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Question 1
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A 25-year-old army recruit presents with a swelling in the left scrotum that has been present for at least two years. On examination, a large non-tender swelling is observed that can be palpated above and transilluminates brightly. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Epididymo-orchitis
Explanation:Understanding Hydrocoele
A hydrocoele is a condition where there is a buildup of fluid in the tunica vaginalis. It can either be primary, which usually occurs in middle age, or secondary, which can happen in younger individuals and may be caused by an underlying malignancy, chronic epididymo-orchitis, or a hernia. The main symptom is a cystic-feeling swelling in the scrotum, which makes it difficult to feel the testis separately. However, the swelling can be felt above and transilluminates.
Ultrasound is not typically used to diagnose a simple hydrocoele, but it may be helpful in ruling out other conditions such as testicular tumors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 2
Correct
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You received a letter from the ophthalmology department regarding Mrs. Patel, an 80-year-old woman who has been listed for cataract surgery. They report that her blood pressure (BP) is raised at 156/94 mmHg and ask you to follow this up, as her BP needs to be well controlled before the operation will be performed.
You have a look at her medication list and see she is already on amlodipine 5mg, losartan 50 mg, and hydrochlorothiazide 12.5mg.
Her most recent renal profile is below.
Na+ 142 mmol/L (135 - 145)
K+ 4.5 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Urea 6.8 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Creatinine 82 µmol/L (55 - 120)
Assuming she is compliant with her medications, what is the next treatment step for her hypertension?Your Answer: Alpha-blocker or beta-blocker
Explanation:For a patient with poorly controlled hypertension who is already taking an ACE inhibitor, calcium channel blocker, and a standard-dose thiazide diuretic with a potassium level greater than 4.5mmol/L, the recommended 4th-line option is to add an alpha- or beta-blocker. It is important to check for postural hypotension and confirm the elevated clinic reading with home/ambulatory BP monitoring for patients with resistant hypertension. Combining an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor with an angiotensin II receptor blocker, such as candesartan, is not recommended. There is no need to switch patients who are already taking bendroflumethiazide to indapamide. Referral to cardiology would be appropriate if the patient remains uncontrolled on the maximum tolerated dose of a 4th antihypertensive.
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.
Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.
Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.
The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.
If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 51-year-old man with poorly controlled diabetes presents to his General Practitioner with periorbital and pedal oedema and ‘frothy urine'. A urine dipstick is positive for protein.
Which of the following is the most characteristic finding you could expect from a blood test in this patient?Your Answer: Increased serum cholesterol
Explanation:Understanding Abnormal Lab Results in Nephrotic Syndrome
Nephrotic syndrome is a condition characterized by excessive protein loss in the urine, leading to hypoalbuminemia and edema. Abnormal lipid metabolism is common in patients with renal disease, particularly in nephrotic syndrome. This can result in marked elevations in the plasma levels of cholesterol, LDL, triglycerides, and lipoprotein A. However, fibrinogen levels tend to be increased rather than decreased in nephrotic syndrome. Hypocalcemia is also more common in patients with nephrotic syndrome due to loss of 25-hydroxyvitamin D3 in the urine. The ESR is typically elevated in patients with nephrotic syndrome or end-stage renal disease. It is important to understand these abnormal lab results in order to properly diagnose and manage nephrotic syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 4-year-old boy comes to his General Practitioner complaining of poor urinary stream and dribbling. He has had four urinary tract infections (UTIs) diagnosed in the last eight months. He is otherwise developmentally normal.
What is the most probable reason for this patient's symptoms? Choose ONE option only.Your Answer: Posterior urethral valve
Explanation:Possible Causes of Poor Urinary Stream in Boys
Poor urinary stream in boys can be a sign of urinary-tract obstruction, which is often caused by posterior urethral valves. While this condition is usually diagnosed before birth, delayed presentation can be due to recurrent urinary tract infections. Other possible causes of poor urinary stream include urethral stricture, bladder calculi, and neurogenic bladder. However, these conditions are less common and may be associated with other developmental or neurological issues. Vesicoureteric reflux, which occurs when urine flows back from the bladder up the ureters, may also be a result of urinary tract obstruction but is not likely to be the primary cause of poor urinary stream and terminal dribbling.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 28-year-old man presents with a 3 days history of dysuria accompanied by urinary frequency and urgency. He reports pain in the suprapubic region but denies having fevers or chills. He has not experienced any loss of weight or appetite. There are no known or suspected structural or functional abnormalities of the genitourinary tract or underlying diseases.
Upon examination, his vital signs are normal and the abdomen is soft with no palpable mass. However, the suprapubic region is tender upon palpation. The patient is suspected to have acute cystitis and a midstream urine sample is obtained for culture and susceptibility testing.
What is the next step in the management of this patient?Your Answer: Allow him to go home on oral antibiotics according to local guidelines for 7 days
Explanation:Men with lower UTI should be offered an immediate antibiotic prescription, unlike women who are not pregnant who may be given a backup antibiotic prescription. UTIs in men are considered complicated and require at least 7 days of antibiotic therapy. Pregnant women and men with lower UTI should be given an immediate antibiotic prescription, taking into account previous urine culture and susceptibility results, as well as previous antibiotic use that may have led to resistant bacteria. The choice of antibiotic should be reviewed when microbiological results are available. The patient doesn’t need to be admitted or referred at this time as he is clinically well and has no underlying condition. Women with lower UTI who are not pregnant may be considered for a back-up antibiotic prescription if symptoms do not improve within 48 hours or worsen at any time.
Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 27 year-old female patient, who is not pregnant, reports experiencing dysuria, urinary frequency, and low abdominal pain for the past two days. She denies having a fever or loin pain and is not currently menstruating. Upon conducting a urine dip, it was discovered that she has 3+ leucocytes, nitrites, and 2+ blood. The patient has no prior history of UTI. What is the appropriate course of action for managing this condition?
Your Answer: Send a urine sample for culture and treat with oral antibiotics for 3 days
Explanation:For women with haematuria and suspected UTI, NICE recommends urine culture and sensitivity to confirm infection. Treatment with trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for 3 days is recommended, which may be extended to 5-10 days in certain cases. After treatment, urine should be re-tested for blood. Persistent haematuria requires urgent referral to exclude urological cancer. For non-visible haematuria in women under 50, urine albumin/creatinine ratio and serum creatinine levels should be measured. Referral to a renal physician is necessary if there is proteinuria or declining eGFR, and referral to a urologist is needed if eGFR is normal and there is no proteinuria.
Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteriuria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man with symptoms of prostatism has a serum prostate specific antigen (PSA) concentration of 20 µg/l (normal < 4 µg/l).
Select from the list which single correct statement about the clinical importance of this result is the most likely.Your Answer: It could be elevated because a digital rectal examination was performed 48 hours before the blood sample was taken
Correct Answer: It is more likely to reflect prostatic cancer than benign prostatic hypertrophy
Explanation:Understanding Prostate-Specific Antigen (PSA)
Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) is a protein produced by the prostate gland that plays a crucial role in male reproductive function. Its primary function is to liquefy semen, allowing sperm to move freely. PSA is also believed to help dissolve cervical mucous, facilitating the entry of sperm into the uterus.
While PSA is present in small amounts in the blood of men with healthy prostates, elevated levels can indicate the presence of prostate cancer or other prostate disorders. However, PSA is not specific to cancer and a biopsy is needed to confirm a diagnosis.
PSA levels increase with age and in benign prostatic hypertrophy and prostatitis, but a high concentration is more likely to be due to cancer than benign disease. It is important to note that PSA levels may also increase slightly after a digital rectal examination or ejaculation.
Understanding PSA and its role in prostate health is crucial for early detection and treatment of prostate cancer. Regular prostate exams and PSA screenings are recommended for men over the age of 50, or earlier for those with a family history of prostate cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman presents to your clinic with a complaint of occasional urine leakage when she sneezes or coughs. She denies experiencing any urgency or abdominal pain, and her urine dipstick test is unremarkable. The patient has already attempted physiotherapy and received lifestyle recommendations, but she has declined surgical intervention at this time.
What is the optimal course of action for managing this patient's condition?Your Answer: Solifenacin
Correct Answer: Duloxetine
Explanation:It appears that this woman is experiencing stress incontinence, but there are no signs of urgency. She has already attempted to address the issue through lifestyle changes and pelvic floor muscle training, but is not interested in being referred to a specialist at this time. As an alternative, duloxetine may be worth trying. For urinary urgency, medications such as oxybutynin, solifenacin, and tolterodine can be used. However, amitriptyline is not effective for stress incontinence.
Urinary incontinence is a common condition that affects approximately 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. There are several risk factors that can contribute to the development of urinary incontinence, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. The condition can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.
Initial investigation of urinary incontinence involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, performing a vaginal examination to exclude pelvic organ prolapse, and conducting urine dipstick and culture tests. Urodynamic studies may also be necessary. Management of urinary incontinence depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures may be necessary. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be offered to women who decline surgical procedures.
In summary, urinary incontinence is a common condition that can be caused by various risk factors. It can be classified into different types, and management depends on the predominant type of incontinence. Initial investigation involves completing bladder diaries, performing a vaginal examination, and conducting urine tests. Treatment options include bladder retraining, bladder stabilizing drugs, pelvic floor muscle training, surgical procedures, and duloxetine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman who is 28 weeks pregnant presents with dysuria. She is in good health with no fever or back pain. She reports no vaginal bleeding and is not experiencing contractions. Her antenatal course has been uncomplicated and she is receiving midwife-led care. She has no known allergies to medications. Urinalysis shows positive nitrites and 2+ leukocytes, indicating a possible urinary tract infection.
What is the most suitable course of action for primary care management?Your Answer: Refer to the maternity assessment unit for further assessment, and to exclude early labour
Correct Answer: Arrange for a urine culture, and immediately treat with a short course of oral antibiotics as per local prescribing guidelines. Repeat the urine culture seven days after antibiotics have completed as a test of cure
Explanation:For women with suspected urinary tract infections accompanied by visible or non-visible haematuria, it is recommended to send a midstream urine sample. According to current NICE CKS guidelines, this should be done before starting antibiotics and again seven days after completing treatment to confirm cure. Treatment should be initiated promptly if a UTI is suspected, without waiting for culture results. Referral to the maternity assessment unit is not necessary if there are no indications of early labour. However, if group B streptococcus is identified in the culture, it is important to inform the antenatal care service so that prophylactic antibiotics can be administered during labour and delivery.
Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteriuria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes mellitus presents at the diabetes clinic for a review. Her blood tests from three months ago showed:
K+ 4.5 mmol/l
Creatinine 116 µmol/l
eGFR 47 ml/min
She was started on lisinopril to manage hypertension and act as a renoprotective agent. The medication was titrated up to treatment dose. Her current blood results are:
K+ 4.9 mmol/l
Creatinine 123 µmol/l
eGFR 44 ml/min
What is the most appropriate course of action among the following options?Your Answer: Switch to a angiotensin 2 receptor blocker
Correct Answer: No action
Explanation:The slight alterations in creatinine and eGFR are within acceptable limits and do not warrant discontinuation of ACE inhibitors.
Chronic kidney disease (CKD) patients often require more than two drugs to manage hypertension. The first-line treatment is ACE inhibitors, which are especially effective in proteinuric renal disease like diabetic nephropathy. However, these drugs can reduce filtration pressure, leading to a slight decrease in glomerular filtration pressure (GFR) and an increase in creatinine. NICE guidelines state that a decrease in eGFR of up to 25% or a rise in creatinine of up to 30% is acceptable, but any increase should prompt careful monitoring and exclusion of other causes. If the rise is greater than this, it may indicate underlying renovascular disease.
Furosemide is a useful Antihypertensive drug for CKD patients, particularly when the GFR falls below 45 ml/min*. It also helps to lower serum potassium levels. However, high doses are usually required, and if the patient is at risk of dehydration (e.g. due to gastroenteritis), the drug should be temporarily stopped. The NKF K/DOQI guidelines suggest a lower cut-off of less than 30 ml/min.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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