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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old woman experiences a sudden onset of vision loss in her left eye. She is later diagnosed with central retinal vein occlusion (CRVO).
Your Answer: Approximately 25% of patients have hypertension
Correct Answer: Chronic glaucoma is a recognised risk factor
Explanation:Central retinal vein occlusion (CRVO) typically leads to painless, one-sided vision loss. When examining the retina, it may appear similar to a ‘pizza thrown against a wall’, with swollen retinal veins, swelling of the optic disc, multiple flame-shaped hemorrhages, and cotton wool spots. Hypertension is present in about 65% of CRVO patients, and it is more common in individuals over the age of 65. Other known risk factors include being elderly, having chronic glaucoma, arteriosclerosis, and polycythemia.
In contrast, central retinal artery occlusion (CRAO) is characterized by a pale retina and a ‘cherry-red spot’ in the macula’s center, which is spared due to its blood supply from the underlying choroid. It is important to differentiate between CRVO and CRAO based on these distinct features.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 60-year-old man presents with frequent urination and excessive thirst. He has a history of bipolar affective disorder, which has been effectively managed with lithium for many years.
You schedule blood tests for him, and the results are as follows:
Na: 150 mmol/L (135-147 mmol/L)
K: 3.7 mmol/L (3.5-5.5 mmol/L)
Urea: 9.5 mmol/L (2.0-6.6 mmol/L)
Creatinine: 127 mmol/L (75-125 mmol/L)
What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
Explanation:Diabetes insipidus is a condition where the body is unable to produce concentrated urine. It is characterized by excessive thirst, increased urination, and constant need to drink fluids. There are two main types of diabetes insipidus: cranial (central) and nephrogenic.
Cranial diabetes insipidus occurs when there is a deficiency of vasopressin, also known as antidiuretic hormone. This hormone helps regulate the amount of water reabsorbed by the kidneys. In patients with cranial diabetes insipidus, urine output can be as high as 10-15 liters per day. However, with adequate fluid intake, most patients are able to maintain normal sodium levels. The causes of cranial diabetes insipidus can vary, with 30% of cases being idiopathic (unknown cause) and another 30% being secondary to head injuries. Other causes include neurosurgery, brain tumors, meningitis, granulomatous disease (such as sarcoidosis), and certain medications like naloxone and phenytoin. There is also a very rare inherited form of cranial diabetes insipidus that is associated with diabetes mellitus, optic atrophy, nerve deafness, and bladder atonia.
On the other hand, nephrogenic diabetes insipidus occurs when there is resistance to the action of vasopressin in the kidneys. Similar to cranial diabetes insipidus, urine output is significantly increased in patients with nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Serum sodium levels can be maintained through excessive fluid intake or may be elevated. The causes of nephrogenic diabetes insipidus include chronic renal disease, metabolic disorders like hypercalcemia and hypokalemia, and certain medications like long-term use of lithium and demeclocycline.
Based on the history of long-term lithium use in this particular case, nephrogenic diabetes insipidus is the most likely diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man presents with rigidity and slowness of movement. Following a referral to a specialist, a diagnosis of Parkinson’s disease is made. The patient is in the early stages of the disease at present.
Which of the following clinical features is most likely to also be present?Your Answer: Bilateral rest tremor
Correct Answer: Hypokinesia
Explanation:Patients with Parkinson’s disease (PD) typically exhibit the following clinical features:
– Hypokinesia (reduced movement)
– Bradykinesia (slow movement)
– Rest tremor (usually occurring at a rate of 4-6 cycles per second)
– Rigidity (increased muscle tone and ‘cogwheel rigidity’)Other commonly observed clinical features include:
– Gait disturbance (characterized by a shuffling gait and loss of arm swing)
– Loss of facial expression
– Monotonous, slurred speech
– Micrographia (small, cramped handwriting)
– Increased salivation and dribbling
– Difficulty with fine movementsInitially, these signs are typically seen on one side of the body at the time of diagnosis, but they progressively worsen and may eventually affect both sides. In later stages of the disease, additional clinical features may become evident, including:
– Postural instability
– Cognitive impairment
– Orthostatic hypotensionAlthough PD primarily affects movement, patients often experience psychiatric issues such as depression and dementia. Autonomic disturbances and pain can also occur, leading to significant disability and reduced quality of life for the affected individual. Additionally, family members and caregivers may also be indirectly affected by the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 35 year old male comes to the emergency department with sudden onset of facial weakness on one side that has occurred within the last 72 hours. You are considering the possible causes for this condition. What would assist in differentiating between an upper motor neuron and lower motor neuron lesion?
Your Answer: Forehead sparing
Explanation:When there is damage to the facial nerve in the LMN, the patient will experience paralysis in the forehead and will be unable to wrinkle their brow. However, in an upper motor neuron lesion, the frontalis muscle is not affected, so the patient can still furrow their brow normally and their ability to close their eyes and blink is not affected. Lower motor neuron lesions affect the final part of the nerve pathway to all branches of the facial nerve, resulting in paralysis of the forehead and the rest of the face on that side. It is important to note that the speed of onset may provide some clues about the cause of the lesion, but it does not help determine the specific location of the damage.
Further Reading:
Bell’s palsy is a condition characterized by sudden weakness or paralysis of the facial nerve, resulting in facial muscle weakness or drooping. The exact cause is unknown, but it is believed to be related to viral infections such as herpes simplex or varicella zoster. It is more common in individuals aged 15-45 years and those with diabetes, obesity, hypertension, or upper respiratory conditions. Pregnancy is also a risk factor.
Diagnosis of Bell’s palsy is typically based on clinical symptoms and ruling out other possible causes of facial weakness. Symptoms include rapid onset of unilateral facial muscle weakness, drooping of the eyebrow and corner of the mouth, loss of the nasolabial fold, otalgia, difficulty chewing or dry mouth, taste disturbance, eye symptoms such as inability to close the eye completely, dry eye, eye pain, and excessive tearing, numbness or tingling of the cheek and mouth, speech articulation problems, and hyperacusis.
When assessing a patient with facial weakness, it is important to consider other possible differentials such as stroke, facial nerve tumors, Lyme disease, granulomatous diseases, Ramsay Hunt syndrome, mastoiditis, and chronic otitis media. Red flags for these conditions include insidious and painful onset, duration of symptoms longer than 3 months with frequent relapses, pre-existing risk factors, systemic illness or fever, vestibular or hearing abnormalities, and other cranial nerve involvement.
Management of Bell’s palsy involves the use of steroids, eye care advice, and reassurance. Steroids, such as prednisolone, are recommended for individuals presenting within 72 hours of symptom onset. Eye care includes the use of lubricating eye drops, eye ointment at night, eye taping if unable to close the eye at night, wearing sunglasses, and avoiding dusty environments. Reassurance is important as the majority of patients make a complete recovery within 3-4 months. However, some individuals may experience sequelae such as facial asymmetry, gustatory lacrimation, inadequate lid closure, brow ptosis, drooling, and hemifacial spasms.
Antiviral treatments are not currently recommended as a standalone treatment for Bell’s palsy, but they may be given in combination with corticosteroids on specialist advice. Referral to an ophthalmologist is necessary if the patient has eye symptoms such as pain, irritation, or itch.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 45 year old male presents to the emergency department with intermittent abdominal pain over the past few weeks that has worsened in the last week. The patient reports that the pain is most severe at night and is relieved by eating, although the relief is only temporary. The patient provides a list of their current medications:
Medication & dose
Fluoxetine 40 mg once daily (long term)
Oxybutynin 5 mg twice daily (long term)
Ibuprofen 400 mg three times daily as needed (long term)
Prednisolone 30mg for 7 days
Amoxicillin 500 mg three times daily for 7 days
You suspect the patient may have a duodenal ulcer. Which medication is most commonly associated with the development of peptic ulcer disease?Your Answer: Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
Explanation:Peptic ulcer disease is most commonly caused by NSAIDs, making them the leading drug cause. However, h.pylori infection is the primary cause of peptic ulcers, with NSAIDs being the second most common cause.
Further Reading:
Peptic ulcer disease (PUD) is a condition characterized by a break in the mucosal lining of the stomach or duodenum. It is caused by an imbalance between factors that promote mucosal damage, such as gastric acid, pepsin, Helicobacter pylori infection, and NSAID drug use, and factors that maintain mucosal integrity, such as prostaglandins, mucus lining, bicarbonate, and mucosal blood flow.
The most common causes of peptic ulcers are H. pylori infection and NSAID use. Other factors that can contribute to the development of ulcers include smoking, alcohol consumption, certain medications (such as steroids), stress, autoimmune conditions, and tumors.
Diagnosis of peptic ulcers involves screening for H. pylori infection through breath or stool antigen tests, as well as upper gastrointestinal endoscopy. Complications of PUD include bleeding, perforation, and obstruction. Acute massive hemorrhage has a case fatality rate of 5-10%, while perforation can lead to peritonitis with a mortality rate of up to 20%.
The symptoms of peptic ulcers vary depending on their location. Duodenal ulcers typically cause pain that is relieved by eating, occurs 2-3 hours after eating and at night, and may be accompanied by nausea and vomiting. Gastric ulcers, on the other hand, cause pain that occurs 30 minutes after eating and may be associated with nausea and vomiting.
Management of peptic ulcers depends on the underlying cause and presentation. Patients with active gastrointestinal bleeding require risk stratification, volume resuscitation, endoscopy, and proton pump inhibitor (PPI) therapy. Those with perforated ulcers require resuscitation, antibiotic treatment, analgesia, PPI therapy, and urgent surgical review.
For stable patients with peptic ulcers, lifestyle modifications such as weight loss, avoiding trigger foods, eating smaller meals, quitting smoking, reducing alcohol consumption, and managing stress and anxiety are recommended. Medication review should be done to stop causative drugs if possible. PPI therapy, with or without H. pylori eradication therapy, is also prescribed. H. pylori testing is typically done using a carbon-13 urea breath test or stool antigen test, and eradication therapy involves a 7-day triple therapy regimen of antibiotics and PPI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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You assess a patient with a significantly elevated potassium level.
What is the most probable cause of this finding?Your Answer: Type 1 renal tubular acidosis
Correct Answer: Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
Explanation:Hyperkalaemia, or high levels of potassium in the blood, can be caused by various factors that are not related to drug use. These include conditions such as renal failure, where the kidneys are unable to properly regulate potassium levels, and excess potassium supplementation. Other non-drug causes include Addison’s disease, a condition characterized by adrenal insufficiency, and congenital adrenal hyperplasia. Renal tubular acidosis, specifically type 4, can also lead to hyperkalaemia. Additionally, conditions like rhabdomyolysis, burns and trauma, and tumour lysis syndrome can contribute to elevated potassium levels. Acidosis, an imbalance in the body’s pH levels, is another non-drug cause of hyperkalaemia.
On the other hand, certain medications have been associated with hyperkalaemia. These include ACE inhibitors, angiotensin receptor blockers, NSAIDs, beta-blockers, digoxin, and suxamethonium. These drugs can interfere with the body’s potassium regulation mechanisms and lead to increased levels of potassium in the blood.
In contrast, there are also conditions that result in low levels of potassium, known as hypokalaemia. Bartter’s syndrome, a rare inherited defect in the ascending limb of the loop of Henle, is characterized by hypokalaemic alkalosis and normal to low blood pressure. Type 1 and 2 renal tubular acidosis are other conditions that cause hypokalaemia. On the other hand, type 4 renal tubular acidosis leads to hyperkalaemia. Gitelman’s syndrome, another rare inherited defect, affects the distal convoluted tubule of the kidney and causes a metabolic alkalosis with hypokalaemia and hypomagnesaemia.
Lastly, excessive consumption of liquorice can result in a condition called hypermineralocorticoidism, which can lead to hypokalaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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You are evaluating a 42-year-old woman in the ER after a fall. During the examination, you observe multiple clinical manifestations consistent with Cushing syndrome. What is the most probable underlying cause of Cushing syndrome in this case?
Your Answer: Adrenal hyperplasia
Correct Answer: Pituitary adenoma
Explanation:Cushing syndrome is most commonly caused by the use of external glucocorticoids. However, when it comes to endogenous causes, pituitary adenoma, also known as Cushing’s disease, is the leading culprit.
Further Reading:
Cushing’s syndrome is a clinical syndrome caused by prolonged exposure to high levels of glucocorticoids. The severity of symptoms can vary depending on the level of steroid exposure. There are two main classifications of Cushing’s syndrome: ACTH-dependent disease and non-ACTH-dependent disease. ACTH-dependent disease is caused by excessive ACTH production from the pituitary gland or ACTH-secreting tumors, which stimulate excessive cortisol production. Non-ACTH-dependent disease is characterized by excess glucocorticoid production independent of ACTH stimulation.
The most common cause of Cushing’s syndrome is exogenous steroid use. Pituitary adenoma is the second most common cause and the most common endogenous cause. Cushing’s disease refers specifically to Cushing’s syndrome caused by an ACTH-producing pituitary tumor.
Clinical features of Cushing’s syndrome include truncal obesity, supraclavicular fat pads, buffalo hump, weight gain, moon facies, muscle wasting and weakness, diabetes or impaired glucose tolerance, gonadal dysfunction, hypertension, nephrolithiasis, skin changes (such as skin atrophy, striae, easy bruising, hirsutism, acne, and hyperpigmentation in ACTH-dependent causes), depression and emotional lability, osteopenia or osteoporosis, edema, irregular menstrual cycles or amenorrhea, polydipsia and polyuria, poor wound healing, and signs related to the underlying cause, such as headaches and visual problems.
Diagnostic tests for Cushing’s syndrome include 24-hour urinary free cortisol, 1 mg overnight dexamethasone suppression test, and late-night salivary cortisol. Other investigations aim to assess metabolic disturbances and identify the underlying cause, such as plasma ACTH, full blood count (raised white cell count), electrolytes, and arterial blood gas analysis. Imaging, such as CT or MRI of the abdomen, chest, and/or pituitary, may be required to assess suspected adrenal tumors, ectopic ACTH-secreting tumors, and pituitary tumors. The choice of imaging is guided by the ACTH result, with undetectable ACTH and elevated serum cortisol levels indicating ACTH-independent Cushing’s syndrome and raised ACTH suggesting an ACTH-secreting tumor.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 8
Correct
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A patient is experiencing upper gastrointestinal bleeding after receiving heparin. You determine that protamine sulfate should be used to reverse the anticoagulation. How much protamine sulfate is needed to neutralize 200 IU of heparin?
Your Answer: 2 mg
Explanation:Protamine sulphate is a potent base that forms a stable salt complex with heparin, an acidic substance. This complex renders heparin inactive, making protamine sulphate a useful tool for neutralizing the effects of heparin. Additionally, protamine sulphate can be used to reverse the effects of LMWHs, although it is not as effective, providing only about two-thirds of the relative effect.
It is important to note that protamine sulphate also possesses its own weak intrinsic anticoagulant effect. This effect is believed to stem from its ability to inhibit the formation and activity of thromboplastin.
When administering protamine sulphate, it is typically done through slow intravenous injection. The dosage should be adjusted based on the amount of heparin that needs to be neutralized, the time that has passed since heparin administration, and the aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time). As a general guideline, 1 mg of protamine can neutralize 100 IU of heparin. However, it is crucial to adhere to a maximum adult dose of 50 mg within a 10-minute period.
It is worth mentioning that protamine sulphate can have some adverse effects. It acts as a myocardial depressant, potentially leading to bradycardia (slow heart rate) and hypotension (low blood pressure). These effects may arise due to complement activation and leukotriene release.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 9
Correct
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There has been a car accident involving multiple individuals near the hospital where you are currently employed. You are part of the team responsible for initial assessment at the scene of the incident.
Who among the following patients would be classified as P3 status?Your Answer: A ‘walking wounded’ patient with minor injuries requiring treatment
Explanation:Triage is a crucial process that involves determining the priority of patients’ treatment based on the severity of their condition and their chances of recovery. Its purpose is to ensure that limited resources are used efficiently, maximizing the number of lives saved. During a major incident, primary triage takes place in the bronze area, which is located within the inner cordon.
In the context of a major incident, priorities are assigned numbers from 1 to 3, with 1 being the highest priority. These priorities are also color-coded for easy identification:
– P1: Immediate priority. This category includes patients who require immediate life-saving intervention to prevent death. They are color-coded red.
– P2: Intermediate priority. Patients in this group also require significant interventions, but their treatment can be delayed for a few hours. They are color-coded yellow.
– P3: Delayed priority. Patients in this category require medical treatment, but it can be safely delayed. This category also includes walking wounded individuals. The classification as P3 is based on the motor score of the Glasgow Coma Scale, which predicts a favorable outcome. They are color-coded green.The fourth classification is for deceased individuals. It is important to identify and classify them to prevent the unnecessary use of limited resources on those who cannot be helped. Dead bodies should be left in their current location, both to avoid wasting resources and because the area may be considered a crime scene. Deceased individuals are color-coded black.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Major Incident Management & PHEM
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Question 10
Incorrect
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You are managing a 72 year old female who has presented to the emergency department with sudden onset of dizziness and difficulty breathing. The patient's pulse rate is recorded as 44 beats per minute. Your assessment focuses on identifying reversible causes of bradycardia. Which of the following metabolic conditions is commonly associated with reversible bradycardia?
Your Answer: Hypokalaemia
Correct Answer: Hypermagnesemia
Explanation:Some reversible metabolic causes of bradycardia include hypothyroidism, hyperkalaemia, hypermagnesemia, and hypothermia. These conditions can lead to a slow heart rate and can be treated or reversed.
Further Reading:
Causes of Bradycardia:
– Physiological: Athletes, sleeping
– Cardiac conduction dysfunction: Atrioventricular block, sinus node disease
– Vasovagal & autonomic mediated: Vasovagal episodes, carotid sinus hypersensitivity
– Hypothermia
– Metabolic & electrolyte disturbances: Hypothyroidism, hyperkalaemia, hypermagnesemia
– Drugs: Beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers, digoxin, amiodarone
– Head injury: Cushing’s response
– Infections: Endocarditis
– Other: Sarcoidosis, amyloidosisPresenting symptoms of Bradycardia:
– Presyncope (dizziness, lightheadedness)
– Syncope
– Breathlessness
– Weakness
– Chest pain
– NauseaManagement of Bradycardia:
– Assess and monitor for adverse features (shock, syncope, myocardial ischaemia, heart failure)
– Treat reversible causes of bradycardia
– Pharmacological treatment: Atropine is first-line, adrenaline and isoprenaline are second-line
– Transcutaneous pacing if atropine is ineffective
– Other drugs that may be used: Aminophylline, dopamine, glucagon, glycopyrrolateBradycardia Algorithm:
– Follow the algorithm for management of bradycardia, which includes assessing and monitoring for adverse features, treating reversible causes, and using appropriate medications or pacing as needed.
https://acls-algorithms.com/wp-content/uploads/2020/12/Website-Bradycardia-Algorithm-Diagram.pdf -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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