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Question 1
Correct
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A 19-year-old female presents with collapse. Her bloods show-
Hb 112 g/l
Platelets 324 * 109/l
WBC 4.2 * 109/l
Na+ 130 mmol/l
K+ 2.4 mmol/l
Urea 8.9 mmol/l
Creatinine 109 µmol/l
CRP 0.5 mg/l
Her blood pressure is 77/38 mmHg and heart rate 121 beats per minute. Her only past medical history is anorexia and self-harm and she is minimally cooperative with any attempt at a history or examination.
What is the most likely cause for her presentation?Your Answer: Furosemide abuse
Explanation:Furosemide abuse is the most likely cause of the patient’s symptoms, including hypotension, tachycardia, acute kidney injury, dehydration, and hypokalaemia. Addison’s disease and pseudohypoaldosteronism are unlikely causes due to their association with hyperkalaemia, while excess aldosterone is more commonly associated with hypertension.
Hypokalaemia: Symptoms and ECG Features
Hypokalaemia is a condition characterized by low levels of potassium in the blood. It can cause various symptoms, including muscle weakness and hypotonia. Patients with hypokalaemia are also at risk of digoxin toxicity, especially if they are taking diuretics. Therefore, caution should be exercised when prescribing medications to these patients.
In addition to these symptoms, hypokalaemia can also affect the heart’s electrical activity, leading to specific ECG features. These include U waves, small or absent T waves, prolonged PR interval, and ST depression. These changes can be useful in diagnosing hypokalaemia and monitoring its progression.
To summarize, hypokalaemia can cause muscle weakness and increase the risk of digoxin toxicity. It can also affect the heart’s electrical activity, leading to specific ECG features. Therefore, it is essential to monitor patients with hypokalaemia closely and adjust their treatment accordingly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old factory worker presents after an accident at work. He suffered a crush injury when a heavy machine fell on his leg, and he was trapped for over an hour. The orthopaedic team cleared him of any fractures, but fasciotomies were performed due to concerns about compartment syndrome. However, his urine output over the last four hours was only 35 mL, despite a mean arterial pressure of 70 mmHg. His blood results showed elevated levels of creatine kinase, potassium, urea, and creatinine, with a normal haemoglobin level and pH of 7.35. What is the most important management plan to initiate?
Your Answer: Renal replacement therapy
Correct Answer: Aggressive fluid resuscitation
Explanation:Early Fluid Resuscitation for Prevention of Acute Kidney Injury in Rhabdomyolysis
Acute kidney injury (AKI) secondary to rhabdomyolysis can be prevented by early fluid resuscitation. This is because injured muscles sequester water, leading to large volume depletion. To prevent this, volumes of up to 10 liters in 24 hours may be required. The target urine output is 3 ml per kilogram per hour or >300 ml per hour.
Furosemide is not appropriate for AKI prevention as fluid resuscitation is the only proven benefit. Mannitol has theoretical benefits but has not been shown to improve outcomes in AKI. Renal replacement therapy is not biochemically indicated at this stage. Urinary alkalisation can be used alongside aggressive fluid resuscitation, but there is no level 1-3 evidence to support its use.
In summary, early fluid resuscitation is crucial in preventing AKI secondary to rhabdomyolysis. Other interventions such as furosemide, mannitol, renal replacement therapy, and urinary alkalisation may not be effective or indicated at this stage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 3
Correct
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A 50 year-old man presented for his regular check-up at the HIV clinic. He has been on highly-active antiretroviral therapy for 5 years and has been in good health. He has no significant medical history.
During his clinic visit, a urinalysis was conducted and showed 4+ protein and 1+ blood. The physical examination revealed slight swelling in both ankles, but no abnormalities were found in the cardiovascular, respiratory, or abdominal regions.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
Explanation:Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis can be caused by HIV infection, and it may manifest as a nephrotic syndrome, as seen in this particular case.
Understanding Focal Segmental Glomerulosclerosis
Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis (FSGS) is a type of kidney disease that often leads to nephrotic syndrome and chronic kidney disease. It is commonly diagnosed in young adults and can be caused by various factors such as HIV, heroin, Alport’s syndrome, and sickle-cell. In some cases, it may also be idiopathic or secondary to other renal pathologies like IgA nephropathy or reflux nephropathy.
To diagnose FSGS, a renal biopsy is usually performed, which shows focal and segmental sclerosis and hyalinosis on light microscopy and effacement of foot processes on electron microscopy. If left untreated, FSGS has a low chance of spontaneous remission, with less than 10% of cases experiencing it.
Management of FSGS typically involves the use of steroids and immunosuppressants. However, it is important to note that FSGS has a high recurrence rate in renal transplants, making it a challenging condition to manage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 4
Correct
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A 70-year-old man presents to the emergency department following a fall at home. He has been feeling unwell for the past three days with reduced oral intake, nausea, and weakness. He has a history of hypertension and prostate enlargement and is awaiting a TURP in two months. He typically experiences frequency and nocturia but has not passed urine for the last two days. He takes tamsulosin, finasteride, ramipril, and occasional naproxen for joint pains.
Upon examination, the patient appears pale and lethargic. A palpable bladder is noted, and mild crepitations are heard at the bases of his chest. His JVP is raised at 5cm, and his calves are soft and not edematous. His vital signs are heart rate 80/min, temperature 36.9 ºC, respiratory rate 22/min, and blood pressure 140/85 mmHg. A catheter is inserted, and 1400 ml of dark urine is drained.
Lab results show Hb 110 g/l, Na+ 130 mmol/l, platelets 278 * 109/l, K+ 6.0 mmol/l, WBC 11.2 * 109/l, urea 11.3 mmol/l, neuts 9.6 * 109/l, creatinine 493 µmol/l, lymphs 1.0 * 109/l, CRP 23 mg/l, and PSA 5.3 ng/ml (0-2.0 normal range). A urine dip reveals blood +++, leucocytes ++, and nitrites -.
An ultrasound of the catheterized bladder shows no hydronephrosis, and both kidneys are 9.7cm in size. A chest x-ray reveals increased alveolar shadowing in the lower zone and small pleural effusions bilaterally.
What is the probable cause of this acute kidney injury?Your Answer: Urinary tract obstruction
Explanation:The patient is currently experiencing acute kidney injury and has also developed secondary pulmonary edema. While there are numerous potential causes, there is no clear indication of sepsis at this time. It is possible that the patient’s medications, such as ACE inhibitors and NSAIDs, may have contributed to their renal failure, although this would typically occur upon initiation or dosage increase.
The NICE guidelines for acute kidney injury (AKI) identify several risk factors, including emergency surgery, CKD, diabetes, and use of nephrotoxic drugs. Diagnostic criteria for AKI include a rise in creatinine, a fall in urine output, or a fall in eGFR. The KDIGO criteria are used to stage AKI based on the severity of the creatinine increase or reduction in urine output. Referral to a nephrologist is recommended for certain cases, such as stage 3 AKI, inadequate response to treatment, or complications of AKI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man presents to the emergency department complaining of pain in his right forearm. He has a medical history of hypertension and end-stage renal failure and is currently taking ramipril, amlodipine, and doxazosin.
Upon examination, an arteriovenous fistula is observed in the right forearm, with an audible bruit. No other swelling or erythema is present, and there is no pain when the forearm is moved passively. The hand's color appears normal.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Compartment syndrome
Correct Answer: AV fistula stenosis
Explanation:Acute limb pain at the site of the fistula is a common presentation of AV fistula stenosis.
Arteriovenous fistulas are connections between arteries and veins that can occur naturally or be created surgically for haemodialysis access. They are now considered the preferred method due to lower complication rates. It takes around 6 to 8 weeks for an arteriovenous fistula to develop. However, potential complications include infection, thrombosis, stenosis, and steal syndrome. These complications may present with symptoms such as acute limb pain or the absence of a bruit.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 6
Correct
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You are presented with a 43-year-old female patient who has been admitted with dehydration and a history of borderline personality disorder, alcohol excess, and three previous upper gastrointestinal bleeds requiring endoscopic intervention. She is currently taking lithium MR 400 mg once daily, omeprazole 40 mg once daily, and thiamine 100 mg twice daily. Upon admission, her renal function and osmolalities were as follows: Na 155 mmol/L, K 4.9 mmol/L, urea 13.0 mmol/L, and creatinine 251 µmol/L. Her plasma osmolality was 329 mmol/kg (275-295 mmol/kg), and urine osmolality was 56 mmol/kg (500-800 mmol/kg). Despite receiving 5% glucose infusions, her renal function has not improved significantly. A water deprivation test with desmopressin was performed, and the pre- and post-desmopressin urine osmolalities were 64 mmol/kg and 72 mmol/kg, respectively. What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient's likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Hydrochlorothiazide
Explanation:The diagnosis is diabetes insipidus (DI), which is characterized by high plasma osmolality and low urine osmolality, leading to dehydration and significant hypernatremia. The next step is to determine whether it is cranial/central DI or nephrogenic DI, which can be differentiated by measuring urine output and osmolalities after desmopressin administration. In this case, there is no response to desmopressin, indicating nephrogenic DI.
The patient is taking lithium regularly, which is a well-known cause of nephrogenic DI. Hydrochlorothiazide and indomethacin are used to manage nephrogenic DI, but indomethacin is contraindicated in patients with recurrent gastrointestinal bleeding. Therefore, hydrochlorothiazide is the correct answer.
Desmopressin is not the correct answer as nephrogenic DI is caused by resistance to vasopressin rather than a deficiency.
Fluid restriction should not be used in diabetes insipidus as it can worsen hypernatremia. It is only used in cases of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH).
Therefore, in this case, hydrochlorothiazide is the correct answer, while indomethacin and desmopressin are not appropriate options.
Diabetes insipidus is a medical condition that can be caused by either a decreased secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) from the pituitary gland (cranial DI) or an insensitivity to ADH (nephrogenic DI). Cranial DI can be caused by various factors such as head injury, pituitary surgery, and infiltrative diseases like sarcoidosis. On the other hand, nephrogenic DI can be caused by genetic factors, electrolyte imbalances, and certain medications like lithium and demeclocycline. The common symptoms of DI are excessive urination and thirst. Diagnosis is made through a water deprivation test and checking the osmolality of the urine. Treatment options include thiazides and a low salt/protein diet for nephrogenic DI, while central DI can be treated with desmopressin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 7
Correct
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A 57-year-old male with a 12-year history of diabetes mellitus presents for his annual review. He is currently taking gliclazide at a dose of 80 mg twice daily. During examination, his pulse is found to be 76 beats per minute regular and his blood pressure is 152/90 mmHg. Fundal examination reveals bilateral dot haemorrhages with scattered hard exudates. He has also experienced a loss of vibration sensation in his ankles, but all pulses are palpable.
The patient's investigations reveal a serum sodium level of 138 mmol/L (137-144), serum potassium level of 3.8 mmol/L (3.5-4.9), serum urea level of 10.2 mmol/L (2.5-7.5), serum creatinine level of 160 µmol/L (60-110), glucose level of 12.1 mmol/L (3.0-6.0), HbA1c level of 9.5% (3.8-6.4), cholesterol level of 5.5 mmol/L (<5.2), and triglycerides level of 2.8 mmol/L (0.45-1.69).
What measures would you take to improve this patient's prognosis?Your Answer: ACE inhibitor
Explanation:Managing Microvascular and Cardiovascular Complications in Type 2 Diabetes
Patients with type 2 diabetes are at an increased risk of microvascular complications such as nephropathy, neuropathy, and retinopathy. However, they are also prone to cardiovascular mortality, especially if they have chronic renal impairment. While improving glycemic control can reduce microvascular complications, it has no significant impact on cardiovascular morbidity and mortality. On the other hand, lowering blood pressure can significantly reduce morbidity from both microvascular and macrovascular disease.
Studies have shown that angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors (ACEIs) and beta blockers have similar results in managing cardiovascular complications in diabetics. However, the HOPE study, which used ramipril, suggested that adding an ACEI to the standard regimen of patients at risk of cardiovascular disease, including diabetics, may further reduce mortality. Additionally, ACEIs may be more effective in delaying the progression of nephropathy.
In summary, managing microvascular and cardiovascular complications in type 2 diabetes requires a multifaceted approach. While improving glycemic control is important, lowering blood pressure and adding an ACEI to the standard regimen may further reduce mortality and delay the progression of nephropathy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 8
Incorrect
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During an evening on-call, you are summoned to the haematology ward to assess an elective chemotherapy patient. A 24-year-old male is scheduled to begin chemotherapy for Hodgkin's lymphoma the next day and is complaining of pain in his left flank. He has been under investigation by renal physicians for the past four months due to an unknown cause of deteriorating creatinine. He is a non-regular medication user, smokes about 10 cigarettes daily, and occasionally indulges in marijuana.
Upon examination, you observe bilateral lower limb non-pitting oedema up to the knees. There is a left varicocele and mild bilateral scrotal oedema. His heart sounds and chest auscultation are unremarkable. Abdominal examination reveals only mild left renal angle tenderness. A urine dip reveals 4+ blood, 2+ protein, and normal pH. Upon reviewing his old clinic letters, you discover that a renal biopsy from two months ago showed IgG and complement deposits on the basement membrane.
His current serum results are:
K+ 5.4 mmol/l
Urea 12.8 mmol/l
Creatinine 212 µmol/l
Albumin 18 g/l
What is the most probable acute diagnosis?Your Answer: Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
Correct Answer: Renal vein thrombosis
Explanation:A renal biopsy would likely reveal membranous glomerulonephritis as the underlying diagnosis, which could be a result of lymphomatous disease. However, this alone does not explain the sudden onset of symptoms such as flank pain, oedema, and varicocele. It is known that nephrotic syndrome is strongly linked to renal vein thrombosis, which could be the cause of the left varicocele and flank tenderness in this case. Other potential causes of glomerulonephritis are unlikely to cause pain, and renal calculi would not typically result in oedema and varicocele.
Membranous glomerulonephritis is the most common type of glomerulonephritis in adults and is the third leading cause of end-stage renal failure. It typically presents with proteinuria or nephrotic syndrome. A renal biopsy will show a thickened basement membrane with subepithelial electron dense deposits, creating a spike and dome appearance. The condition can be caused by various factors, including infections, malignancy, drugs, autoimmune diseases, and idiopathic reasons.
Management of membranous glomerulonephritis involves the use of ACE inhibitors or ARBs to reduce proteinuria and improve prognosis. Immunosuppression may be necessary for patients with severe or progressive disease, but many patients spontaneously improve. Corticosteroids alone are not effective, and a combination of corticosteroid and another agent such as cyclophosphamide is often used. Anticoagulation may be considered for high-risk patients.
The prognosis for membranous glomerulonephritis follows the rule of thirds: one-third of patients experience spontaneous remission, one-third remain proteinuric, and one-third develop end-stage renal failure. Good prognostic factors include female sex, young age at presentation, and asymptomatic proteinuria of a modest degree at the time of diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man presents with his third episode of fainting in the past six months. He reports trying to stay hydrated in hot weather but often feels dizzy. He has no regular medications. On examination, his BP is 120/80 mmHg, pulse is 80/min and regular. BMI is 25. No abnormalities are found. Lab results show:
Hb: 140 g/l (normal range: 135 - 175 g/l)
WCC: 7.5 × 109/l (normal range: 4.0 - 11.0 × 109/l)
PLT: 200 × 109/l (normal range: 150 - 400 × 109/l)
Na+: 140 mmol/l (normal range: 135 - 145 mmol/l)
K+: 3.3 mmol/l (normal range: 3.5 - 5.0 mmol/l)
Bicarbonate: 30 mmol/l (normal range: 22 – 29 mmol/l)
Cr: 80 µmol/l (normal range: 50 - 120 µmol/l)
What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer: Bartter syndrome
Correct Answer: Gitelman syndrome
Explanation:Gitelman syndrome is characterized by hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis without hypertension. It typically presents later in life and is associated with milder symptoms compared to Bartter syndrome. One way to differentiate between the two is by measuring calcium excretion, which is reduced in Gitelman syndrome but not in Bartter syndrome.
Cushing syndrome, on the other hand, is associated with obesity and hypertension. Other symptoms include abdominal striae, round facies, muscle wasting, and poor wound healing.
Bartter syndrome presents with hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis without hypertension, typically in childhood. Symptoms may include constipation, growth failure, muscle cramps, and weakness. Renin and aldosterone levels are both elevated.
Conn syndrome also presents with hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis, but with hypertension. Other symptoms may include myalgia, muscle spasms, paraesthesiae, and polyuria. Complications can include stroke, myocardial infarction, and kidney disease.
Vasovagal syncope, on the other hand, presents with low blood pressure but without any metabolic disturbance such as hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis. When the patient lies flat and circulation returns to the brain, consciousness is restored.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 10
Correct
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A 26-year-old woman has been referred to your renal outpatient clinic by her general practitioner due to complaints of tiredness. She is not currently taking any medications. During examination, her blood pressure was measured at 180/95 mmHg. Routine investigations by her general practitioner showed normal levels of serum sodium and urea, but low levels of serum potassium and slightly elevated levels of serum creatinine. She was admitted to the hospital for further investigations, which revealed a plasma renin activity of 5.2 pmol/ml/h (1.1-2.7) and a serum aldosterone level of 900 pmol/L (135-400). What is the correct diagnosis?
Your Answer: Fibromuscular dysplasia
Explanation:Causes of Hypertension and Hypokalaemia
Hypertension and hypokalaemia can be caused by various conditions, including Bartter’s syndrome, Conn’s syndrome, essential hypertension, fibromuscular dysplasia, and liquorice ingestion. Bartter’s syndrome is a salt wasting state that affects children and is characterized by severe muscle weakness, low blood pressure, and hyperreninaemia. On the other hand, Conn’s syndrome is caused by an adrenal adenoma that secretes aldosterone, resulting in hypertension, hyperaldosteronism, hypokalaemia, and hyporeninaemia.
Essential hypertension, on the other hand, is not associated with endocrine or electrolyte abnormalities. However, in patients younger than 35 with hypertension, an endocrine cause should be excluded. Fibromuscular dysplasia, a rare cause of hypertension and hypokalaemia, is more common in women and causes hyperreninaemic hyperaldosteronism. Finally, liquorice ingestion can cause a primary aldosterone type picture due to glycyrrhizic acid blocking the enzyme 11b hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase, which prevents the inactivation of cortisol, leading to the activation of mineralocorticoid receptors in the kidney.
In summary, hypertension and hypokalaemia can be caused by various conditions, and it is essential to identify the underlying cause to provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 11
Correct
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An 80-year-old man is admitted to the hospital with worsening productive cough, fever, and difficulty breathing. He appears confused and dehydrated, with increasing muscle pain. His vital signs show a temperature of 37.7ºC, a heart rate of 102/min, and a blood pressure of 95/65 mmHg. He is currently taking bisoprolol 2.5 mg OD, aspirin 75 mg OD, simvastatin 40 mg OD, ramipril 3.75 mg OD, amlodipine 5 mg OD, and allopurinol 300 mg OD. His wife reports that his GP recently prescribed a new medication for his cough.
The patient's blood work shows a hemoglobin level of 104 g/l, platelets at 525 * 109/l, WBC at 16.5 * 109/l, and lymphocytes at 3.2 * 109/l. His sodium level is 131 mmol/l, potassium level is 6.2 mmol/l, and urea level is 21.1 mmol/l. His creatinine level is 365 µmol/l, CRP level is 79 mg/l, and creatinine kinase level is 1325 u/l.
Which recently prescribed medication could explain the abnormal blood picture in this patient?Your Answer: Clarithromycin
Explanation:The co-prescription of clarithromycin and statins can result in rhabdomyolysis. This is because statins are metabolized through the CYP3A4 pathway, which can be inhibited by drugs like macrolide antibiotics. Clarithromycin, in particular, can increase the risk of myopathy and rhabdomyolysis. However, it is worth noting that atorvastatin, being a more hydrophilic agent, is less affected by CYP3A4 metabolism and therefore has fewer side effects when combined with clarithromycin.
Understanding Rhabdomyolysis
Rhabdomyolysis is a condition that may be presented in an exam as a patient who has experienced a fall or prolonged epileptic seizure and is found to have an acute kidney injury upon admission. This condition is characterized by elevated creatine kinase (CK), myoglobinuria, hypocalcaemia, elevated phosphate, hyperkalaemia, and metabolic acidosis. The primary cause of rhabdomyolysis is seizure, collapse/coma, ecstasy, crush injury, McArdle’s syndrome, and drugs such as statins (especially if co-prescribed with clarithromycin).
To manage rhabdomyolysis, IV fluids are administered to maintain good urine output, and urinary alkalinization is sometimes used. It is essential to monitor the patient’s creatinine levels, as they may be disproportionately raised, and to address any hypocalcaemia that may occur due to myoglobin binding calcium. Hyperkalaemia may develop before renal failure, so it is crucial to monitor potassium levels. Overall, understanding rhabdomyolysis is essential for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and treatment to patients who may be experiencing this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 12
Correct
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A 59-year-old woman presents with vomiting, confusion, and lethargy. She has not sought medical attention for many years, but has a history of using co-proxamol for arthritis and takes a diuretic for hypertension. On examination, she has hyper-reflexia, nystagmus, and clonus, and her blood pressure is 165/85 mmHg. There is also evidence of vaginal bleeding. Her blood tests show elevated levels of urea, creatinine, and potassium. What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer: Uraemic encephalopathy
Explanation:The patient’s vaginal bleeding suggests the possibility of uterine or cervical cancer, which is more likely to cause ureteric obstruction and kidney disease. The neurological symptoms indicate uraemic encephalopathy, which can lead to coma and seizures if not treated with dialysis. However, before initiating dialysis, imaging should be done to determine the extent of any underlying tumor and obstruction. Opiate intoxication is unlikely due to the presence of hyper-reflexia and clonus, which are not typical symptoms. Hypertensive encephalopathy is also unlikely as it is usually preceded by severe headache and not associated with vaginal bleeding. Intracranial metastases and subdural hematoma are not likely explanations given the lack of risk factors and symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 13
Incorrect
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John is an 80-year-old man with a history of chronic kidney disease. He comes to the clinic for a routine follow-up of his blood tests. He reports feeling well and denies any significant bone pain or urinary issues. No recent bone fractures were noted.
The blood test results from 1 week ago are as follows:
- Na+ 138 mmol/L (135 - 145)
- K+ 4.8 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
- Urea 8.0 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
- Creatinine 260 µmol/L (55 - 120)
- Calcium 1.8 mmol/L (2.1-2.6)
- Phosphate 2.0 mmol/L (0.8-1.4)
- Magnesium 0.8 mmol/L (0.7-1.0)
- PTH 75 pg/ml (10-55)
Based on these results, what is the most appropriate course of action for managing John's abnormal blood tests?Your Answer: Refer for parathyroidectomy
Correct Answer: Advice regarding reduction in foods like chocolate, nuts, shellfish and cola
Explanation:The initial management of CKD-mineral bone disease involves correcting hyperphosphatemia before starting phosphate binders. This condition is often asymptomatic and detected through routine blood tests. Hyperphosphatemia and hypocalcemia lead to hyperparathyroidism, which can be managed through calcium and vitamin D supplementation to restore normal calcium homeostasis. Dietary changes to limit phosphate intake are recommended, although it can be challenging for patients to adhere to. Phosphate binders like sevelamer and lanthanum are used if dietary changes are ineffective. Cinacalcet is reserved for cases of unresponsive secondary hyperparathyroidism, while parathyroidectomy is a last resort for cases not responding to medical management and dialysis.
Managing Mineral Bone Disease in Chronic Kidney Disease
Chronic kidney disease (CKD) leads to low vitamin D and high phosphate levels due to the kidneys’ inability to perform their normal functions. This results in osteomalacia, secondary hyperparathyroidism, and low calcium levels. To manage mineral bone disease in CKD, the aim is to reduce phosphate and parathyroid hormone levels.
Reduced dietary intake of phosphate is the first-line management, followed by the use of phosphate binders. Aluminium-based binders are less commonly used now, and calcium-based binders may cause hypercalcemia and vascular calcification. Sevelamer, a non-calcium based binder, is increasingly used as it binds to dietary phosphate and prevents its absorption. It also has other beneficial effects, such as reducing uric acid levels and improving lipid profiles in patients with CKD.
In some cases, vitamin D supplementation with alfacalcidol or calcitriol may be necessary. Parathyroidectomy may also be needed to manage secondary hyperparathyroidism. Proper management of mineral bone disease in CKD is crucial to prevent complications and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old college student presents to the Emergency Department with a decreased consciousness level. His roommate reports that he has been struggling with living away from home recently and has been isolating himself from his friends. Several of his friends have recently experienced a self-limiting episode of vomiting and diarrhea. Upon admission, the patient is tachycardic, tachypneic, hypotensive, and hyperglycemic.
What is the underlying cause of the hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis in this 20-year-old patient?Your Answer: Ethylene glycol ingestion
Correct Answer: 0.9% saline infusion
Explanation:The cause of the patient’s hyperchloraemic metabolic acidosis is likely due to the administration of saline, which contains 154 mEq of chloride ions. This leads to an increase in extracellular chloride ions, causing an intracellular influx of bicarbonate ions and resulting in metabolic acidosis. Additionally, this can lead to a rise in extracellular potassium levels.
Diarrhoea is an unlikely cause in this scenario, as it would have been present in the initial investigations if it was the primary cause. Ethylene glycol ingestion is also unlikely, but urgent consultation with a toxicologist is required if there is any suspicion. A mnemonic to remember causes of a raised anion gap metabolic acidosis is MUDPILES. Renal failure is less likely to be the cause in this case.
Understanding Metabolic Acidosis
Metabolic acidosis is a condition that can be classified based on the anion gap, which is calculated by subtracting the sum of chloride and bicarbonate from the sum of sodium and potassium. The normal range for anion gap is 10-18 mmol/L. If a question provides the chloride level, it may be an indication to calculate the anion gap.
Hyperchloraemic metabolic acidosis is a type of metabolic acidosis with a normal anion gap. It can be caused by gastrointestinal bicarbonate loss, prolonged diarrhea, ureterosigmoidostomy, fistula, renal tubular acidosis, drugs like acetazolamide, ammonium chloride injection, and Addison’s disease. On the other hand, raised anion gap metabolic acidosis is caused by lactate, ketones, urate, acid poisoning, and other factors.
Lactic acidosis is a type of metabolic acidosis that is caused by high lactate levels. It can be further classified into two types: lactic acidosis type A, which is caused by sepsis, shock, hypoxia, and burns, and lactic acidosis type B, which is caused by metformin. Understanding the different types and causes of metabolic acidosis is important in diagnosing and treating the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old woman is currently receiving treatment for sepsis on your ward. She was admitted three days ago with symptoms of fever, anorexia, and urinary issues, and was initially treated with intravenous co-amoxiclav 1.2 grams three times daily. However, blood cultures later revealed the presence of an Enterococcus species that was sensitive to gentamicin, which was subsequently added to her treatment regimen. The latest gentamicin trough was 0.6 mg/L (trough reference range <1.0).
The nursing staff has expressed concern about the patient's decreasing urine output and has requested your assessment. Upon reviewing her U&E results since admission, you note the following values:
Admission:
- Serum sodium: 136
- Serum potassium: 3.9
- Chloride: 101
- Urea: 4.8
- Creatinine: 85
Yesterday:
- Serum sodium: 138
- Serum potassium: 4.1
- Chloride: 106
- Urea: 7.7
- Creatinine: 110
Today:
- Serum sodium: 143 (normal range: 135-146 mmol/L)
- Serum potassium: 4.3 (normal range: 3.5-5.0 mmol/L)
- Chloride: 109 (normal range: 97-107 mEq/L)
- Urea: 9.1 (normal range: 10-20 mg/dL)
- Creatinine: 145 (normal range: 79-118 μmol/L)
As the patient's healthcare provider, which of the following interventions is most likely to improve her renal function?Your Answer: Stop gentamicin
Correct Answer: Commence intravenous fluids
Explanation:Management of Renal Failure in a Septic Patient
This patient is experiencing sepsis and is likely dehydrated with pre-renal failure. Although her U&Es were normal upon admission, she presented with a fever and anorexia, which can contribute to dehydration. The initial course of action should be to administer IV fluids and rehydrate the patient.
As renal failure develops, it is important to monitor gentamicin levels. Since the organism causing the sepsis is sensitive to gentamicin, it would be unwise to discontinue the medication at this point. Co-amoxiclav is unlikely to be a significant contributor to the renal dysfunction, but it’s dose should be reduced in patients with renal impairment. Since the organism is sensitive to another drug, it may be appropriate to discontinue co-amoxiclav, but this is unlikely to improve renal function.
In cases of new renal impairment, a renal ultrasound scan is recommended. While it is unlikely that this patient has an obstructive uropathy, given her normal renal function a few days prior, it is still advisable to request imaging within 24 hours. It is important to note that the ultrasound scan will not improve renal function.
Furosemide is not indicated in this case and may worsen dehydration and renal function. The patient is fluid depleted, not fluid overloaded. Proper management of renal failure in septic patients involves rehydration, monitoring of medication levels, and appropriate imaging.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man presents with vomiting, confusion, general malaise and abdominal pain. His initial blood tests reveal low hemoglobin, low platelets, high white blood cells, and elevated levels of urea, creatinine, and LDH. The ESR is also high, and the PT and APTT are within normal limits. After ruling out Shiga toxin and ADAMS-13, the patient is diagnosed with atypical hemolytic-uremic syndrome and undergoes plasma exchange. What other treatment has been proven effective in managing this condition?
Your Answer: Cyclophosphamide
Correct Answer: Eculizumab
Explanation:Understanding Haemolytic Uraemic Syndrome
Haemolytic uraemic syndrome (HUS) is a condition that primarily affects young children and is characterized by a triad of symptoms, including acute kidney injury, microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia, and thrombocytopenia. The most common cause of HUS in children is Shiga toxin-producing Escherichia coli (STEC) 0157:H7, which accounts for over 90% of cases. Other causes of HUS include pneumococcal infection, HIV, systemic lupus erythematosus, drugs, and cancer.
To diagnose HUS, doctors may perform a full blood count, check for evidence of STEC infection in stool culture, and conduct PCR for Shiga toxins. Treatment for HUS is supportive and may include fluids, blood transfusion, and dialysis if required. Antibiotics are not recommended, despite the preceding diarrhoeal illness in many patients. The indications for plasma exchange in HUS are complicated, and as a general rule, plasma exchange is reserved for severe cases of HUS not associated with diarrhoea. Eculizumab, a C5 inhibitor monoclonal antibody, has shown greater efficiency than plasma exchange alone in the treatment of adult atypical HUS.
In summary, HUS is a serious condition that primarily affects young children and is characterized by a triad of symptoms. The most common cause of HUS in children is STEC 0157:H7, and diagnosis may involve various tests. Treatment is supportive, and antibiotics are not recommended. The indications for plasma exchange are complicated, and eculizumab may be more effective in treating adult atypical HUS.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 17
Correct
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A 52 year-old man presents with a ten-hour history of diffuse abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting. The severity of the abdominal pain has been increasing and is currently rated at 7/10 on the pain scale with evidence of guarding. The patient is currently undergoing peritoneal dialysis for end-stage renal failure and has noticed cloudy peritoneal bags over the last eight hours. He is taking ramipril, alfacalcidol, erythropoietin and simvastatin. All his vital signs are stable and peritoneal dialysis fluid has been sent for microscopy, culture and sensitivity.
What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?Your Answer: Give intraperitoneal vancomycin + ceftazidime
Explanation:In the case of peritoneal dialysis peritonitis, the recommended treatment is the administration of intraperitoneal vancomycin and ceftazidime. This is due to the fact that common causative organisms include Staphylococcus aureus, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, and Staphylococcus epidermidis, and prompt medical intervention is crucial.
Understanding Peritoneal Dialysis and its Complications
Peritoneal dialysis (PD) is a type of renal replacement therapy that is used as an alternative to haemodialysis or for younger patients who prefer not to visit the hospital frequently. The most common form of PD is Continuous Ambulatory Peritoneal Dialysis (CAPD), which involves four 2-litre exchanges per day.
However, PD is not without its complications. One of the most common complications is peritonitis, which is often caused by coagulase-negative staphylococci such as Staphylococcus epidermidis or Staphylococcus aureus. To treat peritonitis, antibiotics that cover both Gram-positive and Gram-negative organisms are recommended. The British National Formulary (BNF) suggests using vancomycin (or teicoplanin) and ceftazidime added to dialysis fluid or vancomycin added to dialysis fluid and ciprofloxacin by mouth. In some cases, aminoglycosides may be used instead of ceftazidime to cover the Gram-negative organisms.
Another potential complication of PD is sclerosing peritonitis. This is a rare but serious condition that causes inflammation and thickening of the peritoneum, which can lead to bowel obstruction and other complications. It is important for patients undergoing PD to be aware of these potential complications and to seek medical attention if they experience any symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old female presents to the hospital with complaints of abdominal pain, loose stools, wrist and ankle pain, and a sore throat three days prior. Upon examination, a non-blanching maculopapular rash is observed on her back, buttocks, and lower legs, and her blood pressure is elevated at 175/90 mmHg. Laboratory investigations reveal elevated serum urea and creatinine levels, decreased serum albumin levels, and protein and blood in her urine. What would be the most appropriate initial treatment for this patient?
Your Answer: High dose prednisolone
Correct Answer: ACE inhibitor
Explanation:The patient likely has Henoch-Schönlein nephritis, which presents with painless macroscopic haematuria, rash, abdominal pain, and arthralgia. She has proteinuria and hypertension, indicating a worse prognosis. Treatment includes starting an ACE inhibitor and potentially immunosuppression if a renal biopsy shows changes of crescentic GN. HSP is the most common cause of vasculitis affecting the kidneys in children, but in adults, the cause may be any type of vasculitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man presents to the emergency department with complaints of feeling generally unwell and lethargic. He recently had a bout of diarrhoea. He has no significant medical history and no family history of note.
During the examination, his blood pressure is found to be elevated at 174/72 mmHg. The blood tests reveal a low Hb of 98 g/L (male: 135-180, female: 115-160), an MCV of 92 fl (80-98), platelets of 45 * 109/L (150-400), and a WBC count of 4.8 * 109/L (4.0-11.0). His Na+ level is 138 mmol/L (135-145), K+ level is 4.8 mmol/L (3.5-5.0), urea level is 14.2 mmol/L (2.0-7.0), and creatinine level is 168 µmol/L (55-120). The CRP level is 15 mg/L (<5), and the blood film shows schistocytes. The haptoglobin level is 0.1 g/L (0.5-2.0), and the antinuclear antibody is negative. The ADAMTS13 activity is 85% (>67%).
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura
Correct Answer: Haemolytic uraemic syndrome
Explanation:Consider HUS as the likely diagnosis for a patient presenting with normocytic anaemia, thrombocytopenia, and AKI following a diarrhoeal illness. The presence of fatigue, hypertension, and evidence of thrombotic microangiopathy (including schistocytes and low haptoglobin) further supports this diagnosis. HUS is typically caused by STEC and is characterized by its association with a recent diarrhoeal illness.
Atypical HUS, which is caused by chronic uncontrolled activation of the complement system and has a genetic component, is unlikely in this case due to the patient’s recent history of diarrhoea. Lupus nephritis and scleroderma renal crisis are also unlikely based on the absence of other typical features and positive ANA results.
Understanding Haemolytic Uraemic Syndrome
Haemolytic uraemic syndrome (HUS) is a condition that primarily affects young children and is characterized by a triad of symptoms, including acute kidney injury, microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia, and thrombocytopenia. The most common cause of HUS in children is Shiga toxin-producing Escherichia coli (STEC) 0157:H7, which accounts for over 90% of cases. Other causes of HUS include pneumococcal infection, HIV, systemic lupus erythematosus, drugs, and cancer.
To diagnose HUS, doctors may perform a full blood count, check for evidence of STEC infection in stool culture, and conduct PCR for Shiga toxins. Treatment for HUS is supportive and may include fluids, blood transfusion, and dialysis if required. Antibiotics are not recommended, despite the preceding diarrhoeal illness in many patients. The indications for plasma exchange in HUS are complicated, and as a general rule, plasma exchange is reserved for severe cases of HUS not associated with diarrhoea. Eculizumab, a C5 inhibitor monoclonal antibody, has shown greater efficiency than plasma exchange alone in the treatment of adult atypical HUS.
In summary, HUS is a serious condition that primarily affects young children and is characterized by a triad of symptoms. The most common cause of HUS in children is STEC 0157:H7, and diagnosis may involve various tests. Treatment is supportive, and antibiotics are not recommended. The indications for plasma exchange are complicated, and eculizumab may be more effective in treating adult atypical HUS.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 20
Correct
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A 70-year-old man with bipolar disorder is admitted from home, presenting with dehydration. He has a history of colonic resection with subsequent ileostomy, but further information is not available. His current medications include lithium bicarbonate, aspirin, and ramipril. On examination, his vital signs are stable, but he appears dehydrated. There is no evidence of bowel obstruction, and effluent is present in the ileostomy. Blood tests reveal high serum sodium but normal serum blood sugar. Renal function and full blood count results are pending. A urinary catheter is inserted, and intravenous fluid replacement is initiated. Which diagnostic test would be most useful in distinguishing between renal and extra-renal fluid loss?
Your Answer: Urine osmolality
Explanation:Importance of Urine Osmolality in Assessing Dehydration
Dehydration can have various causes, and it is important to determine the underlying reason to provide appropriate treatment. One way to distinguish the cause of dehydration is by measuring urine osmolality. This test provides an indication of whether the kidneys are appropriately concentrating urine or not. In cases of extra-renal fluid loss, the body conserves fluid by producing concentrated urine. On the other hand, renal fluid loss, such as in diabetes insipidus, results in dilute urine with low osmolality.
Other tests, such as brain natriuretic peptide, serum osmolality, urinary protein:creatinine ratio, and nitrites on urine dipstick, do not provide relevant information in assessing dehydration. Brain natriuretic peptide is not directly related to electrolyte imbalance, while serum osmolality is expected to be high in cases of high serum sodium. Urinary protein:creatinine ratio is used to assess proteinuria, and nitrites on urinary dipstick are indicative of urinary infection.
In summary, urine osmolality is a crucial test in determining the cause of dehydration. It helps differentiate between extra-renal and renal fluid loss, which guides appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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