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  • Question 1 - A 9-month-old boy is presented to the GP with a 4-week history of...

    Correct

    • A 9-month-old boy is presented to the GP with a 4-week history of rash. He has no significant medical history and is meeting developmental milestones appropriately. He has received all of his scheduled immunizations, has no known allergies, and is feeding and urinating well. Upon examination, there is a symmetrical, poorly defined erythematous rash on his elbows and knees. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Eczema

      Explanation:

      Atopic eczema commonly appears in children before the age of 2, with symptoms often affecting the face and extensor surfaces of the body. This patient’s visible dermatitis in the extensor aspects of her body suggests a diagnosis of atopic eczema based on clinical presentation. Impetigo, pemphigus vulgaris, and psoriasis are unlikely diagnoses given the patient’s symmetrical dry rash involving the extensor aspects of the limbs.

      Eczema in Children: Symptoms and Management

      Eczema is a common skin condition that affects around 15-20% of children and is becoming more prevalent. It usually appears before the age of 2 and clears up in around 50% of children by the age of 5 and in 75% of children by the age of 10. The symptoms of eczema include an itchy, red rash that can worsen with repeated scratching. In infants, the face and trunk are often affected, while in younger children, it typically occurs on the extensor surfaces. In older children, the rash is more commonly seen on the flexor surfaces and in the creases of the face and neck.

      To manage eczema in children, it is important to avoid irritants and use simple emollients. Large quantities of emollients should be prescribed, roughly in a ratio of 10:1 with topical steroids. If a topical steroid is also being used, the emollient should be applied first, followed by waiting at least 30 minutes before applying the topical steroid. Creams are absorbed into the skin faster than ointments, and emollients can become contaminated with bacteria, so fingers should not be inserted into pots. Many brands have pump dispensers to prevent contamination.

      In severe cases, wet wrapping may be used, which involves applying large amounts of emollient (and sometimes topical steroids) under wet bandages. Oral ciclosporin may also be used in severe cases. Overall, managing eczema in children involves a combination of avoiding irritants, using emollients, and potentially using topical steroids or other medications in severe cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      42
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 32-year-old man presents with a burning sensation and unusual appearance to his...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man presents with a burning sensation and unusual appearance to his tongue. Upon examination, small bumps are observed on the surface of the tongue, along with red patches and white lines that resemble a map.
      What is the most probable cause?

      Your Answer: Geographic tongue

      Explanation:

      Understanding Geographic Tongue: Symptoms, Causes, and Treatment

      Geographic tongue, also known as benign migratory glossitis, is a common condition that affects the tongue. It is characterized by irregularly shaped, red, smooth, and swollen patches on the tongue, often with a white border, giving rise to a map-like appearance. The exact cause of geographic tongue is unknown, but it has been associated with fissured tongue and has an inverse association with cigarette smoking.

      Symptoms of geographic tongue include a burning sensation on the tongue, and eating acidic foods can worsen the pain. While the condition is usually self-limiting, symptomatic treatment can include topical anaesthetic preparations and/or soluble corticosteroids used as a ‘mouth rinse’.

      It is important to note that geographic tongue is not a pre-malignant condition and is not associated with an increased risk of oral cancer. However, it is important to seek medical attention if you experience any unusual symptoms or changes in your oral health.

      Overall, understanding the symptoms, causes, and treatment options for geographic tongue can help individuals manage their condition and maintain good oral health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      21.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 68-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with acute confusion. She arrives...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with acute confusion. She arrives unaccompanied and is unable to provide any information about her medical history. Upon examination, she appears overweight and has non-pitting edema in her eyes and legs. Additionally, she has dry skin and coarse hair. Her vital signs include a heart rate of 50 beats/min, blood pressure of 90/60 mmHg, respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min, temperature of 30°C, and oxygen saturation of 90% on air. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Myxoedema coma

      Explanation:

      Understanding Myxoedema Coma

      Myxoedema coma is a serious medical condition that can lead to confusion and hypothermia. It is a medical emergency that requires immediate treatment. The treatment for myxoedema coma includes IV thyroid replacement, IV fluid, IV corticosteroids (until the possibility of coexisting adrenal insufficiency has been excluded), electrolyte imbalance correction, and sometimes rewarming.

      In simpler terms, myxoedema coma is a condition that can cause confusion and low body temperature. It is a medical emergency that requires urgent treatment. The treatment involves giving medications through an IV, correcting any imbalances in the body’s fluids and electrolytes, and sometimes warming the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      30.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 45-year-old woman presents with a 9-month history of personality changes, disinhibition and...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman presents with a 9-month history of personality changes, disinhibition and altered dietary habits with a preference for salty foods. She lost her job as a teacher because of inappropriate social behaviour. There is no memory deficit. Neurological examination is normal.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Frontotemporal dementia (FTD)

      Explanation:

      Frontotemporal dementia (FTD) is a rare form of dementia that typically affects younger patients, with onset between 55 and 65 years old. Unlike Alzheimer’s disease, early memory impairment is not a characteristic symptom of FTD. Instead, early personality and behavior changes are core features. Consensus guidelines suggest diagnostic criteria that include insidious onset and gradual progression, decline in social interpersonal conduct, early impairment in regulation of personal conduct, early emotional blunting, and early loss of insight. Supportive diagnostic features may include behavioral disorders, speech and language changes, and physical signs. Other forms of dementia, such as Alzheimer’s disease, diffuse Lewy body disease (LBD), multiple sclerosis (MS), and vascular dementia, have different characteristic symptoms and diagnostic criteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      30.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 50-year-old man came to the clinic complaining of pain, redness, and blurring...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man came to the clinic complaining of pain, redness, and blurring of vision in his left eye. Upon fundoscopy, a combination of white and red retinal lesions was observed, indicating chorioretinitis. What is the essential test that must be performed to determine the underlying cause of chorioretinitis in this patient?

      Your Answer: HIV test

      Explanation:

      Performing an HIV test is crucial in patients with AIDS, as it is the primary diagnostic tool for identifying the underlying cause. While options 1, 2, and 3 may be necessary as baseline investigations in most patients, they are not sufficient for diagnosing the specific condition in this case.

      Causes of Chorioretinitis

      Chorioretinitis is a medical condition that affects the retina and choroid, which are the layers of tissue at the back of the eye. There are several causes of chorioretinitis, including syphilis, cytomegalovirus, toxoplasmosis, sarcoidosis, and tuberculosis.

      Syphilis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum. It can cause chorioretinitis as part of its secondary stage. Cytomegalovirus is a common virus that can cause chorioretinitis in people with weakened immune systems, such as those with HIV/AIDS. Toxoplasmosis is a parasitic infection that can be contracted from contaminated food or water, and it can cause chorioretinitis in some cases.

      Sarcoidosis is a condition that causes inflammation in various parts of the body, including the eyes. It can lead to chorioretinitis in some cases. Tuberculosis is a bacterial infection that can affect the lungs, but it can also spread to other parts of the body, including the eyes. It can cause chorioretinitis as a rare complication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      41.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 56-year-old man is evaluated after being diagnosed with hypertension. As part of...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man is evaluated after being diagnosed with hypertension. As part of his assessment, he underwent a series of blood tests to screen for other risk factors:

      Na+ 142 mmol/l
      K+ 3.9 mmol/l
      Urea 6.2 mmol/l
      Creatinine 91 µmol/l
      Fasting glucose 7.7 mmol/l
      Total cholesterol 7.2 mmol/l

      Due to the fasting glucose result, you order a HbA1c:

      HbA1c 31 mmol/mol (5.0%)

      What could account for the discrepancy between the HbA1c and fasting glucose levels?

      Your Answer: A history of alcohol excess

      Correct Answer: Sickle-cell anaemia

      Explanation:

      Understanding Glycosylated Haemoglobin (HbA1c) in Diabetes Mellitus

      Glycosylated haemoglobin (HbA1c) is a commonly used measure of long-term blood sugar control in diabetes mellitus. It is produced when glucose attaches to haemoglobin in the blood at a rate proportional to the glucose concentration. The level of HbA1c is influenced by the lifespan of red blood cells and the average blood glucose concentration. However, certain conditions such as sickle-cell anaemia, GP6D deficiency, and haemodialysis can interfere with accurate interpretation of HbA1c levels.

      HbA1c is believed to reflect the blood glucose levels over the past 2-4 weeks, although it is generally thought to represent the previous 3 months. It is recommended that HbA1c be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then every 6 months. The Diabetes Control and Complications Trial (DCCT) has studied the complex relationship between HbA1c and average blood glucose. The International Federation of Clinical Chemistry (IFCC) has developed a new standardised method for reporting HbA1c in mmol per mol of haemoglobin without glucose attached.

      Understanding HbA1c is crucial in managing diabetes mellitus and achieving optimal blood sugar control.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      26.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 56-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with nausea and vomiting, with...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with nausea and vomiting, with associated lethargy. He has mild asthma which is well controlled with a steroid inhaler but has no other medical history of note. He does not smoke but drinks up to 30 units of alcohol a week, mostly on the weekends.
      Observations are as follows: Temperature is 37.2 oC, blood pressure is 108/68 mmHg, heart rate is 92 bpm and regular.
      On examination, the patient appears to be clinically dehydrated, but there are no other abnormalities noted.
      Investigations reveal the following:
      Investigation Result Normal Values
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 145 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 8.2 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
      Urea 9.2 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine (Cr) 178 µmol/l
      (bloods carried out one year
      previously showed a creatinine
      of 76) 50–120 µmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.9 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Sodium (Na+) 131 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Which of the following is most suggestive of acute kidney injury rather than chronic renal failure?

      Your Answer: Oliguria

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Signs and Symptoms of Acute and Chronic Renal Failure

      Renal failure can be difficult to diagnose, especially when there are no previous urea and electrolyte levels available for comparison. However, there are certain signs and symptoms that can indicate whether the condition is acute or chronic.

      Acute renal failure may present with acute lethargy/fatigue, dehydration, shortness of breath, nausea and vomiting, oliguria, acute onset peripheral edema/edema of the face, confusion, seizures, and coma. On the other hand, chronic renal failure may manifest as anemia, pruritus, long-standing fatigue, weight loss, reduced appetite, and a history of underlying medical conditions such as diabetes or hypertension.

      Oliguria, or reduced urine output, is a hallmark of renal failure and can be an early sign of acute renal injury. Nocturia, or increased urination at night, is often found in patients with chronic kidney disease. Peripheral neuropathy is likely to be present in patients with chronic renal failure due to an underlying history of diabetes. Raised parathyroid hormone levels are more commonly found in chronic renal failure, secondary to low calcium levels associated with the condition. Small kidneys are also seen in chronic renal failure, as long-standing conditions affecting the kidney can cause atrophy and reduce function, leading to progressive renal failure. The kidneys are more likely to be of normal size in acute injury.

      In summary, understanding the signs and symptoms of acute and chronic renal failure can aid in the diagnosis and management of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      59.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Among the following groups of malignant tumours, which one is known for frequently...

    Correct

    • Among the following groups of malignant tumours, which one is known for frequently metastasizing to bone?

      Your Answer: Breast, prostate, kidney, lung, thyroid

      Explanation:

      Metastasis Patterns of Common Tumours

      Metastasis, the spread of cancer cells from the primary tumour to other parts of the body, is a major factor in cancer progression and treatment. Different types of cancer have different patterns of metastasis. Here are some common tumours and their predilection for dissemination to specific organs:

      – Breast, prostate, kidney, lung, thyroid: These tumours have a predilection for dissemination to bone.
      – Kidney, sarcoma, lung, thyroid: Sarcoma most commonly metastasises to the lungs.
      – Breast, prostate, kidney, lymphoma: Tumours that commonly metastasise to the brain include those of the breast, lung, prostate, kidney and thyroid.
      – Lung, breast, prostate, thyroid, brain: Primary brain tumours rarely metastasise to other parts of the body.
      – Thyroid, brain, lung, liver, breast: Primary liver tumours most commonly metastasise to the lung, portal vein and portal nodes.

      Understanding the metastasis patterns of different tumours can help in early detection and targeted treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      15.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 26-year-old male complains of epigastric pain and reflux that worsens after eating....

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old male complains of epigastric pain and reflux that worsens after eating. He underwent first-line triple-therapy eradication treatment for a positive Helicobacter pylori stool antigen test 3 months ago, which initially relieved his symptoms. However, they have now returned, and he wishes to undergo re-testing. What is the most suitable test to arrange?

      Your Answer: Urea breath test

      Explanation:

      Tests for Helicobacter pylori

      There are several tests available to diagnose Helicobacter pylori infection. One of the most common tests is the urea breath test, where patients consume a drink containing carbon isotope 13 (13C) enriched urea. The urea is broken down by H. pylori urease, and after 30 minutes, the patient exhales into a glass tube. Mass spectrometry analysis calculates the amount of 13C CO2, which indicates the presence of H. pylori. However, this test should not be performed within four weeks of treatment with an antibacterial or within two weeks of an antisecretory drug.

      Another test is the rapid urease test, also known as the CLO test. This involves mixing a biopsy sample with urea and a pH indicator. If there is a color change, it indicates the presence of H. pylori urease activity. Serum antibody tests can also be used, but they remain positive even after eradication. Culture of gastric biopsy can provide information on antibiotic sensitivity, while histological evaluation alone can be done through gastric biopsy. Lastly, the stool antigen test has a sensitivity of 90% and specificity of 95%.

      Overall, these tests have varying levels of sensitivity and specificity, and the choice of test depends on the patient’s clinical presentation and the availability of resources.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      44.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 25-year-old football player comes to the GP clinic complaining of a loss...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old football player comes to the GP clinic complaining of a loss of motor function in his left leg. He denies any specific injuries and has an important game next week that he's been anxious about. He enters the room using crutches. During the examination, it is found that he has 0/5 power in his left knee, ankle, and toes. The rest of the neurological and musculoskeletal examination is unremarkable. Blood tests and a lumbar MRI come back normal, making an organic cause for his symptoms unlikely. He is eager to know the reason behind his condition so that he can resume his training.
      What is the most probable cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Conversion disorder

      Explanation:

      It is probable that the patient is experiencing conversion disorder, which is often triggered by stress and involves the loss of motor or sensory function. The potential grand final rugby game may have been the stressor in this case.

      Somatisation disorder is unlikely as it requires the presence of multiple physical symptoms for at least two years, whereas this patient has only one acute onset symptom. Dissociative disorder is also improbable as there are no evident psychiatric symptoms such as amnesia, stupor, or fugue. The patient remembers clearly that he has a football game and has not sustained any recent injuries.

      However, factitious disorder cannot be ruled out entirely. It is possible that the patient is feigning the symptom to avoid playing the game, but further investigation is necessary. The patient claims to be eager to return to playing, which does not support the notion of factitious disorder.

      Psychiatric Terms for Unexplained Symptoms

      There are various psychiatric terms used to describe patients who exhibit symptoms for which no organic cause can be found. One such disorder is somatisation disorder, which involves the presence of multiple physical symptoms for at least two years, and the patient’s refusal to accept reassurance or negative test results. Another disorder is illness anxiety disorder, which is characterized by a persistent belief in the presence of an underlying serious disease, such as cancer, despite negative test results.

      Conversion disorder is another condition that involves the loss of motor or sensory function, and the patient does not consciously feign the symptoms or seek material gain. Patients with this disorder may be indifferent to their apparent disorder, a phenomenon known as la belle indifference. Dissociative disorder, on the other hand, involves the process of ‘separating off’ certain memories from normal consciousness, and may manifest as amnesia, fugue, or stupor. Dissociative identity disorder (DID) is the most severe form of dissociative disorder and was previously known as multiple personality disorder.

      Factitious disorder, also known as Munchausen’s syndrome, involves the intentional production of physical or psychological symptoms. Finally, malingering is the fraudulent simulation or exaggeration of symptoms with the intention of financial or other gain. Understanding these psychiatric terms can help healthcare professionals better diagnose and treat patients with unexplained symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      46.2
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 72-year-old man with a history of atrial fibrillation and essential hypertension visits...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man with a history of atrial fibrillation and essential hypertension visits his GP for a routine blood pressure check. His blood pressure reading is 152/92 and he wants to know if there are any other ways to reduce his risk of stroke. He is not currently taking any medication.
      What is the most suitable treatment advice to give him?

      Your Answer: Warfarin / NOAC

      Explanation:

      Treatment options for stroke prevention in atrial fibrillation patients: Understanding CHADS-VASc score

      Atrial fibrillation (AF) patients with a CHADS-VASc score of 3 or higher require treatment with either warfarin or a novel oral anticoagulant (NOAC) to prevent stroke. Aspirin, clopidogrel, low-molecular-weight heparin, and strict dietary modification are not recommended for stroke prevention in AF patients.

      The CHADS-VASc score is used to calculate the risk of stroke in AF patients. The score includes factors such as congestive cardiac failure, hypertension, age, diabetes mellitus, previous stroke or transient ischaemic attack, vascular disease, and sex category. Men with a score of 2 or higher are considered to be at high risk of stroke and should start treatment with warfarin or a NOAC. Men with a score of 1 are considered to be at moderate risk and should consider anticoagulation. Women aged <65 years with no other risk factors are considered to be at low risk and do not require anticoagulation. Clopidogrel is an oral antiplatelet agent used in the prevention of atherosclerotic events in patients with coronary artery disease, peripheral arterial disease, and cerebrovascular disease. It is not recommended for stroke prevention in AF patients. Strict dietary modification is not an appropriate treatment for AF and essential hypertension. Low molecular weight heparins (LMWHs) are not used in the management of AF. They are commonly used in the prevention and treatment of venous thromboembolism, unstable angina, and acute myocardial infarction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      23.7
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 63-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of breast tissue enlargement. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of breast tissue enlargement. He is feeling very self-conscious and anxious about his upcoming summer vacation. Which medication is the most probable cause of his condition?

      Your Answer: Phenytoin

      Correct Answer: Spironolactone

      Explanation:

      Understanding Gynaecomastia: Causes and Drug Triggers

      Gynaecomastia is a medical condition that occurs when males develop an abnormal amount of breast tissue. This condition is usually caused by an increased ratio of oestrogen to androgen. It is important to differentiate the causes of galactorrhoea, which is due to the actions of prolactin on breast tissue, from those of gynaecomastia.

      There are several causes of gynaecomastia, including physiological changes that occur during puberty, syndromes with androgen deficiency such as Kallman’s and Klinefelter’s, testicular failure, liver disease, testicular cancer, ectopic tumour secretion, hyperthyroidism, and haemodialysis. Additionally, certain drugs can trigger gynaecomastia, with spironolactone being the most common drug cause. Other drugs that can cause gynaecomastia include cimetidine, digoxin, cannabis, finasteride, GnRH agonists like goserelin and buserelin, oestrogens, and anabolic steroids.

      It is important to note that while drug-induced gynaecomastia is rare, there are still some drugs that can trigger this condition. Some of the very rare drug causes of gynaecomastia include tricyclics, isoniazid, calcium channel blockers, heroin, busulfan, and methyldopa. Understanding the causes and drug triggers of gynaecomastia can help individuals seek appropriate medical attention and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      45.6
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 30-year-old male arrives at the emergency department following a brawl at a...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old male arrives at the emergency department following a brawl at a local bar. He appears to be heavily intoxicated and is loudly claiming that he was bitten on the hand while attempting to throw a punch. Upon examination, there is evidence of a bite mark on his right hand that has broken the skin but has not caused any bleeding. The wound site shows no signs of redness, swelling, necrotic tissue, or discharge. Despite being disruptive and agitated, the man is otherwise stable and does not have a fever. What is the most appropriate course of action for managing his condition?

      Your Answer: Co-amoxiclav

      Explanation:

      Co-amoxiclav is the appropriate antibiotic for treating human bites, as well as animal bites. If a human bite breaks the skin and draws blood, antibiotics should be administered. In the scenario provided, the man was bitten in a high-risk area, which includes the hands, feet, face, genitals, skin overlying cartilaginous structures, or an area of poor circulation. Even if the bite did not draw blood, antibiotics should still be considered if the person is at high risk or if the bite is in a high-risk area. Co-amoxiclav is the first choice antibiotic for prophylaxis and treatment of human and animal bites. If the patient has a penicillin allergy or if co-amoxiclav is not suitable, doxycycline with metronidazole is the preferred alternative. Flucloxacillin is not effective in treating human and animal bites. If there is discharge present from the wound site, a swab should be taken for microbiological sampling, and antibiotic choice can be adjusted based on the results. Initial wound management should include removing foreign bodies, irrigating the site, and debridement, especially if the wound is dirty. Pain management should also be provided. However, due to the location of the bite in a high-risk area, antibiotics are necessary.

      Animal and Human Bites: Causes and Management

      Animal and human bites are common injuries that can lead to infections caused by various microorganisms. Dogs and cats are the most common animals involved in bites, with Pasteurella multocida being the most commonly isolated organism. On the other hand, human bites can cause infections from both aerobic and anaerobic bacteria, including Streptococci spp., Staphylococcus aureus, Eikenella, Fusobacterium, and Prevotella.

      To manage animal and human bites, it is important to cleanse the wound thoroughly. Puncture wounds should not be sutured closed unless there is a risk of cosmesis. The current recommendation for treatment is co-amoxiclav, but if the patient is allergic to penicillin, doxycycline and metronidazole are recommended. It is also important to consider the risk of viral infections such as HIV and hepatitis C in human bites.

      In summary, animal and human bites can lead to infections caused by various microorganisms. Proper wound cleansing and appropriate antibiotic treatment are essential in managing these injuries. Additionally, healthcare providers should consider the risk of viral infections in human bites.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      29.9
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 60-year-old patient presents with jaundice and an enlarged, nodular liver. A CT...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old patient presents with jaundice and an enlarged, nodular liver. A CT scan of the abdomen reveals a cirrhotic liver with a large mass, and CT-guided biopsy of the mass confirms a malignant tumour derived from hepatic parenchymal cells. Which virus is most likely directly related to the development of this tumour?

      Your Answer: Hepatitis B virus

      Explanation:

      Viral Infections and Their Link to Cancer

      Hepatitis B, Epstein-Barr, human herpesvirus type 8, and human papillomavirus are all viral infections that have been linked to the development of cancer. Hepatitis B, for example, can lead to cirrhosis and ultimately hepatocellular carcinoma. Similarly, EBV has been associated with various malignancies, including lymphoproliferative disorders and nasopharyngeal carcinoma. HPV, on the other hand, is a common cause of genital warts and cervical cancer. It is important to recognize the early signs of these viral infections in order to prevent the development of cancer and improve prognosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      51.5
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 62-year-old woman presents to the General Practitioner. She has a past medical...

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old woman presents to the General Practitioner. She has a past medical history of hypertension, diabetes mellitus type II, peripheral vascular disease and ischaemic heart disease. The patient had an episode of retinal artery occlusion (RAO) and had to go to the Eye Hospital as an emergency.
      After many investigations, the Ophthalmologist stated that the cause of her RAO is atherosclerosis of her central retinal artery (CRA). The patient is worried about her eyesight becoming worse and asks about long-term management plans for RAO.
      Which of the following is considered part of the long-term management plan for RAO?
      Select the SINGLE most appropriate management from the list below.

      Your Answer: Prophylaxis with an antiplatelet agent

      Explanation:

      Retinal artery occlusion is a condition that increases the risk of ischemic end-organ damage, such as stroke. Long-term management involves identifying and addressing underlying causes, reducing risk factors for atherosclerosis, and considering carotid endarterectomy if necessary. Ophthalmic follow-up and referral to low-vision-aid clinics may also be necessary. Acute treatment options include ocular massage, intra-arterial fibrinolysis, and lowering intraocular pressure with anterior chamber paracentesis. Atherosclerosis and embolism are the main causes of RAO, and prophylaxis with an antiplatelet or anticoagulation agent may be necessary for long-term management. However, even with early treatment, the prognosis is generally poor, and only about one-third of patients show any improvement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      26.9
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 20-year-old woman who is 8 weeks into her first pregnancy presents with...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old woman who is 8 weeks into her first pregnancy presents with vaginal bleeding and is seen in the early pregnancy assessment unit. The ultrasound scan confirms a viable intrauterine pregnancy, but the high vaginal swab has isolated group B streptococcus (GBS). What is the appropriate management for her?

      Your Answer: Treat immediately with oral erythromycin & intrapartum intravenous benzylpenicillin

      Correct Answer: Intrapartum intravenous benzylpenicillin only

      Explanation:

      GBS is a type of bacteria commonly found in the vagina of many women. While it is generally harmless, it can cause serious infections in newborns, leading to significant health problems and even death.

      If GBS is detected during pregnancy, it does not require immediate treatment as it will not reduce the likelihood of transmission to the baby during delivery. However, intravenous benzylpenicillin or clindamycin is necessary during labor to reduce the risk of transmission. This applies to GBS found in vaginal swabs and urine, and appropriate antibiotics are required for GBS urinary tract infections during pregnancy.

      There is currently no screening program for GBS in the UK, and vaginal swabs should only be taken when clinically necessary. Women who have had a previous baby infected with GBS are offered intrapartum intravenous benzylpenicillin in future pregnancies.

      (Source – RCOG guidelines, GBS in pregnancy).

      Group B Streptococcus (GBS) is a common cause of severe infection in newborns. It is estimated that 20-40% of mothers carry GBS in their bowel flora, which can be passed on to their infants during labor and lead to serious infections. Prematurity, prolonged rupture of membranes, previous sibling GBS infection, and maternal pyrexia are all risk factors for GBS infection. The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) has published guidelines on GBS management, which include not offering universal screening for GBS to all women and not offering screening based on maternal request. Women who have had GBS detected in a previous pregnancy should be offered intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis (IAP) or testing in late pregnancy and antibiotics if still positive. IAP should also be offered to women with a previous baby with GBS disease, women in preterm labor, and women with a fever during labor. Benzylpenicillin is the preferred antibiotic for GBS prophylaxis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      21.1
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 70-year-old male patient visits the GP clinic with a complaint of experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old male patient visits the GP clinic with a complaint of experiencing hallucinations. He was diagnosed with Parkinson's disease 3 years ago and has been prescribed a new medication recently. He reports that since starting this medication, he has been troubled by hallucinations. Which medication is commonly prescribed for Parkinson's disease and could be responsible for his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Entacapone

      Correct Answer: Ropinirole

      Explanation:

      Compared to other classes of medications, dopamine agonists such as ropinirole pose a higher risk of causing hallucinations in individuals with Parkinson’s disease. On the other hand, MAO-B inhibitors like selegiline and COMPT inhibitors like entacapone have little to no reported risk of causing hallucinations. Tiotropium is commonly prescribed for the treatment of COPD, while oxybutynin is used to manage bladder overactivity.

      Management of Parkinson’s Disease: Medications and Considerations

      Parkinson’s disease is a complex condition that requires specialized expertise in movement disorders for diagnosis and management. However, all healthcare professionals should be familiar with the medications used to treat Parkinson’s disease due to its prevalence. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) published guidelines in 2017 to aid in the management of Parkinson’s disease.

      For first-line treatment, levodopa is recommended if motor symptoms are affecting the patient’s quality of life. If motor symptoms are not affecting the patient’s quality of life, dopamine agonists (non-ergot derived), levodopa, or monoamine oxidase B (MAO-B) inhibitors may be used. NICE provides tables to aid in decision-making regarding the use of these medications, taking into account their effects on motor symptoms, activities of daily living, motor complications, and adverse events.

      If a patient continues to have symptoms despite optimal levodopa treatment or has developed dyskinesia, NICE recommends the addition of a dopamine agonist, MAO-B inhibitor, or catechol-O-methyl transferase (COMT) inhibitor as an adjunct. Other considerations in Parkinson’s disease management include the risk of acute akinesia or neuroleptic malignant syndrome if medication is not taken or absorbed, the potential for impulse control disorders with dopaminergic therapy, and the need to adjust medication if excessive daytime sleepiness or orthostatic hypotension develops.

      Specific medications used in Parkinson’s disease management include levodopa, dopamine receptor agonists, MAO-B inhibitors, amantadine, COMT inhibitors, and antimuscarinics. Each medication has its own set of benefits and potential adverse effects, which should be carefully considered when selecting a treatment plan. Overall, the management of Parkinson’s disease requires a comprehensive approach that takes into account the individual needs and circumstances of each patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 18 - A 32-year-old man has had > 15 very short relationships in the past...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man has had > 15 very short relationships in the past year, all of which he thought were the love of his life. He is prone to impulsive behaviour such as excessive spending and binge drinking, and he has experimented with drugs. He also engages in self-harm.
      Which of the following personality disorders most accurately describes him?

      Your Answer: Borderline personality disorder

      Explanation:

      Understanding Personality Disorders: Clusters and Traits

      Personality disorders can be categorized into three main clusters based on their characteristics. Cluster A includes odd or eccentric personalities such as schizoid and paranoid personality disorder. Schizoid individuals tend to be emotionally detached and struggle with forming close relationships, while paranoid individuals are suspicious and distrustful of others.

      Cluster B includes dramatic, erratic, or emotional personalities such as borderline and histrionic personality disorder. Borderline individuals often have intense and unstable relationships, exhibit impulsive behavior, and may have a history of self-harm or suicide attempts. Histrionic individuals are attention-seeking, manipulative, and tend to be overly dramatic.

      Cluster C includes anxious personalities such as obsessive-compulsive personality disorder. These individuals tend to be perfectionists, controlling, and overly cautious.

      Understanding the different clusters and traits associated with personality disorders can help individuals recognize and seek appropriate treatment for themselves or loved ones.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 19 - A 42-year-old woman with chronic upper gastrointestinal (GI) symptoms has recently been diagnosed...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman with chronic upper gastrointestinal (GI) symptoms has recently been diagnosed as having a gastric ulcer at endoscopy. No evidence of oesophageal or duodenal pathology was found. Helicobacter pylori testing was positive. She is not allergic to penicillin.
      Which of the following treatment regimens would be best suited to her case?

      Your Answer: A proton pump inhibitor (PPI), amoxicillin and either clarithromycin or metronidazole, followed by a PPI for 4-8 weeks

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Helicobacter pylori Infection

      Helicobacter pylori is a common bacterial infection that can cause dyspepsia and gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD). There are several treatment options available for patients who test positive for H. pylori.

      One option is a 7-day course of a proton pump inhibitor (PPI), amoxicillin, and either clarithromycin or metronidazole. This should be followed by a PPI for 4-8 weeks. Patients who are allergic to penicillin and have had previous exposure to clarithromycin should be offered a 7-day course of a PPI, bismuth, metronidazole, and tetracycline.

      Long-term PPI and dietary advice alone will not eradicate H. pylori. If symptoms return after initial care strategies for dyspepsia, step down PPI therapy to the lowest dose needed to control symptoms. Patients with GORD should be offered full-dose PPI.

      It is important to consult the British National Formulary (BNF) for appropriate doses of each drug, as they may vary. Sucralfate has no role in the eradication of H. pylori.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      53.8
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  • Question 20 - A 14-year-old boy comes to the clinic with complaints of sudden jerking movements...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old boy comes to the clinic with complaints of sudden jerking movements of his neck, causing his head to move involuntarily from left to right. He has been experiencing these symptoms for a few years, but lately, he has been feeling embarrassed as he involuntarily utters swear words in social situations. These symptoms worsen when he is under stress. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Tourette’s syndrome

      Explanation:

      Differentiating between Mental Disorders: Tourette’s Syndrome, Malingering, Conduct Disorder, Dissocial Personality Disorder, and Schizophrenia

      Tourette’s Syndrome is a tic disorder that usually develops in childhood or adolescence, characterized by multiple motor tics and one or more vocal tics. The vocal tics need not be complete words or phrases and are often throat-clearing and grunting. Anti-psychotics such as pimozide, risperidone, and sulpiride have been shown to be of benefit.

      Malingering is the act of fabricating symptoms for some sort of secondary gain, such as financial, manipulative, avoidance of school, obtaining drugs, or gaining sympathy or attention.

      Conduct Disorder is a mental disorder diagnosed before or after the age of 10, characterized by a persistent and repetitive pattern of behavior that violates either the basic rights of others or goes against age-developmental norms. Childhood onset disorder can be linked to attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) type symptoms.

      Dissocial Personality Disorder is characterized by a long-term disregard for others or the violation of others. Its precursor is conduct disorder. Antisocial personality disorder can be diagnosed when the patient reaches the age of 18 and has a history of conduct disorder in childhood or adolescence.

      Schizophrenia does not typically present with involuntary movements. There is also no history of hallucinations, auditory or visual, or confused thinking.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      15.9
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Paediatrics (1/1) 100%
Gastroenterology/Nutrition (3/3) 100%
Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease (1/3) 33%
Neurology (1/2) 50%
Ophthalmology (2/2) 100%
Renal Medicine/Urology (1/1) 100%
Haematology/Oncology (2/2) 100%
Psychiatry (3/3) 100%
Cardiovascular (1/1) 100%
Infectious Diseases (1/1) 100%
Reproductive Medicine (0/1) 0%
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