit hyperactivity disorder is seeking advice on medication options for her attention deficit hyperactivity disorder. She has reported using CBD oil occasionally to help her feel more relaxed in social situations, but denies any substance misuse. The most suitable initial medication choice in this situation would be:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Methylphenidate

      Explanation:

      According to Graham (2011), the use of cannabis of CBD does not automatically prevent the prescription of stimulant medication for ADHD. Methylphenidate is considered the most effective treatment option and would be the preferred choice. Atomoxetine may be used if there is a concern about stimulant abuse of diversion, but in this case, there is no evidence of substance misuse. These recommendations are based on European guidelines for managing adverse effects of medication for ADHD.

      ADHD Diagnosis and Management in Adults

      ADHD is a behavioural syndrome characterised by symptoms of inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsivity. The DSM-5 and ICD-11 provide diagnostic criteria for ADHD, with the DSM-5 recognising three subtypes of the condition: predominantly inattentive, predominantly hyperactive-impulsive, and combined.

      Treatment for ADHD in adults includes medication and non-pharmacological interventions. NICE recommends offering medication to adults with ADHD if their symptoms are still causing significant impairment after environmental modifications have been implemented and reviewed. Methylphenidate of lisdexamfetamine are first-line medications, with atomoxetine offered for those who cannot tolerate the former two. Additional medication options may be considered with advice from a tertiary ADHD service.

      NICE advises against elimination diets, dietary fatty acid supplementation, and the use of the ‘few foods diet’ for ADHD. Prior to initiating medication, referral to cardiology is recommended if there is a suggestion of cardiac pathology. If a person with ADHD develops mania of psychosis, ADHD treatment should be stopped until the episode has resolved. If a person taking stimulants develops tics, medication options may be adjusted.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 48 - What is the most probable complication that can arise in a patient with...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most probable complication that can arise in a patient with anorexia who frequently experiences vomiting?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Metabolic alkalosis

      Explanation:

      When vomiting persists for an extended period, the body loses gastric secretions that contain hydrogen ions, causing a metabolic alkalosis to occur.

      Anorexia is a serious mental health condition that can have severe physical complications. These complications can affect various systems in the body, including the cardiac, skeletal, hematologic, reproductive, metabolic, gastrointestinal, CNS, and dermatological systems. Some of the recognized physical complications of anorexia nervosa include bradycardia, hypotension, osteoporosis, anemia, amenorrhea, hypothyroidism, delayed gastric emptying, cerebral atrophy, and lanugo.

      The Royal College of Psychiatrists has issued advice on managing sick patients with anorexia nervosa, recommending hospital admission for those with high-risk items. These items include a BMI of less than 13, a pulse rate of less than 40 bpm, a SUSS test score of less than 2, a sodium level of less than 130 mmol/L, a potassium level of less than 3 mmol/L, a serum glucose level of less than 3 mmol/L, and a QTc interval of more than 450 ms. The SUSS test involves assessing the patient’s ability to sit up and squat without using their hands. A rating of 0 indicates complete inability to rise, while a rating of 3 indicates the ability to rise without difficulty. Proper management and treatment of anorexia nervosa are crucial to prevent of manage these physical complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 49 - What is true about acamprosate? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is true about acamprosate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It acts as a glutamatergic NMDA antagonist

      Explanation:

      Anticonvulsants are not recommended for relapse prevention in alcohol dependence. While some studies have shown potential benefits for certain anticonvulsants, such as carbamazepine and valproate, the evidence is not strong enough to support their routine use. Additionally, these drugs can have significant side effects, including liver toxicity and blood disorders, and require careful monitoring. Therefore, they are not recommended by NICE for this indication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 50 - Which herbal remedy has sufficient evidence to prove its effectiveness in treating anxiety?...

    Incorrect

    • Which herbal remedy has sufficient evidence to prove its effectiveness in treating anxiety?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Piper methysticum

      Explanation:

      Herbal Remedies for Depression and Anxiety

      Depression can be treated with Hypericum perforatum (St John’s Wort), which has been found to be more effective than placebo and as effective as standard antidepressants. However, its use is not advised due to uncertainty about appropriate doses, variation in preparations, and potential interactions with other drugs. St John’s Wort can cause serotonin syndrome and decrease levels of drugs such as warfarin and ciclosporin. The effectiveness of the combined oral contraceptive pill may also be reduced.

      Anxiety can be reduced with Piper methysticum (kava), but it cannot be recommended for clinical use due to its association with hepatotoxicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 51 - In Korsakoff's syndrome, which area of the brain is primarily affected by pathology?...

    Incorrect

    • In Korsakoff's syndrome, which area of the brain is primarily affected by pathology?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mammillary bodies

      Explanation:

      Korsakoff’s Syndrome

      Korsakoff’s Syndrome, also known as amnesic syndrome, is a chronic condition that affects recent and anterograde memory in an alert and responsive patient. It is caused by prolonged thiamine (vitamin B1) deficiency and often follows Wernicke’s encephalopathy. The syndrome is characterized by a lack of insight, apathy, and confabulation. Thiamine is essential for glucose metabolism in the brain, and its deficiency leads to a toxic buildup of glucose, causing neuronal loss. The Mammillary bodies are the main areas affected in Korsakoff’s syndrome.

      While intelligence on the WAIS is preserved, episodic memory is severely affected in Korsakoff’s syndrome. Semantic memory is variably affected, but implicit aspects of memory, such as response to priming and procedural memory, are preserved. Immediate memory tested with the digit span is normal, but information can only be retained for a few minutes at most. Patients with Korsakoff’s syndrome often display apathy, lack of initiative, and profound lack of insight.

      Source: Kopelman M (2009) The Korsakoff Syndrome: Clinical Aspects, Psychology and Treatment. Alcohol and Alcoholism 44 (2): 148-154.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 52 - A teenage girl is referred by her GP due to concerns about her...

    Incorrect

    • A teenage girl is referred by her GP due to concerns about her academic performance and her atypical physical characteristics. She is observed to be shorter than her peers and have a neck with excess skin folds. Upon further examination, she displays a wide chest and signs of hypothyroidism. What condition do you suspect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Turner syndrome

      Explanation:

      Understanding Turner Syndrome

      Turner syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects only females. It occurs when one of the two X chromosomes is missing of partially missing. This happens randomly and does not increase the risk of the condition in future siblings. Although X-inactivation occurs in females, having only one X chromosome can cause issues as not all genes are inactivated in the inactivated X chromosome.

      The features of Turner syndrome include short stature, a webbed neck, a broad chest with widely spaced nipples, gonadal dysfunction leading to amenorrhea and infertility, congenital heart disease, and hypothyroidism. Despite these physical characteristics, girls with Turner syndrome typically have normal intelligence, with a mean full-scale IQ of 90. However, they may struggle with nonverbal, social, and psychomotor skills. It is important to understand the symptoms and effects of Turner syndrome to provide appropriate care and support for affected individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Learning Disability
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  • Question 53 - Which antipsychotic medication would be the most suitable for a patient with epilepsy...

    Incorrect

    • Which antipsychotic medication would be the most suitable for a patient with epilepsy who has developed a psychotic illness, considering its minimal impact on seizure threshold?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haloperidol

      Explanation:

      Psychotropics and Seizure Threshold in People with Epilepsy

      People with epilepsy are at an increased risk for various mental health conditions, including depression, anxiety, psychosis, and suicide. It is important to note that the link between epilepsy and mental illness is bidirectional, as patients with mental health conditions also have an increased risk of developing new-onset epilepsy. Psychotropic drugs are often necessary for people with epilepsy, but they can reduce the seizure threshold and increase the risk of seizures. The following tables provide guidance on the seizure risk associated with different classes of antidepressants, antipsychotics, and ADHD medications. It is important to use caution and carefully consider the risks and benefits of these medications when treating people with epilepsy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 54 - Which statement accurately reflects the results of the AESOP study? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement accurately reflects the results of the AESOP study?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: African-Caribbean and Black African patients were most likely to undergo compulsory admission to hospital

      Explanation:

      The AESOP study is a first-presentation study of schizophrenia and other psychotic disorders that identified all people presenting to services with psychotic symptoms in well-defined catchment areas in South London, Nottingham and Bristol. The study aimed to elucidate the overall rates of psychotic disorder in the 3 centres, confirm and extend previous findings of raised rates of psychosis in certain migrant groups in the UK, and explore in detail the biological and social risk factors in these populations and their possible interactions. The study found that the incidence of all psychoses was higher in African-Caribbean and Black African populations, particularly in schizophrenia and manic psychosis. These groups were also more likely to be compulsorily admitted to hospital and come to the attention of mental health services via police of other criminal justice agencies, and less likely to come via the GP.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 55 - Which of the following is not typically linked to conduct disorder? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not typically linked to conduct disorder?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Social phobia

      Explanation:

      ADHD, depression, learning disabilities, substance misuse, psychosis, and autism are frequently observed alongside conduct disorders.

      Disruptive Behaviour of Dissocial Disorders

      Conduct disorders are the most common reason for referral of young children to mental health services. These disorders are characterized by a repetitive and persistent pattern of antisocial, aggressive, of defiant conduct that goes beyond ordinary childish mischief of adolescent rebelliousness. Oppositional defiant disorder (ODD) shares some negative attributes but in a more limited fashion.

      ICD-11 terms the disorder as ‘Conduct-dissocial disorder’, while DSM-5 recognizes three separate conditions related to emotional/behavioral problems seen in younger people: conduct disorder, oppositional defiant disorder, and intermittent explosive disorder. Conduct disorder is about poorly controlled behavior, intermittent explosive disorder is about poorly controlled emotions, and ODD is in between. Conduct disorders are further divided into childhood onset (before 10 years) and adolescent onset (10 years of older).

      The behavior pattern of conduct disorders must be persistent and recurrent, including multiple incidents of aggression towards people of animals, destruction of property, deceitfulness of theft, and serious violations of rules. The pattern of behavior must result in significant impairment in personal, family, social, educational, occupational, of other important areas of functioning.

      Oppositional defiant disorder represents a less severe form of conduct disorder, where there is an absence of more severe dissocial of aggressive acts. The behavior pattern of ODD includes persistent difficulty getting along with others, provocative, spiteful, of vindictive behavior, and extreme irritability of anger.

      The prevalence of conduct disorders increases throughout childhood and is more common in boys than girls. The most frequent comorbid problem seen with conduct disorder is hyperactivity. The conversion rate from childhood conduct disorder to adult antisocial personality disorder varies from 40 to 70% depending on the study.

      NICE recommends group parent-based training programs of parent and child training programs for children with complex needs for ages 3-11, child-focused programs for ages 9-14, and multimodal interventions with a family focus for ages 11-17. Medication is not recommended in routine practice, but risperidone can be used where other approaches fail and they are seriously aggressive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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  • Question 56 - What is a distinguishing trait of being intoxicated with phencyclidine? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a distinguishing trait of being intoxicated with phencyclidine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Analgesia

      Explanation:

      PCP Intoxication: A Dangerous Hallucinogenic

      Phencyclidine (PCP), also known as angel dust, is a hallucinogenic drug that is popular for inducing feelings of euphoria, superhuman strength, and social and sexual prowess. It is a NMDA receptor antagonist that has dissociative properties, similar to ketamine. PCP was previously used as an anesthetic and animal tranquilizer, but was soon recalled due to its adverse effects, including psychosis, agitation, and dysphoria post-operatively.

      PCP is available in various forms, including white crystalline powder, tablets, crystals, and liquid. It can be snorted, smoked, ingested, of injected intravenously or subcutaneously. People who have taken PCP often present with violent behavior, nystagmus, tachycardia, hypertension, anesthesia, and analgesia. Other symptoms include impaired motor function, hallucinations, delusions, and paranoia.

      PCP intoxication is best managed with benzodiazepines along with supportive measures for breathing and circulation. Antipsychotics are not recommended as they can amplify PCP-induced hyperthermia, dystonic reactions, and lower the seizure threshold. However, haloperidol may be useful for treating PCP-induced psychosis in patients who are not hyperthermic. Most deaths in PCP-intoxicated patients result from violent behavior rather than direct effects of the drug.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 57 - What is the most suitable measure to describe the most common test grades...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most suitable measure to describe the most common test grades collected by a college professor?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mode

      Explanation:

      The median represents the middle value in a set of data. For example, if there were 7 results (A, B, C, D, E, F, F), the median would be D. However, if the question asks for the most common result, the mode would be used. In this example, the mode would be F. The mean would not be appropriate in this case because adding all the values and dividing by the number of values would not provide a meaningful result.

      Measures of Central Tendency

      Measures of central tendency are used in descriptive statistics to summarize the middle of typical value of a data set. There are three common measures of central tendency: the mean, median, and mode.

      The median is the middle value in a data set that has been arranged in numerical order. It is not affected by outliers and is used for ordinal data. The mode is the most frequent value in a data set and is used for categorical data. The mean is calculated by adding all the values in a data set and dividing by the number of values. It is sensitive to outliers and is used for interval and ratio data.

      The appropriate measure of central tendency depends on the measurement scale of the data. For nominal and categorical data, the mode is used. For ordinal data, the median of mode is used. For interval data with a normal distribution, the mean is preferable, but the median of mode can also be used. For interval data with skewed distribution, the median is used. For ratio data, the mean is preferable, but the median of mode can also be used for skewed data.

      In addition to measures of central tendency, the range is also used to describe the spread of a data set. It is calculated by subtracting the smallest value from the largest value.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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  • Question 58 - What is the primary treatment recommended by NICE for managing conduct disorder? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the primary treatment recommended by NICE for managing conduct disorder?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Group based parent training

      Explanation:

      Disruptive Behaviour of Dissocial Disorders

      Conduct disorders are the most common reason for referral of young children to mental health services. These disorders are characterized by a repetitive and persistent pattern of antisocial, aggressive, of defiant conduct that goes beyond ordinary childish mischief of adolescent rebelliousness. Oppositional defiant disorder (ODD) shares some negative attributes but in a more limited fashion.

      ICD-11 terms the disorder as ‘Conduct-dissocial disorder’, while DSM-5 recognizes three separate conditions related to emotional/behavioral problems seen in younger people: conduct disorder, oppositional defiant disorder, and intermittent explosive disorder. Conduct disorder is about poorly controlled behavior, intermittent explosive disorder is about poorly controlled emotions, and ODD is in between. Conduct disorders are further divided into childhood onset (before 10 years) and adolescent onset (10 years of older).

      The behavior pattern of conduct disorders must be persistent and recurrent, including multiple incidents of aggression towards people of animals, destruction of property, deceitfulness of theft, and serious violations of rules. The pattern of behavior must result in significant impairment in personal, family, social, educational, occupational, of other important areas of functioning.

      Oppositional defiant disorder represents a less severe form of conduct disorder, where there is an absence of more severe dissocial of aggressive acts. The behavior pattern of ODD includes persistent difficulty getting along with others, provocative, spiteful, of vindictive behavior, and extreme irritability of anger.

      The prevalence of conduct disorders increases throughout childhood and is more common in boys than girls. The most frequent comorbid problem seen with conduct disorder is hyperactivity. The conversion rate from childhood conduct disorder to adult antisocial personality disorder varies from 40 to 70% depending on the study.

      NICE recommends group parent-based training programs of parent and child training programs for children with complex needs for ages 3-11, child-focused programs for ages 9-14, and multimodal interventions with a family focus for ages 11-17. Medication is not recommended in routine practice, but risperidone can be used where other approaches fail and they are seriously aggressive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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  • Question 59 - What is the Department of Health's guidance on maintaining relational security? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the Department of Health's guidance on maintaining relational security?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: See Think Act

      Explanation:

      – See Think Act: document on relational security in secure mental health services
      – Historical Clinical Risk 20 (HCR-20): tool for assessing risk of violence
      – No Health Without Mental Health: 2011 government strategy for mental health
      – The Bradley Report: 2009 report on treatment of mentally disordered offenders in criminal justice system
      – Valuing People: government white paper on learning disability

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Forensic Psychiatry
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  • Question 60 - As per Rapoport, what is the principle of permissiveness in therapeutic communities? ...

    Incorrect

    • As per Rapoport, what is the principle of permissiveness in therapeutic communities?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: To follow rules and respect boundaries

      Explanation:

      Rapoport’s four principles of therapeutic communities include permissiveness, democratisation, communalism, and reality confrontation. Permissiveness allows members to express themselves freely while respecting the community’s rules and boundaries. This principle encourages members to investigate and discuss their behavior to gain insight. However, permissiveness should not negatively affect other members of exclude them. Communalism involves communication, task-sharing, and interdependence, promoting belonging and primary bond development. Reality confrontation helps members find their place among others. Democratisation involves participation in decision-making and voting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychotherapy
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  • Question 61 - An older adult with Lewy body dementia who is prescribed donepezil, develops distressing...

    Incorrect

    • An older adult with Lewy body dementia who is prescribed donepezil, develops distressing visual hallucinations and delusions and has begun to attack members of his care team. Non-pharmacological attempts to manage him have been exhausted.
      What would be the most effective approach in managing this individual?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clozapine

      Explanation:

      Cholinesterase Inhibitors are the preferred medication for treating visual hallucinations in LBD, but if they don’t work, antipsychotic drugs may be necessary. For Lewy Body psychosis, clozapine is the most effective option, although quetiapine is also a viable alternative. In Parkinson’s disease dementia with psychosis, a review by the Movement Disorder Society found that clozapine was effective and had an acceptable risk with proper monitoring. Quetiapine was considered investigational due to a lack of supporting evidence, while olanzapine was deemed unlikely to be effective and had an unacceptable risk due to its demonstrated worsening of motor function.

      Management of Non-Cognitive Symptoms in Dementia

      Non-cognitive symptoms of dementia can include agitation, aggression, distress, psychosis, depression, anxiety, sleep problems, wandering, hoarding, sexual disinhibition, apathy, and shouting. Non-pharmacological measures, such as music therapy, should be considered before prescribing medication. Pain may cause agitation, so a trial of analgesics is recommended. Antipsychotics, such as risperidone, olanzapine, and aripiprazole, may be used for severe distress of serious risk to others, but their use is controversial due to issues of tolerability and an association with increased mortality. Cognitive enhancers, such as AChE-Is and memantine, may have a modest benefit on BPSD, but their effects may take 3-6 months to take effect. Benzodiazepines should be avoided except in emergencies, and antidepressants, such as citalopram and trazodone, may have mixed evidence for BPSD. Mood stabilizers, such as valproate and carbamazepine, have limited evidence to support their use. Sedating antihistamines, such as promethazine, may cause cognitive impairment and should only be used short-term. Melatonin has limited evidence to support its use but is safe to use and may be justified in some cases where benefits are seen. For Lewy Body dementia, clozapine is favored over risperidone, and quetiapine may be a reasonable choice if clozapine is not appropriate. Overall, medication should only be used when non-pharmacological measures are ineffective, and the need is balanced with the increased risk of adverse effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
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  • Question 62 - What term did 'Yalom' use to refer to the cohesive force that unites...

    Incorrect

    • What term did 'Yalom' use to refer to the cohesive force that unites individuals in group psychotherapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cohesiveness

      Explanation:

      Group Psychotherapy: Yalom’s Therapeutic Principles

      Group psychotherapy involves a trained therapist and a group of individuals. Yalom, a prominent figure in group therapy, outlined the therapeutic principles of group psychotherapy. These principles include universality, altruism, instillation of hope, imparting information, corrective recapitulation of the primary family experience, development of socializing techniques, imitative behavior, cohesiveness, existential factors, catharsis, interpersonal learning, and self-understanding. Psychodrama, a specific form of group therapy, involves examining relationships and problems through drama.

      Bion and Basic Assumption Groups

      Bion, a psychoanalyst interested in group dynamics, believed that groups had a collective unconscious that operated similarly to an individual’s. He distinguished between two types of groups: working groups and basic assumption groups. Basic assumption groups act out primitive fantasies and prevent things from getting done. Bion described different types of basic assumption groups, including dependency, fight-flight, and pairing. Dependency involves the group turning to a leader to protect them from anxiety. Fight-flight involves the group acting as if there is an enemy who must be attacked of avoided. Pairing involves the group acting as if the answer lies in the pairing of two members.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychotherapy
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  • Question 63 - Which statement is false regarding an individual's ability to plead fitness? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement is false regarding an individual's ability to plead fitness?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Someone is unfit to plead if they cannot recall the alleged crime

      Explanation:

      Fitness to Plead: Criteria and Process

      Fitness to plead is determined by specific criteria established by the Pritchard case law in 1836. The criteria include the ability to instruct solicitor and counsel, understand the charges, decide whether to plead guilty of not, follow court proceedings, challenge a juror, and give evidence in one’s defense. Schizophrenia and other enduring mental illnesses are the most common conditions associated with unfitness to plead, particularly when positive psychotic symptomatology is present. Intellectual impairment is not a significant factor in most cases. If the issue is raised by the defense, it must be established on a balance of probability, while if raised by the prosecution of judge, it must be proved beyond reasonable doubt. Amnesia does not render someone unfit to plead. The decision on fitness to plead is made by a judge, not a jury. If someone is found unfit to plead, they are subject to the Criminal Procedures Act 1991, which involves a trial of facts, complete acquittal if the facts are not found, and flexible disposal by the judge if the facts are found, except for murder, which requires mandatory committal to hospital.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Forensic Psychiatry
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  • Question 64 - What does the term necrophilia refer to in regards to an abnormal sexual...

    Incorrect

    • What does the term necrophilia refer to in regards to an abnormal sexual preference?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Corpses

      Explanation:

      Paraphilias are intense and persistent sexual interests other than sexual interest in genital stimulation of preparatory fondling with phenotypically normal, physically mature, consenting human partners. They are divided into those relating to erotic activity and those relating to erotic target. In order to become a disorder, paraphilias must be associated with distress of impairment to the individual of with harm to others. The DSM-5 lists 8 recognised paraphilic disorder but acknowledges that there are many more. Treatment modalities for the paraphilias have limited scientific evidence to support their use. Psychological therapy (especially CBT) is often used (with extremely variable results). Pharmacological options include SSRI, Naltrexone, Antipsychotics, GnRH agonists, and Anti-androgens and progestational drugs (e.g. cyproterone acetate).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Forensic Psychiatry
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  • Question 65 - Which option is not suggested by NICE for aiding relapse prevention in individuals...

    Incorrect

    • Which option is not suggested by NICE for aiding relapse prevention in individuals with alcohol addiction?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diazepam

      Explanation:

      Anticonvulsants are not recommended for relapse prevention in alcohol dependence. While some studies have shown potential benefits for certain anticonvulsants, such as carbamazepine and valproate, the evidence is not strong enough to support their routine use. Additionally, these drugs can have significant side effects, including liver toxicity and blood disorders, and require careful monitoring. Therefore, they are not recommended by NICE for this indication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 66 - A 7-year-old girl is brought to your clinic by her parents who are...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old girl is brought to your clinic by her parents who are worried about her excessive need for order and cleanliness. Upon examination, you observe signs of obsessive rumination and compulsions. The girl has a history of streptococcal sore throat, leading you to suspect that it may have played a role in the development of her condition. Which of the following serum titres would be most likely to be elevated if this is the case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anti-DNAse

      Explanation:

      Elevated ASLO of antistreptolysin O titres, which are anti-DNAse, are often present in cases of paediatric autoimmune neuropsychiatric disorders associated with streptococcal infection (PANDAS), a syndrome that may be linked to the development of childhood obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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  • Question 67 - If a study has a Type I error rate of <0.05 and a...

    Incorrect

    • If a study has a Type I error rate of <0.05 and a Type II error rate of 0.2, what is the power of the study?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 0.8

      Explanation:

      A study’s ability to correctly detect a true effect of difference may be calculated as Power = 1 – Type II error rate. In the given scenario, the power can be calculated as Power = 1 – 0.2 = 0.8. Type I error refers to a false positive, while Type II error refers to a false negative.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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  • Question 68 - For which conditions is rTMS recommended? ...

    Incorrect

    • For which conditions is rTMS recommended?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Unipolar depression

      Explanation:

      Neurostimulation is a treatment that uses electromagnetic energy targeted at the brain. There are several forms of neurostimulation, including TMS, deep brain stimulation, and ECT. TMS is a non-invasive, non-convulsive technique used to stimulate neural tissue. It involves the placement of an electromagnetic coil on the patient’s scalp to deliver a short, powerful magnetic field pulse through the scalp and induce electric current in the brain. TMS is used to treat depression when standard treatments have failed. Deep brain stimulation is a neurosurgical technique that involves placing an electrode within the brain to deliver a high-frequency current in a specific subcortical of deep cortical structure. It has been used to treat Parkinson’s, dysthymia, OCD, and Tourette syndrome. There is RCT evidence to demonstrate its effectiveness in OCD, but conflicting results in depression and Tourette’s. DBS is also being trailed in other conditions such as anorexia, bipolar, and additions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Organisation And Delivery Of Psychiatric Services
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  • Question 69 - Which of the options below is not a typical trigger for transient global...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the options below is not a typical trigger for transient global amnesia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Loud noises

      Explanation:

      Transient Global Amnesia: Definition, Diagnostic Criteria, and Possible Causes

      Transient global amnesia (TGA) is a clinical syndrome characterized by sudden and severe amnesia, often accompanied by repetitive questioning, that lasts for several hours. The term was first coined in 1964 by Fisher and Adams. To diagnose TGA, the following criteria have been established: (1) the attack must be witnessed, (2) there must be clear anterograde amnesia, (3) clouding of consciousness and loss of personal identity must be absent, (4) there should be no accompanying focal neurological symptoms, (5) epileptic features must be absent, (6) attacks must resolve within 24 hours, and (7) patients with recent head injury of known active epilepsy are excluded.

      Epidemiological studies have shown that thromboembolic cerebrovascular disease does not play a role in the causation of TGA. However, the incidence of migraine in patients with TGA is higher than in the general population. A small minority of cases with unusually brief and recurrent attacks eventually manifest temporal lobe epilepsy. EEG recording is typically normal after an attack, even when performed during the attack.

      Possible causes of TGA include venous congestion with Valsalva-like activities before symptom onset, arterial thromboembolic ischemia, and vasoconstriction due to hyperventilation. Precipitants of TGA often include exertion, cold, pain, emotional stress, and sexual intercourse.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
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  • Question 70 - Can you explain what transference means in the context of psychotherapy? ...

    Incorrect

    • Can you explain what transference means in the context of psychotherapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The thoughts and feelings of the patient towards the therapist

      Explanation:

      Transference is when a patient unconsciously assigns to their therapist feelings and attitudes that are associated with significant people from their past. These feelings can be positive, negative, of ambivalent. Projection occurs when a patient attributes their unacceptable thoughts and impulses to their therapist. Countertransference refers to the therapist’s emotions towards the patient. When a patient internalizes feelings of anger and self-harms, various processes such as denial, repression, and acting out may be involved. Although Freud initially viewed transference as a hindrance to therapy, it is now recognized that interpreting transference can aid patients in comprehending past relationships.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychotherapy
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  • Question 71 - How should acute mania be managed? ...

    Incorrect

    • How should acute mania be managed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Valproate

      Explanation:

      Bipolar Disorder: Diagnosis and Management

      Bipolar disorder is a lifelong condition characterized by episodes of mania or hypomania and episodes of depressed mood. The peak age of onset is 15-19 years, and the lifetime prevalence of bipolar I disorders is estimated to be around 2.1%. The diagnosis of bipolar disorder is based on the presence of manic or hypomanic episodes, which are characterized by elevated of expansive mood, rapid speech, and increased activity of energy. Psychotic symptoms, such as delusions and hallucinations, may also be present.

      Bipolar depression differs from unipolar depression in several ways, including more rapid onset, more frequent episodes, and shorter duration. Rapid cycling is a qualifier that can be applied to bipolar I of bipolar II disorder and is defined as the presence of at least four mood episodes in the previous 12 months that meet the criteria for a manic, hypomanic, of major depressive episode.

      The management of bipolar disorder involves acute and long-term interventions. Acute management of mania or hypomania may involve stopping antidepressants and offering antipsychotics of mood stabilizers. Long-term management may involve psychological interventions and pharmacological treatments such as lithium, valproate, of olanzapine.

      It is important to note that valproate should not be offered to women of girls of childbearing potential for long-term bipolar disorder unless other options are ineffective of not tolerated and a pregnancy prevention program is in place. Aripiprazole is recommended as an option for treating moderate to severe manic episodes in adolescents with bipolar I disorder.

      Overall, the diagnosis and management of bipolar disorder require a comprehensive approach that takes into account the individual’s symptoms, history, and preferences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 72 - You are asked to provide information to a patient who is considering starting...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to provide information to a patient who is considering starting clozapine. They ask you how many people in their age group die from agranulocytosis. of all those in their age group who take clozapine, which of the following is the best approximation of the risk of fatal agranulocytosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1 in 10000

      Explanation:

      Novartis reports that fatal agranulocytosis from clozapine occurs in approximately 1 out of every 10,000 individuals, provided that the condition is adequately monitored and treated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 73 - Which of the following is the most indicative of complex visual hallucinations occurring...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the most indicative of complex visual hallucinations occurring in clear consciousness and associated with visual impairment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Charles Bonnet syndrome

      Explanation:

      Alice in Wonderland syndrome, also known as Todd syndrome, is a neurological disorder that causes distortions in a person’s perception of their body image, space, and time. This can lead to experiences such as Lilliputian hallucinations, macropsia, and altered sense of velocity. On the other hand, Diogenes syndrome is a condition commonly observed in the elderly, characterized by extreme self-neglect, social withdrawal, apathy, lack of shame, and compulsive hoarding of garbage. It is often linked to progressive dementia.

      Charles Bonnet Syndrome: A Condition of Complex Visual Hallucinations

      Charles Bonnet Syndrome (CBS) is a condition characterized by persistent of recurrent complex visual hallucinations that occur in clear consciousness. This condition is observed in individuals who have suffered damage to the visual pathway, which can be caused by damage to any part of the pathway from the eye to the cortex. The hallucinations are thought to result from a release phenomenon secondary to the deafferentation of the cerebral cortex. CBS is equally distributed between sexes and does not show any familial predisposition. The most common ophthalmological conditions associated with this syndrome are age-related macular degeneration, followed by glaucoma and cataract.

      Risk factors for CBS include advanced age, peripheral visual impairment, social isolation, sensory deprivation, and early cognitive impairment. Well-formed complex visual hallucinations are thought to occur in 10-30 percent of individuals with severe visual impairment. Only around a third of individuals find the hallucinations themselves an unpleasant or disturbing experience. The most effective treatment is reversal of the visual impairment. Antipsychotic drugs are commonly prescribed but are largely ineffective. CBS is a long-lasting condition, with 88% of individuals experiencing it for two years of more, and only 25% resolving at nine years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
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  • Question 74 - What is the most indicative symptom of atypical depression? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most indicative symptom of atypical depression?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased sex drive

      Explanation:

      Atypical Depression: Symptoms and Treatment

      Atypical depression is a subtype of major depressive disorder that is characterized by low mood with mood reactivity and a reversal of the typical features seen in depression. This includes hypersomnia, hyperphagia, weight gain, and libidinal increases. People with atypical depression tend to respond best to MAOIs, while their response to tricyclics is poor, and SSRIs perform somewhere in the middle.

      The DSM-5 defines atypical depression as a subtype of major depressive disorder ‘with atypical features’, which includes mood reactivity, significant weight gain of increase in appetite, hypersomnia, leaden paralysis, and a long-standing pattern of interpersonal rejection sensitivity that results in significant social of occupational impairment. However, this subtype is not specifically recognized in ICD-11.

      If you of someone you know is experiencing symptoms of atypical depression, it is important to seek professional help. Treatment options may include therapy, medication, of a combination of both. MAOIs may be the most effective medication for atypical depression, but it is important to work with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 75 - What is the recommended management approach for Wernicke's encephalopathy that is accompanied by...

    Incorrect

    • What is the recommended management approach for Wernicke's encephalopathy that is accompanied by petechial hemorrhages?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intravenous vitamin B1

      Explanation:

      Standard practice should be followed when petechial hemorrhages are observed in an MRI of a patient with Wernicke’s, as they are a typical characteristic of the disease.

      Wernicke’s Encephalopathy: Symptoms, Causes, and Treatment

      Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a serious condition that is characterized by confusion, ophthalmoplegia, and ataxia. However, the complete triad is only present in 10% of cases, which often leads to underdiagnosis. The condition results from prolonged thiamine deficiency, which is commonly seen in people with alcohol dependency, but can also occur in other conditions such as anorexia nervosa, malignancy, and AIDS.

      The onset of Wernicke’s encephalopathy is usually abrupt, but it may develop over several days to weeks. The lesions occur in a symmetrical distribution in structures surrounding the third ventricle, aqueduct, and fourth ventricle. The mammillary bodies are involved in up to 80% of cases, and atrophy of these structures is specific for Wernicke’s encephalopathy.

      Treatment involves intravenous thiamine, as oral forms of B1 are poorly absorbed. IV glucose should be avoided when thiamine deficiency is suspected as it can precipitate of exacerbate Wernicke’s. With treatment, ophthalmoplegia and confusion usually resolve within days, but the ataxia, neuropathy, and nystagmus may be prolonged of permanent.

      Untreated cases of Wernicke’s encephalopathy can lead to Korsakoff’s syndrome, which is characterized by memory impairment associated with confabulation. The mortality rate associated with Wernicke’s encephalopathy is 10-20%, making early diagnosis and treatment crucial.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 76 - Which statement accurately reflects the relationship between migration and the risk of developing...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement accurately reflects the relationship between migration and the risk of developing schizophrenia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The relative risk for developing schizophrenia among second-generation migrants is 4.5

      Explanation:

      The risk of obstetric complications is about twice as high in individuals with schizophrenia compared to those without the condition.

      Schizophrenia and Migration: A Meta-Analysis and Review

      Migration is a significant risk factor for the development of schizophrenia, according to a comprehensive review of the topic. The study found that the mean weighted relative risk for first-generation migrants was 2.7, while the relative risk for second-generation migrants was 4.5. When analyzing both first- and second-generation migrants, the relative risk was 2.9. The study also found that migrants from developing countries and areas with a majority black population had significantly greater effect sizes. These findings highlight the importance of considering migration status when assessing risk for schizophrenia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 77 - Which drug interacts with a G-coupled receptor to exert its effects? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which drug interacts with a G-coupled receptor to exert its effects?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Heroin

      Explanation:

      The mechanism of action of heroin involves attaching to opiate receptors, which are G-coupled. This attachment results in the suppression of cellular activity through stimulation.

      Mechanisms of action for illicit drugs can be classified based on their effects on ionotropic receptors of ion channels, G coupled receptors, of monoamine transporters. Cocaine and amphetamine both increase dopamine levels in the synaptic cleft, but through different mechanisms. Cocaine directly blocks the dopamine transporter, while amphetamine binds to the transporter and increases dopamine efflux through various mechanisms, including inhibition of vesicular monoamine transporter 2 and monoamine oxidase, and stimulation of the intracellular receptor TAAR1. These mechanisms result in increased dopamine levels in the synaptic cleft and reuptake inhibition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 78 - Which of the following is an atypical characteristic of paranoid personality disorder? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is an atypical characteristic of paranoid personality disorder?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Unusual perceptual disturbances

      Explanation:

      Schizotypal personality disorder is characterized by atypical perceptual experiences.

      Paranoid Personality Disorder is a type of personality disorder where individuals have a deep-seated distrust and suspicion of others, often interpreting their actions as malevolent. This disorder is characterized by a pattern of negative interpretations of others’ words, actions, and intentions, leading to a reluctance to confide in others and holding grudges for long periods of time. The DSM-5 criteria for this disorder include at least four of the following symptoms: unfounded suspicions of exploitation, harm, of deception by others, preoccupation with doubts about the loyalty of trustworthiness of friends of associates, reluctance to confide in others due to fear of malicious use of information, reading negative meanings into benign remarks of events, persistent grudges, perceiving attacks on one’s character of reputation that are not apparent to others and reacting angrily of counterattacking, and recurrent suspicions of infidelity in a partner without justification. The ICD-11 does not have a specific category for paranoid personality disorder but covers many of its features under the negative affectivity qualifier under the element of mistrustfulness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 79 - What are the characteristics of the detachment trait as outlined in the ICD-11...

    Incorrect

    • What are the characteristics of the detachment trait as outlined in the ICD-11 diagnostic criteria for personality disorders?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Avoidance of intimacy

      Explanation:

      Personality Disorder: Avoidant

      Avoidant Personality Disorder (AVPD) is characterized by a pervasive pattern of social inhibition, feelings of inadequacy, and hypersensitivity to negative evaluation. According to the DSM-5, individuals with AVPD exhibit at least four of the following symptoms: avoidance of occupational activities that involve interpersonal contact, unwillingness to be involved unless certain of being liked, restraint in intimate relationships due to fear of ridicule, preoccupation with being criticized of rejected in social situations, inhibition in new interpersonal situations due to feelings of inadequacy, viewing oneself as inept and inferior to others, and reluctance to take personal risks of engage in new activities due to potential embarrassment.

      In contrast, the ICD-11 does not have a specific category for AVPD but instead uses the qualifier of detachment trait. The Detachment trait domain is characterized by a tendency to maintain interpersonal and emotional distance. Common manifestations of Detachment include social detachment (avoidance of social interactions, lack of friendships, and avoidance of intimacy) and emotional detachment (reserve, aloofness, and limited emotional expression and experience). It is important to note that not all individuals with Detachment will exhibit all of these symptoms at all times.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 80 - A 65 kg male patient is brought to the emergency department after taking...

    Incorrect

    • A 65 kg male patient is brought to the emergency department after taking an overdose of paracetamol. He estimates that he took 20 paracetamol tablets over a two hour period approximately 3 hours ago. Which of the following would be the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Administer IV acetylcysteine without delay

      Explanation:

      If someone ingests more than 75 mg/kg of paracetamol, serious toxicity can occur. This means that a 75 kg male would need to ingest approximately 5.5 g (equivalent to 11-12 tablets) for significant harm to occur. Immediate action is necessary in this case. If someone ingests more than 150 mg/kg, they require immediate treatment. In cases of staggered overdoses, IV acetylcysteine should be administered regardless of the plasma paracetamol level.

      Self-Harm and its Management

      Self-harm refers to intentional acts of self-poisoning of self-injury. It is prevalent among younger people, with an estimated 10% of girls and 3% of boys aged 15-16 years having self-harmed in the previous year. Risk factors for non-fatal repetition of self-harm include previous self-harm, personality disorder, hopelessness, history of psychiatric treatment, schizophrenia, alcohol abuse/dependence, and drug abuse/dependence. Suicide following an act of self-harm is more likely in those with previous episodes of self-harm, suicidal intent, poor physical health, and male gender.

      Risk assessment tools are not recommended for predicting future suicide of repetition of self-harm. The recommended interventions for self-harm include 4-10 sessions of CBT specifically structured for people who self-harm and considering DBT for adolescents with significant emotional dysregulation. Drug treatment as a specific intervention to reduce self-harm should not be offered.

      In the management of ingestion, activated charcoal can help if used early, while emetics and cathartics should not be used. Gastric lavage should generally not be used unless recommended by TOXBASE. Paracetamol is involved in 30-40% of acute presentations with poisoning. Intravenous acetylcysteine is the treatment of choice, and pseudo-allergic reactions are relatively common. Naloxone is used as an antidote for opioid overdose, while flumazenil can help reduce the need for admission to intensive care in benzodiazepine overdose.

      For superficial uncomplicated skin lacerations of 5 cm of less in length, tissue adhesive of skin closure strips could be used as a first-line treatment option. All children who self-harm should be admitted for an overnight stay at a pediatric ward.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 81 - A 12 year old boy is brought to the attention of the criminal...

    Incorrect

    • A 12 year old boy is brought to the attention of the criminal justice system for repeated acts of antisocial behaviour in their local town centre. On one occasion they threatened to assault an elderly female who challenged them about their conduct. Which of the following would be the expected course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Imposition of a Local Child Curfew

      Explanation:

      At this point, implementing the Local Child Curfew would be the most suitable course of action as it is the least severe measure and is typically the initial step taken. Pursuing prosecution is not viable as the individuals in question are below the age of 10.

      Criminal Responsibility and Age Limits

      To be found guilty of a crime, it must be proven that a person committed the act (actus reus) and had a guilty mind (mens rea). In England and Wales, children under the age of 10 cannot be held criminally responsible for their actions and cannot be arrested or charged with a crime. Instead, they may face other punishments such as a Local Child Curfew of a Child Safety Order. Children between the ages of 10 and 17 can be arrested and taken to court, but are treated differently from adults and may be dealt with by youth courts, given different sentences, and sent to special secure centers for young people. Young people aged 18 are treated as adults by the law.

      Not Guilty by Reason of Insanity and Other Defenses

      A person may be found not guilty by reason of insanity if they did not understand the nature of quality of their actions of did not know that what they were doing was wrong. Automatism is a defense used when the act is believed to have occurred unconsciously, either from an external cause (sane automatism) of an internal cause (insane automatism). Diminished responsibility is a defense used only in the defense of murder and allows for a reduction of the normal life sentence to manslaughter.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Forensic Psychiatry
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  • Question 82 - Compared to other research models, which one yields the most robust and reliable...

    Incorrect

    • Compared to other research models, which one yields the most robust and reliable findings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Randomised control trials (RCTs) with non-definitive results

      Explanation:

      According to Greenhalgh (1997), when making decisions about clinical interventions, the standard notation for the relative weight carried by different types of primary studies is arranged in a hierarchy of evidence. Randomised control trials with non-definitive results are ranked third in this hierarchy, carrying stronger relative weight than cohort studies, case-control studies, cross-sectional surveys, and case reports. The top two positions are occupied by systematic reviews/meta-analyses and RCTs with definitive results, respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Organisation And Delivery Of Psychiatric Services
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  • Question 83 - What is the minimum duration of symptoms required for a diagnosis of schizophrenia...

    Incorrect

    • What is the minimum duration of symptoms required for a diagnosis of schizophrenia according to the ICD-11?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1 month

      Explanation:

      – Schizophrenia and other primary psychotic disorders are characterized by impairments in reality testing and alterations in behavior.
      – Schizophrenia is a chronic mental health disorder with symptoms including delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech of behavior, and impaired cognitive ability.
      – The essential features of schizophrenia include persistent delusions, persistent hallucinations, disorganized thinking, experiences of influence, passivity of control, negative symptoms, grossly disorganized behavior, and psychomotor disturbances.
      – Schizoaffective disorder is diagnosed when all diagnostic requirements for schizophrenia are met concurrently with mood symptoms that meet the diagnostic requirements of a moderate or severe depressive episode, a manic episode, of a mixed episode.
      – Schizotypal disorder is an enduring pattern of unusual speech, perceptions, beliefs, and behaviors that are not of sufficient intensity of duration to meet the diagnostic requirements of schizophrenia, schizoaffective disorder, of delusional disorder.
      – Acute and transient psychotic disorder is characterized by an acute onset of psychotic symptoms, which can include delusions, hallucinations, disorganized thinking, of experiences of influence, passivity of control, that emerge without a prodrome, progressing from a non-psychotic state to a clearly psychotic state within 2 weeks.
      – Delusional disorder is diagnosed when there is a presence of a delusion of set of related delusions, typically persisting for at least 3 months and often much longer, in the absence of a depressive, manic, of mixed episode.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 84 - What is a true statement about delirium? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about delirium?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypoactive delirium is often missed as it is difficult to recognise

      Explanation:

      Delirium (also known as acute confusional state) is a condition characterized by a sudden decline in consciousness and cognition, with a particular impairment in attention. It often involves perceptual disturbances, abnormal psychomotor activity, and sleep-wake cycle impairment. Delirium typically develops over a few days and has a fluctuating course. The causes of delirium are varied, ranging from metabolic disturbances to medications. It is important to differentiate delirium from dementia, as delirium has a brief onset, early disorientation, clouding of consciousness, fluctuating course, and early psychomotor changes. Delirium can be classified into three subtypes: hypoactive, hyperactive, and mixed. Patients with hyperactive delirium demonstrate restlessness, agitation, and hyper vigilance, while those with hypoactive delirium present with lethargy and sedation. Mixed delirium demonstrates both hyperactive and hypoactive features. The hypoactive form is most common in elderly patients and is often misdiagnosed as depression of dementia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
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  • Question 85 - What statement does NICE make about ECT? ...

    Incorrect

    • What statement does NICE make about ECT?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: With unilateral ECT, a higher stimulus dose is associated with greater efficacy

      Explanation:

      While ECT may be considered for moderate depression in certain cases, it should not be administered if it goes against a legally binding advance decision of directive.

      ECT (Treatment) – Summary of Effectiveness and Recommendations

      ECT (Electroconvulsive Therapy) is a treatment that induces a therapeutic seizure through the application of electrical current under general anesthesia and muscle relaxation. It is prescribed as a course and is usually administered twice weekly for 6 to 12 treatments. ECT is the most effective short-term treatment for major depression, with remission rates of around 60-80% when used as first-line treatment in a severe depressive episode. However, without maintenance treatment, the relapse rate is extremely high (over 80%) in the 6 months after successful ECT.

      Cognitive effects are the main limitation to the wider use of ECT, particularly acute confusion shortly after the treatment, retrograde amnesia, and some losses in autobiographical memory longer term. The current state of evidence does not allow the general use of ECT in the management of schizophrenia. Bilateral ECT is more effective than unilateral ECT but may cause more cognitive impairment. With unilateral ECT, a higher stimulus dose is associated with greater efficacy but also increased cognitive impairment compared with a lower stimulus dose.

      NICE (National Institute for Health and Care Excellence) recommends that ECT is used only to achieve rapid and short-term improvement of severe symptoms after an adequate trial of other treatment options has proven ineffective and/of when the condition is considered to be potentially life-threatening. ECT is recommended for individuals with severe depression (that is life-threatening and when a rapid response is required, of when other treatments have failed), moderate depression (consider it if their depression has not responded to multiple drug treatments and psychological treatment), catatonia, and a prolonged of severe manic episode.

      The RCPsych (Royal College of Psychiatrists) position on ECT recommends it as a first-line treatment for individuals with high suicidal risk, severe psychomotor retardation and associated problems of compromised eating and drinking and/of physical deterioration, treatment-resistant depression that has responded to ECT in a previous episode of illness, pregnant individuals with severe depression, of severe mixed affective states, mania of catatonia and whose physical health of that of the fetus is at serious risk, and those who prefer this form of treatment. ECT is recommended as a second-line treatment for individuals with treatment-resistant depression, severe side-effects from medication, and persistent of life-threatening symptoms in severe of prolonged mania. ECT is indicated in some circumstances for individuals with bipolar depression, postnatal psychosis, treatment-resistant schizophrenia, treatment-resistant catatonia, and frequent relapses and recurrences of depression (maintenance).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Organisation And Delivery Of Psychiatric Services
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  • Question 86 - What is the estimated rate of puerperal psychosis in the UK? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the estimated rate of puerperal psychosis in the UK?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1 in 500

      Explanation:

      Puerperal Psychosis: Incidence, Risk Factors, and Treatment

      Postpartum psychosis is a subtype of bipolar disorder with an incidence of 1-2 in 1000 pregnancies. It typically occurs rapidly between day 2 and day 14 following delivery, with almost all cases occurring within 8 weeks of delivery. Risk factors for puerperal psychosis include a past history of puerperal psychosis, pre-existing psychotic illness (especially affective psychosis) requiring hospital admission, and a family history of affective psychosis in first of second degree relatives. However, factors such as twin pregnancy, breastfeeding, single parenthood, and stillbirth have not been shown to be associated with an increased risk. Treatment for puerperal psychosis is similar to that for psychosis in general, but special consideration must be given to potential issues if the mother is breastfeeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 87 - What is the term used to refer to a psychotic episode that is...

    Incorrect

    • What is the term used to refer to a psychotic episode that is brief and lasts for less than 3 months?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bouffée délirante

      Explanation:

      The term Bouffée délirante is a distinct and historical French diagnosis used to describe a brief episode of psychosis characterized by sudden and severe psychotic symptoms that fully resolve. The oneiroid state refers to a dreamy mental state. Latent schizophrenia is an outdated term that was previously used to describe individuals with borderline, schizoid, and schizotypal personality disorders.

      – Schizophrenia and other primary psychotic disorders are characterized by impairments in reality testing and alterations in behavior.
      – Schizophrenia is a chronic mental health disorder with symptoms including delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech of behavior, and impaired cognitive ability.
      – The essential features of schizophrenia include persistent delusions, persistent hallucinations, disorganized thinking, experiences of influence, passivity of control, negative symptoms, grossly disorganized behavior, and psychomotor disturbances.
      – Schizoaffective disorder is diagnosed when all diagnostic requirements for schizophrenia are met concurrently with mood symptoms that meet the diagnostic requirements of a moderate or severe depressive episode, a manic episode, of a mixed episode.
      – Schizotypal disorder is an enduring pattern of unusual speech, perceptions, beliefs, and behaviors that are not of sufficient intensity of duration to meet the diagnostic requirements of schizophrenia, schizoaffective disorder, of delusional disorder.
      – Acute and transient psychotic disorder is characterized by an acute onset of psychotic symptoms, which can include delusions, hallucinations, disorganized thinking, of experiences of influence, passivity of control, that emerge without a prodrome, progressing from a non-psychotic state to a clearly psychotic state within 2 weeks.
      – Delusional disorder is diagnosed when there is a presence of a delusion of set of related delusions, typically persisting for at least 3 months and often much longer, in the absence of a depressive, manic, of mixed episode.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 88 - A 62-year-old woman is referred to your clinic. Her daughter has noticed that...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old woman is referred to your clinic. Her daughter has noticed that she has become more forgetful over the last three months. She thinks it may be related to a stroke she suffered five months ago.

      You find out that the woman had a cerebral haemorrhage five months ago when she bled into her fourth ventricle. She recovered in some weeks with no neurological sequelae. However, she is now becoming incontinent of urine and is visibly unsteady on walking.

      You ask the radiology department to repeat a CT of the women's head.

      Which is the most likely finding on CT?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Periventricular lucency

      Explanation:

      The individual is displaying a visual representation of hydrocephalus, which may result from a past intracranial hemorrhage that obstructs the flow of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) due to debris. Periventricular lucency (PL) in hydrocephalus is a result of either acute edema of chronic retention of CSF in the periventricular white matter, caused by an increase in water content. This phenomenon can be partially reversed and may serve as an indication for a shunt.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
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  • Question 89 - How would you describe the semi-structured interview conducted with caregivers of individuals who...

    Incorrect

    • How would you describe the semi-structured interview conducted with caregivers of individuals who may have autism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: ADI-R

      Explanation:

      The CSBQ is a questionnaire completed by caregivers to identify symptoms of pervasive developmental disorder.

      Autism is a complex disorder that can be difficult to diagnose in adults. To aid in the diagnosis and assessment of adults with suspected autistic spectrum disorder, NICE recommends the use of various assessment tools. These tools include the ADI-R, a semi-structured interview of caregivers of individuals with autism, the ADOS-G, a semi-structured assessment that involves the use of observational schedules, and the AAA, a three-part diagnostic instrument consisting of two screening instruments and a clinician-conducted diagnostic questionnaire. Other recommended tools include the ASDI, a brief structured interview for the assessment of Asperger syndrome, and the RAADS-R, an 80-item self-rating diagnostic scale for adults with average of above average intelligence. To streamline the assessment process, it is recommended to use a formal assessment tool such as the DISCO, ADOS-G, of ADI-R.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Learning Disability
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  • Question 90 - What is the recommended treatment by NICE for an adult patient with bipolar...

    Incorrect

    • What is the recommended treatment by NICE for an adult patient with bipolar disorder who does not respond to lithium monotherapy for prophylaxis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Consider lithium plus valproate

      Explanation:

      Adding valproate should be carefully considered, especially for women who are capable of bearing children. The potential benefits of the medication should be weighed against the risks that may arise if the woman becomes pregnant.

      Bipolar Disorder: Diagnosis and Management

      Bipolar disorder is a lifelong condition characterized by episodes of mania or hypomania and episodes of depressed mood. The peak age of onset is 15-19 years, and the lifetime prevalence of bipolar I disorders is estimated to be around 2.1%. The diagnosis of bipolar disorder is based on the presence of manic or hypomanic episodes, which are characterized by elevated of expansive mood, rapid speech, and increased activity of energy. Psychotic symptoms, such as delusions and hallucinations, may also be present.

      Bipolar depression differs from unipolar depression in several ways, including more rapid onset, more frequent episodes, and shorter duration. Rapid cycling is a qualifier that can be applied to bipolar I of bipolar II disorder and is defined as the presence of at least four mood episodes in the previous 12 months that meet the criteria for a manic, hypomanic, of major depressive episode.

      The management of bipolar disorder involves acute and long-term interventions. Acute management of mania or hypomania may involve stopping antidepressants and offering antipsychotics of mood stabilizers. Long-term management may involve psychological interventions and pharmacological treatments such as lithium, valproate, of olanzapine.

      It is important to note that valproate should not be offered to women of girls of childbearing potential for long-term bipolar disorder unless other options are ineffective of not tolerated and a pregnancy prevention program is in place. Aripiprazole is recommended as an option for treating moderate to severe manic episodes in adolescents with bipolar I disorder.

      Overall, the diagnosis and management of bipolar disorder require a comprehensive approach that takes into account the individual’s symptoms, history, and preferences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 91 - A teenager is experiencing symptoms of depression. What self-rated scale could be utilized...

    Incorrect

    • A teenager is experiencing symptoms of depression. What self-rated scale could be utilized to evaluate the intensity of their depression?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Beck depression inventory

      Explanation:

      The HAMD is a tool used by clinicians to assess the severity of depression, whereas the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale is primarily used for screening purposes.

      In psychiatry, various questionnaires and interviews are used to assess different conditions and areas. It is important for candidates to know whether certain assessment tools are self-rated of require clinical assistance. The table provided by the college lists some of the commonly used assessment tools and indicates whether they are self-rated of clinician-rated. For example, the HAMD and MADRS are clinician-rated scales used to assess the severity of depression, while the GDS is a self-rated scale used to screen for depression in the elderly. The YMRS is a clinician-rated scale used to assess the severity of mania in patients with bipolar disorder, while the Y-BOCS is used to measure both the severity of OCD and the response to treatment. The GAF provides a single measure of global functioning, while the CGI requires the clinician to rate the severity of the patient’s illness at the time of assessment. The CAMDEX is a tool developed to assist in the early diagnosis and measurement of dementia in the elderly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 92 - What is the prognosis for individuals diagnosed with anorexia nervosa? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the prognosis for individuals diagnosed with anorexia nervosa?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: About half will have recovered within 30 years

      Explanation:

      Anorexia Prognosis

      The long-term outcomes of anorexia are difficult to determine due to high drop-out rates from follow-up. However, one study found that over a 29 year period, half of patients recovered completely, a third recovered partially, 20% had a chronic eating disorder, and 5% died. Factors associated with a poor prognosis include a long duration of hospital care, psychiatric comorbidity, being adopted, growing up in a one-parent household, and having a young mother. Other factors that have been found to contribute to a poor prognosis include lower minimum weight, poor family relationships, failed treatment, late age of onset, and social problems.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 93 - What does the standardized mortality ratio indicate for individuals with schizophrenia? ...

    Incorrect

    • What does the standardized mortality ratio indicate for individuals with schizophrenia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2-Mar

      Explanation:

      Schizophrenia and Mortality

      Schizophrenia is associated with a reduced life expectancy, according to a meta-analysis of 37 studies. The analysis found that people with schizophrenia have a mean SMR (standardised mortality ratio) of 2.6, meaning that their risk of dying over the next year is 2.6 times higher than that of people without the condition. Suicide and accidents contribute significantly to the increased SMR, while cardiovascular disease is the leading natural cause of death. SMR decreases with age due to the early peak of suicides and the gradual rise in population mortality. There is no sex difference in SMR, but patients who are unmarried, unemployed, and of lower social class have higher SMRs. The majority of deaths in people with schizophrenia are due to natural causes, with circulatory disease being the most common. Other linked causes include diabetes, epilepsy, and respiratory disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 94 - What is the recommended course of action for a pregnant woman with a...

    Incorrect

    • What is the recommended course of action for a pregnant woman with a history of bipolar disorder who experiences mild depressive symptoms and is not currently taking any medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Guided self help

      Explanation:

      Bipolar Disorder in Women of Childbearing Potential

      Prophylaxis is recommended for women with bipolar disorder, as postpartum relapse rates are high. Women without prophylactic pharmacotherapy during pregnancy have a postpartum relapse rate of 66%, compared to 23% for women with prophylaxis. Antipsychotics are recommended for pregnant women with bipolar disorder, according to NICE Guidelines (CG192) and the Maudsley. Women taking valproate, lithium, carbamazepine, of lamotrigine should discontinue treatment and start an antipsychotic, especially if taking valproate. If a woman with bipolar disorder is taking lithium and becomes pregnant, she should gradually stop lithium over a 4 week period and start an antipsychotic. If this is not possible, lithium levels must be taken regularly, and the dose adjusted accordingly. For acute mania, an antipsychotic should be considered. For mild depressive symptoms, self-help approaches, brief psychological interventions, and antidepressant medication can be considered. For moderate to severe depressive symptoms, psychological treatment (CBT) for moderate depression and combined medication and structured psychological interventions for severe depression should be considered.

      Reference: Wesseloo, R., Kamperman, A. M., Munk-Olsen, T., Pop, V. J., Kushner, S. A., & Bergink, V. (2016). Risk of postpartum relapse in bipolar disorder and postpartum psychosis: a systematic review and meta-analysis. The American Journal of Psychiatry, 173(2), 117-127.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 95 - What is accurate about how CADASIL is presented? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is accurate about how CADASIL is presented?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The most common presentation is that of stroke of migraine

      Explanation:

      CADASIL: A Guide to a Comparatively Unrecognised Condition in Psychiatry

      CADASIL, of Cerebral autosomal dominant arteriopathy with subcortical infarcts and leukoencephalopathy, is a hereditary form of multi-infarct dementia that is progressive in nature. It has a prevalence of about 2 per 100,000 and typically presents at a young age, with onset occurring around 35-40 years old. The initial presentation of CADASIL is often neurological, with stroke of migraine being the primary symptoms in one-third of cases. Psychiatric manifestations are the initial presentation in 15% of cases, with mood disorders and subcortical dementia being the most common forms of psychiatric presentation. This condition is not widely recognized in psychiatry, making it important for healthcare professionals to be aware of its symptoms and potential psychiatric manifestations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
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  • Question 96 - Which drug of abuse has the longest detection window in urine? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which drug of abuse has the longest detection window in urine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cannabis

      Explanation:

      Drug Screening

      Drug testing can be conducted through various methods, but urinalysis is the most common. Urine drug tests can be either screening of confirmatory. Screening tests use enzymatic immunoassays to detect drug metabolites of classes of drug metabolites in the urine. However, these tests have limitations, such as false positives due to cross-reactivity. Therefore, any positive test should be confirmed through gas chromatography of mass spectrometry.

      People may try to manipulate drug testing procedures by adulterating the sample. Normal urine parameters, such as temperature, specific gravity, and pH, can assist in detecting adulterated samples. Adulterants include household items like vinegar, detergent, and ammonia, as well as commercially available products. Diluted urine may also yield false negatives.

      Detection times vary from person to person, and the approximate drug detection time in urine can be found in a table provided by Nelson (2016). False positives can occur due to cross-reactivity, as illustrated by Moeller (2017). Clinicians should be aware of the limitations of urine drug tests and the potential for manipulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 97 - What is the recommended duration of antidepressant treatment for children diagnosed with OCD...

    Incorrect

    • What is the recommended duration of antidepressant treatment for children diagnosed with OCD according to NICE guidelines?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 6 months following remission

      Explanation:

      For children and young individuals diagnosed with OCD of BDD, medication should be gradually discontinued if they have achieved remission, meaning their symptoms are no longer clinically significant and they are functioning normally, and this has been maintained for a minimum of 6 months. For adults, the recommended duration of remission before medication withdrawal is 12 months.

      OCD and BDD are two mental health disorders that can affect children. OCD is characterized by obsessions and compulsions, while BDD is characterized by a preoccupation with an imagined defect in one’s appearance. Both disorders can cause significant distress and impairment in daily functioning.

      For mild cases of OCD, guided self-help may be considered along with support and information for the family of caregivers. For moderate to severe cases of OCD, cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) that involves the family of caregivers and is adapted to suit the child’s developmental age is recommended. For all children and young people with BDD, CBT (including exposure and response prevention) is recommended.

      If a child declines psychological treatment, a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) may be prescribed. However, a licensed medication (sertraline of fluvoxamine) should be used for children and young people with OCD, while fluoxetine should be used for those with BDD. If an SSRI is ineffective of not tolerated, another SSRI of clomipramine may be tried. Tricyclic antidepressants other than clomipramine should not be used to treat OCD of BDD in children and young people. Other antidepressants (MAOIs, SNRIs) and antipsychotics should not be used alone in the routine treatment of OCD of BDD in children of young people, but may be considered as an augmentation strategy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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  • Question 98 - What is a significant obstacle for individuals to participate in mental health services?...

    Incorrect

    • What is a significant obstacle for individuals to participate in mental health services?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Significant financial and time costs that are associated with this involvement

      Explanation:

      Challenges and Benefits of Service User Involvement

      Paragraph 1: Implementing service user involvement can be costly and time-consuming for both organisations and service users. However, if done properly, it can bring significant benefits.

      Paragraph 2: In the past, there has been resistance to the idea of using service users as experts. However, involving service users in decision-making processes can lead to more effective and relevant services.

      Paragraph 3: Contrary to popular belief, service user involvement can actually help overcome social isolation and improve mental health outcomes.

      Paragraph 4: Despite the benefits, there has historically been a lack of resources for service users and carers on how to get involved in their local services. This needs to be addressed to ensure that service user involvement is accessible and inclusive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Organisation And Delivery Of Psychiatric Services
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  • Question 99 - Which of the following exceeds the weekly alcohol limit recommended for women, which...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following exceeds the weekly alcohol limit recommended for women, which is no more than 21 units per week?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 12 × 500 ml bottles of 4% ABV 'alcopop'

      Explanation:

      – ABV indicates the number of units of alcohol per litre of a liquid.
      – The total number of alcoholic units in any given amount of liquid may be calculated by multiplying the volume of liquid (ml) by the ABV and dividing by 1000.
      – A 1L bottle of 20% ABV port contains 20 units of alcohol.
      – 6 large (250 ml) glasses of 12% ABV wine contain 18 units of alcohol.
      – 12 330ml bottles of 5% ABV lager contain 20 units of alcohol.
      – 12 500 ml bottles of 4% ABV ‘alcopop’ contain 24 units of alcohol.
      – 20 standard (25 ml) measures of 40% ABV whiskey contain 20 units of alcohol.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Organisation And Delivery Of Psychiatric Services
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  • Question 100 - Which antipsychotic medication should not be taken while breastfeeding due to safety concerns?...

    Incorrect

    • Which antipsychotic medication should not be taken while breastfeeding due to safety concerns?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clozapine

      Explanation:

      Breastfeeding mothers should avoid using clozapine as it has been linked to agranulocytosis in their infants. (Howard, 2004).

      Paroxetine Use During Pregnancy: Is it Safe?

      Prescribing medication during pregnancy and breastfeeding is challenging due to the potential risks to the fetus of baby. No psychotropic medication has a UK marketing authorization specifically for pregnant of breastfeeding women. Women are encouraged to breastfeed unless they are taking carbamazepine, clozapine, of lithium. The risk of spontaneous major malformation is 2-3%, with drugs accounting for approximately 5% of all abnormalities. Valproate and carbamazepine are associated with an increased risk of neural tube defects, and lithium is associated with cardiac malformations. Benzodiazepines are associated with oral clefts and floppy baby syndrome. Antidepressants have been linked to preterm delivery and congenital malformation, but most findings have been inconsistent. TCAs have been used widely without apparent detriment to the fetus, but their use in the third trimester is known to produce neonatal withdrawal effects. Sertraline appears to result in the least placental exposure among SSRIs. MAOIs should be avoided in pregnancy due to a suspected increased risk of congenital malformations and hypertensive crisis. If a pregnant woman is stable on an antipsychotic and likely to relapse without medication, she should continue the antipsychotic. Depot antipsychotics should not be offered to pregnant of breastfeeding women unless they have a history of non-adherence with oral medication. The Maudsley Guidelines suggest specific drugs for use during pregnancy and breastfeeding. NICE CG192 recommends high-intensity psychological interventions for moderate to severe depression and anxiety disorders. Antipsychotics are recommended for pregnant women with mania of psychosis who are not taking psychotropic medication. Promethazine is recommended for insomnia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 101 - In a randomised controlled trial investigating the initial management of sexual dysfunction with...

    Incorrect

    • In a randomised controlled trial investigating the initial management of sexual dysfunction with two drugs, some patients withdraw from the study due to medication-related adverse effects. What is the appropriate method for analysing the resulting data?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Include the patients who drop out in the final data set

      Explanation:

      Intention to Treat Analysis in Randomized Controlled Trials

      Intention to treat analysis is a statistical method used in randomized controlled trials to analyze all patients who were randomly assigned to a treatment group, regardless of whether they completed of received the treatment. This approach is used to avoid the potential biases that may arise from patients dropping out of switching between treatment groups. By analyzing all patients according to their original treatment assignment, intention to treat analysis provides a more accurate representation of the true treatment effects. This method is widely used in clinical trials to ensure that the results are reliable and unbiased.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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  • Question 102 - What is a true statement about supportive psychotherapy? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about supportive psychotherapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Disruption of the clients defenses should be avoided

      Explanation:

      Supportive psychotherapy is a suitable option for individuals who have weak ego strength and are unable to handle the anxiety that may arise from more intrusive forms of therapy. The primary goal of this therapy is to provide stability and support, rather than causing disruption, and it is important to avoid disturbing a client’s defenses whenever possible.

      Research has shown that supportive psychotherapy can be effective in treating depression (Grover, 2020). Additionally, there is evidence to suggest that it can be helpful for individuals with schizophrenia. However, it is important to note that this therapy should only be used when other psychological treatments have not been successful of are not appropriate.

      Reference: Grover, S. (2020). Clinical practice guidelines for the practice of supportive psychotherapy. Indian Journal of Psychiatry, 62(Suppl 2), S173-S182.

      Supportive Psychotherapy: An Overview

      Supportive psychotherapy is a widely used approach in psychiatry, often reserved for clients who are not suitable for other forms of therapy. It aims to provide emotional support and encouragement to help people cope with overwhelming stress and restore them to their previous level of functioning. This therapy is not based on any specific psychological theory and is eclectic in approach.

      Supportive psychotherapy is generally used with two different patient groups: those who were otherwise functioning well but have become symptomatic due to stress, and those who are not suitable for other forms of therapy. The goal of therapy is to help the patient get on with their life as best as possible, without disrupting reasonable defenses of generating conflicts.

      The therapist avoids confrontation and transference issues are rarely analyzed. However, the therapeutic aims of long-term supportive psychotherapy include establishing a therapeutic alliance, holding and containing, promoting awareness of transference issues, promoting stability, facilitating the maturation of defenses, and promoting better adaptation to reality.

      Supportive psychotherapy has been dismissed as ‘hand holding,’ but it should not be underestimated. It is suitable for most patients and is often the only therapy that can help when others have failed. Much of the work doctors do in outpatient clinics could be classified as supportive psychotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychotherapy
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  • Question 103 - What symptoms of treatments would be appropriate for a patient with both diabetes...

    Incorrect

    • What symptoms of treatments would be appropriate for a patient with both diabetes and schizophrenia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amisulpride

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotic Medication and Diabetes Risk

      Individuals with schizophrenia are already at a higher risk for developing diabetes. However, taking antipsychotic medication can further increase this risk. Among the various antipsychotics, clozapine and olanzapine are associated with the highest risk. To mitigate this risk, the Maudsley recommends using amisulpride, aripiprazole, of ziprasidone for patients with a history of predisposition for diabetes. It is important for healthcare providers to carefully consider the potential risks and benefits of antipsychotic medication when treating patients with schizophrenia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 104 - The application of technology in mental health care is advancing quickly. What technological...

    Incorrect

    • The application of technology in mental health care is advancing quickly. What technological advancements have been effective in managing auditory hallucinations?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Avatar therapy

      Explanation:

      The advancements in technology and the widespread availability of smartphones and internet access can be utilized to improve patient care and equip clinicians with more tools for diagnosing and treating mental illnesses. One promising approach is avatar therapy, which has shown positive results in treating auditory hallucinations in patients who did not respond well to medication. Additionally, automated objective behavioral analysis has been used to monitor and predict mood and emotional responses. However, online cognitive behavioral therapy has not been found to be effective in treating auditory hallucinations. Personal Zen is a mobile and tablet app that gamifies techniques proven to be helpful in managing anxiety and stress. Finally, virtual reality exposure therapy has been used to treat post-traumatic stress disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Organisation And Delivery Of Psychiatric Services
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  • Question 105 - A team of scientists aims to perform a systematic review and meta-analysis of...

    Incorrect

    • A team of scientists aims to perform a systematic review and meta-analysis of the effects of caffeine on sleep quality. They want to determine if there is any variation in the results across the studies they have gathered.
      Which of the following is not a technique that can be employed to evaluate heterogeneity?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Receiver operating characteristic curve

      Explanation:

      The receiver operating characteristic (ROC) curve is a useful tool for evaluating the diagnostic accuracy of a test in distinguishing between healthy and diseased individuals. It helps to identify the optimal cut-off point between sensitivity and specificity.

      Other methods, such as visual inspection of forest plots and Cochran’s Q test, can be used to assess heterogeneity in meta-analysis. Visual inspection of forest plots is a quick and easy method, while Cochran’s Q test is a more formal and widely accepted approach.

      For more information on heterogeneity in meta-analysis, further reading is recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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  • Question 106 - According to Klerman's bipolar subtypes, which of the following is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • According to Klerman's bipolar subtypes, which of the following is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bipolar VI refers to mania without depression

      Explanation:

      Klerman identified bipolar VI as unipolar mania, which is characterized by manic episodes without any history of depression. However, determining the exact prevalence of unipolar mania is challenging. Studies suggest that individuals with unipolar mania tend to exhibit hyperthymic temperament, grandiosity, and psychotic symptoms before the onset of the illness. They also experience less rapid cycling, suicidality, comorbid anxiety disorder, and seasonality compared to those with bipolar mania. Unfortunately, unipolar mania does not respond well to lithium prophylaxis, and valproate may be a more effective treatment option for these patients.

      Bipolar Disorder: Historical Subtypes

      Bipolar disorder is a complex mental illness that has been classified into several subtypes over the years. The most widely recognized subtypes are Bipolar I, Bipolar II, and Cyclothymia. However, there have been other classification systems proposed by experts in the field.

      In 1981, Gerald Klerman proposed a classification system that included Bipolar I, Bipolar II, Bipolar III, Bipolar IV, Bipolar V, and Bipolar VI. This system was later expanded by Akiskal in 1999, who added more subtypes such as Bipolar I 1/2, Bipolar II 1/2, and Bipolar III 1/2.

      Bipolar I is characterized by full-blown mania, while Bipolar II is characterized by hypomania with depression. Cyclothymia is a milder form of bipolar disorder that involves cycling between hypomania and mild depression.

      Other subtypes include Bipolar III, which is associated with hypomania of mania precipitated by antidepressant drugs, and Bipolar IV, which is characterized by hyperthymic depression. Bipolar V is associated with depressed patients who have a family history of bipolar illness, while Bipolar VI is characterized by mania without depression (unipolar mania).

      Overall, the classification of bipolar disorder subtypes has evolved over time, and different experts have proposed different systems. However, the most widely recognized subtypes are still Bipolar I, Bipolar II, and Cyclothymia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 107 - What is the estimated percentage of female inmates in England and Wales who...

    Incorrect

    • What is the estimated percentage of female inmates in England and Wales who are believed to have borderline personality disorder?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 20%

      Explanation:

      Prisoner Mental Health: Epidemiological Data from the UK

      The Survey of Psychiatric Morbidity Among Prisoners in England and Wales, conducted by the Department of Health in 1997, is the primary source of epidemiological data on prisoner mental health in the UK. Despite the lack of updates, this survey remains a valuable resource for understanding the mental health needs of prisoners.

      Although the prison population represents only 0.1% of the total UK population, prisoners are extensive consumers of mental health services. In 1997, the UK prison population consisted of 46,872 male sentenced prisoners (76%), 12,302 male remand prisoners, and 2,770 female prisoners (<5%). The 1997 study involved interviews with over 3000 prisoners. The key findings of the 1997 study revealed high rates of personality disorders among prisoners, with 78% of male remand, 64% of male sentenced, and 50% of female prisoners having any personality disorder. Antisocial personality disorder had the highest prevalence, followed by paranoid personality disorder. Borderline personality disorder was more common in females than paranoid personality disorder. The study also found high rates of functional psychosis, with prevalence rates of 7% for male sentenced, 10% for male remand, and 14% for females. Rates of suicidal ideation and attempts were higher in remand compared to sentenced prisoners, with women reporting higher rates of suicidal ideation and attempts than males. Overall, the 1997 survey highlights the significant mental health needs of prisoners in the UK and underscores the importance of providing adequate mental health services to this population.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Forensic Psychiatry
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  • Question 108 - Which statement accurately describes child abuse? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement accurately describes child abuse?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Boys are more likely than girls to experience physical abuse

      Explanation:

      The Royal College of Psychiatrists in London published a report in April 2004 on the role of mental health services in addressing child abuse and neglect. The report identifies neglect as the most common form of child abuse, followed by physical abuse, emotional abuse, sexual abuse, and fabricated or induced illness. The report emphasizes the importance of mental health services in addressing and preventing child abuse and neglect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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  • Question 109 - Which of the following statements about calculating the correlation coefficient (r) for the...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements about calculating the correlation coefficient (r) for the relationship between age and systolic blood pressure is not accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: May be used to predict systolic blood pressure for a given age

      Explanation:

      To make predictions about systolic blood pressure, linear regression is necessary in this situation.

      Stats: Correlation and Regression

      Correlation and regression are related but not interchangeable terms. Correlation is used to test for association between variables, while regression is used to predict values of dependent variables from independent variables. Correlation can be linear, non-linear, of non-existent, and can be strong, moderate, of weak. The strength of a linear relationship is measured by the correlation coefficient, which can be positive of negative and ranges from very weak to very strong. However, the interpretation of a correlation coefficient depends on the context and purposes. Correlation can suggest association but cannot prove of disprove causation. Linear regression, on the other hand, can be used to predict how much one variable changes when a second variable is changed. Scatter graphs are used in correlation and regression analyses to visually determine if variables are associated and to detect outliers. When constructing a scatter graph, the dependent variable is typically placed on the vertical axis and the independent variable on the horizontal axis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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  • Question 110 - What is one of the diagnostic criteria for conduct disorder according to DSM-5?...

    Incorrect

    • What is one of the diagnostic criteria for conduct disorder according to DSM-5?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Often bullies, threatens, of intimidates others

      Explanation:

      Individuals diagnosed with conduct disorder typically engage in bullying, intimidation, and threats towards others, with a primary emphasis on their behavior. In contrast, oppositional defiant disorder can be viewed as a milder form of conduct disorder, as it encompasses both behavior and emotions.

      Disruptive Behaviour of Dissocial Disorders

      Conduct disorders are the most common reason for referral of young children to mental health services. These disorders are characterized by a repetitive and persistent pattern of antisocial, aggressive, of defiant conduct that goes beyond ordinary childish mischief of adolescent rebelliousness. Oppositional defiant disorder (ODD) shares some negative attributes but in a more limited fashion.

      ICD-11 terms the disorder as ‘Conduct-dissocial disorder’, while DSM-5 recognizes three separate conditions related to emotional/behavioral problems seen in younger people: conduct disorder, oppositional defiant disorder, and intermittent explosive disorder. Conduct disorder is about poorly controlled behavior, intermittent explosive disorder is about poorly controlled emotions, and ODD is in between. Conduct disorders are further divided into childhood onset (before 10 years) and adolescent onset (10 years of older).

      The behavior pattern of conduct disorders must be persistent and recurrent, including multiple incidents of aggression towards people of animals, destruction of property, deceitfulness of theft, and serious violations of rules. The pattern of behavior must result in significant impairment in personal, family, social, educational, occupational, of other important areas of functioning.

      Oppositional defiant disorder represents a less severe form of conduct disorder, where there is an absence of more severe dissocial of aggressive acts. The behavior pattern of ODD includes persistent difficulty getting along with others, provocative, spiteful, of vindictive behavior, and extreme irritability of anger.

      The prevalence of conduct disorders increases throughout childhood and is more common in boys than girls. The most frequent comorbid problem seen with conduct disorder is hyperactivity. The conversion rate from childhood conduct disorder to adult antisocial personality disorder varies from 40 to 70% depending on the study.

      NICE recommends group parent-based training programs of parent and child training programs for children with complex needs for ages 3-11, child-focused programs for ages 9-14, and multimodal interventions with a family focus for ages 11-17. Medication is not recommended in routine practice, but risperidone can be used where other approaches fail and they are seriously aggressive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Substance Misuse/Addictions (3/3) 100%
General Adult Psychiatry (2/4) 50%
Child And Adolescent Psychiatry (0/1) 0%
Psychotherapy (1/1) 100%
Forensic Psychiatry (1/1) 100%
Organisation And Delivery Of Psychiatric Services (1/1) 100%
Passmed