00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - A 55-year-old Caucasian man presents to the ENT clinic with complaints of gradual...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old Caucasian man presents to the ENT clinic with complaints of gradual hearing loss over the past year. He reports having to turn up the volume on his television to the maximum to hear it comfortably. There are no associated symptoms such as tinnitus or dizziness, and the patient has no significant medical history.

      Upon examination, a Weber and Rinne test reveal conductive hearing loss in the left ear. Otoscope examination shows no signs of middle ear effusion or tympanic membrane involvement in either ear. A pure tone audiometry confirms conductive hearing loss in the left ear, with a Carhart's notch present.

      The physician diagnoses the patient with otosclerosis and discusses treatment options.

      What is the underlying pathology of otosclerosis?

      Your Answer: Degeneration of the organ of Corti, leading to the loss of outer hair cells

      Correct Answer: Replacement of normal bone by vascular spongy bone

      Explanation:

      Otosclerosis is a condition where normal bone is replaced by spongy bone with a high vascularity. This leads to progressive conductive hearing loss, without any other neurological impairments. The replacement of the normal endochondral layer of the bony labyrinth by spongy bone affects the ability of the stapes to act as a piston, resulting in the conduction of sound from the middle ear to the inner ear being affected. Caucasians are most commonly affected by this condition.

      Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) is caused by the dislodgement of otoliths into the semicircular canals. This condition results in vertiginous dizziness upon positional changes, but does not affect auditory function.

      Meniere’s disease is caused by endolymphatic hydrops, which is the accumulation of fluid in the inner ear. The pathophysiology of this condition is not well understood, but it leads to vertigo, tinnitus, hearing loss, and aural fullness.

      Cholesteatoma is caused by the accumulation of desquamated, stratified squamous epithelium. This leads to the formation of a mass that can gradually enlarge and erode the ossicle chain, resulting in conductive hearing loss.

      Presbycusis is a type of sensorineural hearing loss that occurs as a result of aging. The degeneration of the organ of Corti is one of the underlying pathological mechanisms that causes this condition. This leads to the destruction of outer hair cells and a decrease in hearing sensitivity.

      Understanding Otosclerosis: A Progressive Conductive Deafness

      Otosclerosis is a medical condition that occurs when normal bone is replaced by vascular spongy bone. This condition leads to a progressive conductive deafness due to the fixation of the stapes at the oval window. It is an autosomal dominant condition that typically affects young adults, with onset usually occurring between the ages of 20-40 years.

      The main features of otosclerosis include conductive deafness, tinnitus, a normal tympanic membrane, and a positive family history. In some cases, patients may also experience a flamingo tinge, which is caused by hyperemia and affects around 10% of patients.

      Management of otosclerosis typically involves the use of a hearing aid or stapedectomy. A hearing aid can help to improve hearing, while a stapedectomy involves the surgical removal of the stapes bone and replacement with a prosthesis.

      Overall, understanding otosclerosis is important for individuals who may be at risk of developing this condition. Early diagnosis and management can help to improve hearing and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      37.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 67-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of dyspnoea. He experiences shortness of...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of dyspnoea. He experiences shortness of breath after walking just a few meters, whereas he can usually walk up to 200m. The man appears cyanosed in his extremities and his pulse oximeter shows a reading of 83%. What is the primary mode of carbon dioxide transportation in the bloodstream?

      Your Answer: Bound to haemoglobin as bicarbonate ions

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Oxygen Dissociation Curve

      The oxygen dissociation curve is a graphical representation of the relationship between the percentage of saturated haemoglobin and the partial pressure of oxygen in the blood. It is not influenced by the concentration of haemoglobin. The curve can shift to the left or right, indicating changes in oxygen delivery to tissues. When the curve shifts to the left, there is increased saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen, resulting in decreased oxygen delivery to tissues. Conversely, when the curve shifts to the right, there is reduced saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen, leading to enhanced oxygen delivery to tissues.

      The L rule is a helpful mnemonic to remember the factors that cause a shift to the left, resulting in lower oxygen delivery. These factors include low levels of hydrogen ions (alkali), low partial pressure of carbon dioxide, low levels of 2,3-diphosphoglycerate, and low temperature. On the other hand, the mnemonic ‘CADET, face Right!’ can be used to remember the factors that cause a shift to the right, leading to raised oxygen delivery. These factors include carbon dioxide, acid, 2,3-diphosphoglycerate, exercise, and temperature.

      Understanding the oxygen dissociation curve is crucial in assessing the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood and the delivery of oxygen to tissues. By knowing the factors that can shift the curve to the left or right, healthcare professionals can make informed decisions in managing patients with respiratory and cardiovascular diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      14.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A woman in her 30s is stabbed in the chest to the right...

    Incorrect

    • A woman in her 30s is stabbed in the chest to the right of the manubriosternal angle. Which structure is least likely to be injured in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Brachiocephalic vein

      Correct Answer: Right recurrent laryngeal nerve

      Explanation:

      The right vagus nerve gives rise to the right recurrent laryngeal nerve at a more proximal location, which then curves around the subclavian artery in a posterior direction. Therefore, out of the given structures, it is the least susceptible to injury.

      The mediastinum is the area located between the two pulmonary cavities and is covered by the mediastinal pleura. It extends from the thoracic inlet at the top to the diaphragm at the bottom. The mediastinum is divided into four regions: the superior mediastinum, middle mediastinum, posterior mediastinum, and anterior mediastinum.

      The superior mediastinum is the area between the manubriosternal angle and T4/5. It contains important structures such as the superior vena cava, brachiocephalic veins, arch of aorta, thoracic duct, trachea, oesophagus, thymus, vagus nerve, left recurrent laryngeal nerve, and phrenic nerve. The anterior mediastinum contains thymic remnants, lymph nodes, and fat. The middle mediastinum contains the pericardium, heart, aortic root, arch of azygos vein, and main bronchi. The posterior mediastinum contains the oesophagus, thoracic aorta, azygos vein, thoracic duct, vagus nerve, sympathetic nerve trunks, and splanchnic nerves.

      In summary, the mediastinum is a crucial area in the thorax that contains many important structures and is divided into four regions. Each region contains different structures that are essential for the proper functioning of the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      27.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 27-year-old male admitted to the ICU after a car accident has a...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old male admitted to the ICU after a car accident has a pneumothorax. Using a bedside spirometer, his inspiratory and expiratory volumes were measured. What is the typical tidal volume for a male of his age?

      Your Answer: 500ml

      Explanation:

      The amount of air that is normally breathed in and out without any extra effort is called tidal volume, which is 500ml in males and 350ml in females.

      Understanding Lung Volumes in Respiratory Physiology

      In respiratory physiology, lung volumes can be measured to determine the amount of air that moves in and out of the lungs during breathing. The diagram above shows the different lung volumes that can be measured.

      Tidal volume (TV) refers to the amount of air that is inspired or expired with each breath at rest. In males, the TV is 500ml while in females, it is 350ml.

      Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) is the maximum volume of air that can be inspired at the end of a normal tidal inspiration. The inspiratory capacity is the sum of TV and IRV. On the other hand, expiratory reserve volume (ERV) is the maximum volume of air that can be expired at the end of a normal tidal expiration.

      Residual volume (RV) is the volume of air that remains in the lungs after maximal expiration. It increases with age and can be calculated by subtracting ERV from FRC. Speaking of FRC, it is the volume in the lungs at the end-expiratory position and is equal to the sum of ERV and RV.

      Vital capacity (VC) is the maximum volume of air that can be expired after a maximal inspiration. It decreases with age and can be calculated by adding inspiratory capacity and ERV. Lastly, total lung capacity (TLC) is the sum of vital capacity and residual volume.

      Physiological dead space (VD) is calculated by multiplying tidal volume by the difference between arterial carbon dioxide pressure (PaCO2) and end-tidal carbon dioxide pressure (PeCO2) and then dividing the result by PaCO2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 29-year-old cyclist is brought to the emergency department by air ambulance following...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old cyclist is brought to the emergency department by air ambulance following a car collision. She was intubated at the scene and currently has a Glasgow Coma Score of 8. Where is the control and regulation of the respiratory centers located?

      Your Answer: Thalamus

      Correct Answer: Brainstem

      Explanation:

      The brainstem houses the respiratory centres, which are responsible for regulating various aspects of breathing. These centres are located in the upper pons, lower pons and medulla oblongata.

      The thalamus plays a role in sensory, motor and cognitive functions, and its axons connect with the cerebral cortex. The cerebellum coordinates voluntary movements and helps maintain balance and posture. The parietal lobe processes sensory information, including discrimination and body orientation. The primary visual cortex is located in the occipital lobe.

      The Control of Ventilation in the Human Body

      The control of ventilation in the human body is a complex process that involves various components working together to regulate the respiratory rate and depth of respiration. The respiratory centres, chemoreceptors, lung receptors, and muscles all play a role in this process. The automatic, involuntary control of respiration occurs from the medulla, which is responsible for controlling the respiratory rate and depth of respiration.

      The respiratory centres consist of the medullary respiratory centre, apneustic centre, and pneumotaxic centre. The medullary respiratory centre has two groups of neurons, the ventral group, which controls forced voluntary expiration, and the dorsal group, which controls inspiration. The apneustic centre, located in the lower pons, stimulates inspiration and activates and prolongs inhalation. The pneumotaxic centre, located in the upper pons, inhibits inspiration at a certain point and fine-tunes the respiratory rate.

      Ventilatory variables, such as the levels of pCO2, are the most important factors in ventilation control, while levels of O2 are less important. Peripheral chemoreceptors, located in the bifurcation of carotid arteries and arch of the aorta, respond to changes in reduced pO2, increased H+, and increased pCO2 in arterial blood. Central chemoreceptors, located in the medulla, respond to increased H+ in brain interstitial fluid to increase ventilation. It is important to note that the central receptors are not influenced by O2 levels.

      Lung receptors also play a role in the control of ventilation. Stretch receptors respond to lung stretching, causing a reduced respiratory rate, while irritant receptors respond to smoke, causing bronchospasm. J (juxtacapillary) receptors are also involved in the control of ventilation. Overall, the control of ventilation is a complex process that involves various components working together to regulate the respiratory rate and depth of respiration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      10.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 72-year-old woman is brought to the stroke unit with a suspected stroke....

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old woman is brought to the stroke unit with a suspected stroke. She has a medical history of hypertension, type II diabetes, and hypothyroidism. Additionally, she experienced a myocardial infarction 4 years ago. Upon arrival, the patient exhibited a positive FAST result and an irregular breathing pattern. An urgent brain CT scan was performed and is currently under review. What region of the brainstem is responsible for regulating the fundamental breathing rhythm?

      Your Answer: Midbrain

      Correct Answer: Medulla oblongata

      Explanation:

      The medullary rhythmicity area in the medullary oblongata controls the basic rhythm of breathing through its inspiratory and expiratory neurons. During quiet breathing, the inspiratory area is active for approximately 2 seconds, causing the diaphragm and external intercostals to contract, followed by a period of inactivity lasting around 3 seconds as the muscles relax and there is elastic recoil. Additional brainstem regions can be stimulated to regulate various aspects of breathing, such as extending inspiration in the apneustic area (refer to the table below).

      The Control of Ventilation in the Human Body

      The control of ventilation in the human body is a complex process that involves various components working together to regulate the respiratory rate and depth of respiration. The respiratory centres, chemoreceptors, lung receptors, and muscles all play a role in this process. The automatic, involuntary control of respiration occurs from the medulla, which is responsible for controlling the respiratory rate and depth of respiration.

      The respiratory centres consist of the medullary respiratory centre, apneustic centre, and pneumotaxic centre. The medullary respiratory centre has two groups of neurons, the ventral group, which controls forced voluntary expiration, and the dorsal group, which controls inspiration. The apneustic centre, located in the lower pons, stimulates inspiration and activates and prolongs inhalation. The pneumotaxic centre, located in the upper pons, inhibits inspiration at a certain point and fine-tunes the respiratory rate.

      Ventilatory variables, such as the levels of pCO2, are the most important factors in ventilation control, while levels of O2 are less important. Peripheral chemoreceptors, located in the bifurcation of carotid arteries and arch of the aorta, respond to changes in reduced pO2, increased H+, and increased pCO2 in arterial blood. Central chemoreceptors, located in the medulla, respond to increased H+ in brain interstitial fluid to increase ventilation. It is important to note that the central receptors are not influenced by O2 levels.

      Lung receptors also play a role in the control of ventilation. Stretch receptors respond to lung stretching, causing a reduced respiratory rate, while irritant receptors respond to smoke, causing bronchospasm. J (juxtacapillary) receptors are also involved in the control of ventilation. Overall, the control of ventilation is a complex process that involves various components working together to regulate the respiratory rate and depth of respiration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      32.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 28-year-old female patient presents to your clinic seeking help to quit smoking....

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female patient presents to your clinic seeking help to quit smoking. Despite several attempts in the past, she has been unsuccessful. She has a medical history of bipolar disorder and well-managed epilepsy, for which she takes lamotrigine. She currently smokes 15 cigarettes per day and is especially interested in the health benefits of quitting smoking since she has recently found out that she is pregnant. As her physician, you decide to prescribe a suitable medication to assist her in her efforts. What would be the most appropriate treatment option?

      Your Answer: Amitriptyline

      Correct Answer: Nicotine gum

      Explanation:

      Standard treatments for nicotine dependence do not include amitriptyline, fluoxetine, or gabapentin. Nicotine replacement therapy (NRT) can be helpful for motivated patients, but it is not a cure for addiction and may require multiple attempts. Bupropion and varenicline are other smoking cessation aids, but they have multiple side effects and may not be suitable for all patients. NICE guidelines recommend discussing the best method of smoking cessation with the patient, but NRT is considered safer in pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      24.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 19-year-old male is admitted with acute asthma. He has been treated with...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old male is admitted with acute asthma. He has been treated with steroid, bronchodilators and 15 l/min of oxygen.

      His pulse rate is 125/min, oxygen saturation 89%, respiratory rate 24/min, blood pressure 140/88 mmHg and he has a peak flow rate of 150 l/min. On auscultation of his chest, he has bilateral wheezes.

      Arterial blood gas (ABG) result taken on 15 l/min oxygen shows:

      pH 7.42 (7.36-7.44)
      PaO2 8.4 kPa (11.3-12.6)
      PaCO2 5.3 kPa (4.7-6.0)
      Standard HCO3 19 mmol/L (20-28)
      Base excess −4 (+/-2)
      Oxygen saturation 89%

      What is the most appropriate action for this man?

      Your Answer: Reduce oxygen to 2 l/min and repeat ABG in 30 minutes

      Correct Answer: Call ITU to consider intubation

      Explanation:

      Urgent Need for Ventilation in Life-Threatening Asthma

      This patient is experiencing life-threatening asthma with a dangerously low oxygen saturation level of less than 92%. Despite having a normal PaCO2 level, the degree of hypoxia is inappropriate and requires immediate consideration for ventilation. The arterial blood gas (ABG) result is consistent with the clinical presentation, making a venous blood sample unnecessary. Additionally, the ABG and bedside oxygen saturation readings are identical, indicating an arterialised sample.

      It is crucial to note that in cases of acute asthma, reducing the amount of oxygen below the maximum available is not recommended. Hypoxia can be fatal and must be addressed promptly. Therefore, urgent intervention is necessary to ensure the patient’s safety and well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      39.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 43-year-old woman comes to the respiratory clinic for an outpatient appointment. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year-old woman comes to the respiratory clinic for an outpatient appointment. She has been experiencing increased breathlessness, particularly at night. Her medical history includes long-standing COPD, heart failure, and previous breast cancer that was treated with a mastectomy and radiotherapy. She used to smoke 20 cigarettes a day for 22 years but has since quit.

      During the examination, her respiratory rate is 23/min, oxygen saturation is 93%, blood pressure is 124/98mmHg, and temperature is 37.2ºC. A gas transfer test is performed, and her transfer factor is found to be low.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary haemorrhage

      Correct Answer: Pulmonary oedema

      Explanation:

      TLCO, also known as transfer factor, is a measurement of how quickly gas can move from a person’s lungs into their bloodstream. To test TLCO, a patient inhales a mixture of carbon monoxide and a tracer gas, holds their breath for 10 seconds, and then exhales forcefully. The exhaled gas is analyzed to determine how much tracer gas was absorbed during the 10-second period.

      A high TLCO value is associated with conditions such as asthma, pulmonary hemorrhage, left-to-right cardiac shunts, polycythemia, hyperkinetic states, male gender, and exercise. Conversely, most other conditions result in a low TLCO value, including pulmonary fibrosis, pneumonia, pulmonary emboli, pulmonary edema, emphysema, and anemia.

      Understanding Transfer Factor in Lung Function Testing

      The transfer factor is a measure of how quickly a gas diffuses from the alveoli into the bloodstream. This is typically tested using carbon monoxide, and the results can be given as either the total gas transfer (TLCO) or the transfer coefficient corrected for lung volume (KCO). A raised TLCO may be caused by conditions such as asthma, pulmonary haemorrhage, left-to-right cardiac shunts, polycythaemia, hyperkinetic states, male gender, or exercise. On the other hand, a lower TLCO may be indicative of pulmonary fibrosis, pneumonia, pulmonary emboli, pulmonary oedema, emphysema, anaemia, or low cardiac output.

      KCO tends to increase with age, and certain conditions may cause an increased KCO with a normal or reduced TLCO. These conditions include pneumonectomy/lobectomy, scoliosis/kyphosis, neuromuscular weakness, and ankylosis of costovertebral joints (such as in ankylosing spondylitis). Understanding transfer factor is important in lung function testing, as it can provide valuable information about a patient’s respiratory health and help guide treatment decisions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      33.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which one of the following muscles is supplied by the external laryngeal nerve?...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following muscles is supplied by the external laryngeal nerve?

      Your Answer: Cricothyroid

      Explanation:

      Anatomy of the Larynx

      The larynx is located in the front of the neck, between the third and sixth cervical vertebrae. It is made up of several cartilaginous segments, including the paired arytenoid, corniculate, and cuneiform cartilages, as well as the single thyroid, cricoid, and epiglottic cartilages. The cricoid cartilage forms a complete ring. The laryngeal cavity extends from the laryngeal inlet to the inferior border of the cricoid cartilage and is divided into three parts: the laryngeal vestibule, the laryngeal ventricle, and the infraglottic cavity.

      The vocal folds, also known as the true vocal cords, control sound production. They consist of the vocal ligament and the vocalis muscle, which is the most medial part of the thyroarytenoid muscle. The glottis is composed of the vocal folds, processes, and rima glottidis, which is the narrowest potential site within the larynx.

      The larynx is also home to several muscles, including the posterior cricoarytenoid, lateral cricoarytenoid, thyroarytenoid, transverse and oblique arytenoids, vocalis, and cricothyroid muscles. These muscles are responsible for various actions, such as abducting or adducting the vocal folds and relaxing or tensing the vocal ligament.

      The larynx receives its arterial supply from the laryngeal arteries, which are branches of the superior and inferior thyroid arteries. Venous drainage is via the superior and inferior laryngeal veins. Lymphatic drainage varies depending on the location within the larynx, with the vocal cords having no lymphatic drainage and the supraglottic and subglottic parts draining into different lymph nodes.

      Overall, understanding the anatomy of the larynx is important for proper diagnosis and treatment of various conditions affecting this structure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 15-year-old girl presents with difficulty breathing and is unable to speak in...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old girl presents with difficulty breathing and is unable to speak in full sentences due to panic. She has a history of asthma. Upon examination, her respiratory rate is 28 breaths/minute, heart rate is 105 beats/minute, and her chest is silent. What is the most concerning feature in this girl's history?

      Your Answer: Silent chest

      Explanation:

      Identify the life-threatening features of an asthma attack.

      Assessing the severity of asthma attacks in children is crucial for effective management. The 2016 BTS/SIGN guidelines provide criteria for assessing the severity of asthma in general practice. These criteria include measuring SpO2 levels, PEF (peak expiratory flow) rates, heart rate, respiratory rate, use of accessory neck muscles, and other symptoms such as breathlessness, agitation, altered consciousness, and cyanosis.

      A severe asthma attack is characterized by a SpO2 level below 92%, PEF rates between 33-50% of the best or predicted, being too breathless to talk or feed, and a high heart and respiratory rate. On the other hand, a life-threatening asthma attack is indicated by a SpO2 level below 92%, PEF rates below 33% of the best or predicted, a silent chest, poor respiratory effort, use of accessory neck muscles, agitation, altered consciousness, and cyanosis.

      It is important for healthcare professionals to be familiar with these criteria to ensure prompt and appropriate management of asthma attacks in children. Early recognition of the severity of an asthma attack can help prevent complications and reduce the risk of hospitalization or death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      26.4
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 40-year-old woman visits her GP after being treated at the Emergency Department...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman visits her GP after being treated at the Emergency Department for a foreign body lodged in her throat for 2 days. Although the object has been removed, she is experiencing difficulty swallowing. Upon further questioning, she mentions altered sensation while swallowing, describing it as a sensation of 'not feeling like food is being swallowed' during meals.

      Which nerve or nerves are likely to have been affected?

      Your Answer: External laryngeal nerve

      Correct Answer: Internal laryngeal nerve

      Explanation:

      The internal laryngeal nerve is responsible for providing sensory information to the supraglottis and branches off from the superior laryngeal nerve. It is important to note that the cervical plexus, external laryngeal nerve, recurrent laryngeal nerve, and superior laryngeal nerve do not perform the same function as the internal laryngeal nerve.

      Anatomy of the Larynx

      The larynx is located in the front of the neck, between the third and sixth cervical vertebrae. It is made up of several cartilaginous segments, including the paired arytenoid, corniculate, and cuneiform cartilages, as well as the single thyroid, cricoid, and epiglottic cartilages. The cricoid cartilage forms a complete ring. The laryngeal cavity extends from the laryngeal inlet to the inferior border of the cricoid cartilage and is divided into three parts: the laryngeal vestibule, the laryngeal ventricle, and the infraglottic cavity.

      The vocal folds, also known as the true vocal cords, control sound production. They consist of the vocal ligament and the vocalis muscle, which is the most medial part of the thyroarytenoid muscle. The glottis is composed of the vocal folds, processes, and rima glottidis, which is the narrowest potential site within the larynx.

      The larynx is also home to several muscles, including the posterior cricoarytenoid, lateral cricoarytenoid, thyroarytenoid, transverse and oblique arytenoids, vocalis, and cricothyroid muscles. These muscles are responsible for various actions, such as abducting or adducting the vocal folds and relaxing or tensing the vocal ligament.

      The larynx receives its arterial supply from the laryngeal arteries, which are branches of the superior and inferior thyroid arteries. Venous drainage is via the superior and inferior laryngeal veins. Lymphatic drainage varies depending on the location within the larynx, with the vocal cords having no lymphatic drainage and the supraglottic and subglottic parts draining into different lymph nodes.

      Overall, understanding the anatomy of the larynx is important for proper diagnosis and treatment of various conditions affecting this structure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 25-year-old woman visits the outpatient department with concerns of eyelid drooping, double...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman visits the outpatient department with concerns of eyelid drooping, double vision, shortness of breath, and rapid breathing. These symptoms typically occur in the evening or after physical activity.

      What respiratory condition could be causing her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Pneumoconioses

      Correct Answer: Restrictive lung disease

      Explanation:

      The presence of myasthenia gravis can result in a restrictive pattern of lung disease due to weakened chest wall muscles, leading to incomplete expansion during inhalation.

      Occupational lung disease, also known as pneumoconioses, is caused by inhaling specific types of dust particles in the workplace, resulting in a restrictive pattern of lung disease. However, symptoms such as drooping eyelids and double vision are typically not associated with this condition.

      Pneumonia is an infection of the lung tissue that typically presents with symptoms such as coughing, chest pain, fever, and difficulty breathing.

      Pulmonary embolism is an acute condition that presents with symptoms such as chest pain, shortness of breath, and coughing up blood.

      Understanding the Differences between Obstructive and Restrictive Lung Diseases

      Obstructive and restrictive lung diseases are two distinct categories of respiratory conditions that affect the lungs in different ways. Obstructive lung diseases are characterized by a reduction in the flow of air through the airways due to narrowing or blockage, while restrictive lung diseases are characterized by a decrease in lung volume or capacity, making it difficult to breathe in enough air.

      Spirometry is a common diagnostic tool used to differentiate between obstructive and restrictive lung diseases. In obstructive lung diseases, the ratio of forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1) to forced vital capacity (FVC) is less than 80%, indicating a reduced ability to exhale air. In contrast, restrictive lung diseases are characterized by an FEV1/FVC ratio greater than 80%, indicating a reduced ability to inhale air.

      Examples of obstructive lung diseases include chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), chronic bronchitis, and emphysema, while asthma and bronchiectasis are also considered obstructive. Restrictive lung diseases include intrapulmonary conditions such as idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis, extrinsic allergic alveolitis, and drug-induced fibrosis, as well as extrapulmonary conditions such as neuromuscular diseases, obesity, and scoliosis.

      Understanding the differences between obstructive and restrictive lung diseases is important for accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment. While both types of conditions can cause difficulty breathing, the underlying causes and treatment approaches can vary significantly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      27.8
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 29-year-old male is injured by a gunshot to his right chest resulting...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old male is injured by a gunshot to his right chest resulting in a right haemothorax that requires a thoracotomy. During the procedure, the surgeons opt to use a vascular clamp to secure the hilum of the right lung. What structure will be positioned most anteriorly at this location?

      Your Answer: Phrenic nerve

      Explanation:

      At the base of the right lung, the phrenic nerve is located in the anterior position.

      Anatomy of the Lungs

      The lungs are a pair of organs located in the chest cavity that play a vital role in respiration. The right lung is composed of three lobes, while the left lung has two lobes. The apex of both lungs is approximately 4 cm superior to the sternocostal joint of the first rib. The base of the lungs is in contact with the diaphragm, while the costal surface corresponds to the cavity of the chest. The mediastinal surface contacts the mediastinal pleura and has the cardiac impression. The hilum is a triangular depression above and behind the concavity, where the structures that form the root of the lung enter and leave the viscus. The right main bronchus is shorter, wider, and more vertical than the left main bronchus. The inferior borders of both lungs are at the 6th rib in the mid clavicular line, 8th rib in the mid axillary line, and 10th rib posteriorly. The pleura runs two ribs lower than the corresponding lung level. The bronchopulmonary segments of the lungs are divided into ten segments, each with a specific function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      13.3
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 26-year-old man has been experiencing a chronic cough and wheeze since starting...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old man has been experiencing a chronic cough and wheeze since starting a new job. He has noticed that his peak flow measurements are significantly reduced while at work but improve on the weekends. What substance is commonly linked to this type of asthma?

      Your Answer: Cement dust

      Correct Answer: Isocyanates

      Explanation:

      Occupational Asthma: Causes and Symptoms

      Occupational asthma is a type of asthma that is caused by exposure to certain chemicals in the workplace. Patients may experience worsening asthma symptoms while at work or notice an improvement in symptoms when away from work. The most common cause of occupational asthma is exposure to isocyanates, which are found in spray painting and foam moulding using adhesives. Other chemicals associated with occupational asthma include platinum salts, soldering flux resin, glutaraldehyde, flour, epoxy resins, and proteolytic enzymes.

      To diagnose occupational asthma, it is recommended to measure peak expiratory flow at work and away from work. If there is a significant difference in peak expiratory flow, referral to a respiratory specialist is necessary. Treatment may include avoiding exposure to the triggering chemicals and using medications to manage asthma symptoms. It is important for employers to provide a safe working environment and for employees to report any concerns about potential exposure to harmful chemicals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      12.1
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - An 87-year-old man with a history of interstitial lung disease is admitted with...

    Correct

    • An 87-year-old man with a history of interstitial lung disease is admitted with fever, productive cough, and difficulty breathing. His inflammatory markers are elevated, and a chest x-ray reveals focal patchy consolidation in the right lung. He requires oxygen supplementation as his oxygen saturation level is 87% on room air. What factor causes a decrease in haemoglobin's affinity for oxygen?

      Your Answer: Increase in temperature

      Explanation:

      What effect does pyrexia have on the oxygen dissociation curve?

      Understanding the Oxygen Dissociation Curve

      The oxygen dissociation curve is a graphical representation of the relationship between the percentage of saturated haemoglobin and the partial pressure of oxygen in the blood. It is not influenced by the concentration of haemoglobin. The curve can shift to the left or right, indicating changes in oxygen delivery to tissues. When the curve shifts to the left, there is increased saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen, resulting in decreased oxygen delivery to tissues. Conversely, when the curve shifts to the right, there is reduced saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen, leading to enhanced oxygen delivery to tissues.

      The L rule is a helpful mnemonic to remember the factors that cause a shift to the left, resulting in lower oxygen delivery. These factors include low levels of hydrogen ions (alkali), low partial pressure of carbon dioxide, low levels of 2,3-diphosphoglycerate, and low temperature. On the other hand, the mnemonic ‘CADET, face Right!’ can be used to remember the factors that cause a shift to the right, leading to raised oxygen delivery. These factors include carbon dioxide, acid, 2,3-diphosphoglycerate, exercise, and temperature.

      Understanding the oxygen dissociation curve is crucial in assessing the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood and the delivery of oxygen to tissues. By knowing the factors that can shift the curve to the left or right, healthcare professionals can make informed decisions in managing patients with respiratory and cardiovascular diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      31.7
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 25-year-old man presents to the Emergency department with acute onset of shortness...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man presents to the Emergency department with acute onset of shortness of breath during a basketball game. He reports no history of trauma and is typically healthy. Upon examination, he appears tall and lean, and respiratory assessment reveals reduced breath sounds and hyper-resonant percussion notes on the right side. The trachea remains centrally located. A chest x-ray confirms a diagnosis of a collapsed lung due to a right-sided pneumothorax. What is the reason for the lung's failure to re-expand?

      Your Answer: Increase in intrapleural pressure

      Explanation:

      The process of lung expansion relies on the negative pressure in the intrapleural space between the visceral and parietal pleura, which is present throughout respiration. This negative pressure pulls the lung towards the chest wall, allowing it to expand. However, if air enters the intrapleural space, the negative pressure is lost and the lung cannot fully reinflate. It is important to note that the intrapleural space is a potential space between the pleural surfaces, and there is typically no actual space present under normal circumstances.

      Management of Pneumothorax: BTS Guidelines

      Pneumothorax is a condition where air accumulates in the pleural space, causing the lung to collapse. The British Thoracic Society (BTS) has published guidelines for the management of spontaneous pneumothorax, which can be primary or secondary. Primary pneumothorax occurs without any underlying lung disease, while secondary pneumothorax is associated with lung disease.

      The BTS recommends that patients with a rim of air less than 2 cm and no shortness of breath may be discharged, while those with a larger rim of air or shortness of breath should undergo aspiration or chest drain insertion. For secondary pneumothorax, patients over 50 years old with a rim of air greater than 2 cm or shortness of breath should undergo chest drain insertion. Aspiration may be attempted for those with a rim of air between 1-2 cm, but chest drain insertion is recommended if aspiration fails.

      Patients with iatrogenic pneumothorax, which is caused by medical procedures, have a lower likelihood of recurrence than those with spontaneous pneumothorax. Observation is usually sufficient, but chest drain insertion may be required in some cases. Ventilated patients and those with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) may require chest drain insertion.

      Patients with pneumothorax should be advised to avoid smoking to reduce the risk of further episodes. They should also be aware of restrictions on air travel and scuba diving. The CAA recommends a waiting period of two weeks after successful drainage before air travel, while the BTS advises against scuba diving unless the patient has undergone bilateral surgical pleurectomy and has normal lung function and chest CT scan postoperatively.

      In summary, the BTS guidelines provide a comprehensive approach to the management of pneumothorax, taking into account the type of pneumothorax and the patient’s individual circumstances. Early intervention and appropriate follow-up can help prevent complications and improve outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      21.1
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 55-year-old man from Hong Kong complains of fatigue, weight loss, and recurrent...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man from Hong Kong complains of fatigue, weight loss, and recurrent nosebleeds. During clinical examination, left-sided cervical lymphadenopathy is observed, and an ulcerated mass is found in the nasopharynx upon oropharyngeal examination. Which viral agent is typically associated with the development of this condition?

      Your Answer: Epstein Barr virus

      Explanation:

      Nasopharyngeal carcinoma is typically diagnosed through Trotter’s triad, which includes unilateral conductive hearing loss, ipsilateral facial and ear pain, and ipsilateral paralysis of the soft palate. This condition is commonly associated with previous Epstein Barr Virus infection, but there is no known link between the development of nasopharyngeal carcinoma and the other viruses mentioned.

      Understanding Nasopharyngeal Carcinoma

      Nasopharyngeal carcinoma is a type of squamous cell carcinoma that affects the nasopharynx. It is a rare form of cancer that is more common in individuals from Southern China and is associated with Epstein Barr virus infection. The presenting features of nasopharyngeal carcinoma include cervical lymphadenopathy, otalgia, unilateral serous otitis media, nasal obstruction, discharge, and/or epistaxis, and cranial nerve palsies such as III-VI.

      To diagnose nasopharyngeal carcinoma, a combined CT and MRI scan is typically used. The first line of treatment for this type of cancer is radiotherapy. It is important to catch nasopharyngeal carcinoma early to increase the chances of successful treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 25-year-old patient is undergoing routine pulmonary function testing to assess her chronic...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old patient is undergoing routine pulmonary function testing to assess her chronic condition. The results are compared to a standardised predicted value and presented in the table below:

      FEV1 75% of predicted
      FVC 70% of predicted
      FEV1/FVC 105%

      What is the probable condition that this patient is suffering from, which can account for the above findings?

      Your Answer: Bronchiectasis

      Correct Answer: Neuromuscular disorder

      Explanation:

      The patient’s pulmonary function tests indicate a restrictive pattern, as both FEV1 and FVC are reduced. This suggests a possible neuromuscular disorder, as all other options would result in an obstructive pattern on the tests. Asthma, bronchiectasis, and COPD are unlikely diagnoses for a 20-year-old and would not match the test results. Pneumonia may affect the patient’s ability to perform the tests, but it is typically an acute condition that requires immediate treatment with antibiotics.

      Understanding Pulmonary Function Tests

      Pulmonary function tests are a useful tool in determining whether a respiratory disease is obstructive or restrictive. These tests measure various aspects of lung function, such as forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1) and forced vital capacity (FVC). By analyzing the results of these tests, doctors can diagnose and monitor conditions such as asthma, COPD, pulmonary fibrosis, and neuromuscular disorders.

      In obstructive lung diseases, such as asthma and COPD, the FEV1 is significantly reduced, while the FVC may be reduced or normal. The FEV1% (FEV1/FVC) is also reduced. On the other hand, in restrictive lung diseases, such as pulmonary fibrosis and asbestosis, the FEV1 is reduced, but the FVC is significantly reduced. The FEV1% (FEV1/FVC) may be normal or increased.

      It is important to note that there are many conditions that can affect lung function, and pulmonary function tests are just one tool in diagnosing and managing respiratory diseases. However, understanding the results of these tests can provide valuable information for both patients and healthcare providers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      22.3
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 49-year-old woman of African descent visits her primary care physician with concerns...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old woman of African descent visits her primary care physician with concerns about a lump in her neck that has been present for a week. She reports no significant increase in size and denies any pain or difficulty swallowing. The patient has no notable medical history, except for a visit to the eye doctor last year for a red-eye that required treatment with topical steroid drops. During the examination, the doctor observes some red, tender nodules on the patient's shin, which the patient says come and go and do not cause much discomfort. A chest x-ray reveals bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy with no other significant findings. What is typically linked to this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Exposure to silica

      Correct Answer: Elevated angiotensin-converting enzyme levels

      Explanation:

      Sarcoidosis is likely in this patient based on their symptoms and examination findings, including a neck lump, tender nodules on the shin, and a history of red-eye. Bilateral lymphadenopathy on chest X-ray further supports the diagnosis, as does the presence of elevated angiotensin-converting enzyme levels, which are commonly seen in sarcoidosis. Hypercalcemia, fatigue, and uveitis are also associated with sarcoidosis, while exposure to silica is not supported by this patient’s presentation.

      Investigating Sarcoidosis

      Sarcoidosis is a disease that does not have a single diagnostic test, and therefore, diagnosis is mainly based on clinical observations. Although ACE levels may be used to monitor disease activity, they are not reliable in diagnosing sarcoidosis due to their low sensitivity and specificity. Routine blood tests may show hypercalcemia and a raised ESR.

      A chest x-ray is a common investigation for sarcoidosis and may reveal different stages of the disease. Stage 0 is normal, stage 1 shows bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy (BHL), stage 2 shows BHL and interstitial infiltrates, stage 3 shows diffuse interstitial infiltrates only, and stage 4 shows diffuse fibrosis. Other investigations, such as spirometry, may show a restrictive defect, while a tissue biopsy may reveal non-caseating granulomas. However, the Kveim test, which involves injecting part of the spleen from a patient with known sarcoidosis under the skin, is no longer performed due to concerns about cross-infection.

      In addition, a gallium-67 scan is not routinely used to investigate sarcoidosis. CT scans may also be used to investigate sarcoidosis, and they may show diffuse areas of nodularity predominantly in a peribronchial distribution with patchy areas of consolidation, particularly in the upper lobes. Ground glass opacities may also be present, but there are no gross reticular changes to suggest fibrosis.

      Overall, investigating sarcoidosis involves a combination of clinical observations, blood tests, chest x-rays, and other investigations such as spirometry and tissue biopsy. CT scans may also be used to provide more detailed information about the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      29.1
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which of the structures listed below are not located within the mediastinum? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the structures listed below are not located within the mediastinum?

      Your Answer: Great vessels

      Correct Answer: Vertebral bodies

      Explanation:

      Both the lungs and vertebral bodies are located outside of the mediastinum.

      The mediastinum is the area located between the two pulmonary cavities and is covered by the mediastinal pleura. It extends from the thoracic inlet at the top to the diaphragm at the bottom. The mediastinum is divided into four regions: the superior mediastinum, middle mediastinum, posterior mediastinum, and anterior mediastinum.

      The superior mediastinum is the area between the manubriosternal angle and T4/5. It contains important structures such as the superior vena cava, brachiocephalic veins, arch of aorta, thoracic duct, trachea, oesophagus, thymus, vagus nerve, left recurrent laryngeal nerve, and phrenic nerve. The anterior mediastinum contains thymic remnants, lymph nodes, and fat. The middle mediastinum contains the pericardium, heart, aortic root, arch of azygos vein, and main bronchi. The posterior mediastinum contains the oesophagus, thoracic aorta, azygos vein, thoracic duct, vagus nerve, sympathetic nerve trunks, and splanchnic nerves.

      In summary, the mediastinum is a crucial area in the thorax that contains many important structures and is divided into four regions. Each region contains different structures that are essential for the proper functioning of the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      17.4
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 60-year-old diabetic patient presents to the clinic with a chief complaint of...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old diabetic patient presents to the clinic with a chief complaint of hearing loss. After conducting a Webber’s and Rinne’s test, the following results were obtained:

      - Webber’s test: lateralizes to the left ear
      - Rinne’s test (left ear): bone conduction > air conduction
      - Rinne’s test (right ear): air conduction > bone conduction

      Based on these findings, what is the probable cause of the patient's hearing loss?

      Your Answer: Diabetic sensory neuropathy

      Correct Answer: Otitis media with effusion

      Explanation:

      The Weber test lateralises to the side with bone conduction > air conduction, indicating conductive hearing loss on that side. The options given include acoustic neuroma (sensorineural hearing loss), otitis media with effusion (conductive hearing loss), temporal lobe epilepsy (no conductive hearing loss), and Meniere’s disease (vertigo, tinnitus, and fluctuating hearing loss). The correct answer is otitis media with effusion.

      Rinne’s and Weber’s Test for Differentiating Conductive and Sensorineural Deafness

      Rinne’s and Weber’s tests are used to differentiate between conductive and sensorineural deafness. Rinne’s test involves placing a tuning fork over the mastoid process until the sound is no longer heard, then repositioning it just over the external acoustic meatus. A positive test indicates that air conduction (AC) is better than bone conduction (BC), while a negative test indicates that BC is better than AC, suggesting conductive deafness.

      Weber’s test involves placing a tuning fork in the middle of the forehead equidistant from the patient’s ears and asking the patient which side is loudest. In unilateral sensorineural deafness, sound is localized to the unaffected side, while in unilateral conductive deafness, sound is localized to the affected side.

      The table below summarizes the interpretation of Rinne and Weber tests. A normal result indicates that AC is greater than BC bilaterally and the sound is midline. Conductive hearing loss is indicated by BC being greater than AC in the affected ear and AC being greater than BC in the unaffected ear, with the sound lateralizing to the affected ear. Sensorineural hearing loss is indicated by AC being greater than BC bilaterally, with the sound lateralizing to the unaffected ear.

      Overall, Rinne’s and Weber’s tests are useful tools for differentiating between conductive and sensorineural deafness, allowing for appropriate management and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      22.1
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 27-year-old man is undergoing respiratory spirometry. He performs a maximal inhalation followed...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old man is undergoing respiratory spirometry. He performs a maximal inhalation followed by a maximal exhalation. Which of the following measurements will most accurately depict this process?

      Your Answer: Vital capacity

      Explanation:

      The maximum amount of air that can be breathed in and out within one minute is known as maximum voluntary ventilation.

      Understanding Lung Volumes in Respiratory Physiology

      In respiratory physiology, lung volumes can be measured to determine the amount of air that moves in and out of the lungs during breathing. The diagram above shows the different lung volumes that can be measured.

      Tidal volume (TV) refers to the amount of air that is inspired or expired with each breath at rest. In males, the TV is 500ml while in females, it is 350ml.

      Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) is the maximum volume of air that can be inspired at the end of a normal tidal inspiration. The inspiratory capacity is the sum of TV and IRV. On the other hand, expiratory reserve volume (ERV) is the maximum volume of air that can be expired at the end of a normal tidal expiration.

      Residual volume (RV) is the volume of air that remains in the lungs after maximal expiration. It increases with age and can be calculated by subtracting ERV from FRC. Speaking of FRC, it is the volume in the lungs at the end-expiratory position and is equal to the sum of ERV and RV.

      Vital capacity (VC) is the maximum volume of air that can be expired after a maximal inspiration. It decreases with age and can be calculated by adding inspiratory capacity and ERV. Lastly, total lung capacity (TLC) is the sum of vital capacity and residual volume.

      Physiological dead space (VD) is calculated by multiplying tidal volume by the difference between arterial carbon dioxide pressure (PaCO2) and end-tidal carbon dioxide pressure (PeCO2) and then dividing the result by PaCO2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 67-year-old man with a suspected ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm is brought to...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man with a suspected ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm is brought to the emergency department. Upon arrival, the patient appears pale, cold, and clammy. His vital signs are as follows: temperature 35.3 degrees Celsius, respiratory rate 40, heart rate 116bpm, and blood pressure 90/65mmHg.

      When there is a decrease in the concentration of oxygen in the blood, the inspiratory center is stimulated, and any voluntary cortical control of breathing pattern is overridden. Where are the peripheral chemoreceptors located that detect these changes?

      Your Answer: Aortic arch

      Explanation:

      The peripheral chemoreceptors, found in the aortic and carotid bodies, are capable of detecting alterations in the levels of carbon dioxide in the arterial blood. These receptors are located in the aortic arch and at the bifurcation of the common carotid artery. However, they are not as sensitive as the central chemoreceptors in the medulla oblongata, which monitor the cerebrospinal fluid. It is important to note that there are no peripheral chemoreceptors present in veins.

      The Control of Ventilation in the Human Body

      The control of ventilation in the human body is a complex process that involves various components working together to regulate the respiratory rate and depth of respiration. The respiratory centres, chemoreceptors, lung receptors, and muscles all play a role in this process. The automatic, involuntary control of respiration occurs from the medulla, which is responsible for controlling the respiratory rate and depth of respiration.

      The respiratory centres consist of the medullary respiratory centre, apneustic centre, and pneumotaxic centre. The medullary respiratory centre has two groups of neurons, the ventral group, which controls forced voluntary expiration, and the dorsal group, which controls inspiration. The apneustic centre, located in the lower pons, stimulates inspiration and activates and prolongs inhalation. The pneumotaxic centre, located in the upper pons, inhibits inspiration at a certain point and fine-tunes the respiratory rate.

      Ventilatory variables, such as the levels of pCO2, are the most important factors in ventilation control, while levels of O2 are less important. Peripheral chemoreceptors, located in the bifurcation of carotid arteries and arch of the aorta, respond to changes in reduced pO2, increased H+, and increased pCO2 in arterial blood. Central chemoreceptors, located in the medulla, respond to increased H+ in brain interstitial fluid to increase ventilation. It is important to note that the central receptors are not influenced by O2 levels.

      Lung receptors also play a role in the control of ventilation. Stretch receptors respond to lung stretching, causing a reduced respiratory rate, while irritant receptors respond to smoke, causing bronchospasm. J (juxtacapillary) receptors are also involved in the control of ventilation. Overall, the control of ventilation is a complex process that involves various components working together to regulate the respiratory rate and depth of respiration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      19.6
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 60-year-old male patient complains of chronic productive cough and difficulty breathing. He...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old male patient complains of chronic productive cough and difficulty breathing. He has been smoking 10 cigarettes per day for the past 30 years. What is the number of pack years equivalent to his smoking history?

      Your Answer: 15

      Explanation:

      Pack Year Calculation

      Pack year calculation is a tool used to estimate the risk of tobacco exposure. It is calculated by multiplying the number of packs of cigarettes smoked per day by the number of years of smoking. One pack of cigarettes contains 20 cigarettes. For instance, if a person smoked half a pack of cigarettes per day for 30 years, their pack year history would be 15 (1/2 x 30 = 15).

      The pack year calculation is a standardized method of measuring tobacco exposure. It helps healthcare professionals to estimate the risk of developing smoking-related diseases such as lung cancer, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), and heart disease. The higher the pack year history, the greater the risk of developing these diseases. Therefore, it is important for individuals who smoke or have a history of smoking to discuss their pack year history with their healthcare provider to determine appropriate screening and prevention measures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 9-month-old girl is brought to the hospital due to recurrent episodes of...

    Correct

    • A 9-month-old girl is brought to the hospital due to recurrent episodes of breathing difficulties. She has been experiencing a gradual worsening of symptoms, including a wet cough and expiratory wheezing, for the past 4 days.

      During the examination, her temperature is recorded at 38.2°C, and her respiratory rate is 60 breaths per minute. Oxygen saturation levels are at 92% on air. Chest examination reveals mild intercostal retractions, scattered crackles, and expiratory wheezing in both lungs.

      What is the most probable causative agent responsible for the symptoms?

      Your Answer: Respiratory syncytial virus

      Explanation:

      Bronchiolitis is commonly caused by respiratory syncytial virus, which accounts for the majority of cases of serious lower respiratory tract infections in children under one.

      Understanding Bronchiolitis

      Bronchiolitis is a condition that is characterized by inflammation of the bronchioles. It is a serious lower respiratory tract infection that is most common in children under the age of one year. The pathogen responsible for 75-80% of cases is respiratory syncytial virus (RSV), while other causes include mycoplasma and adenoviruses. Bronchiolitis is more serious in children with bronchopulmonary dysplasia, congenital heart disease, or cystic fibrosis.

      The symptoms of bronchiolitis include coryzal symptoms, dry cough, increasing breathlessness, and wheezing. Fine inspiratory crackles may also be present. Children with bronchiolitis may experience feeding difficulties associated with increasing dyspnoea, which is often the reason for hospital admission.

      Immediate referral to hospital is recommended if the child has apnoea, looks seriously unwell to a healthcare professional, has severe respiratory distress, central cyanosis, or persistent oxygen saturation of less than 92% when breathing air. Clinicians should consider referring to hospital if the child has a respiratory rate of over 60 breaths/minute, difficulty with breastfeeding or inadequate oral fluid intake, or clinical dehydration.

      The investigation for bronchiolitis involves immunofluorescence of nasopharyngeal secretions, which may show RSV. Management of bronchiolitis is largely supportive, with humidified oxygen given via a head box if oxygen saturations are persistently < 92%. Nasogastric feeding may be needed if children cannot take enough fluid/feed by mouth, and suction is sometimes used for excessive upper airway secretions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      19.9
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which of the following laryngeal tumors is unlikely to spread to the cervical...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following laryngeal tumors is unlikely to spread to the cervical lymph nodes?

      Your Answer: Aryepiglottic fold

      Correct Answer: Glottic

      Explanation:

      The area of the vocal cords lacks lymphatic drainage, making it a lymphatic boundary. The upper portion above the vocal cords drains to the deep cervical nodes through vessels that penetrate the thyrohyoid membrane. The lower portion below the vocal cords drains to the pre-laryngeal, pre-tracheal, and inferior deep cervical nodes. The aryepiglottic and vestibular folds have a significant lymphatic drainage and are prone to early metastasis.

      Anatomy of the Larynx

      The larynx is located in the front of the neck, between the third and sixth cervical vertebrae. It is made up of several cartilaginous segments, including the paired arytenoid, corniculate, and cuneiform cartilages, as well as the single thyroid, cricoid, and epiglottic cartilages. The cricoid cartilage forms a complete ring. The laryngeal cavity extends from the laryngeal inlet to the inferior border of the cricoid cartilage and is divided into three parts: the laryngeal vestibule, the laryngeal ventricle, and the infraglottic cavity.

      The vocal folds, also known as the true vocal cords, control sound production. They consist of the vocal ligament and the vocalis muscle, which is the most medial part of the thyroarytenoid muscle. The glottis is composed of the vocal folds, processes, and rima glottidis, which is the narrowest potential site within the larynx.

      The larynx is also home to several muscles, including the posterior cricoarytenoid, lateral cricoarytenoid, thyroarytenoid, transverse and oblique arytenoids, vocalis, and cricothyroid muscles. These muscles are responsible for various actions, such as abducting or adducting the vocal folds and relaxing or tensing the vocal ligament.

      The larynx receives its arterial supply from the laryngeal arteries, which are branches of the superior and inferior thyroid arteries. Venous drainage is via the superior and inferior laryngeal veins. Lymphatic drainage varies depending on the location within the larynx, with the vocal cords having no lymphatic drainage and the supraglottic and subglottic parts draining into different lymph nodes.

      Overall, understanding the anatomy of the larynx is important for proper diagnosis and treatment of various conditions affecting this structure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 59-year-old woman visits the respiratory clinic for spirometry testing. As part of...

    Correct

    • A 59-year-old woman visits the respiratory clinic for spirometry testing. As part of the testing, what is the definition of functional residual capacity?

      Your Answer: Functional residual capacity = expiratory reserve volume + residual volume

      Explanation:

      To calculate the volume of air in the lungs after a normal relaxed expiration, one can use the formula for functional residual capacity (FRC), which is determined by the balance between the lungs’ tendency to recoil inwards and the chest wall’s tendency to pull outwards. FRC can be calculated by adding the expiratory reserve volume and the residual volume. In individuals with tetraplegia, decreases in FRC are primarily caused by a reduction in the outward pull of the chest wall, which occurs over time due to the inability to regularly expand the chest wall to large lung volumes. This reduction in FRC can increase the risk of atelectasis.

      Understanding Lung Volumes in Respiratory Physiology

      In respiratory physiology, lung volumes can be measured to determine the amount of air that moves in and out of the lungs during breathing. The diagram above shows the different lung volumes that can be measured.

      Tidal volume (TV) refers to the amount of air that is inspired or expired with each breath at rest. In males, the TV is 500ml while in females, it is 350ml.

      Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) is the maximum volume of air that can be inspired at the end of a normal tidal inspiration. The inspiratory capacity is the sum of TV and IRV. On the other hand, expiratory reserve volume (ERV) is the maximum volume of air that can be expired at the end of a normal tidal expiration.

      Residual volume (RV) is the volume of air that remains in the lungs after maximal expiration. It increases with age and can be calculated by subtracting ERV from FRC. Speaking of FRC, it is the volume in the lungs at the end-expiratory position and is equal to the sum of ERV and RV.

      Vital capacity (VC) is the maximum volume of air that can be expired after a maximal inspiration. It decreases with age and can be calculated by adding inspiratory capacity and ERV. Lastly, total lung capacity (TLC) is the sum of vital capacity and residual volume.

      Physiological dead space (VD) is calculated by multiplying tidal volume by the difference between arterial carbon dioxide pressure (PaCO2) and end-tidal carbon dioxide pressure (PeCO2) and then dividing the result by PaCO2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 38-year-old woman visits her GP with a solitary, painless tumour in her...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old woman visits her GP with a solitary, painless tumour in her left cheek. Upon further examination, she is diagnosed with pleomorphic adenoma. What is the recommended management for this condition?

      Your Answer: Surgical resection

      Explanation:

      Surgical resection is the preferred treatment for pleomorphic adenoma, a benign tumor of the parotid gland that may undergo malignant transformation. Chemotherapy and radiotherapy are not effective in managing this condition. Additionally, salivary stone removal is not relevant to the treatment of pleomorphic adenoma.

      Understanding Pleomorphic Adenoma

      Pleomorphic adenoma, also known as a benign mixed tumour, is a non-cancerous growth that commonly affects the parotid gland. This type of tumour usually develops in individuals aged 40 to 60 years old. The condition is characterized by the proliferation of epithelial and myoepithelial cells of the ducts, as well as an increase in stromal components. The tumour is slow-growing, lobular, and not well encapsulated.

      The clinical features of pleomorphic adenoma include a gradual onset of painless unilateral swelling of the parotid gland. The swelling is typically movable on examination rather than fixed. The management of pleomorphic adenoma involves surgical excision. The prognosis is generally good, with a recurrence rate of 1-5% with appropriate excision (parotidectomy). However, recurrence may occur due to capsular disruption during surgery. If left untreated, pleomorphic adenoma may undergo malignant transformation, occurring in 2-10% of adenomas observed for long periods. Carcinoma ex-pleomorphic adenoma is the most common type of malignant transformation, occurring most frequently as adenocarcinoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - An anxious father brings his 6-month-old to the out of hours GP. The...

    Correct

    • An anxious father brings his 6-month-old to the out of hours GP. The baby has been coughing persistently for the past 2 days and it seems to be getting worse. He also has a runny nose and an audible wheeze. The GP diagnoses bronchiolitis.

      What is the most probable causative organism in this case?

      Your Answer: Respiratory syncytial virus

      Explanation:

      Understanding Bronchiolitis

      Bronchiolitis is a condition that is characterized by inflammation of the bronchioles. It is a serious lower respiratory tract infection that is most common in children under the age of one year. The pathogen responsible for 75-80% of cases is respiratory syncytial virus (RSV), while other causes include mycoplasma and adenoviruses. Bronchiolitis is more serious in children with bronchopulmonary dysplasia, congenital heart disease, or cystic fibrosis.

      The symptoms of bronchiolitis include coryzal symptoms, dry cough, increasing breathlessness, and wheezing. Fine inspiratory crackles may also be present. Children with bronchiolitis may experience feeding difficulties associated with increasing dyspnoea, which is often the reason for hospital admission.

      Immediate referral to hospital is recommended if the child has apnoea, looks seriously unwell to a healthcare professional, has severe respiratory distress, central cyanosis, or persistent oxygen saturation of less than 92% when breathing air. Clinicians should consider referring to hospital if the child has a respiratory rate of over 60 breaths/minute, difficulty with breastfeeding or inadequate oral fluid intake, or clinical dehydration.

      The investigation for bronchiolitis involves immunofluorescence of nasopharyngeal secretions, which may show RSV. Management of bronchiolitis is largely supportive, with humidified oxygen given via a head box if oxygen saturations are persistently < 92%. Nasogastric feeding may be needed if children cannot take enough fluid/feed by mouth, and suction is sometimes used for excessive upper airway secretions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - A patient on the medical ward was waiting for a cardiac procedure. On...

    Correct

    • A patient on the medical ward was waiting for a cardiac procedure. On discussing the procedure with the consultant before the procedure, the patient started to feel anxious and had difficulty breathing. The resident obtained an arterial blood gas:

      pH 7.55
      pCO2 2.7kPa
      pO2 11.2kPa
      HCO3 24mmol/l

      What is the most appropriate interpretation of these results?

      Your Answer: Respiratory alkalosis

      Explanation:

      The respiratory alkalosis observed in the arterial blood gas results is most likely a result of hyperventilation, as indicated by the patient’s medical history.

      Arterial Blood Gas Interpretation: A 5-Step Approach

      Arterial blood gas interpretation is a crucial aspect of patient care, particularly in critical care settings. The Resuscitation Council (UK) recommends a 5-step approach to interpreting arterial blood gas results. The first step is to assess the patient’s overall condition. The second step is to determine if the patient is hypoxaemic, with a PaO2 on air of less than 10 kPa. The third step is to assess if the patient is acidaemic (pH <7.35) or alkalaemic (pH >7.45).

      The fourth step is to evaluate the respiratory component of the arterial blood gas results. A PaCO2 level greater than 6.0 kPa suggests respiratory acidosis, while a PaCO2 level less than 4.7 kPa suggests respiratory alkalosis. The fifth step is to assess the metabolic component of the arterial blood gas results. A bicarbonate level less than 22 mmol/l or a base excess less than -2mmol/l suggests metabolic acidosis, while a bicarbonate level greater than 26 mmol/l or a base excess greater than +2mmol/l suggests metabolic alkalosis.

      To remember the relationship between pH, PaCO2, and bicarbonate, the acronym ROME can be used. Respiratory acidosis or alkalosis is opposite to the pH level, while metabolic acidosis or alkalosis is equal to the pH level. This 5-step approach and the ROME acronym can aid healthcare professionals in interpreting arterial blood gas results accurately and efficiently.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - A 56-year-old man has been diagnosed with small cell lung carcinoma. The tumor...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old man has been diagnosed with small cell lung carcinoma. The tumor measures 4 centimeters in its largest dimension and is not invading any surrounding structures. However, there are metastases in the ipsilateral hilar lymph nodes, and no distant metastases have been found. What is the TNM score for this patient, considering the primary tumor (T), regional lymph nodes (N), and distant metastases (M)?

      Your Answer: T2 N1 M0

      Explanation:

      It is crucial to have knowledge about the TNM system for staging lung cancer. The absence of distant metastases eliminates one of the options immediately (as M must be 0).

      The size and invasion of the tumor are significant factors:
      – T1 is less than 3 cm
      – T2 is between 3 cm and 7 cm
      – T3 is more than 7 cm and/or involves invasion of the chest wall, parietal pleura, diaphragm, phrenic nerve, mediastinal pleura, or parietal pericardium
      – T4 can be any size but involves invasion of other structures

      To differentiate between N1 and N2, remember that N1 involves ipsilateral hilar or peribronchial lymph nodes, while N2 involves ipsilateral mediastinal and/or subcarinal lymph nodes.

      Small Cell Lung Cancer: Characteristics and Management

      Small cell lung cancer is a type of lung cancer that usually develops in the central part of the lungs and arises from APUD cells. This type of cancer is often associated with the secretion of hormones such as ADH and ACTH, which can cause hyponatremia and Cushing’s syndrome, respectively. In addition, ACTH secretion can lead to bilateral adrenal hyperplasia and hypokalemic alkalosis due to high levels of cortisol. Patients with small cell lung cancer may also experience Lambert-Eaton syndrome, which is characterized by antibodies to voltage-gated calcium channels causing a myasthenic-like syndrome.

      Management of small cell lung cancer depends on the stage of the disease. Patients with very early stage disease may be considered for surgery, while those with limited disease typically receive a combination of chemotherapy and radiotherapy. Patients with more extensive disease are offered palliative chemotherapy. Unfortunately, most patients with small cell lung cancer are diagnosed with metastatic disease, making treatment more challenging.

      Overall, small cell lung cancer is a complex disease that requires careful management and monitoring. Early detection and treatment can improve outcomes, but more research is needed to better understand the underlying mechanisms of this type of cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      31.6
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - A 54-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of difficulty breathing. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of difficulty breathing. The results of his pulmonary function tests are as follows:

      Reference Range
      FVC (% predicted) 102 80-120
      FEV1 (% predicted) 62 80-120
      FEV1/FVC (%) 60.1 >70
      TCLO (% predicted) 140 60-120

      What is the probable reason for his symptoms?

      Your Answer: COPD exacerbation

      Correct Answer: Asthma exacerbation

      Explanation:

      The raised transfer factor suggests that the patient is experiencing an exacerbation of asthma. This condition can cause obstructive patterns on pulmonary function tests, leading to reduced FEV1 and FEV1/FVC, as well as hypoxia and wheezing. However, other conditions such as COPD exacerbation, idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis, and pulmonary embolism would result in a low transfer factor, and are therefore unlikely explanations for the patient’s symptoms.

      Understanding Transfer Factor in Lung Function Testing

      The transfer factor is a measure of how quickly a gas diffuses from the alveoli into the bloodstream. This is typically tested using carbon monoxide, and the results can be given as either the total gas transfer (TLCO) or the transfer coefficient corrected for lung volume (KCO). A raised TLCO may be caused by conditions such as asthma, pulmonary haemorrhage, left-to-right cardiac shunts, polycythaemia, hyperkinetic states, male gender, or exercise. On the other hand, a lower TLCO may be indicative of pulmonary fibrosis, pneumonia, pulmonary emboli, pulmonary oedema, emphysema, anaemia, or low cardiac output.

      KCO tends to increase with age, and certain conditions may cause an increased KCO with a normal or reduced TLCO. These conditions include pneumonectomy/lobectomy, scoliosis/kyphosis, neuromuscular weakness, and ankylosis of costovertebral joints (such as in ankylosing spondylitis). Understanding transfer factor is important in lung function testing, as it can provide valuable information about a patient’s respiratory health and help guide treatment decisions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      59.5
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - Which of the following physiological changes does not take place after a tracheostomy?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following physiological changes does not take place after a tracheostomy?

      Your Answer: Anatomical dead space is reduced by 50%.

      Correct Answer: Work of breathing is increased.

      Explanation:

      HFNC is a popular option for weaning ventilated patients as it reduces work of breathing and humidified air helps to reduce mucous viscosity.

      Anatomy of the Trachea

      The trachea, also known as the windpipe, is a tube-like structure that extends from the C6 vertebrae to the upper border of the T5 vertebrae where it bifurcates into the left and right bronchi. It is supplied by the inferior thyroid arteries and the thyroid venous plexus, and innervated by branches of the vagus, sympathetic, and recurrent nerves.

      In the neck, the trachea is anterior to the isthmus of the thyroid gland, inferior thyroid veins, and anastomosing branches between the anterior jugular veins. It is also surrounded by the sternothyroid, sternohyoid, and cervical fascia. Posteriorly, it is related to the esophagus, while laterally, it is in close proximity to the common carotid arteries, right and left lobes of the thyroid gland, inferior thyroid arteries, and recurrent laryngeal nerves.

      In the thorax, the trachea is anterior to the manubrium, the remains of the thymus, the aortic arch, left common carotid arteries, and the deep cardiac plexus. Laterally, it is related to the pleura and right vagus on the right side, and the left recurrent nerve, aortic arch, and left common carotid and subclavian arteries on the left side.

      Overall, understanding the anatomy of the trachea is important for various medical procedures and interventions, such as intubation and tracheostomy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      29.4
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - A 60-year-old man visits his GP with worries about his hearing in recent...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man visits his GP with worries about his hearing in recent months. He has difficulty understanding conversations in noisy environments and his spouse has commented on his need for the television to be turned up to maximum volume.

      During the examination, the GP conducts some basic tests and finds:

      Rinne's Test - Air conduction > bone conduction in both ears
      Weber's Test - Lateralises to the left ear

      What can be inferred from these test results?

      Your Answer: Right conductive hearing loss

      Correct Answer: Left sensorineural hearing loss

      Explanation:

      The patient has left sensorineural hearing loss, as indicated by the normal Rinne result (air conduction > bone conduction bilaterally) and abnormal Weber result (lateralising to the unaffected ear). In contrast, if the patient had conductive hearing loss, Rinne’s test would show bone conduction > air conduction, and Weber’s test would localise to the worse ear in bilateral conductive hearing loss or the affected ear in unilateral conductive hearing loss. For right sensorineural hearing loss, Rinne’s test would be normal, but Weber’s test would localise to the left ear.

      Rinne’s and Weber’s Test for Differentiating Conductive and Sensorineural Deafness

      Rinne’s and Weber’s tests are used to differentiate between conductive and sensorineural deafness. Rinne’s test involves placing a tuning fork over the mastoid process until the sound is no longer heard, then repositioning it just over the external acoustic meatus. A positive test indicates that air conduction (AC) is better than bone conduction (BC), while a negative test indicates that BC is better than AC, suggesting conductive deafness.

      Weber’s test involves placing a tuning fork in the middle of the forehead equidistant from the patient’s ears and asking the patient which side is loudest. In unilateral sensorineural deafness, sound is localized to the unaffected side, while in unilateral conductive deafness, sound is localized to the affected side.

      The table below summarizes the interpretation of Rinne and Weber tests. A normal result indicates that AC is greater than BC bilaterally and the sound is midline. Conductive hearing loss is indicated by BC being greater than AC in the affected ear and AC being greater than BC in the unaffected ear, with the sound lateralizing to the affected ear. Sensorineural hearing loss is indicated by AC being greater than BC bilaterally, with the sound lateralizing to the unaffected ear.

      Overall, Rinne’s and Weber’s tests are useful tools for differentiating between conductive and sensorineural deafness, allowing for appropriate management and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      18.6
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - A 32-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of sudden shortness of...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of sudden shortness of breath and a sharp pain on the right side of her chest that worsens with inspiration. Upon examination, the doctor observes hyper-resonance and reduced breath sounds on the right side of her chest.

      What is a risk factor for this condition, considering the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Turner's syndrome

      Correct Answer: Cystic fibrosis

      Explanation:

      Pneumothorax can be identified by reduced breath sounds and a hyper-resonant chest on the same side as the pain. Cystic fibrosis is a significant risk factor for pneumothorax due to the frequent chest infections, lung remodeling, and air trapping associated with the disease. While tall, male smokers are also at increased risk, Marfan’s syndrome, not Turner syndrome, is a known risk factor.

      Pneumothorax: Characteristics and Risk Factors

      Pneumothorax is a medical condition characterized by the presence of air in the pleural cavity, which is the space between the lungs and the chest wall. This condition can occur spontaneously or as a result of trauma or medical procedures. There are several risk factors associated with pneumothorax, including pre-existing lung diseases such as COPD, asthma, cystic fibrosis, lung cancer, and Pneumocystis pneumonia. Connective tissue diseases like Marfan’s syndrome and rheumatoid arthritis can also increase the risk of pneumothorax. Ventilation, including non-invasive ventilation, can also be a risk factor.

      Symptoms of pneumothorax tend to come on suddenly and can include dyspnoea, chest pain (often pleuritic), sweating, tachypnoea, and tachycardia. In some cases, catamenial pneumothorax can be the cause of spontaneous pneumothoraces occurring in menstruating women. This type of pneumothorax is thought to be caused by endometriosis within the thorax. Early diagnosis and treatment of pneumothorax are crucial to prevent complications and improve outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      33.4
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - Sophie is a 15-year-old girl who has been brought to your GP clinic...

    Incorrect

    • Sophie is a 15-year-old girl who has been brought to your GP clinic by her father. She has not yet started to develop breasts or have her first period. She does not seem worried, but her father is concerned. Sophie has a history of eczema and has been using topical steroids for several years. When her father leaves the room, she also admits to occasionally using tanning beds.

      What could be a possible cause of delayed puberty in Sophie?

      Your Answer: Obesity

      Correct Answer: Cystic fibrosis

      Explanation:

      Delayed puberty can be caused by various factors, with constitutional delay being the most common cause. However, other causes must be ruled out before diagnosing constitutional delay. Some of these causes include chronic illnesses like kidney disease and Crohn’s disease, malnutrition from conditions such as anorexia nervosa, cystic fibrosis, and coeliac disease, excessive physical exercise, psychosocial deprivation, steroid therapy, hypothyroidism, tumours near the hypothalamo-pituitary axis, congenital anomalies like septo-optic dysplasia and congenital panhypopituitarism, irradiation treatment, and trauma such as surgery or head injury.

      Understanding Cystic Fibrosis: Symptoms and Other Features

      Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder that affects various organs in the body, particularly the lungs and digestive system. The symptoms of cystic fibrosis can vary from person to person, but some common presenting features include recurrent chest infections, malabsorption, and liver disease. In some cases, infants may experience meconium ileus or prolonged jaundice. It is important to note that while many patients are diagnosed during newborn screening or early childhood, some may not be diagnosed until adulthood.

      Aside from the presenting features, there are other symptoms and features associated with cystic fibrosis. These include short stature, diabetes mellitus, delayed puberty, rectal prolapse, nasal polyps, and infertility. It is important for individuals with cystic fibrosis to receive proper medical care and management to address these symptoms and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      25.6
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - A 35-year-old female patient presents to the GP with complaints of headaches, nasal...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old female patient presents to the GP with complaints of headaches, nasal congestion, and facial pain that worsens upon leaning forward. Sinusitis is suspected. Which sinus is typically affected in this condition?

      Your Answer: Maxillary

      Explanation:

      The maxillary sinus is susceptible to infections due to its drainage from the top. This sinus is the most frequently affected in cases of sinusitis. While frontal sinusitis can lead to intracranial complications, it is still less common than maxillary sinusitis.

      The petrosal sinus is not a bone cavity, but rather a venous structure situated beneath the brain.

      Acute sinusitis is a condition where the mucous membranes of the paranasal sinuses become inflamed. This inflammation is usually caused by infectious agents such as Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, and rhinoviruses. Certain factors can predispose individuals to this condition, including nasal obstruction, recent local infections, swimming/diving, and smoking. Symptoms of acute sinusitis include facial pain, nasal discharge, and nasal obstruction. Treatment options include analgesia, intranasal decongestants or nasal saline, and intranasal corticosteroids. Oral antibiotics may be necessary for severe presentations, but they are not typically required. In some cases, an initial viral sinusitis can worsen due to secondary bacterial infection, which is known as double-sickening.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - A 55-year-old man visits his GP complaining of shortness of breath, haemoptysis, and...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man visits his GP complaining of shortness of breath, haemoptysis, and unintentional weight loss over the past 3 months. The GP refers him to the respiratory clinic for suspected lung cancer, and further investigations reveal a stage 2 squamous cell carcinoma of the lung. What is the most frequently associated paraneoplastic phenomenon with this type of cancer?

      Your Answer: Parathyroid hormone-related protein (PTHrP)

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is PTHrP, which is a paraneoplastic syndrome often associated with squamous cell lung cancer. PTHrP is a protein that functions similarly to parathyroid hormone and can cause hypercalcaemia when secreted by cancer cells.

      Acanthosis nigricans is another paraneoplastic phenomenon that is commonly associated with gastric adenocarcinoma. This condition causes hyperpigmentation of skin folds, such as the armpits.

      The syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion is often linked to small cell lung cancer. This condition involves the hypersecretion of ADH, which leads to dilutional hyponatraemia and its associated symptoms.

      Carcinoid syndrome is a paraneoplastic syndrome that is typically associated with neuroendocrine tumours that have metastasised to the liver. This condition causes hypersecretion of serotonin and other substances, resulting in facial flushing, palpitations, and gastrointestinal upset.

      Lung cancer can present with paraneoplastic features, which are symptoms caused by the cancer but not directly related to the tumor itself. Small cell lung cancer can cause the secretion of ADH and, less commonly, ACTH, which can lead to hypertension, hyperglycemia, hypokalemia, alkalosis, and muscle weakness. Lambert-Eaton syndrome is also associated with small cell lung cancer. Squamous cell lung cancer can cause the secretion of parathyroid hormone-related protein, leading to hypercalcemia, as well as clubbing and hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy. Adenocarcinoma can cause gynecomastia and hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy. Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy is a painful condition involving the proliferation of periosteum in the long bones. Although traditionally associated with squamous cell carcinoma, some studies suggest that adenocarcinoma is the most common cause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      15.7
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - A father brings his 5-year-old daughter to the GP with a 72-hour history...

    Correct

    • A father brings his 5-year-old daughter to the GP with a 72-hour history of left ear pain. She has had a cough with coryzal symptoms for the past four days. She has no past medical history, allergies or current medications, and she is up-to-date with her vaccinations. Her temperature is 38.5ºC. No abnormality is detected on examination of the oral cavity. Following otoscopy, what is the most likely causative pathogen for her diagnosis of otitis media?

      Your Answer: Streptococcus pneumoniae

      Explanation:

      Otitis media is primarily caused by bacteria, with viral URTIs often preceding the infection. The majority of cases are secondary to bacterial infections, with the most common culprit being…

      Acute otitis media is a common condition in young children, often caused by bacterial infections following viral upper respiratory tract infections. Symptoms include ear pain, fever, and hearing loss, and diagnosis is based on criteria such as the presence of a middle ear effusion and inflammation of the tympanic membrane. Antibiotics may be prescribed in certain cases, and complications can include perforation of the tympanic membrane, hearing loss, and more serious conditions such as meningitis and brain abscess.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - A 58-year-old man comes to the GP complaining of wheezing, coughing, and shortness...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old man comes to the GP complaining of wheezing, coughing, and shortness of breath. He has a smoking history of 35 pack-years but has reduced his smoking recently.

      The GP orders spirometry, which confirms a diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. The results also show an elevated functional residual capacity.

      What is the method used to calculate this metric?

      Your Answer: Expiratory reserve volume + residual volume

      Explanation:

      Understanding Lung Volumes in Respiratory Physiology

      In respiratory physiology, lung volumes can be measured to determine the amount of air that moves in and out of the lungs during breathing. The diagram above shows the different lung volumes that can be measured.

      Tidal volume (TV) refers to the amount of air that is inspired or expired with each breath at rest. In males, the TV is 500ml while in females, it is 350ml.

      Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) is the maximum volume of air that can be inspired at the end of a normal tidal inspiration. The inspiratory capacity is the sum of TV and IRV. On the other hand, expiratory reserve volume (ERV) is the maximum volume of air that can be expired at the end of a normal tidal expiration.

      Residual volume (RV) is the volume of air that remains in the lungs after maximal expiration. It increases with age and can be calculated by subtracting ERV from FRC. Speaking of FRC, it is the volume in the lungs at the end-expiratory position and is equal to the sum of ERV and RV.

      Vital capacity (VC) is the maximum volume of air that can be expired after a maximal inspiration. It decreases with age and can be calculated by adding inspiratory capacity and ERV. Lastly, total lung capacity (TLC) is the sum of vital capacity and residual volume.

      Physiological dead space (VD) is calculated by multiplying tidal volume by the difference between arterial carbon dioxide pressure (PaCO2) and end-tidal carbon dioxide pressure (PeCO2) and then dividing the result by PaCO2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      12.1
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - A 67-year-old man is admitted to the acute stroke unit following a haemorrhagic...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man is admitted to the acute stroke unit following a haemorrhagic stroke. Three days after admission he complains of pain and swelling in the left calf. A Doppler ultrasound shows large DVT with extension into the upper leg. Given his recent stroke, anticoagulation is contraindicated, however, there is a significant risk of him developing a pulmonary embolus. The decision is made to insert an inferior vena cava (IVC) filter. The registrar inserting the filter is fairly junior, he plans to insert this just above the renal veins, however, asks the consultant if there are any landmarks he can use to guide him. The consultant advises him if he reaches the diaphragm he has gone too far!

      At which vertebral level would the diaphragm be encountered when inserting an IVC filter?

      Your Answer: T12

      Correct Answer: T8

      Explanation:

      The point at which the inferior vena cava passes through the diaphragm is being asked in this question. The correct answer is T8, which is where the IVC crosses the diaphragm through the caval opening. The IVC is formed by the joining of the left and right common iliac veins at around L5.

      In patients who are at high risk of pulmonary embolus and for whom anticoagulation is not effective or contraindicated, an IVC filter can be used. This filter is usually inserted above the renal veins, but it can be placed at any level, including the superior vena cava, if necessary.

      The other options provided in the question, T6, T10, and T11, are not associated with any significant structures. The oesophagus passes through the diaphragm with the vagal trunk at T10.

      Structures Perforating the Diaphragm

      The diaphragm is a dome-shaped muscle that separates the thoracic and abdominal cavities. It plays a crucial role in breathing by contracting and relaxing to create negative pressure in the lungs. However, there are certain structures that perforate the diaphragm, allowing them to pass through from the thoracic to the abdominal cavity. These structures include the inferior vena cava at the level of T8, the esophagus and vagal trunk at T10, and the aorta, thoracic duct, and azygous vein at T12.

      To remember these structures and their corresponding levels, a helpful mnemonic is I 8(ate) 10 EGGS AT 12. This means that the inferior vena cava is at T8, the esophagus and vagal trunk are at T10, and the aorta, thoracic duct, and azygous vein are at T12. Knowing these structures and their locations is important for medical professionals, as they may need to access or treat them during surgical procedures or diagnose issues related to them.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      25
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - A 28-year-old man is found on his bathroom floor next to needles and...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old man is found on his bathroom floor next to needles and syringes and is brought into the hospital. He has a Glasgow coma score of 10 and a bedside oxygen saturation of 88%. On physical examination, he has pinpoint pupils and needle track marks on his left arm. His arterial blood gases are as follows: PaO2 7.4 kPa (11.3-12.6), PaCO2 9.6 kPa (4.7-6.0), pH 7.32 (7.36-7.44), and HCO3 25 mmol/L (20-28). What do these results indicate?

      Your Answer: Acute type II respiratory failure

      Explanation:

      Opiate Overdose

      Opiate overdose is a common occurrence that can lead to slowed breathing, inadequate oxygen saturation, and CO2 retention. This classic picture of opiate overdose can be reversed with the use of naloxone. The condition is often caused by the use of illicit drugs and can have serious consequences if left untreated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      38.1
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - A 65-year-old man presents with a persistent dry cough and unintentional weight loss...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents with a persistent dry cough and unintentional weight loss of 5kg over the past 3 months. He denies experiencing chest pain, dyspnoea, fever or haemoptysis. The patient has a history of smoking 10 cigarettes a day for the last 50 years and has been diagnosed with COPD. A nodule is detected on chest x-ray, and biopsy results indicate a tumour originating from the bronchial glands.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Small cell carcinoma of the lung

      Correct Answer: Adenocarcinoma of the lung

      Explanation:

      Adenocarcinoma has become the most prevalent form of lung cancer, originating from the bronchial glands as a type of non-small-cell lung cancer.

      While a bronchogenic cyst may cause chest pain and dysphagia, it is typically diagnosed during childhood and does not stem from the bronchial glands.

      Sarcoidosis may result in a persistent cough and weight loss, but it typically affects multiple systems and does not involve nodules originating from the bronchial glands.

      Small cell carcinoma of the lung is a significant consideration, but given the description of a tumor originating from the bronchial glands, adenocarcinoma is the more probable diagnosis.

      Lung cancer can be classified into two main types: small cell lung cancer (SCLC) and non-small cell lung cancer (NSCLC). SCLC is less common, accounting for only 15% of cases, but has a worse prognosis. NSCLC, on the other hand, is more prevalent and can be further broken down into different subtypes. Adenocarcinoma is now the most common type of lung cancer, likely due to the increased use of low-tar cigarettes. It is often seen in non-smokers and accounts for 62% of cases in ‘never’ smokers. Squamous cell carcinoma is another subtype, and cavitating lesions are more common in this type of lung cancer. Large cell carcinoma, alveolar cell carcinoma, bronchial adenoma, and carcinoid are other subtypes of NSCLC. Differentiating between these subtypes is crucial as different drugs are available to treat each subtype.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      16.9
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - A 38-year-old male presents to the hospital with recurrent nose bleeds, joint pain,...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old male presents to the hospital with recurrent nose bleeds, joint pain, chronic sinusitis, and haemoptysis for the past 3 days. During the examination, the doctor observes a saddle-shaped nose and a necrotic, purpuric, and blistering plaque on his wrist. The patient reports that he had a small blister a few weeks ago, which has now progressed to this. The blood test results suggest a possible diagnosis of granulomatosis with polyangiitis, and the patient is referred for a renal biopsy. What biopsy findings would confirm the suspected diagnosis?

      Your Answer: No pathological changes found

      Correct Answer: Epithelial crescents in Bowman's capsule

      Explanation:

      Glomerulonephritis is a condition that affects the kidneys and can present with various pathological changes. In rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis, patients may present with respiratory tract symptoms and cutaneous manifestations of vasculitis. Renal biopsy will show epithelial crescents in Bowman’s capsule, indicating severe glomerular injury. Mesangioproliferative glomerulonephritis is characterized by a diffuse increase in mesangial cells and is not associated with respiratory tract symptoms or cutaneous manifestations of vasculitis. Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis involves deposits in the intraglomerular mesangium and is associated with activation of the complement pathway and glomerular damage. It is unlikely to be the diagnosis in the scenario as it is not associated with vasculitis symptoms. A normal nephron architecture would not explain the patient’s symptoms and is an incorrect answer.

      Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis: An Autoimmune Condition

      Granulomatosis with polyangiitis, previously known as Wegener’s granulomatosis, is an autoimmune condition that affects the upper and lower respiratory tract as well as the kidneys. It is characterized by a necrotizing granulomatous vasculitis. The condition presents with various symptoms such as epistaxis, sinusitis, nasal crusting, dyspnoea, haemoptysis, and rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis. Other symptoms include a saddle-shape nose deformity, vasculitic rash, eye involvement, and cranial nerve lesions.

      To diagnose granulomatosis with polyangiitis, doctors perform various investigations such as cANCA and pANCA tests, chest x-rays, and renal biopsies. The cANCA test is positive in more than 90% of cases, while the pANCA test is positive in 25% of cases. Chest x-rays show a wide variety of presentations, including cavitating lesions. Renal biopsies reveal epithelial crescents in Bowman’s capsule.

      The management of granulomatosis with polyangiitis involves the use of steroids, cyclophosphamide, and plasma exchange. Cyclophosphamide has a 90% response rate. The median survival rate for patients with this condition is 8-9 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      28.2
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - A 35-year-old pregnant woman undergoes an ABG test. What is the anticipated outcome...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old pregnant woman undergoes an ABG test. What is the anticipated outcome for a healthy pregnant woman?

      Your Answer: Respiratory alkalosis

      Correct Answer: Compensated respiratory alkalosis

      Explanation:

      During pregnancy, a woman’s increased tidal volume leads to a decrease in carbon dioxide levels, resulting in alkalosis. This is because carbon dioxide generates acid, and reduced levels of it lead to a decrease in acid. The kidneys eventually adapt to this change by reducing the amount of alkaline bicarbonate in the body. Therefore, pregnancy causes a compensated respiratory alkalosis.

      If a woman’s bicarbonate levels remain normal, she would have simple respiratory alkalosis.

      On the other hand, if a woman produces excess acid, she would have metabolic acidosis, which is the opposite of what occurs during pregnancy.

      Arterial Blood Gas Interpretation: A 5-Step Approach

      Arterial blood gas interpretation is a crucial aspect of patient care, particularly in critical care settings. The Resuscitation Council (UK) recommends a 5-step approach to interpreting arterial blood gas results. The first step is to assess the patient’s overall condition. The second step is to determine if the patient is hypoxaemic, with a PaO2 on air of less than 10 kPa. The third step is to assess if the patient is acidaemic (pH <7.35) or alkalaemic (pH >7.45).

      The fourth step is to evaluate the respiratory component of the arterial blood gas results. A PaCO2 level greater than 6.0 kPa suggests respiratory acidosis, while a PaCO2 level less than 4.7 kPa suggests respiratory alkalosis. The fifth step is to assess the metabolic component of the arterial blood gas results. A bicarbonate level less than 22 mmol/l or a base excess less than -2mmol/l suggests metabolic acidosis, while a bicarbonate level greater than 26 mmol/l or a base excess greater than +2mmol/l suggests metabolic alkalosis.

      To remember the relationship between pH, PaCO2, and bicarbonate, the acronym ROME can be used. Respiratory acidosis or alkalosis is opposite to the pH level, while metabolic acidosis or alkalosis is equal to the pH level. This 5-step approach and the ROME acronym can aid healthcare professionals in interpreting arterial blood gas results accurately and efficiently.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - A 44-year-old heavy smoker presents with a productive cough and progressively worsening shortness...

    Correct

    • A 44-year-old heavy smoker presents with a productive cough and progressively worsening shortness of breath on exertion. The patient's spirometry results are forwarded to you in clinic for review.

      Tidal volume (TV) = 400 mL.
      Vital capacity (VC) = 3,300 mL.
      Inspiratory capacity (IC) = 2,600 mL.
      FEV1/FVC = 60%

      Body plethysmography is undertaken, demonstrating a residual volume (RV) of 1,200 mL.

      What is this patient's total lung capacity (TLC)?

      Your Answer: 4,500 mL

      Explanation:

      To calculate the total lung capacity, one can add the vital capacity and residual volume. For example, if the vital capacity is 3300 mL and the residual volume is 1200 mL, the total lung capacity would be 4500 mL. It is important to note that tidal volume, inspiratory capacity, and the FEV1/FVC ratio are other measurements related to lung function. Residual volume refers to the amount of air left in the lungs after a maximal exhalation, while total lung capacity refers to the volume of air in the lungs after a maximal inhalation.

      Understanding Lung Volumes in Respiratory Physiology

      In respiratory physiology, lung volumes can be measured to determine the amount of air that moves in and out of the lungs during breathing. The diagram above shows the different lung volumes that can be measured.

      Tidal volume (TV) refers to the amount of air that is inspired or expired with each breath at rest. In males, the TV is 500ml while in females, it is 350ml.

      Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) is the maximum volume of air that can be inspired at the end of a normal tidal inspiration. The inspiratory capacity is the sum of TV and IRV. On the other hand, expiratory reserve volume (ERV) is the maximum volume of air that can be expired at the end of a normal tidal expiration.

      Residual volume (RV) is the volume of air that remains in the lungs after maximal expiration. It increases with age and can be calculated by subtracting ERV from FRC. Speaking of FRC, it is the volume in the lungs at the end-expiratory position and is equal to the sum of ERV and RV.

      Vital capacity (VC) is the maximum volume of air that can be expired after a maximal inspiration. It decreases with age and can be calculated by adding inspiratory capacity and ERV. Lastly, total lung capacity (TLC) is the sum of vital capacity and residual volume.

      Physiological dead space (VD) is calculated by multiplying tidal volume by the difference between arterial carbon dioxide pressure (PaCO2) and end-tidal carbon dioxide pressure (PeCO2) and then dividing the result by PaCO2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      19.5
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - A 35-year-old patient has been experiencing breathing difficulties for the past year. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old patient has been experiencing breathing difficulties for the past year. He finds it challenging to climb small hills, has developed a persistent cough, and has had two chest infections that were treated effectively by his doctor. He has never smoked, and his mother had comparable symptoms when she was his age. Based on his spirometry results, which indicate an FEV1/FVC ratio of 60%, his doctor suspects that his symptoms are caused by a genetic disorder. What is the molecular mechanism that underlies his probable condition?

      Your Answer: Gain of function mutations in neutrophil elastase

      Correct Answer: Failure to break down neutrophil elastase

      Explanation:

      The patient’s medical history suggests that they may be suffering from alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency.

      When there is a shortage of alpha-1 antitrypsin, neutrophil elastase is not inhibited and can break down proteins in the lung interstitium. Although neutrophil elastase is a crucial part of the innate immune system, its unregulated activity can lead to excessive breakdown of extracellular proteins like elastin, collagen, fibronectin, and fibrin. This results in reduced pulmonary elasticity, which can cause emphysema and COPD.

      Alpha-1 antitrypsin (A1AT) deficiency is a genetic condition that occurs when the liver does not produce enough of a protein called protease inhibitor (Pi). This protein is responsible for protecting cells from enzymes like neutrophil elastase. A1AT deficiency is inherited in an autosomal recessive or co-dominant manner and is located on chromosome 14. The alleles are classified by their electrophoretic mobility, with M being normal, S being slow, and Z being very slow. The normal genotype is PiMM, while heterozygous individuals have PiMZ. Homozygous PiSS individuals have 50% normal A1AT levels, while homozygous PiZZ individuals have only 10% normal A1AT levels.

      A1AT deficiency is most commonly associated with panacinar emphysema, which is a type of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). This is especially true for patients with the PiZZ genotype. Emphysema is more likely to occur in non-smokers with A1AT deficiency, but they may still pass on the gene to their children. In addition to lung problems, A1AT deficiency can also cause liver issues such as cirrhosis and hepatocellular carcinoma in adults, and cholestasis in children.

      Diagnosis of A1AT deficiency involves measuring A1AT concentrations and performing spirometry to assess lung function. Management of the condition includes avoiding smoking and receiving supportive care such as bronchodilators and physiotherapy. Intravenous alpha1-antitrypsin protein concentrates may also be used. In severe cases, lung volume reduction surgery or lung transplantation may be necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      22.7
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - An 75-year-old woman presents to her GP with a 4-month history of dysphagia,...

    Incorrect

    • An 75-year-old woman presents to her GP with a 4-month history of dysphagia, weight loss, and a change in her voice tone. After a nasendoscopy, laryngeal carcinoma is confirmed. The surgical team plans her operation based on a head and neck CT scan. Which vertebrae are likely located posterior to the carcinoma?

      Your Answer: C6-T1

      Correct Answer: C3-C6

      Explanation:

      The larynx is situated in the front of the neck, specifically at the level of the C3-C6 vertebrae. It is positioned below the pharynx and contains the vocal cords that produce sound. The C1-C3 vertebrae are located much higher than the larynx, while the C2-C4 vertebrae cover the area from the oropharynx to the first part of the larynx. The C6-T1 vertebrae are situated behind the larynx and the upper portions of the trachea and esophagus.

      Anatomy of the Larynx

      The larynx is located in the front of the neck, between the third and sixth cervical vertebrae. It is made up of several cartilaginous segments, including the paired arytenoid, corniculate, and cuneiform cartilages, as well as the single thyroid, cricoid, and epiglottic cartilages. The cricoid cartilage forms a complete ring. The laryngeal cavity extends from the laryngeal inlet to the inferior border of the cricoid cartilage and is divided into three parts: the laryngeal vestibule, the laryngeal ventricle, and the infraglottic cavity.

      The vocal folds, also known as the true vocal cords, control sound production. They consist of the vocal ligament and the vocalis muscle, which is the most medial part of the thyroarytenoid muscle. The glottis is composed of the vocal folds, processes, and rima glottidis, which is the narrowest potential site within the larynx.

      The larynx is also home to several muscles, including the posterior cricoarytenoid, lateral cricoarytenoid, thyroarytenoid, transverse and oblique arytenoids, vocalis, and cricothyroid muscles. These muscles are responsible for various actions, such as abducting or adducting the vocal folds and relaxing or tensing the vocal ligament.

      The larynx receives its arterial supply from the laryngeal arteries, which are branches of the superior and inferior thyroid arteries. Venous drainage is via the superior and inferior laryngeal veins. Lymphatic drainage varies depending on the location within the larynx, with the vocal cords having no lymphatic drainage and the supraglottic and subglottic parts draining into different lymph nodes.

      Overall, understanding the anatomy of the larynx is important for proper diagnosis and treatment of various conditions affecting this structure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - A 65-year-old man visited his family doctor with a persistent cough that has...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man visited his family doctor with a persistent cough that has been bothering him for the last six months. He complains of coughing up clear sputum and how it has been affecting his daily life. He has also noticed that he gets short of breath more easily and cannot keep up with his grandchildren. He has a medical history of well-controlled diabetes and dyslipidemia. He attended a smoking cessation program a few months ago, but he finds it challenging to quit smoking after smoking a pack of cigarettes a day for the past 40 years. During the examination, the doctor hears bilateral wheezing with some crackles. The doctor expresses concerns about a possible lung disease due to his long history of smoking and refers him for a pulmonary function test. What is likely to be found during the test?

      Your Answer: The FEV1/FVC ratio is lower than normal as there is a larger decrease in FEV1 than FVC

      Explanation:

      The patient’s prolonged smoking history and current symptoms suggest a diagnosis of chronic bronchitis and possibly emphysema, both of which are obstructive lung diseases. These conditions cause air to become trapped in the lungs, making it difficult to breathe out. Pulmonary function tests typically show a greater decrease in FEV1 than FVC in obstructive lung diseases, resulting in a lower FEV1/FVC ratio (also known as the Tiffeneau-Pinelli index). This is different from restrictive lung diseases, which may sometimes show an increase in the FEV1/FVC ratio due to a larger decrease in FVC than FEV1. Chest X-rays may reveal hyperinflated lungs in patients with obstructive lung diseases. An increase in FEV1 may occur in healthy individuals after exercise training or in patients with conditions like asthma after taking medication. Restrictive lung diseases, such as pneumoconioses, hypersensitivity pneumonitis, and idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis, are typically associated with a decrease in the FEV1/FVC ratio.

      Understanding Pulmonary Function Tests

      Pulmonary function tests are a useful tool in determining whether a respiratory disease is obstructive or restrictive. These tests measure various aspects of lung function, such as forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1) and forced vital capacity (FVC). By analyzing the results of these tests, doctors can diagnose and monitor conditions such as asthma, COPD, pulmonary fibrosis, and neuromuscular disorders.

      In obstructive lung diseases, such as asthma and COPD, the FEV1 is significantly reduced, while the FVC may be reduced or normal. The FEV1% (FEV1/FVC) is also reduced. On the other hand, in restrictive lung diseases, such as pulmonary fibrosis and asbestosis, the FEV1 is reduced, but the FVC is significantly reduced. The FEV1% (FEV1/FVC) may be normal or increased.

      It is important to note that there are many conditions that can affect lung function, and pulmonary function tests are just one tool in diagnosing and managing respiratory diseases. However, understanding the results of these tests can provide valuable information for both patients and healthcare providers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      28.6
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Respiratory System (24/50) 48%
Passmed