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Question 1
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A 32-year-old woman presents with a diagnosis of cluster headache.
Which SINGLE clinical feature would be inconsistent with this diagnosis?Your Answer: Ipsilateral mydriasis
Explanation:Cluster headaches primarily affect men in their 20s, with a male to female ratio of 6:1. Smoking is also a contributing factor to the development of cluster headaches. These headaches typically occur in clusters, hence the name, lasting for a few weeks every year or two. The pain experienced is intense and localized, often felt around or behind the eye. It tends to occur at the same time each day and can lead to restlessness, with some patients resorting to hitting their head against a wall or the floor in an attempt to distract themselves from the pain.
In addition to the severe pain, cluster headaches also involve autonomic symptoms. These symptoms include redness and inflammation of the conjunctiva on the same side as the headache, as well as a runny nose and excessive tearing on the affected side. The pupil on the same side may also constrict, and there may be drooping of the eyelid on that side as well.
Overall, cluster headaches are a debilitating condition that predominantly affects young men. The pain experienced is excruciating and can lead to extreme measures to alleviate it. The associated autonomic symptoms further contribute to the discomfort and distress caused by these headaches.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 2
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A 40-year-old man receives a blood transfusion after surgery. Shortly after starting the transfusion, he experiences hives and itching all over his body. He is in good health otherwise and shows no signs of any breathing difficulties or wheezing.
Which of the following transfusion reactions is most likely to have happened?Your Answer: Allergic reaction
Explanation:Blood transfusion is a crucial treatment that can save lives, but it also comes with various risks and potential problems. These include immunological complications, administration errors, infections, and immune dilution. While there has been an improvement in safety procedures and a reduction in transfusion use, errors and serious adverse reactions still occur and often go unreported.
Mild allergic reactions during blood transfusion are relatively common and typically occur within a few minutes of starting the transfusion. These reactions happen when patients have antibodies that react with foreign plasma proteins in the transfused blood components. Symptoms of mild allergic reactions include urticaria, Pruritus, and hives.
Anaphylaxis, on the other hand, is much rarer and occurs when an individual has previously been sensitized to an allergen present in the blood. When re-exposed to the allergen, the body releases IgE or IgG antibodies, leading to severe symptoms such as bronchospasm, laryngospasm, abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, hypotension, shock, and loss of consciousness. Anaphylaxis can be fatal.
Mild allergic reactions can be managed by slowing down the transfusion rate and administering antihistamines. If there is no progression after 30 minutes, the transfusion may continue. Patients who have experienced repeated allergic reactions to transfusion should be given pre-treatment with chlorpheniramine. In cases of anaphylaxis, the transfusion should be stopped immediately, and the patient should receive oxygen, adrenaline, corticosteroids, and antihistamines following the ALS protocol.
The table below summarizes the main transfusion reactions and complications, along with their features and management:
Complication | Features | Management
Febrile transfusion reaction | 1 degree rise in temperature, chills, malaise | Supportive care, paracetamol
Acute haemolytic reaction | Fever, chills, pain at transfusion site, nausea, vomiting, dark urine | STOP THE TRANSFUSION, administer IV fluids, diuretics if necessary
Delayed haemolytic reaction | Fever, anaemia, jaundice, haemoglobinuria | Monitor anaemia and renal function, treat as required
Allergic reaction | Urticaria, Pruritus, hives | Symptomatic treatment with ant -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 75-year-old man with a history of heart failure and atrial fibrillation comes in with severe vomiting and diarrhea. Blood tests are done, and an electrolyte imbalance is observed.
Which electrolyte imbalance poses the greatest risk for a patient who is on digoxin?Your Answer: Hypokalaemia
Explanation:Digoxin is a medication used to treat atrial fibrillation and flutter as well as congestive cardiac failure. It belongs to a class of drugs called cardiac glycosides. Digoxin works by inhibiting the Na/K ATPase pump in the cardiac myocytes, which are the cells of the heart. This inhibition leads to an increase in the concentration of sodium inside the cells and indirectly increases the availability of calcium through the Na/Ca exchange mechanism. The rise in intracellular calcium levels results in a positive inotropic effect, meaning it strengthens the force of the heart’s contractions, and a negative chronotropic effect, meaning it slows down the heart rate.
However, it’s important to note that digoxin can cause toxicity, which is characterized by high levels of potassium in the blood, known as hyperkalemia. Normally, the Na/K ATPase pump helps maintain the balance of sodium and potassium by allowing sodium to leave the cells and potassium to enter. When digoxin blocks this pump, it disrupts this balance and leads to higher levels of potassium in the bloodstream.
Interestingly, the risk of developing digoxin toxicity is higher in individuals with low levels of potassium, known as hypokalemia. This is because digoxin binds to the ATPase pump at the same site as potassium. When potassium levels are low, digoxin can more easily bind to the ATPase pump and exert its inhibitory effects.
In summary, digoxin is a cardiac glycoside that is used to treat certain heart conditions. It works by inhibiting the Na/K ATPase pump, leading to increased intracellular calcium levels and resulting in a positive inotropic effect and negative chronotropic effect. However, digoxin can also cause toxicity, leading to high levels of potassium in the blood. The risk of toxicity is higher in individuals with low potassium levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 4
Correct
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A 45 year old male is brought to the emergency department after developing a rash shortly after receiving a flu vaccination at the local clinic. On arrival it is noted that the patient's lips and throat have started to swell. You diagnose anaphylaxis and decide to administer epinephrine. What is the most suitable dosage?
Your Answer: 500 micrograms (0.5ml 1 in 1,000) adrenaline by intramuscular injection
Explanation:The most suitable dosage of epinephrine for a patient experiencing anaphylaxis after a flu vaccination is 500 micrograms (0.5ml 1 in 1,000) adrenaline by intramuscular injection.
Anaphylaxis is a severe and life-threatening hypersensitivity reaction that can have sudden onset and progression. It is characterized by skin or mucosal changes and can lead to life-threatening airway, breathing, or circulatory problems. Anaphylaxis can be allergic or non-allergic in nature.
In allergic anaphylaxis, there is an immediate hypersensitivity reaction where an antigen stimulates the production of IgE antibodies. These antibodies bind to mast cells and basophils. Upon re-exposure to the antigen, the IgE-covered cells release histamine and other inflammatory mediators, causing smooth muscle contraction and vasodilation.
Non-allergic anaphylaxis occurs when mast cells degrade due to a non-immune mediator. The clinical outcome is the same as in allergic anaphylaxis.
The management of anaphylaxis is the same regardless of the cause. Adrenaline is the most important drug and should be administered as soon as possible. The recommended doses for adrenaline vary based on age. Other treatments include high flow oxygen and an IV fluid challenge. Corticosteroids and chlorpheniramine are no longer recommended, while non-sedating antihistamines may be considered as third-line treatment after initial stabilization of airway, breathing, and circulation.
Common causes of anaphylaxis include food (such as nuts, which is the most common cause in children), drugs, and venom (such as wasp stings). Sometimes it can be challenging to determine if a patient had a true episode of anaphylaxis. In such cases, serum tryptase levels may be measured, as they remain elevated for up to 12 hours following an acute episode of anaphylaxis.
The Resuscitation Council (UK) provides guidelines for the management of anaphylaxis, including a visual algorithm that outlines the recommended steps for treatment.
https://www.resus.org.uk/sites/default/files/2021-05/Emergency%20Treatment%20of%20Anaphylaxis%20May%202021_0.pdf -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 5
Incorrect
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You are summoned to the resuscitation bay to aid in the care of a 45-year-old male who has suffered a head injury. A fellow healthcare provider informs you that the patient is exhibiting Cushing's triad of symptoms. What is the most accurate description of Cushing's triad?
Your Answer: Hypotension, bradycardia and papilloedema
Correct Answer: Widened pulse pressure, bradycardia and bradypnoea
Explanation:Cushing’s triad is a combination of widened pulse pressure, bradycardia, and reduced respirations. It is a physiological response of the nervous system to acute increases in intracranial pressure (ICP). This response, known as the Cushing reflex, can cause the symptoms of Cushing’s triad. These symptoms include an increase in systolic blood pressure and a decrease in diastolic blood pressure, a slower heart rate, and irregular or reduced breathing. Additionally, raised ICP can also lead to other symptoms such as headache, papilloedema, and vomiting.
Further Reading:
Intracranial pressure (ICP) refers to the pressure within the craniospinal compartment, which includes neural tissue, blood, and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). Normal ICP for a supine adult is 5-15 mmHg. The body maintains ICP within a narrow range through shifts in CSF production and absorption. If ICP rises, it can lead to decreased cerebral perfusion pressure, resulting in cerebral hypoperfusion, ischemia, and potentially brain herniation.
The cranium, which houses the brain, is a closed rigid box in adults and cannot expand. It is made up of 8 bones and contains three main components: brain tissue, cerebral blood, and CSF. Brain tissue accounts for about 80% of the intracranial volume, while CSF and blood each account for about 10%. The Monro-Kellie doctrine states that the sum of intracranial volumes is constant, so an increase in one component must be offset by a decrease in the others.
There are various causes of raised ICP, including hematomas, neoplasms, brain abscesses, edema, CSF circulation disorders, venous sinus obstruction, and accelerated hypertension. Symptoms of raised ICP include headache, vomiting, pupillary changes, reduced cognition and consciousness, neurological signs, abnormal fundoscopy, cranial nerve palsy, hemiparesis, bradycardia, high blood pressure, irregular breathing, focal neurological deficits, seizures, stupor, coma, and death.
Measuring ICP typically requires invasive procedures, such as inserting a sensor through the skull. Management of raised ICP involves a multi-faceted approach, including antipyretics to maintain normothermia, seizure control, positioning the patient with a 30º head up tilt, maintaining normal blood pressure, providing analgesia, using drugs to lower ICP (such as mannitol or saline), and inducing hypocapnoeic vasoconstriction through hyperventilation. If these measures are ineffective, second-line therapies like barbiturate coma, optimised hyperventilation, controlled hypothermia, or decompressive craniectomy may be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 40-year-old woman comes in with bitemporal hemianopia resulting from a meningioma.
Where in the visual pathway has this lesion occurred?Your Answer: Optic chiasm
Explanation:The optic chiasm is situated just below the hypothalamus and is in close proximity to the pituitary gland. When the pituitary gland enlarges, it can impact the functioning of the optic nerve at this location. Specifically, the fibres from the nasal half of the retina cross over at the optic chiasm to form the optic tracts. Compression at the optic chiasm primarily affects these fibres, resulting in a visual defect that affects peripheral vision in both eyes, known as bitemporal hemianopia. There are several causes of optic chiasm lesions, with the most common being a pituitary tumor. Other causes include craniopharyngioma, meningioma, optic glioma, and internal carotid artery aneurysm. The diagram below provides a summary of the different visual field defects that can occur at various points in the visual pathway.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 45-year-old woman that is 42-weeks pregnant becomes suddenly very breathless shortly after going into labor. An ambulance is called, and she is ‘blue lighted’ into the resus area of your Emergency Department. She appears cyanosed and states that her heart feels like it is ‘beating very quickly’. Shortly after arriving in the Emergency Department, she becomes unresponsive. You notice a change in rhythm to ventricular fibrillation on the cardiac monitor and are unable to detect a pulse or any signs of life. She receives three stacked shocks and is managed according to the ALS algorithm, but initial attempts at resuscitation are unsuccessful.
Which of the following management options is most likely to improve his likelihood of successful resuscitation?Your Answer: Peri-mortem Caesarean section
Explanation:Based on her presentation, the most probable cause of the cardiac arrest in this case is either a pulmonary embolism or amniotic fluid embolism.
When dealing with a cardiac arrest during pregnancy, there are several adjustments that need to be made compared to a regular cardiac arrest situation. These adjustments include:
– Ensuring the presence of an obstetrician
– Having a paediatrician or neonatologist available
– Manually displacing the uterus to the left in order to relieve caval compression
– Tilting the table to the left side, ideally at a 15-30 degree angle
– Performing early tracheal intubation to reduce the risk of aspiration (it is recommended to seek expert anaesthetic assistance for this)
– Initiating preparations for an emergency Caesarean sectionIn the event of a cardiac arrest, a perimortem Caesarean section should be performed within 5 minutes of the onset. This procedure is crucial as it relieves caval compression, improves the chances of successful resuscitation by increasing venous return during CPR, and maximizes the likelihood of the infant’s survival. The best survival rate for the infant occurs when delivery is achieved within 5 minutes of the mother’s cardiac arrest.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics & Gynaecology
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Question 8
Correct
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You are requested to evaluate a 32-year-old male patient who has undergone an initial evaluation by one of the medical students. The medical student suspects that the patient may have irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). Which of the subsequent clinical characteristics is atypical for IBS and would raise concerns about a potentially more severe underlying condition in this patient?
Your Answer: Rectal bleeding
Explanation:If someone with IBS experiences unintentional weight loss or rectal bleeding, it is important to investigate further as these symptoms are not typical of IBS and may indicate a more serious underlying condition. Other alarm symptoms to watch out for include positive faecal immunochemical test (FIT), change in bowel habit after the age of 60, elevated faecal calprotectin levels, iron deficiency anaemia, persistent or frequent bloating in females (especially if over 50), the presence of an abdominal or rectal mass, or a family history of bowel cancer, ovarian cancer, coeliac disease, or inflammatory bowel disease.
Further Reading:
Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is a chronic disorder that affects the interaction between the gut and the brain. The exact cause of IBS is not fully understood, but factors such as genetics, drug use, enteric infections, diet, and psychosocial factors are believed to play a role. The main symptoms of IBS include abdominal pain, changes in stool form and/or frequency, and bloating. IBS can be classified into subtypes based on the predominant stool type, including diarrhea-predominant, constipation-predominant, mixed, and unclassified.
Diagnosing IBS involves using the Rome IV criteria, which includes recurrent abdominal pain associated with changes in stool frequency and form. It is important to rule out other more serious conditions that may mimic IBS through a thorough history, physical examination, and appropriate investigations. Treatment for IBS primarily involves diet and lifestyle modifications. Patients are advised to eat regular meals with a healthy, balanced diet and adjust their fiber intake based on symptoms. A low FODMAP diet may be trialed, and a dietician may be consulted for guidance. Regular physical activity and weight management are also recommended.
Psychosocial factors, such as stress, anxiety, and depression, should be addressed and managed appropriately. If constipation is a predominant symptom, soluble fiber supplements or foods high in soluble fiber may be recommended. Laxatives can be considered if constipation persists, and linaclotide may be tried if optimal doses of previous laxatives have not been effective. Antimotility drugs like loperamide can be used for diarrhea, and antispasmodic drugs or low-dose tricyclic antidepressants may be prescribed for abdominal pain. If symptoms persist or are refractory to treatment, alternative diagnoses should be considered, and referral to a specialist may be necessary.
Overall, the management of IBS should be individualized based on the patient’s symptoms and psychosocial situation. Clear explanation of the condition and providing resources for patient education, such as the NHS patient information leaflet and support from organizations like The IBS Network, can also be beneficial.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 45-year-old woman is brought into resus by blue light ambulance following a car accident. She was hit by a truck while crossing the road and has a suspected pelvic injury. She is currently on a backboard with cervical spine protection and a pelvic binder in place. The massive transfusion protocol is activated.
According to the ATLS guidelines, what other medication should be administered?Your Answer: Tranexamic acid
Explanation:ATLS guidelines now suggest administering only 1 liter of crystalloid fluid during the initial assessment. If patients do not respond to the crystalloid, it is recommended to quickly transition to blood products. Studies have shown that infusing more than 1.5 liters of crystalloid fluid is associated with higher mortality rates in trauma cases. Therefore, it is advised to prioritize the early use of blood products and avoid large volumes of crystalloid fluid in trauma patients. In cases where it is necessary, massive transfusion should be considered, defined as the transfusion of more than 10 units of blood in 24 hours or more than 4 units of blood in one hour. For patients with evidence of Class III and IV hemorrhage, early resuscitation with blood and blood products in low ratios is recommended.
Based on the findings of significant trials, such as the CRASH-2 study, the use of tranexamic acid is now recommended within 3 hours. This involves administering a loading dose of 1 gram intravenously over 10 minutes, followed by an infusion of 1 gram over eight hours. In some regions, tranexamic acid is also being utilized in the prehospital setting.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 10
Correct
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You evaluate the pupillary light reflex in a patient with a cranial nerve impairment. When the light is directed into the left eye, there is no alteration in pupil size in either the left or right eye. However, when the light is directed into the right eye, both the left and right pupils constrict.
What is the location of the lesion in this scenario?Your Answer: Left optic nerve
Explanation:The pupillary light reflex is a reflex that regulates the size of the pupil in response to the intensity of light that reaches the retina. It consists of two separate pathways, the afferent pathway and the efferent pathway.
The afferent pathway begins with light entering the pupil and stimulating the retinal ganglion cells in the retina. These cells then transmit the light signal to the optic nerve. At the optic chiasm, the nasal retinal fibers cross to the opposite optic tract, while the temporal retinal fibers remain in the same optic tract. The fibers from the optic tracts then project and synapse in the pretectal nuclei in the dorsal midbrain. From there, the pretectal nuclei send fibers to the ipsilateral Edinger-Westphal nucleus via the posterior commissure.
On the other hand, the efferent pathway starts with the Edinger-Westphal nucleus projecting preganglionic parasympathetic fibers. These fibers exit the midbrain and travel along the oculomotor nerve. They then synapse on post-ganglionic parasympathetic fibers in the ciliary ganglion. The post-ganglionic fibers, known as the short ciliary nerves, innervate the sphincter muscle of the pupils, causing them to constrict.
The result of these pathways is that when light is shone in one eye, both the direct pupillary light reflex (ipsilateral eye) and the consensual pupillary light reflex (contralateral eye) occur.
Lesions affecting the pupillary light reflex can be identified by comparing the direct and consensual reactions to light in both eyes. If the optic nerve of the first eye is damaged, both the direct and consensual reflexes in the second eye will be lost. However, when light is shone into the second eye, the pupil of the first eye will still constrict. If the optic nerve of the second eye is damaged, the second eye will constrict consensually when light is shone into the unaffected first eye. If the oculomotor nerve of the first eye is damaged, the first eye will have no direct light reflex, but the second eye will still constrict consensually. Finally, if the oculomotor nerve of the second eye is damaged, there will be no consensual constriction of the second eye when light is shone into the unaffected first eye.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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